CompTIA 220-701 A+ Essentials 100-Question Practice Exam Developed for www.GetCertified4Less.

com (Author to remain anonymous) This practice exam has been developed exclusively for GetCertified4Less.Com. Answers and explanations on last pages. 1. What is the name of a new improved functionality introduced in Windows 7 that allows for managing different types of files in a structure similar to Windows folder? A. Library B. Cluster C. Partition D. Media Center 2. Encryption standards designed for securing wireless networks include: (Select two answers) A. WAN B. WAP C. WPA D. WEP 3. A. B. C. D. EMI and RFI are examples of: Motherboard specifications Energy saving standards Interference Cable ratings

4. Which of the following devices may pose a risk to electrical safety due to accumulated high voltage? A. CRTs B. Power supplies C. Inverters D. Laser printers E. All of the above devices and components require high AC voltage and may pose a risk to a technician's safety 5. A. B. C. D. 6. A. B. C. D. XGA (eXtended Graphics Array) uses a resolution of: 640 x 480 800 x 600 1024 x 768 1280 x 1024 Physical device on a SCSI bus is identified by its unique: Logical Unit Number (LUN) SCSI ID Originally Unique Identifier (OUI) physical address

7. Verifying full system functionality should be the last step in the troubleshooting process methodology. A. True B. False 8. What is the name of a hardware device that allows for administering multiple hosts with the use of a single mouse, keyboard, and computer screen? A. Microsoft Management Console (MMC) B. Device Manager C. Docking station D. KVM switch

9. Which of the following Windows utilities are used to perform preventative maintenance tasks? (Select all that apply) A. chkdsk B. vol C. defrag D. ver 10. Which of the following are memory form factors used in laptops? (Select two answers) A. AGP B. SO-DIMM C. C-RIMM D. SO-RIMM 11. A Windows utility used for browsing logs related to application events, user activity, and hardware or network failures is called: A. Device Manager B. Control Panel C. Event Viewer D. Performance Monitor 12. Which of the following servers dynamically assigns IP addresses? A. DHCP B. DNS C. WINS D. SMTP 13. Windows system utility used for displaying details about computer's hardware configuration, computer components, and software (including drivers) is called: A. nslookup B. msconfig C. ipconfig D. msinfo32 14. Which Windows versions include a security feature that prompts for administrator password when a program is about to make a change that requires administrator-level permission? (Select two answers) A. Windows Me B. Windows Vista C. Windows 7 D. Windows XP 15. RAID Level 0: (Select three answers) A. is also referred to as striped disk array B. offers no fault tolerance C. requires at least two drives to implement D. is also referred to as disk mirroring E. requires at least three drives to implement 16. What is the maximum speed supported by the USB 1.1 standard? A. 1.5 Mbps B. 12 Mbps C. 480 Mbps D. 3.2 Gbps 17. Which of the following terms refers to replacing computer system components without shutting down the system? A. Standby B. Auto-switching C. Hot swapping D. Reboot

18. A feature that can be found in some types of PC Power Supply Units that allows a PSU to automatically adapt to the AC voltage supplied from the power socket is called: A. Hot swapping B. Fixed-input C. Inverter D. auto-switching 19. Which mode in Windows saves the system state in RAM and puts the computer into a power-saving state? A. G0 B. Standby C. G3 D. Hibernate 20. Which mode in Windows saves the system state information to a hard disk and puts a computer into a power-saving state? A. Standby B. Safe mode C. Hibernate D. Sleep timer 21. A technology that allows to turn on a network computer remotely by sending a special data packet is called: A. Wake on LAN B. Ping C. WINS D. Automated System Recovery (ASR) 22. HyperText Transfer Protocol (HTTP) runs over TCP port: A. 23 B. 110 C. 25 D. 80 23. Which of the following is an example of biometric authentication? A. Password B. Smart card C. Fingerprint scanner D. User name 24. Which of the following terms refers to a microchip embedded on the motherboard of a personal computer or laptop that can store keys, passwords and digital certificates? A. FRU B. EFS C. TPM D. HCL 25. A list of hardware and devices that have been tested to work with a given operating system published by the operating system vendor is also known as: A. MSDS B. HCL C. SSID D. ACL 26. What is the name of a network access control method used to grant or deny access to the network based on the physical address of Network Interface Card (NIC)? A. MAC filtering B. WPA C. SSID D. ACL

27. A computer component that can be quickly replaced on-site is also referred to as: A. TPM B. HCL C. EFS D. FRU 28. Which of the following statements regarding the RJ-45 connector are true? (Select two answers) A. RJ-45 is used with twisted-pair cabling B. RJ-45 connects the cable to the phone outlet C. RJ-45 is used with fiber-optic cabling D. RJ-45 connects the cable to the network adapter 29. Which of the following should be the first step in the troubleshooting process? A. Establishing a plan of action to resolve the problem and implementing the solution B. Documenting findings, actions and outcomes C. Identification of the problem D. Verifying full system functionality 30. A document containing information for the safe handling, use, storage and disposal of potentially hazardous materials is also referred to as: A. MBSA B. MAU C. MSDS D. DLT 31. Service Set Identifier (SSID) is another term for: A. MAC address B. TCP/IP stack C. The name of a Wireless Local Area Network (WLAN) D. Windows workgroup 32. Which of the following is the most secure way of removing data from a magnetic hard drive? A. High-level formatting B. Degaussing C. Moving files to Recycle Bin D. Partitioning 33. IEEE 802.11 is a set of standards for implementing: A. Ethernet B. Token ring networks C. Fiber-optic communication D. Wireless Local Area Networks (WLANs) 34. Which of the following cabling types are used with RJ-45 connectors? (Select all that apply) A. STP B. Fiber-optic C. Twisted pair D. UTP 35. What are the characteristics of tape drives? (Select three answers) A. Magnetic media B. High capacity C. Lack of moving parts D. Low capacity E. Slow seek times

