T H E MEANING O F T H E T E R M "LAW" () IN 1 C O R I N T H I A N S by HARM W.

HOLLANDER
Leiden

1. Introduction

When one reads Paul's most influential letters, the correspondence to the Galatians and to the Romans, one must come to the conclusion that for the apostle the Jewish law did not possess any authority for the gentile believers within the Christian communities. Not only was it worthless as a means for salvation, but even as a code of conduct with commandments concerning such matters as circumcision, Sabbath, and dietary laws, the law was not valid for gentile Christians, nor perhaps even for Jewish Christians. This fact notwithstanding, Paul frequently exhorted all Christians to live according to "the will of God" or to live in obedience to "the commandments of God." 1 One of the factors which may have influenced Paul to take such a remarkable or radical stand on the issue of the role of the Jewish law might have been the Graeco-Roman concept of the meaning and func tion of laws in general. Laws were considered to be "some kind of codes which guide and control people and according to which they are judged." 2 Laws were related to peoples or nations. In other words, each people or nation had its own specific laws, which were not particularly valid among other peoples or nations. It is possible that this common Hellenistic concept smoothed the way for Paul to declare that the Jew ish law, as the code of the Jewish people, was not applicable to Christians, or at least to gentile Christians.
1 Searching for a new, Christian identity, different from that of the Jews or the gen tiles, Paul "found the broad middle He forged a Christianity that was Jewish to the degree that it forbade idolatry and extra-marital sex and was gentile to the degree that it forbade circumcision, Sabbath, and dietary laws" ( J Sanders, "Paul between Jews and Gentiles in Corinth," JSNT 65 [1997] 67-83, esp 83) See also M Wolter, "Ethos und Identitt in Paulinischen Gemeinden," NTS 43 (1997) 430-444 2 Cf M Winger, By What Law? The Meaning of in the tters of Paul (SBL Diss Ser 128, Atlanta, Georgia Scholars Press, 1992) 104

