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11. Which of the following does not hold true for a parallel resonant circuit? a. At the resonant frequency the impedance of the circuit is a minimum. b. If Q>10, the resonant frequency is the same as it would be if it were a series. c. It is commonly referred to as a tank circuit. d. At the resonant frequency, the circuit draws minimum current from the constant-voltage source. 12. The oscillator design that uses a third capacitor in the tank circuit for swamping out the effect of the transistor's internal capacitances is the a. Hartley design b. Clapp design c. Colpitts design d. Crystal design 13. The ability of a crystal to oscillate at its resonant frequency is due to a. The flywheel effect b. Barkhausen criteria c. The piezoelectric effect d. Frequency synthesis 14. The Barkhausen criteria has to do with a. Receiver noise b. Fourier analysis c. Oscillation d. Troubleshooting 15. Which of the following can be called a troubleshooting plan? a. Symptoms as clues to faulty stages b. Signal tracing and signal injection c. Voltage and resistance measure d. Substitution e. All the above
11. The purpose of an antenna coupler is to a. Match the output impedance of the transmitter with the antenna's impedance to provide maximum power transfer. b. Allow the transmitter to be connected to several antennas at the same time. c. Filter out the carrier frequency from the transmitter's AM output signal. d. Cause the transmitter to operate at more than one carrier frequency at the same time. 12. The main reason for using a dummy antenna is to a. Prevent damage to output circuits. b. Minimize damage to the regular antenna. c. Prevent overmodulation. d. Prevent undesired transmissions. 13. A spectrum analyzer is a. An instrument that displays amplitude versus frequency on a CRT. b. Often used to determine if a transmitter's output signal is free from any spurious signals. c. Can be thought of as a radio receiver with broad frequency range. d. All the above. 14. The strategy for repair of electronic equipment includes the following. a. Verify that a problem exists. b. Isolate the defective stage. c. Isolate the defective component. d. Replace the defective component and hot check. e. All the above. 15. A technique that helps you understand how a carrier and sideband combine to form the AM waveform is a. The tangential method. b. Phasor representation. c. Keying. d. None of the above.
12. The simplest AM detector is the a. Synchronous detector b. Product detector c. Heterodyne detector d. Diode detector 13. Tracking in a superhet receiver is accomplished using a a. Trimmer capacitor b. Padder capacitor c. Varicap diode d. a and b e. All the above 14. If no stations are picked up on the lower half of the AM band, the likely problem is a. Low RF gain b. Poor AGC operation c. IF selectivity d. LO tracking 15. If no sound is heard from a receiver, the most likely problem area is the a. Power supply b. RF section c. Audio amplifier d. AGC diode
b. 3-dB slope per decade c. 6-dB slope per octave d. 6-dB slope per decade 12. An SSB receiver recreates the original intelligence signal by a. Mixing the USB with LSB signals and filtering out the resulting different frequencies b. Filtering out the difference between either sideband and the internally generated carrier signal c. Filtering out the harmonics of the received sideband signal frequencies d. Amplifying the dc term produced by mixing action 13. Common types of balanced modulators include a. Ring modulator b. Phase modulator c. Lattice modulator d. All the above 14. Describe the oscilloscope waveform of an SSB transmitter's balanced modulator if it exhibits carrier leakthrough. a. Trapezoidal wave b. Sinewave c. FM wave d. AM wave 15. The two-tone test is used to a. Test carrier suppression b. Test filter ripple c. Test amplifier linearity d. None of the above