36. SXGA+ (Super eXtended Graphics Array Plus) display standard uses a resolution of: A. 1400 x 1050 B. 1600 x 1200 C. 1024 x 768 D. 1920 x 1200 37. The resolution an LCD monitor was designed to display based on its size providing the best display settings is also known as a native resolution. A. True B. False 38. What is the name of a device that apart from allowing for connecting a laptop to a full-sized monitor, keyboard and other peripheral devices also allows for attaching secondary storage devices such as additional hard drives, floppy drives, or optical drives? A. Managed switch B. Port replicator C. PCI slot D. Docking station 39. Which of the following terms refers to a computer user-interface using a pen (or stylus) and tablet, rather than devices such as a keyboard, joysticks or a mouse? A. Nettop B. Desktop replacement C. Pen computing D. HDMI 40. Which of the following terms refer to RAID Level 1? (Select two answers) A. Disk striping B. Disk mirroring C. Disk duplexing D. Disk striping with distributed parity 41. What is the maximum allowable cable length defined in the Parallel ATA (PATA) interface standard? A. 1 meter B. 18 inches C. 2 meters D. 5 meters 42. Which type of motherboard uses a riser card near the edge of the board? A. BTX B. micro ATX C. ATX D. NLX 43. The 6-pin Mini-DIN connector attached to a green PS/2 port is used for connecting: A. Mouse B. Keyboard C. Speaker D. Monitor 44. The 6-pin Mini-DIN connector attached to a purple PS/2 port is used for connecting: A. Speaker B. Monitor C. Keyboard D. Mouse

45. Communication that happens in two directions simultaneously is also referred to as: A. Full-duplex B. Point-to-multipoint C. Simplex D. Half-duplex 46. Which of the following protocols is used for sending e-mail messages? A. SMTP B. POP3 C. HTTPS D. Telnet 47. A memory cache on the processor chip is known as: A. DRAM B. Level 1 (L1) cache C. VRAM D. Level 2 (L2) cache 48. What is adware? A. Unsolicited or undesired electronic messages B. Malicious program that sends copies of itself to other computers on the network C. Software that displays advertisements D. Malicious software that collects information about users without their knowledge 49. Which of the following IEEE 802.11 standards has the shortest range? A. 802.11b B. 802.11g C. 802.11n D. 802.11a 50. In computer security, the practice of obtaining confidential information by manipulating people is also known as: A. Mantrap B. Vulnerability C. Hacking D. Social engineering 51. What is the bit length of IPv4 address? A. 64 bits B. 32 bits C. 128 bits D. 48 bits 52. In half-duplex communication transmission takes place: A. In two directions simultaneously B. Only in one direction at a time C. In one direction only D. In one direction at half the speed 53. Which of the following are Windows tools for migrating user data and user information to a new computer? (Select three answers) A. USMT B. Windows Easy Transfer C. CHKDSK D. Files and Settings Transfer Wizard E. MBSA

54. What is the name of a Windows command-line utility that displays TCP/IP configuration settings? A. ifconfig B. dxdiag C. ipconfig D. msconfig 55. Allowing a program through a firewall is also known as creating: A. Event B. Static route C. Exception D. Tunnel 56. Software that performs unwanted and harmful actions in disguise of a legitimate and useful program is also referred to as: A. Logic bomb B. Spyware C. Trojan horse D. Adware 57. Which of the following terms refers to a device or software application designed to detect malicious activities and violations of security policies on a network and/or computer host? A. HAL B. DMZ C. IPX D. IDS 58. Safe Mode in Microsoft Windows can be accessed by pressing: A. F8 key B. F12 key C. F6 key D. F1 key 59. Windows device drivers tested by Microsoft are known as: A. Updated drivers B. OEM C. Signed drivers D. WHQL 60. A list of devices that a computer can boot from can be configured through: A. Device Manager B. BIOS C. Control Panel D. Master Boot Record (MBR) 61. Which of the following statements apply to Windows workgroups? (Select three answers) A. Security policies and permissions in workgroups are administered centrally B. Logging on to any computer on the workgroup requires a single account C. Workgroups typically consist of no more than twenty computers D. There is no limit on the number of hosts that can become a part of a single workgroup E. Logging on to any computer in the workgroup requires an account on that computer F. Each computer in the workgroup has its own security policy 62. File Transfer Protocol (FTP) runs on TCP port number: (Select two answers) A. 20 B. 21 C. 22 D. 23 E. 25

63. Which of the following are the features supported by the New Technology File System (NTFS)? (Select best answer) A. Object permissions B. Encryption C. Compression D. All of the above features are supported by NTFS 64. Which of the following protocols allows for remote login from one host to another? A. HTTPS B. POP3 C. Telnet D. SMTP 65. What is the name of a command-line utility used for checking the reachability of a remote host? A. DxDiag B. Ping C. cmd D. regedit 66. Which of the following statements apply to Windows domains? (Select three answers) A. Logging on to any computer on the Windows domain requires a single set of credentials B. Security policies and permissions on the Windows domain are administered centrally C. Windows domains are based on the Peer-to-Peer networking architecture D. Each computer on the Windows domain has its own security policy E. Windows domains are based on the Client-Server networking architecture F. All members of the Windows domain must be on the same local network or subnet 67. What is the name of a Windows tool used for identifying problems that might prevent Windows from starting correctly? A. systray B. msinfo32 C. msconfig D. cmd.exe 68. Which of the following components is an example of CPU passive cooling? A. Chipset B. Computer case C. Heat sink D. Cooling fan 69. WUXGA (Widescreen Ultra eXtended Graphics Array) display standard uses a resolution of: A. 1400 x 1050 B. 1600 x 1200 C. 1024 x 768 D. 1920 x 1200 70. Which of the following terms refers to a Windows utility used for performing tasks on a computer without the use of graphical interface? A. dxdiag B. cmd.exe C. msinfo32 D. msconfig 71. PGA and LGA are examples of: A. Motherboard form factors B. Bus architectures C. CPU housing types D. Memory slots