Komnklyke Brill NV, Leiden, 1998

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In order to confirm this hypothesis or, more in general, to learn what the apostle's ideas about laws actually were, it may be wise to analyse Paul's use of the term "law" (). The best strategy to do this is to examine those letters where the Jewish law as such is no issue and where there is no trace of a discussion between Paul and his read ers on the role of the Jewish law and its meaning for the Christian communities in the Graeco-Roman world. The Corinthian correspond ence fulfils these conditions very well. It is a well-known fact that the theme of righteousness or salvation by faith and not by works of the lawan idea so prominent in Paul's letters to the Galatians and the Romansis absent in the letters to the Corinthians. Even in 2 Corinthians, where Paul has to defend himself against some "super-apostles" who boasted of their Jewish origin and impressed so many of the Corinthian Christians,3 the Jewish law is not an issue. Not only do Paul's ideas about the law over against faith in Jesus Christ not play a part in his letters to the Corinthians, but the very word for "law," , occurs no more than nine times in 1 Corin thians and never in 2 Corinthians.4 Moreover, the Greek word for "com mandment," , occurs even less: no more than twice in the Corinthian letters, both times in 1 Corinthians. 5 It is quite customary, however, to regard all the occurrences of the word in 1 Corinthians as references to the Jewish law. In fact, many scholars are inclined to interpret Paul's use of the term in his entire uvre as referring to the Jewish law, unless the context makes it absolutely clear that he is referring to something else.6 Certainly it is true that Paul himself was a (Christian) Jew. It is also true that the early Christian communities were groups of Jews and gentiles, and that some of these groups debated with each other concerning the role of the Jewish law. But it seems as if these facts have made scholars7 think
See 2 Cor 10-12, esp 11 5,13, 12 11 1 Cor 9 8-9,20, 14 21,34, 15 56 In addition, the word appears as a vana lectio in 1 Cor 7 39, where it is undoubtedly introduced by a scnbe (or scribes) under the influence of the parallel phrase in Rom 7 2 Finally, for companson, the word is used 74 times m Romans and 32 times in Galatians 5 1 Cor 7 19, 14 37 6 A good example is W Bauer's and and Aland's Griechisch-deutsches Wrterbuch zu den Schriften des Neuen Testaments und der frhchristlichen Literatur (Berhn-New York de Gruyter, 6 Auflage 1988) They argue that m Rom 3 27, 4 15b, 5 13b (and per haps Rom 7 1 -2) refers to the law m general or to the Roman law, that m Rom 7 21,23abc,25b, 8 2b is to be interpreted and translated as "rule", that in Rom 3 27b, 8 2a, Gal 6 2 is a reference to the "new," Christian law, and that, finally, m all other instances in the corpus pauhnum the word refers to the Jewish law, the law of Moses, or (a part of) the holy Scriptures 7 One of the exceptions is M Winger, Law But even Winger takes some instances
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that for Paul and his readers the Greek word automatically required the Jewish law to be its referent; only in the second place might refer to something other than Jewish law. But is the assumption that in the Pauline letters the Greek word first of all refers to the Jewish law and only in the second place to anything else really plausible? Paul and his readers in Corinth and in other Pauline communities were Greek-speaking people, men and women who lived in a world that was imbued with the Graeco-Roman (Hellenistic) culture. For such people, the word could have differ ent referents.8 From the situation, the context in which the word was used, people understood which referent was meant. That is, of course, nothing new: all words receive their meaning from the context in which they are used. The same is true in the case of the Greek word for "law." It could refer to different things: for instance, to the law in general, to a particular national legal code, to the law of nature or the law of God, or to some kind of universal law or custom.9 This should make us cau tious about assuming a priori that the Jewish law is the primary referent of the word in the Pauline letters; especially in Paul's first letter to the Corinthians, where there is no discussion at all about the role of the Jewish law in the Christian community. A detailed analysis of the passages in 1 Corinthians where the Greek word for "law" is used will demonstrate that Paul understood and used the term in a rather broad, unspecific sense, and that he relatively often referred to legal codes other than Jewish law. 2. 1 Corinthians 9:8-9 The first passage in which the word occurs is 1 Corinthians 9:8-9. In chapters 8 and 10 of his first letter to the Corinthians Paul
of in the Pauline letters as references to the Jewish law, where, as he must admit, it cannot be shown from the immediate context (see, e.g., his interpretations of 1 Cor. 14:34 and 15:56 on pp. 71-72). 8 Even (non-Christian) Jewish authors not always use with the Jewish law as its referent: see, e.g., Josephus, Anqmtates Judaicae 4,322; 16,277; Contra Apwnem 2,172; Philo, De Abrahamo 135; De vita Mosis 1,300; De ebnetate 47; 141-143; 193; 195; 198. 9 In the Greek and Graeco-Roman world customs (, , mores) and laws (, leges) were regarded as more or less analogous phenomena: they both directed men's life. See, e.g., Lysias, Orahones 2,81; Diodorus Siculus 40,3,5; Philo, De mrtubus 65; De ebnetate 193; 195; 198; Diogenes Laertius 2,93; 9,61; 9,95; Cicero, De fimbus 4,61; 5,11; D re publica 1,2-3; 2,64; De legibus 2,23. In NT, it is the writer of Luke-Acts, for whom the terms and are occasionally interchangeable (see S.G. Wilson, Luke and the Law [SNTS Mon. Ser. 50; Cambridge: University Press, 1983], esp. pp. 1-11). For a different view on (written) laws and (unwritten) customs, see Dio Chrysostom,
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gives a description of the limits of Christian freedom. For Christian freedom certainly has its limits: it is care for othersabove all care for one's fellow Christians, the members of the Christian communitythat determines Christian ethical life, not freedom or the power to live as one desires. In verses 9:1-23 Paul gives an example from his own life and conduct 11 in order to illustrate the Christian ethical behaviour he is advocating. He, too, is "a free man," even an apostle, but in some circumstances he prefers to give up his freedom in order to reach a higher goal. In this passage Paul speaks about his apostolic right () to material support from the Christian communities. After a brief introduction (w. 1-5) and the mentioning of the theme of the whole passage (v. 6), he gives several arguments for this right to support (w. 7-23). But at the same time Paul declares that he has voluntarily abstained from this right (v. 12b and v. 15a) in order to be free and independent. 12 It was this attitude which made it possible for Paul "to win" so many people for the Gospel of Jesus Christ. 13 In v. 7 the apostle mentions, first of all, three examples of people who may expect to be sustained by their own labours: "Who at any time pays the expenses for doing military service? Who plants a vine yard and does not eat any of its fruit? Or who tends a flock and does not get any of its milk?" 14 Paul's argument is clear: just like soldiers, farmers, and shepherds, apostles should expect to be sustained, namely, by the people who have become Christians due to their efforts. The three examples are obviously taken from everyday life, "drawn from commonplace realities."15 Or, in the words of the aposde himself in