11 In a Crosby FM transmitter, an FM signal having a center frequency of 2.04 Mhz and a deviation of 69 Hz is passed through four cascaded frequency multiplier stages: two triplers, one doubler, and one quadrupler. What type of signal appears at the output of the last multiplier stage? a. Center frequency of 2.04 Mhz and deviation of 4.96 kHz b. Center frequency of 146.88 Mhz and deviation of 4.96 kHz c. Center frequency of 2.04 Mhz and deviation of 69 Hz d. Center frequency of 146.88 Mhz and deviation of 69 Hz 12 The circuitry used to increase the operating frequency of a transmitter up to a specified value is called the a. Multiplier b. Expander c. Pump chain d. All the above 13 The purpose of the matrix network in a stereo FM broadcast transmitter is to a. Mix the 38-kHz pilot carrier with the L R audio b. Convert the L and R channels to L + R and L R channels c. Separate the left channel from the right channel d. Modulate the L + R and L R signals with the carrier signal 14 An FM signal has an intelligence frequency of 5 kHz and a maximum deviation of 25 kHz. Its index of modulation is a. 125 b. 0.2 c. 5 d. 6 15 Frequency multipliers a. Are used to multiply the frequency of the carrier signal of an FM signal b. Consist of a class C amplifier followed by a tank circuit that filters out a single harmonic c. Are used to multiply the frequency deviation of an FM signal d. All the above
b. 79 nW c. 1.26 W d. 2.25 mW 12 The hold-in range for a PLL concerns the a. Range of frequencies in which it will remain locked b. Allowable range of dc voltage c. Allowable range of ac input voltage d. Satisfactory range of operating temperatures 13 The input signal into a PLL is at the a. VCO b. Low-pass filter c. Comparator d. Phase detector 14 The square-law relationship of the FETs input versus output a. Allows for greater sensitivity in an FM receiver b. Provides improved noise performance c. Reduces shot noise d. Minimizes cross-modulation 15 When troubleshooting a stereo demodulator, the input signal should be about a. 10Vrms b. 100Vrms c. 1 mV rms d. 100 mV rms
11 The G.E. Phoenix radio is an example of a. An HF amateur transceiver using AM and SSB modulation modes b. A VHF commercial transceiver using the FM modulation mode and a channel guard function c. A military transceiver using all modes on HF frequencies d. A cellular telephone transceiver 12 The type of radio transmission that uses pseudorandomly switched frequency or time transmissions is known as a. Synthesizing b. Facsimile c. Spread spectrum d. Compression 13 The acronym CDMA refers to . a. Carrier-division multiple-access systems b. Capture-division multiple-access systems c. Code-division multiple-access systems d. Channel-division multiple-access systems 14 A typical problem encountered when troubleshooting a frequency synthesizer is a. A small frequency error b. A large frequency error c. No output d. All the above 15 A transceiver is a. A transmitter that can be tuned to several bands of frequencies b. A transmitter that transmits digital data c. A receiver that receives digital data d. A transmitter and receiver in a single package
12 The value left in the CRC dividing circuit after all data have been shifted in is the a. Quantile interval b. Codec c. BCC d. Syndrome 13 Which of the following is not an example of code error detect ion and correction in a data communication channel? a. Parity b. Frequency-shift keying c. Block-check character d. Hamming code 14 Error-correcting techniques that allow for correction at the receiver are called a. Cyclic redundancy checks (CRC) b. Block-check characters (BCC) c. Forward error correcting (FEC) d. Parity 15 Codes producing random data that closely resemble digit al noise are a. Systematic codes b. PN codes c. Pseudonoise codes d. b and c
12 The major difficulty faced by delta modulators is a. Excessive noise producing errors b. Slope overload c. Insufficient frequency response of the intelligence signal d. Complexity of design 13 The capacity of a telephone channel that has an S/N of 2047 if its bandwidth is 3.5 kHz is a. 30,000 bits per second b. 33,000 bits per second c. 38,500 bits per second d. 35,000 bits per second 14 The AT&T T1 lines a. Use 16-bit PCM code and include 24 voice channels b. Use delta modulation and include 48 voice channels c. Use 8-bit PCM code and include 24 voice channels d. Use delta modulation and include 24 voice channels 15 A digital transmission has an error probability of 1x10-5 and is 1x10-6 long. Its expected number of error bits is a. 1x10-3 b. 1x10-5 c. 1x10-4 d. 1x10-6