72. In Microsoft Windows, the long horizontal bar at the bottom of the screen is called: A. Windows Aero B. Taskbar C. Task Manager D. Desktop 73. FireWire is another term for which of the following standards? A. IEEE 802.11 B. IEEE 1284 C. IEEE 802.3 D. IEEE 1394 74. Which of the following devices can cause disruptions in wireless network connectivity? (Select all that apply) A. Cordless phone B. Baby monitor C. Microwave oven D. Ethernet switch 75. Which of the following industry standards defines parallel communication interface? A. FireWire B. IEEE 1284 C. USB D. IEEE 1394 76. In Microsoft Windows, this folder allows for accessing locations such as hard disks, optical drives, and removable media. A. My Computer B. Control Panel C. iexplore.exe D. Task Manager 77. Which of the following are used for the purpose of authentication? (Select all that apply) A. User name and password B. Mandatory Access Control (MAC) C. Smart card D. Discretionary Access Control (DAC) E. Fingerprint scanner 78. Software that cannot be clearly classified as malware is also referred to as: A. Grayware B. Rootkit C. Logic bomb D. Trojan horse 79. Which of the following are the two main CPU manufacturers for personal computers? (Select two answers) A. Intel B. Asus C. Nvidia D. AMD 80. Devices that connect to ports on the back of computer case are commonly referred to as: A. Plug and play B. Integrated C. Peripheral devices D. Docking devices

81. Which of the following is used to improve heat dissipation from the CPU? A. Backplane B. Thermal compound C. Semiconductor D. HVAC 82. Static RAM (SRAM) is slower than Dynamic RAM (DRAM). A. True B. False 83. Which of the following is an example of good communication skills when dealing with a customer? A. Argue with a technical user if necessary to educate them B. Rely on your own judgement and do not restate and clarify what the customer says C. Ask close-ended questions to let the customer answer with a simple "yes" or "no" D. Listen to the customer and do not interrupt until he or she finishes describing the problem 84. Dot-matrix and daisy-wheel printers fall into the category of: A. Ink-jet printers B. Impact printers C. Laser printers D. Thermal printers 85. Surge protector is a device designed to safeguard the computer from: A. Voltage spikes B. Brownouts C. Power outage D. Blackouts 86. POST card: A. Terminates the SCSI chain B. Is used in biometric authentication C. Helps in troubleshooting computer startup problems D. Is used to check proper functioning of the Network Interface Card (NIC) 87. Which of the following would be the best choice for cleaning the inside of computer case? (Select two answers) A. Contact cleaner B. Damp cloth C. Vacuum cleaner D. Compressed air 88. Which of the following tools are used to protect against ESD? (Select all that apply) A. Tech bench B. Antistatic bag C. Ground mat D. Antistatic wrist strap 89. C-RIMM: A. Is a type of RAM used in laptops B. Offers higher speeds than DRAM C. Detects and corrects memory errors D. Is a place holder module with no memory chips 90. What is the last step in the laser printing process? A. Writing B. Fusing C. Cleaning D. Charging

91. Which of the following are the contents of Master Boot Record (MBR)? (Select two answers) A. Master boot program B. Partition table C. Device drivers D. User account information E. Windows registry 92. Which type of printer has the capability of printing multi copy documents? A. Laser B. Dot-matrix printer C. Ink-jet D. Thermal 93. How many pins a floppy disk cable has? A. 50 pins B. 34 pins C. 68 pins D. 80 pins 94. DVD region code setting can be changed: A. 3 times B. 5 times C. 0 times D. there is no limit 95. Which of the following is the maximum speed supported by the IEEE 1394b interface? A. 480 Mbps B. 400 Mbps C. 12 Mbps D. 800 Mbps 96. What is the maximum cable length for USB devices? A. 5 meters B. 1 meter C. 4.5 meters D. 18 inches 97. Which of the following are used to mark the delay in RAM response time? (Select two answers) A. RAS B. ECC C. CAS D. RTC 98. Cable length for FireWire devices is limited to: A. 2 meters B. 5 meters C. 18 inches D. 4.5 meters 99. What is the name of a database in Windows that contains important information about system hardware, installed programs and settings, and profiles of each of the user accounts? A. BIOS B. SAM C. Registry D. Hive

100. Placing print jobs in a queue is also referred to as: A. Spooling B. Dumping C. Transferring D. Preprocessing

ANSWERS 1. Answer: A. Library Explanation: Windows library works like a regular Windows folder providing access to different files and folders in one place, but unlike folder which actually stores the data the library is a manageable collection of short cuts to different files and folders which might be stored in various locations including external hard drives or remote computers. 2. Answers: C and D. WPA and WEP Explanation: Wi-Fi Protected Access (WPA) and Wired Equivalent Privacy (WEP) are encryption standards designed for securing wireless networks. WEP is an older standard and due to its vulnerabilities is not recommended. Wide Area Network (WAN) refers to a network or group of networks that span a large geographical area. Wireless Access Point (WAP) connects wireless nodes to wireless or wired networks. 3. Answer: C. Interference Explanation: Electromagnetic Interference (EMI) and Radio Frequency Interference (RFI) are two types of interference that can disrupt the operation of wired and wireless networks. One of the protective measures against EMI in wired networks is cable shielding. Radio Frequency Interference (RFI) is a type of EMI that occurs in radio frequency range and can cause disruptions in the operation of wireless networks (the most common effects of RFI include intermittent connectivity loss and low data transmission rates). 4. Answer: E. All of the above devices require high AC voltage and may pose a risk to electrical safety Explanation: Although most of the PC components require low voltage DC power to operate (3.3 and 5.0 volts for electronic components, 12.0 volts for mechanical parts), some PC devices need high voltage AC power and may pose a risk to electrical safety even when unplugged. PC power supplies convert high AC voltage into low voltage DC current, and capacitors inside the PC power supply can hold high electric charge for a period of time even when the device is unplugged. Older types of monitors based on the cathode ray tube (CRT) technology can also retain high voltages even if the power is disconnected. Laser printing process relies on extremely high voltages and working on the inside of the laser printer case while the device is switched on poses risk of electrocution. Liquid Crystal Display (LCD) monitors use low voltage DC power, but also include inverters which transform DC power back into AC power needed by the panel backlights. Troubleshooting all of those devices and components requires specialized skills. 5. Answer: C. 1024 x 768 Explanation: XGA (eXtended Graphics Array) supports screen resolution of up to 1024 x 768. VGA (Video Graphics Array) standard supports screen resolution of up to 640 x 480. Resolution of 800 x 600 is used by the SVGA (Super VGA) standard. 1280 x 1024 refers to SXGA (Super XGA) resolution standard. 6. Answer: B. SCSI ID Explanation: SCSI ID identifies the physical device on a SCSI chain. If the SCSI device has some further devices embedded in it, each of those devices is identified with the use of a Logical Unit Number (LUN). Originally Unique Identifier (OUI) refers to the first half of the Media Access Control (MAC) address of the Network Interface Card (NIC), and is used to identify the manufacturer of the card. The term physical address is another term for the MAC address.