10

For the notions of "freedom" () and "the power to live as one wants to" () in Paul's letters and m the Graeco-Roman world of his days, see esp F Stanley Jones, "Freiheit" in den Briefen des Apostels Paulus (Gottingen Vandenhoeck & Ruprecht, 1987) and S Vollenweider, Freiheit ab neue Schpfung Eine Untersuchung zur Eleuthena bei Paulus und in seiner Umwelt (Gottingen Vandenhoeck & Ruprecht, 1989) 11 For some recent studies on the structure and coherence of 1 Cor 8-10, see J Delobel, "Coherence and Relevance of 1 Cor 8-10," in The Connthian Conespondence (ed R Biennger, BETL 125, Leuven University Press/Uitgevenj Peeters, 1996) 177190, and J F M Smit, "1 Cor 8 1-6 A Rhetorical Partum A Contnbution to the Coherence of 1 Cor 8,1-11,1," m ibidem, 577-591 12 Cf also 2 Cor 11 9-10, 12 13, 1 Thess 2 6-9 13 For a more detailed analysis of the structure of the whole passage, see esp F S Jones, Freiheit, 38-44 14 Bible quotations are taken from NRSV 15 So, among others, G D Fee, The First Epistle to the Connthians (NICNT, Grand Rapids Eerdmans, 1987) 405

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v. 8a, they are instances "on a human level ( )";16 that is, things that just happen within a human society, things that are custom ary and accepted among men and in keeping with human standards or manners. 17 In w . 8-10 Paul goes on with more arguments for his apostolic right to material support. This time, however, he does not refer to common place realities that take place in human societies, to unwritten customs, but to "the law": " . . . Does not the law also say the same?" (v. 8b). Then he continues by referring to a passage from "the law of Moses," namely, Deuteronomy 25:4: "You shall not muzzle an ox while it is treacling out the grain" (v. 9). 18 Since God is not concerned for oxen but speaks for the sake of humanity (w. 9c-10a), Paul concludes that the O T commandment is meant to tell us that "whoever plows should plow in hope and whoever threshes should thresh in hope of a share in the crop" (v. 10).19 This means that ploughers and threshers, too, may expect to be sustained by their labours, which is another argument for Paul to show the Christians in Corinth that aposes, including Paul himself, have the right of material support from the Christian communities. Thus, the two sets of examples in v. 7 and w . 8-10 are wholly in line with each other, both being illustrations of the same argument. But whereas the first example is an illustration "on a human level," the second is taken from "the law," or, more specifically, from "the law of Moses." The formulation in v. 8 suggests that Paul is thinking of a contrast between the different levels from which the instances are drawn,
16 NRSV renders here "on human authority," but that elicits only one aspect of the original wording. 17 For such a use of the expression , cf. 1 Cor. 3:3; 15:32; and esp. Gal. 3:15. 18 On the wording of this quotation, which differs slightly from the LXX version of Deut. 25:4, see esp. Chr.D. Stanley, Paul and the Language of Scripture. Citation Technique in the Pauline Epistles and Contemporary hterature (SNTS Mon. Ser. 69; Cambridge: University Press, 1992) 195-6. 19 These words, printed in italics in the Nestle-Aland edition of the NT, are certainly not a quotation from the O T or another source, but form Paul's own conclusion from Deut. 25:4, quoted by the apostle in v. 9. Nowhere in Paul's letters is ("it was written") used to introduce an O T quotation; instead, it follows upon a quotation and intro duces its applications for "us" now (cf. 1 Cor. 10:11 and Rom. 15:4; Rom. 4:23-24 is no exception, since the verb in v. 23 refers back to the cited passage in v. 3 and the words "it was reckoned to him" are just a repetition of a part of the quotation [cf. U. Wilckens, Der Brief an die Rmer I (EKK; 2. Auflage; Zurich/Einsiedeln/Koln-NeukirchenVluyn: Benziger/Neukirchener Verlag, 1987) 276, "So kehrt die Argumentation zu ihrem Ausgangspunkt (V 3) zurck"]). Besides, in v. 10 does not refer to Paul (and his colleagues) or to the Christians, but to all men in general over against beasts, in par ticular the oxen mentioned in v. 9. So also, e.g., G.D. Fee, Corinthians, 408-409.