12 The following term is not a major concept in cellular phone systems. a. Frequency reuse b. Cell reuse c. Cell splitting d. Handoff 13 In local area networks, the following topology or topologies are seldom used. a. Star b. Ring c. Bus d. a and b 14 The following numeric describing data rates for copper coax and twisted pair is rarely used a. 10 Base 2 b. 10 Base 5 c. 10 Base T d. 100 Base FX e. a and b 15 The xDSL service with the highest projected data rate is a. VDSL b. SDSL c. HDSL d. IDSL e. ADSL
11 The input impedance of a quarter-wavelength section of a 50transmission line that is terminated with a short is a. 50 b. 0 (a short) c. Infinite (open) d. 100
12 A device that is used to match an unbalanced transmission line to a balanced transmission line is called a a. Quarter-wavelength matching transformer b. Balun c. Shorted-stub section d. Slotted line 13 A 50- transmission line with a 300reflection coefficient of a. 6 b. 0.166 c. 0.714 d. 1.4 load impedance has a
14 A cable has an inductance of 1 nH/ft and capacitance of 1 nF/ft. The delay introduced by a 1-ft section is a. N ot able to be calculated with the given information b. c. d. 15 A transmission line can be used as a(n) a. Inductor b. Capacitor c. Filter d. Matching section e. All the above
12 A satellite communication system used by companies such as K-Mart to quickly verify credit cards and check inventory data is called a. VSAT b. MSAT c. SATCOM d. WESTAR 13 A common type of radio wave interference is a. EMI b. Fading c. Reflections d. All the above 14 Diversity reception does not include: a. Space diversity b. Time diversity c. Frequency diversity d. Angle diversity 15 When installing a receiving antenna, you can often overcome diffraction problems by finding a a. Null zone b. Downlink c. Hot spot d. Skip zone
Chapter 13 Antennas
1 The process of interchangeability of receiving and transmitting operations of antennas is known as a. Polarization b. Reciprocity c. Efficiency d. Counterpoise 2 A half-wave dipole antenna is also known as a. Marconi antenna b. Hertz antenna c. Vertical antenna d. Phased array 3 An antenna that is a quarter-wavelength long connected such that the ground acts as a reflecting quarter-wavelength section is called a a. Hertz antenna b. Dipole antenna c. Marconi antenna d. All the above 4 The angular separation between the half-power points on an antenna's radiation pattern is the a. Bandwidth b. Front-to-back ratio c. Lobe distribution d. Beamwidth 5 The input impedance at the center of a dipole antenna is approximately a. 36.6 b. 50 c. 73 d. 300 6 As the height of a half-wavelength antenna is reduced below a quarter-wavelength, the radiation resistance a. Increases b. Decreases c. Remains the same d. All the above 7 A dipole antenna is being fed with a 300 transmission line. If a quarter-wave matching transformer is to be used as the non- resonant matching section, what must be the characteristic impedance of the cable used in the matching transformer? a. 186.5 b. 103.9 c. 122.5 d. 147.9 8 An impedance-matching device that spreads the transmission line as it approaches the antenna is called a a. Delta match b. Quarter-wave matching device c. Director d. Counterpoise 9 A loading coil is often used with a Marconi antenna in order to a. Tune out the capacitive reactance portion of the input impedance of the antenna b. Tune out the inductive reactance portion of the input impedance of the antenna c. Raise the input impedance of the antenna d. Decrease the losses of the antenna 10 Standard AM broadcast stations usually use what type of transmitting antennas? a. Driven collinear array b. Marconi array c. Yagi-Uda d. Log-periodic 11 The type of antenna often found in small AM broadcast receivers is a a. Ferrite loop antenna b. Folded dipole antenna c. Slot antenna d. Log-periodic antenna
12 The folded dipole antenna has a. Greater bandwidth than a half-wave dipole b. A 288- input impedance c. Less bandwidth than a half-wave dipole d.. a and b e. b and c 13 The Yagi-Uda antenna consists of a. A driven director and parasitic reflector b. A driven reflector and parasitic director c. A parasitic director and reflector d. All the above 14 A grid-dip meter measures the resonant frequency of tuned circuits a. By connection in series with the inductance b. By connection in parallel with the inductance c. Without power being applied to the tuned circuit d. By connection in series with the capacitance 15 When troubleshooting antennas, the level of VSWR that indicates a problem is a. Greater than 1 b. Less than 1 c. Greater than 1.5 d. Less than 0.5