7. Answer: B. False Explanation: The last step of the troubleshooting process methodology involves documenting findings, actions and outcomes, and comes after verifying full system functionality.

8. Answer: D. KVM switch Explanation: Keyboard, Video, Mouse (KVM) switch is a hardware device for administering multiple hosts from a single computer. Microsoft Management Console (MMC) is a software utility that hosts and displays Microsoft software administrative tools (also known as snap-ins) used for managing Windows. Device Manager is a Windows utility for checking and modifying system hardware configuration. Docking stations are hardware devices that expand laptop capabilities by providing ports for connecting peripheral devices and additional secondary storage devices such as hard, floppy, or optical drives. 9. Answers: A and C. chkdsk and defrag Explanation: chkdsk is a Windows utility used for checking disk, fixing errors on the disk, and displaying status report. defrag utility in Windows improves system performance by consolidating fragmented files. Windows ver and vol commands have no other use than providing information on Microsoft Windows version (ver command) and displaying volume label and serial number (vol command). 10. Answers: B and D. SO-DIMM and SO-RIMM Explanation: Small outline DIMMs (SO-DIMMs) and small outline RIMMs (SO-RIMMs) are the memory module types used in laptops. Continuity RIMMs (C-RIMMs) are place holder modules with no memory chips. Accelerated Graphics Port (AGP) is a video bus designed specifically for graphics cards. 11. Answer: C. Event Viewer Explanation: Event Viewer is a Windows utility for monitoring system health and troubleshooting problems with applications, operating system, and hardware. Event Viewer allows for browsing and managing event logs. The most common logs available in Event Viewer include Application, System, and Security logs. Depending on the severity of the event, Application and System logs display events that fall into three categories: Information, Warning, and Error. Information events denote normal operation of the system (such as starting and stopping of system services, or successful completion of some routine background tasks), Warning events point to non-critical errors (for example when installation of a software component fails because the component is already on the system), Error events point to serious issues, for example when programs stop responding and need to be closed by Windows. Security log contains events such as valid and invalid logon attempts, as well as events related to resource use, such as creating, opening, or deleting files or other objects. Securityrelated events are called audits and inform only about success or failure of an event. Administrators can specify what events are recorded in the Security log (for example in order to monitor attempts at logging on to the system). 12. Answer: A. DHCP Explanation: Dynamic IP addresses are managed by Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) server. DNS servers resolve host names to IP addresses. WINS servers resolve NetBIOS names to IP addresses in Windows networks. SMTP servers handle electronic mail (e-mail) messages. 13. Answer: D. msinfo32 Explanation: Windows utility that displays details about computer's hardware configuration, computer components, and software (including drivers) is called msinfo32. nslookup displays information about domain names and their corresponding IP addresses. msconfig is a Windows utility that allows for turning on and off common Windows services and programs in order to identify Windows startup problems. ipconfig is a command-line tool for displaying TCP/IP network configuration information on Windows.

14. Answers: B and C. Windows Vista and Windows 7 Explanation: Windows Vista and Windows 7 include the User Account Security (UAC) feature which displays a prompt for administrator password when a program is about to make a change that requires an administrator-level permission. UAC was introduced in Windows Vista and is also present in Windows 7, but wasn't available in earlier Windows releases prior to Vista, such as Windows Me or XP. 15. Answers: A B and C. RAID Level 0: is also referred to as striped disk array, offers no fault tolerance, requires at least two drives to implement Explanation: Redundant Array of Independent Disks (RAID) is a collection of different data storage schemes (referred to as RAID levels) that allow for combining multiple hard disks into a single logical unit in order to increase fault tolerance and performance. RAID Level 0 breaks data into fragments called blocks and each block of data is written to a separate disk drive. This greatly improves performance as every physical disk drive handles only a part of the workload related to write and read operations. Each consecutive physical drive included in this type of array improves the speed of read/write operations by adding more hardware resources to handle decreasing amount of workload. The main disadvantage of RAID 0 is that it doesn't offer any fault tolerance. Each drive holds only part of the information and in case of failure of any of the drives there is no way to rebuild the array which in turn results in the loss of all data. 16. Answer: B. 12 Mbps Explanation: USB version 1.1 offers two data transfer speeds: 1.5 Mbps (sometimes referred to as "Low-Speed" and designed for low data rate peripherals such as joysticks) and 12 Mbps (sometimes referred to as "Full-Speed" and designed for higher-speed devices such as disk drives). USB version 2.0 (officially labelled as "Hi-Speed") allows for transfer rates of 480 Mpbs and is backward-compatible with the earlier versions. USB 3.0 standard (officially marketed as "SuperSpeed") has transmission rates of up to 5 Gbps and is backwards compatible with USB 2.0. 17. Answer: C. Hot swapping Explanation: Replacing computer system components without shutting down the system and with minimal disruption to the operation of the system is also referred to as hot swapping. 18. Answer: D. Auto-switching Explanation: Power supplies may accept an AC current of 110-120 volts (standard AC current in the United States and Canada) or 220-240 volts (European AC standard). A PSU might have either a manual selector switch on the back of the device for adjusting the supplied voltage (these types of PSUs are referred to as fixed-input devices), or automatically adapt to the supplied AC voltage (auto-switching PSUs). 19. Answer: B. Standby Explanation: Standby mode is one of the power management modes that can be found in the earlier versions of Windows (prior to Vista). Standby mode saves the system state in RAM and puts a computer into a power-saving state by disconnecting power to certain components and peripherals (such as monitors and hard drives). The system can be brought back to its previous state with all the open applications and documents by pressing the power button or on command, and this mode allows to get back to all the tasks much quicker than in case of a normal computer shutdown and restart.