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or rather of a climax: after the illustrations "on a human level" he introduces another illustration on a higher level in order to convince 20 his readers. This higher level turns out to be "the law." It is only after the rather general reference to "the law" that Paul quotes a specific passage from "the law of Moses," the law once given to 21 the people of Israel by Moses, their famous forefather. Most scholars think that "the law" in v. 8 refers to the O T Scriptures in general and that "the law of Moses" in v. 9 has the Pentateuch as its referent; or they are of the opinion that both clauses refer to the Pentateuch. All of these scholars consider the fuller formula in v. 9 to be an indication for the correctness of their interpretation. But in the first place, Paul "does not usually appeal to the O T by this designation";22 that is, he does not normally refer to the O T in general as "the law" (v. 8). And in the second place, it is rather awkward to mention first "the law" and to refer next to "the law of Moses" when you have exactly the same thing in mind. Is it, then, not more plausible that Paul refers in v. 8 to the written legal codes that were in vogue in so many regions of the Roman empire, and that in v. 9 he gives a quotation from "the law of Moses" as a specimen of these laws?23 If this is true, Paul refers in this passage first to some commonplace realities and next to the law in general ( ), that is, to the (written) codes (= ) that are found in all sorts of cultures and among all kinds of nations. 24 Finally, in order to prove his statement that "the law also says the same" (v 8),25
20 The Greek sentence is without any doubt somewhat awkward 8a expects a neg ative answer (see the particle at the beginning of the clause), whereas 8b expects a positive answer, and the ("or also"), which joins the two clauses, recommends the latter (cf Rom 4 9) Its general sense, however, is clear "Are there only arguments on a human level for the things I am saying? Or does not the law say the same?" Cf G D Fee, Connthians, 405, note 46 21 The expression "the law of Moses" ( [] ) is unique in Paul's oeuvre It is found seven times elsewhere in N T (Luke 2 22, 24 44, John 7 23, Acts 13 39, 15 5, 28 23, Heb 10 28) and is taken over from Jewish tradition in which Moses was regarded as the great "lawgiver" of the Israelites (see, e g , 3 Ezra 8 3, Tobit 6 13, 7 13, and already Josh 8 31-32 [9 2], 2 Chron 23 18, Mai 4 4 [3 22], etc) 22 So rightly G D Fee, Connthians, 406, who mentions as (possible) exceptions 1 Cor 9 8 and 14 21,34 He seems to forget Rom 3 19, which is another (possible) exception See also below 23 So also M Winger, Law, 71 24 For the use of as referring to "the law" or "the laws" in general, see, e g , Aelius Anstides, Oratio 2,1,227 and 271, "[The law, ] acts in a wholly opposite fashion, always honounng justice and reproving those who dare to commit crimes The laws [sc ] have no other purpose than this principally that nobody be mis treated by anyone, but if not, that the sufferers receive justice from the doers or those responsible" (text and trans C A Behr in LCL), see further, e g , Plato, Gorgias 482 C ff, Minos 313 A ff, Aristotle, Rhetonca I 15,1-12 (1375 A-B), Libamus, Epistola 245,6, etc 25 The expression , often referring to a particular (passage of a) wnt-