12 The use of two grounded conductors that sandwich a smaller conductive strip with constant separation by a dielectric material on a printed circuit board for use at frequencies above 500 Mhz is known as a. Artwork traces b. Dielectric waveguide c. Microstrip/stripline d. MICs or MMICs 13 Second return echoes are a. Echoes produced when the reflected beam makes a second trip b. Echoes that arrive after the transmission of the next pulse c. Echoes caused by the PRT being too long d. All the above 14 The characteristic wave impedance for waveguides is a. 75 b. 377 c. Dependent on frequency d. Dependent on waveguide shape e. c and d 15 A dielectric waveguide is a. Enclosed by a conducting material b. A waveguide with just a dielectric c. Dependent on the principle that two dissimilar dielectrics can guide waves d. b and c
13 Which of the following represent typical failure mode(s) for a TW T amplifier? a. Low gain b. Spurious modulation c. Poor frequency response d. Low RF output e. All the above 14 W hich of t he follow ing is not used as a micr ow ave ant enna? a. Patch antenna b. Marconi antenna c. Lens antenna d. Horn antenna 15 Compared to linear power supplies, switching power supplies are a. Less efficient b. More efficient c. Simpler d. Heavier
Chapter 16 Television
1 A television transmitter actually transmits two signals at once. They are a. An amplitude-modulated video signal and frequency- modulated audio signal b. Two amplitude-modulated signals: video and audio c. An amplitude-modulated audio signal and frequency- modulated video signal d. Two frequency-modulated signals: video and audio 2 The most widely used type of TV camera is the a. Charge couple device b. Vidicon c. Image orthicon d. Iconoscope 3 Synchronizing pulses that consist of equalizing pulses, followed by serrations, followed by more equalizing pulses at a rate of 60 times per second are called a. Color synchronizing pulses b. Horizontal retrace pulses c. Vertical retrace pulses d. Eight-cycle back-porch pulses 4 The frame frequency for U.S. television broadcasts is approximately a. 30 frames per second b. 40 frames per second c. 60 frames per second d. 100 frames per second 5 Channel 12 on U.S. television extends from 204 to 210 Mhz. The channel 12 carrier frequency is approximately a. 204.5 Mhz b. 205.25 Mhz c. 211.25 Mhz d. 211.75 Mhz 6 The length of time an image stays on the screen after the signal is removed is termed a. Retention b. Flicker c. Persistence d. Back porch 7 Which is not part of the tuner section of a TV receiver? a. The rf amplifier stage b. The mixer stage c. The local oscillator stage d. The video-detector stage 8 The stage in a TV receiver that filters out the vertical and horizontal ret race pulses from the video signal is the a. Video detector b. Video IF amplifier c. Sync separator d. Sound detector 9 The winding around the CRT yoke that deflects the electron beam with its magnetic field is called the a. Coil b. Yoke c. Deflector d. Magneto 10 A cumbersome series of adjustments to a color TV receiver in a. Alignment b. Convergence c. Interleaving d. Interlacing
11 A fault y TV r eceiver having sympt oms of nor mal sound and raster but no picture must have a problem in the a. Horizontal or vertical oscillator or high-voltage power supply b. Main power supply c. Video amplifiers following the sound takeoff d. RF, IF, or video amplifiers prior to the sound takeoff 12 Raster refers to a. CRT illumination by scan lines when no signal is being received b. CRT resolution c. CRT aspect ratio d. All the above 13 The high voltage for the anode of the CRT is obtained from the lowvoltage power supply using a. Its power-line transformer b. The yoke coil c. The vertical oscillator d. The flyback transformer 14 The introduction of digital television in the United States has been hampered by a. Delays in chip designs b. Shortages of appropriate chips c. Customer rejection d. Less than ideal regulatory climate 15 When a digital picture freezes even when there is motion in the video, it is a. due to bandwidth problems b. Called a pixelate c. Due to noise d. b and c