20. Answer: C. Hibernate Explanation: Hibernate mode in Windows saves the system state to a hard disk. The difference between standby and hibernate mode is that hibernate mode allows to safely power off the computer whereas standby mode relies on RAM which still needs a supply of power to be able to store the system state information (a computer in a standby mode cannot be powered off completely without losing this data). In case of complete power outage while in standby mode the system state data stored in RAM will be lost. In a similar situation, hibernate mode allows to bring the system back to its saved state with all the open applications and documents by pressing the power button. 21. Answer: A. Wake on LAN Explanation: Technology that allows to turn on a network computer remotely by sending a special data packet (aka Magic Packet) is called Wake on LAN. Ping is a command-line utility that allows to check for reachability of a remote host. Windows Internet Name Service (WINS) translates host names to network addresses in Microsoft networks and has a similar function to DNS. Automated System Recovery (ASR) is a set of tools and utilities in Windows XP and Windows Server 2003 used for system recovery in case of a serious system error (when Windows is unable to start). In Windows Vista and Windows 7 similar set of tools is available in the System Recovery Options menu on the Windows installation disc. 22. Answer: D. 80 Explanation: HyperText Transfer Protocol (HTTP) runs over TCP port number 80. TCP port 23 is used by Telnet. TCP port 110 is used by Post Office Protocol version 3 (POP3). TCP port 25 is reserved for the Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP). 23. Answer: C. fingerprint scanner Explanation: In computer security, user's identity can be verified either by examining something that the user knows (a user name or password), something that the user has (a physical object such as smart card), or something that the user is (unique trait of every single person such as finger print or pattern of a human eye iris). Biometric authentication systems are based on examining the unique traits of a user and fingerprint scanner is an example of a biometric device. 24. Answer: C. TPM Explanation: Trusted Platform Module (TPM) is a specification, published by the Trusted Computing Group (TCG), for a microcontroller that can store secured information, and also the general name of implementations of that specification. Trusted Platform Modules are hardware based security microcontrollers that store keys, passwords and digital certificates and protect this data from external software attacks and physical theft. TPMs are usually embedded on the motherboard of a personal computer or laptop, but they can also be used in other devices such as mobile phones or network equipment. 25. Answer: B. HCL Explanation: Hardware Compatibility List (HCL) is an official list of hardware components and peripheral devices that have been tested to work with a given operating system. HCLs are usually published by the operating system vendors but can also be maintained by users. In addition to the information published on the vendor's site, some operating system vendors also offer software programs that scan for potential issues with hardware, devices, and installed programs before upgrade. One of the examples of such software is Upgrade Advisor utility from Microsoft. 26. Answer: A. MAC filtering Explanation: Network access control method based on the physical address (MAC address) of the Network Interface Card (NIC) is called MAC filtering or MAC address filtering. 48-bit MAC address is a unique number assigned to every network adapter. Wireless Access Point can have a certain MAC address blacklisted or whitelisted and based on the entry on either of the lists grant or deny access to the network.

27. Answer: D. FRU Explanation: Field Replaceable Unit (FRU) is a term used in reference to the computer component that can be quickly replaced on-site eliminating the need to send the entire device to the repair facility. Examples of FRUs include memory modules, expansion cards, or power supplies. 28. Answers: A and D. RJ-45 is used with twisted-pair cabling and RJ-45 connects the cable to the network adapter Explanation: RJ-45 (Registered Jack 45) is a type of connector used in Ethernet networks. RJ-45 works with twisted-pair copper cabling and is used for connecting cable to the Network Interface Card (NIC). Registered Jack is a series of standardized connectors and wiring patterns. RJ-45 is one of the two RJ connectors mentioned in the 220-701 exam objectives. Another one, called RJ11, is smaller in size than RJ-45 and can be found on telephones and telephone sockets. 29. Answer: C. Identification of the problem Explanation: Identification of the problem should be the first step in the troubleshooting process recommended by CompTIA. This step includes questioning the user, identifying user changes to computer, and performing backups of user data. The other optional answers in this question refer to the last three steps of the troubleshooting process. Documentation of findings, actions and outcomes should come as the very last troubleshooting step after verifying full system functionality, and verification of full system functionality should take place after implementing the actual solution to the problem. 30. Answer: C. MSDS Explanation: Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS) is a document containing information for the safe handling, use, storage and disposal of potentially hazardous materials. An MSDS for a computer component, for example a laptop battery, contains information on the substance used in battery manufacturing and its toxicity, first aid measures and extinguishing methods in case of electrolyte leakage and catching fire, instructions on handling, storage, transport and safe disposal of the battery. 31. Answer: C. The name of a Wireless Local Area Network (WLAN) Explanation: Service Set Identifier (SSID) is another term for the name of a Wireless Local Area Network (WLAN). Many wireless networks advertise their presence by regularly broadcasting the SSID in a special packet called beacon frame. In wireless networks with disabled security features knowing the network SSID is enough to get access to the network. SSID can be hidden by disabling the SSID broadcast on the Wireless Access Point, but hidden SSID can still be discovered with the use of a packet sniffing software. Security measures that help in preventing unauthorized access to a wireless network include strong encryption standards such as WPA and WPA2. 32. Answer: B. Degaussing Explanation: One of the security measures applied before the disposal of a magnetic storage media involves the process of degaussing. Hard drives (also other types of magnetic storage media such as tapes and floppy disks) can be placed inside a strong magnetic field in order to permanently remove information stored on the media. This is often done to prevent unauthorized parties from retrieving sensitive information after media disposal. 33. Answer: D. Wireless Local Area Networks (WLANs) Explanation: IEEE 802.11 is a set of standards for implementing Wireless Local Area Networks (WLANs). IEEE 802.3 is a collection of standards for Ethernet networks. Token ring networks are standardized by the IEEE 802.4 standard.