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he quotes a passage from a particular law, viz. "the law of Moses," which he, as a Jew, knows best.26 According to w . 9c-10a, it is God who is speaking in or through the law of Moses. For Paul as a Jew, this was self-evident. But even in pagan literature we find the view that Moses, as the lawgiver of the Jews, wrote down his laws in obedience to what his god told him.27 For Moses was one of the famous lawgivers of old who were thought to have been inspired by God when they wrote down their laws.28 All this makes it wholly understandable that Paul, as a Hellenistic Jew and Christian living in the Graeco-Roman culture, could refer first to "the law" in general, and next to "the law of Moses" as a specimen of a larger class of national laws, given by a God-inspired man, Moses, to the people of Israel (or the Jews).29 This means that in 1 Cor. 9:7-10 Paul wants to make clear to his readers that it was not only in keeping with human standards or (unwritten) manners that people might expect to be sustained by their labours, but that on a higher, a divine level, "the (written) law" in general and "the law of Moses" in particular ordained the same thing. From this he concludes that apostles as well have the right of material support, but that he himself voluntarily abstained from this right.
ten code, is quite common. It is found particularly in passages where the author (or orator) wants to make out a case for something or someone. See, e.g., Plato, Respublica 451 B; 604 B; Leges 959 B; Aristotle, Rhetonca I 15,12 (1375 B); Demosthenes, Contra Macartatum 55; Contra ^charem 67; Hyperides, Oratio in Aihenogenem 13; Plotinus, Ennead III 2,9; Libanius, Oratio 33,15; Philo, Quod detenus potion insidian soleat 159 (referring to Gen. 12:7); Quod Deus immutabilis sit 99 (referring to Deut. 1:43-44); and cf. Rom. 3:19 and 7:7. On 1 Cor. 14:34, see below. 26 One may compare this with a modern sentence such as the following: "Life in the city is quite noisy; in the city of Amsterdam, for instance, there live almost a million people, and the cars, buses, trains, and trams are running day and night." 27 See, e.g., Diodorus Siculus 1,94,2, ". . . and among the Jews Moyses referred his laws to the god who is invoked as Iao" (text and trans. C.H. Oldfather in LCL); 40, 3,3-8; Strabo, Geographia 16,2,35-39. Most of their ideas on the role of Moses as the lawgiver of the Jews were taken from the writings of Hecataeus of Abdera and, above all, from the works and ideas of the Stoic philosopher Posidonius. Cf. J. Malitz, Die Historien des Poseidonios (Zetemata 79; Mnchen: Oscar Beck, 1983) 302-323. 28 Cf. Plutarch, Numa 4,7 (Vitae par. 62 D), "Is it worthwhile, then, if we concede these instances of divine favour, to disbelieve that Zaleucus, Minos, Zoroaster, Numa, and Lycurgus, who piloted kingdoms and formulated constitutions ( ), had frequent audience of the Deity?" (text and trans. B. Perrin in LCL); Lycurgus 5,3 (Vitae par. 42 B); Moralia 780 E; Strabo, Geographia 10,4, 19; 16,2,38; Aelius Aristides, Oratio 2,38-39; Diodorus Siculus 1,94,1-2; Cicero, Tusculanae
Disputationes 2,34.
29 In Gal. 3, where Paul compares the Jewish law with the promise made by God to Abraham and his offspring, the apostle seems to overlook the fact that it was God who gave his instructions to Moses at Sinai; instead, he underlines the role of the angels and of Moses as the (human) lawgiver of the Jews (v. 19).

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Paul's main objective in abstaining from the apostolic right of mate rial supportthe central theme of 1 Corinthians 9and in proclaim ing the Gospel "free of charge" (v. 18) is to become and to remain free and independent (v. 19; cf. v. 1). This freedom and independence made it possible for Paul to adjust himself to all sorts of circumstances and to be God's missionary among all kinds of people. Thus, "he made himself a slave to all," "he became all things to all people," in an at tempt to "win more of them" or to "save some" (w. 19 and 22).30 In w . 20-22a the apostle Paul gives three instances of the chameleon like conduct he showed in his missionary activities. The first kind of social setting, in which he proclaims the Gospel of Jesus Christ and in which he adapts himself to local conditions, is encountered when he finds himself among Jews: "To the Jews I became as a Jew, in order to win Jews" (v. 20a). In the entire context there is not the slightest trace of a discussion on the role of Jews and gentiles in the mixed Christian communities. Paul mentions the Jews ( ) here as one of the (two) groups from which the early Christians were recruited. The other group, of course, was the gentiles. In the next verse Paul turns to them, referring to the gentiles as "those outside the law."31 Since chapters 8-10 deal with the limits of Christian freedom, it seems evident that Paul mentions the Jews here because they were submitted to dietary laws and other laws which might be regarded as commands that restrict one's freedom. Like many Corinthians, the apostle is a sup porter of "the freedom in Jesus Christ," but he wants to show his read ers that among Jews he "behaves like a Jew," voluntarily giving up his freedom and submitting to the (food) laws of the Jewish people. That is, he does this as long as he is among Jews and only for the sake of something more important than Christian freedom, viz. the salvation of some of them. What Paul meant in v. 20a, he explicates in v. 20b, where he speaks