34. Answers: A, C and D. STP, Twisted pair, and UTP Explanation: Twisted pair is one of the cabling types (besides coaxial and fiber-optic cabling) used in Ethernet networks. Unshielded Twisted Pair (UTP) is not surrounded by any shielding that would provide protection against Electromagnetic Interference (EMI) from outside sources. When used as a network media, UTP cables are often installed with Registered Jack 45 (RJ-45) connector (RJ-11 connectors are used for telephone cabling). The biggest advantage of UTP is its low cost and ease of installation. Shielded Twisted Pair (STP) also uses RJ-45 connectors and reduces EMI interference from outside sources such as power generating machinery. STP cabling can be implemented with the use of a braided screen or foil and protecting sheath can cover all four pairs only, or (in order to offer the best protection) cover all four pairs and additionally each individual pair of wires. The general feature of all twisted-pair cabling types is that wires are grouped into pairs and wires in each pair are twisted around each other in order to reduce signal interference from adjacent wire pairs (effect known as crosstalk). 35. Answers: A, B, and E. Magnetic media, High capacity, and Slow seek times Explanation: Tape drives are a type of magnetic media storage devices. The main features of tapes include high capacity, low cost and durability. Because of those advantages, tapes are used as an inexpensive backup and archival solution. The main drawback of tape drives involves slow seek times in comparison to other storage media such as magnetic hard drives or solid-state drives. In order to be able to read a particular piece of data from tape, the tape has to be rolled to the desired point where the information is stored. 36. Answer: A. 1400 x 1050 Explanation: SXGA+ (Super eXtended Graphics Array Plus) display standard uses a resolution of 1400 x 1050. Resolution of 1600 x 1200 applies to the UXGA (Ultra eXtended Graphics Array) standard. 1024 x 768 resolution is used by the XGA (Extended Graphics Array) standard. (WUXGA) Widescreen Ultra eXtended Graphics Array display standard uses a resolution of 1920 x 1200. 37. Answer: A. True Explanation: The resolution an LCD monitor was designed to display based on its size providing the best display settings is also known as native resolution. Native resolution is the actual amount of pixels built into the LCD monitor. 38. Answer: D. Docking station Explanation: Port replicator allows for connecting a laptop to a power outlet and provides additional ports for connecting laptop to a full-sized monitor, keyboard and other peripheral devices. A docking station provides the same functions as a port replicator, but additionally allows for attaching secondary storage devices, such as additional hard drives, floppy drives, or optical drives. 39. Answer: C. Pen computing Explanation: The term pen computing refers to a computer user-interface using a pen (or stylus) and tablet, rather than devices such as a keyboard, joysticks or a mouse. Nettop is a generic term for small-factor desktop computers offering very basic features and capabilities. High-end, more expensive (also heavier and larger) laptops offering performance similar to regular desktops are often referred to as desktop replacements. High-Definition Multimedia Interface (HDMI) is a digital audio and video standard.

40. Answers: B and C. Disk mirroring and Disk duplexing Explanation: RAID Level 1 is also referred to as disk mirroring or disk duplexing. The term disk mirroring refers to a situation in which all the drives (minimum of two and very frequently only two) in a RAID 1 array operate through a single disk controller. The term disk duplexing refers to a RAID Level 1 solution with a separate controller for each drive. RAID Level 1 offers very high fault tolerance because data is written identically to multiple drives. Failure of one of the drives doesn't break the array and the array continues to operate as long as at least one drive is functioning. High redundancy of RAID Level 1 comes at the cost of high disk overhead (highest of all RAID types). 41. Answer: B. 18 inches Explanation: The maximum allowable cable length defined in the Parallel ATA (PATA) interface standard is 18 inches. 1 meter is the maximum length for Serial ATA (SATA) cables. 2 meters is the maximum cable length defined in the external SATA (eSATA) standard. 5 meters is the maximum cable length for Universal Serial Bus (USB). 42. Answer: D. NLX Explanation: New Low profile eXtended (NLX) motherboard form factor uses a riser card (doughterboard) near the edge of the board. Expansion cards that plug into a riser card on the NLX motherboard are parallel with the board which saves space and allows for smaller system case. 43. Answer: A. Mouse Explanation: The 6-pin Mini-DIN connector attached to a green PS/2 port is used for connecting mouse. 44. Answer: C. Keyboard Explanation: The 6-pin Mini-DIN connector attached to a purple PS/2 port is used for connecting keyboard. 45. Answer: A. Full-duplex Explanation: Full-duplex is a type of communication that happens in two directions simultaneously. Communication between two devices whereby transmission takes place in only one direction at a time is called half-duplex communication. 46. Answer: A. SMTP Explanation: Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP) is the protocol used for sending e-mail messages. SMTP runs over TCP port 25. 47. Answer: B. Level 1 (L1) cache Explanation: A memory cache on the processor chip is also known as Level 1 (L1) cache, primary cache, or internal cache. This type of memory is made of static RAM (SRAM), which is much faster than regular dynamic RAM (DRAM). 48. Answer: C. Software that displays advertisements Explanation: Adware is a type of software that displays advertisements on the user system, often in the form of a pop-up window. Malicious program that sends copies of itself to other computers on the network is called computer worm. Malicious software that collects information about users without their knowledge is called spyware. Unsolicited or undesired electronic messages are known as spam. 49. Answer: D. 802.11a Explanation: IEEE 802.11 is a set of standards for implementing wireless networking transmission methods. IEEE 802.11a standard operates in the 5.0-GHz frequency range and offers speeds of up to 54 Mbps. The range between wireless device and access point supported by this standard is 50 meters. 50. Answer: D. Social engineering Explanation: The practice of obtaining confidential information by manipulating

people is also known as social engineering. 51. Answer: B. 32 bits Explanation: The length of IPv4 address is 32 bits. IPv6 addresses are made of 128 bits. MAC addresses consist of 48 bits. 52. Answer: B. only in one direction at a time Explanation: In half-duplex mode communication takes place only in one direction at a time. Two devices communicating with each other in both directions simultaneously are said to be in full-duplex mode. Transmission that is carried out in one direction only is also referred to as simplex. 53. Answers: A, B, and D. USMT, Windows Easy Transfer, and Files and Settings Transfer Wizard Explanation: User State Migration Tool (USMT) is a more advanced migration tool for transferring user-profile information to a new Windows computer. USMT is an advanced, scriptable command-line tool used for migrating multiple user profiles in Windows domain environment. Files and Settings Transfer Wizard is a user migration tool available in Windows XP. Windows Easy Transfer is an improved version of the Files and Settings Transfer Wizard for Windows Vista and Windows 7. Windows Easy Transfer is not available in Windows XP, but the application can be downloaded and installed on Windows XP or Windows 2000 (on Windows 2000 Windows Easy Transfer can only be used for transferring files from Windows 2000 to a new computer; transfer of user settings is not supported). 54. Answer: C. ipconfig Explanation: Windows command-line utility for displaying and configuring TCP/IP settings is called ipconfig (ifconfig is the Linux equivalent of this tool used in UNIX-like systems). By default ipconfig displays only the IP address, subnet mask and default gateway for each network adapter on the system configured to use TCP/IP. ipconfig /all displays full configuration information (including, for example, MAC address of the Network Interface Card). 55. Answer: C. Exception Explanation: Allowing a program through a firewall is also known as creating an exception. 56. Answer: C. Trojan horse Explanation: Software that performs unwanted and harmful actions in disguise of a legitimate and useful program is also referred to as a Trojan horse. This type of malware may act like a legitimate program and have all the expected functionalities, but apart from that it will also contain a portion of malicious code appended to it that the user is unaware of. 57. Answer: D. IDS Explanation: Intrusion Detection System (IDS) is a general term for a device or software application designed to detect malicious activities and violations of security policies on a network and/or computer host. An IDS designed to monitor networks is known as Network Intrusion Detection System (NIDS), an IDS installed on a particular host monitoring only that host is called Host Intrusion Detection System (HIDS). IDSs do not take any active steps to prevent or stop the intrusion relying only on passive response which may include sending an alert to a management console or saving information about the event in logs. 58. Answer: A. F8 key Explanation: Safe Mode in Microsoft Windows can be accessed by pressing the F8 key during system boot. Safe Mode allows for resolving problems that cause Windows startup errors and prevent the system from starting normally. Startup errors can be caused by faulty applications, system services, and device drivers that are loaded automatically. In Safe Mode, only the core Windows drivers and system services are loaded, and once the system starts in this mode it allows for troubleshooting problems by disabling or removing a system service, a device driver, or automatically started application that is preventing the computer from starting normally.

59. Answer: C. Signed drivers Explanation: Windows device drivers tested by Microsoft are known as signed drivers. Drivers are signed by Microsoft after they pass a series of tests for functionality and reliability. For a driver to earn this certification, it must pass a series of tests administered by the Windows Hardware Quality Labs (WHQL). Due to stringent WHQL standards, using signed drivers typically results in a more stable system. 60. Answer: B. BIOS Explanation: A list of devices that a computer can boot from can be configured through the BIOS interface. 61. Answers: C, E, and F. Explanation: Computers running Windows on a network must be part of a workgroup or a domain. Windows workgroups typically consist of no more than twenty computers. Each computer in the workgroup has its own security policy and logging on to any computer in the workgroup requires an account on that computer. 62. Answer: A and B. 20 and 21 Explanation: File Transfer Protocol (FTP) uses TCP port numbers 20 and 21. Connection established over TCP port 20 (the data connection) is used for exchanging data, connection made over TCP port 21 (the control connection) remains open for the duration of the whole session and is used for session administration (commands, identification, passwords, etc.). 63. Answer: D. All of the above features are supported by NTFS Explanation: NTFS was designed as a replacement for its predecessor, the File Allocation Table (FAT) file system. Its advantages over FAT include improved reliability due to the file system recovery features, increased security achieved by allowing users to set permissions on files or folders (through the Discretionary Access Control access control model), support for the Encrypting File System (EFS) technology used to store encrypted files on NTFS volumes, file compression, and disk quotas. 64. Answer: C. Telnet Explanation: Network protocol used on the Internet or Local Area Networks (LANs) that allows for remote login from one host to another and executing commands on a remote host is called Telnet. Telnet runs on TCP port number 23. 65. Answer: B. Ping Explanation: Command-line utility used for checking the reachability of a remote host is called ping. 66. Answers: A, B, and E Explanation: Windows domains are based on the Client-Server networking architecture and are used for managing large number of networked hosts. Security policies and permissions on a Windows domain are administered centrally through servers that store information on user accounts and security settings. Logging on to any computer on the Windows domain requires a single set of credentials. 67. Answer: C. msconfig Explanation: System Configuration (msconfig) is a Windows tool designed to help in identifying and isolating Windows startup problems. The main option in this utility allows for disabling services and applications that are loaded during Windows startup (turning them back on one by one helps in isolating program or service that might prevent Windows from starting correctly).

68. Answer: C. Heat sink Explanation: Heat sink is an example of CPU passive cooling. Heat sinks are usually made of an aluminium alloy and often have fins. They are mounted on top of the processor and in order to improve thermal conductivity and transfer of heat from the CPU a special thermal compound is also applied between the two. Heat sinks are referred to as passive cooling components because they do not need to draw any power in order to operate (as opposed to active cooling components, such as cooling fans). 69. Answer: D. 1920 x 1200 Explanation: WUXGA (Widescreen Ultra eXtended Graphics Array) display standard uses a resolution of 1920 x 1200 and has an aspect ratio of 16:10 (ratio of the width of the image to its height). 70. Answer: B. cmd.exe Explanation: Command Prompt (cmd.exe) allows for performing tasks in Windows without the use of graphical interface. This system utility is typically used by advanced users and some of its commands can be executed only in an elevated mode (while logged on as an administrator). 71. Answer: C. CPU housing types Explanation: Pin Grid Array (PGA) and Land Grid Array (LGA) are examples of CPU housing types. PGA packages have pins placed on the bottom of the chip, LGA packages have lands (small pads) on the bottom of the chip to match the pins which are located on the CPU socket. 72. Answer: B. Taskbar Explanation: In Microsoft Windows, the long horizontal bar at the bottom of the screen is called taskbar. Starting from the left, Windows taskbar includes the Start button (providing access to programs, folders, and settings), middle section (showing open applications and allowing for quick switching between them) and notification area (including a clock and icons that communicate the status of certain programs and computer settings). Notification area is also referred to as system tray, or systray. 73. Answer: D. IEEE 1394 Explanation: FireWire is another term for the IEEE 1394 standard (FireWire is a trademarked name for this standard owned by Apple). 74. Answers: A, B, and C. Cordless phone, Baby monitor, and Microwave oven Explanation: Cordless phones, baby monitors, microwave ovens, Bluetooth devices and other wireless devices operating in the 2.4-GHz frequency range can cause disruptions in wireless network connectivity. 75. Answer: B. IEEE 1284 Explanation: 1284 is an IEEE standard for parallel port. Universal Serial Bus (USB), IEEE 1394 (aka FireWire) are industry standards defining serial communication interface. 76. Answer: A. My Computer Explanation: My Computer folder provides access to locations such as hard disks, CD or DVD drives, removable media, and other devices that might be connected to the computer, such as external hard drives and USB flash drives.

77. Answers: A, C, and E. Sser name and password, Smart card, and Fingerprint scanner Explanation: Authentication is proving user identity to a system. Authentication process can be based on user names and passwords (something that the user knows), physical tokens such as smart cards (something that the user has), or unique traits of every single person, such as finger prints (fingerprint scanner). Once the process of authentication is complete, the next step is to apply the rules that define the extent to which the user can interact with the system (authorization). Mandatory Access Control (MAC) and Discretionary Access Control (DAC) are two access control models used for authorization, i.e. granting or denying access to certain resources on the system once the user is authenticated. 78. Answer: A. Grayware Explanation: Programs that cannot be clearly classified as malicious software (malware) are also referred to as grayware (fall into the gray area). Malicious code is any piece of code intended to do harm to the user system. Examples of malware include rootkits, logic bombs, and Trojans. Actions performed by grayware might be annoying to the user, but not necessarily serious or illegal. Advertising pop-ups might be classified as grayware. 79. Answers: A and D. Intel and AMD Explanation: The two main CPU manufacturers for personal computers are Intel and AMD. 80. Answer: C. Peripheral devices Explanation: Devices that connect to ports on the back of the computer case are commonly referred to as peripheral devices. 81. Answer: B. Thermal compound Explanation: In order to improve heat dissipation from the CPU, a thin layer of thermal compound is applied between the CPU and the heat sink before mounting the heat sink on top of the processor. 82. Answer: B. False Explanation: Static RAM (SRAM) is much faster than Dynamic RAM (DRAM) because it doesn't need to be refreshed as often as DRAM. Processor cache memory is made of Static RAM which allows for quick access to instructions stored in the CPU cache. 83. Answer: D. Listen to the customer and do not interrupt until he or she finishes describing the problem Explanation: The ability to listen to the customer without interrupting until they're done with describing the issue is an example of the appropriate use of communication skills and professionalism. When dealing with a difficult customer or a knowledgeable user avoid arguments and taking things personally. To narrow the scope of the problem restate and clarify what the customer says and ask open-ended questions to help the customer describe in their own words where the problem is. 84. Answer: B. Impact printers Explanation: Dot-matrix and daisy-wheel printers fall into the category of impact printers. Impact printers use print heads or needles that hit the surface of the ink ribbon, which presses the ink onto the paper. 85. Answer: A. Voltage spikes Explanation: Surge protectors safeguard the computer from short voltage spikes by limiting the supplied voltage. Power conditioners are used to protect the computer and provide supply of power in case of longer drops in voltage (brownouts). Backup power generators are used in case of prolonged and complete power outages (also known as blackouts).

86. Answer: C. Helps in troubleshooting computer startup problems Explanation: Power-On Self Test (POST) is a diagnostic routine that takes place immediately after the computer is powered on. The purpose of POST is to check the proper functioning of the system hardware components. POST diagnostic card is an expansion card that displays progress and error messages (in form of numeric codes) generated during POST. 87. Answers: A and D. Contact cleaner and Compressed air Explanation: Dust accumulated inside computer case can cause the system to overheat. Vacuum cleaners may damage delicate computer parts by applying too much suction and also by producing ESD. If a specialized antistatic vacuum cleaner is not available, the best (and cheap) way for removing dust from the inside of the case is to use a can of compressed air. Contact cleaners are used for removing dirt from tips of expansion cards that plug into the motherboard slots. 88. Answers: B, C, and D: Antistatic bag, Ground mat, Antistatic wrist strap Explanation: Antistatic bags, wrist straps, and mats are all countermeasures used to protect computer components from Electrostatic Discharge (ESD). 89. Answer: D. Is a place holder module with no memory chips Explanation: Continuity RIMM (C-RIMM) is a place holder module with no memory chips. C-RIMMs are used with RDRAM (Rambus DRAM) memory modules to ensure continuity throughout all memory slots. Design of Rambus memory controllers requires RDRAM memory modules to be installed in pairs and any remaining open memory slots must be filled with C-RIMMs. 90. Answer: B. Fusing Explanation: Fusing is the last phase in the laser printing process. In this step, pressure and heat are used to melt the toner particles to the paper. The fusing rollers apply the heat to the paper and pressure rollers apply the pressure to bond the melted toner into the paper. 91. Answers: A and B. Master boot program and partition table Explanation: Master Boot Record (MBR) consists of master boot program and partition table that contains information about all partitions on the drive. 92. Answer: B. Dot-matrix printer Explanation: Dot-matrix printers are impact printers equipped with the capability of printing multi copy documents. 93. Answer: B. 34 pins Explanation: Floppy disk cable has 34 pins. 94. Answer: B. 5 times Explanation: Most DVDs are encoded to play in specific regions. Playing a regionalized DVD requires setting the DVD drive to play discs from that region. DVD region code setting can be changed 5 times. After reaching the limit the DVD region code cannot be changed even after reinstalling Windows or moving the DVD drive to another computer. 95. Answer: D. 800 Mbps Explanation: The maximum speed supported by the IEEE 1394b interface is 800 Mbps. IEEE 1394b interface is also known under the Apple Inc. brand name FireWire 800. 96. Answer: A. 5 meters Explanation: The maximum cable length for USB devices is 5 meters. 4.5 meters is the maximum cable length for FireWire devices. 1 meter is the maximum cable length for internal SATA. 18 inches is the maximum cable length for PATA. 97. Answers: A and C. RAS and CAS Explanation: Column access strobe (CAS) latency and row access strobe (RAS)

latency are two memory features used to mark the delay in RAM response time. 98. Answer: D. 4.5 meters Explanation: Cable length for FireWire devices is limited to 4.5 meters. 99. Answer: C. Registry Explanation: A database in Windows that contains important information about system hardware, installed programs and settings, and profiles of each of the user accounts is called registry. 100. Answer: A. Spooling Explanation: Placing print jobs in a queue is also referred to as spooling.