Cf also F S Jones, Freiheit, 46 On these verses, see esp S C Barton, '"All Things to All People' Paul and the Law in the Light of 1 Connthians 9 19-23," in J D G Dunn (ed), Paul and the Mosaic Law (WUNT 89, Tubingen Mohr, 1996) 271-285 31 Elsewhere in 1 Connthians Paul uses the term "the Jews" ( ) in com bination with its counterpart "the gentiles" or "the Greeks" ( , ") see 1 22-24, 10 32, 12 13 For him, as for all Jews, the world was divided in Jews and nonJews (or gentiles, or Greeks), and consequently, the members of the church belonged to either of these groups Cf U Heckel, "Das Bild der Heiden und die Identitt der Chnsten bei Paulus," in Die Heiden Juden, Christen und das Problem des Fremden (ed R Feldmeier - U Heckel, Tubingen Mohr, 1994) 269-296

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of people "under the law": "To those under the law I became as one under the law (though I myself am not under the law) so that I might win those under the law." The people "under the law" are, in view of the immediate context, without any doubt the Jews; 32 in this case "the law" () refers here to the Jewish law, the law of Moses.33 Paul's readers most probably understood it this way also, but only because v. 20b was preceded by v. 20a. Thus, as Paul argues in v. 20, when he is among fellow Jews, he adapts himself to their customs and laws, although as a Christian he is a free man who does not fall under the law of Moses. For Paul, Christianity means "a new way," which implies that the law of Moses has no authority over him. Nevertheless, due to particular circum stances, the apostle gives up his freedom and accepts the authority of the Jewish law, but only in order to "win" or "save" some of his Jewish companions. In v. 21 the apostle describes his conduct among gentiles: "To those outside the law I became as one outside the law (though I am not free from God's law but am under Christ's law) so that I might win those outside the law." The context makes clear that "those outside the law" refers to the gentiles, people who are not under the law of Moses.,34 This means that, when Paul is among gentiles, he does not accept the authority of the Jewish law and is, for instance, "non-kosher." 35 Since the Greek term for "outside the (Jewish) law," , is ambiguousit usually means "outside any law," "lawless"Paul hastens to say that he is not "outside the law" in the latter sense of the word. 36 Like every Christian, he is "under the law of Christ," . The governing principle in his life or in that of Christians in general

32 The formulation "(those) under the law" ([] ) is not used in a nega tive sense but quite neutrally, referring to people, i.e. the Jews, who live in accordance with their national laws, i.e. the law of Moses (cf. Rom. 6:14-15; Gal. 4:21). 33 That the word is used here without the definite article is not an argument against the interpretation of "law" as the law of Moses. In the letters of Paul, but also elsewhere, is used with or without the article with no apparent difference in meaning (so also, e.g., B.L. Martin, Chnst and the Law in Paul [SupplNovT 62; Leiden-New York-Kobenhavn-Koln: Brill, 1989] 21-22). Moreover, in prepositional phrases, the article can appear or be omitted without any apparent difference in mean ing (see F. Blass- A. Debrunner - F. Rehkopf, Grammatik des neutestamentliehen Griechisch [Gottingen: Vandenhoeck & Ruprecht, 17. Auflage 1990] par. 255, 258). 34 Cf. Rom. 2:12, "All who have sinned apart from the law (= the gentiles) will also perish apart from the law, and all who have sinned under the law (= the Jews) will be judged by the law." 35 Cf. G.D. Fee, Connthians, 427. 36 Or, as NRSV translates, he is "not free from God's law."

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is not a law pertaining to a particular people or nation, for instance, the Jewish law, but "the law of Christ" (Gal. 6:2) or the obedience to "the commandments of God" (1 Cor. 7:19). Christians should live according to the will of God and should "abound in love for one another and for all" (1 Thess. 3:12).37 Finally, in v. 22a, Paul mentions another social setting in which he proclaims the Gospel and adapts himself to local conditions: "To the weak I became weak, so that I might win the weak." Again, the apostle emphasizes that concern for the salvation of other people is of more importance than one's freedom. Paul voluntarily abstains from this freedom and prefers to be weak in order to save the weak.38 4. 1 Connthians 14:21 In 1 Cor. 12-14 Paul deals rather extensively with the spiritual gifts ( ), which were held in high esteem by a number of Corinthian Christians. In a reaction to their feelings about these gifts and in an attempt to correct them, Paul points to the virtue of love as the greatest gift and as "a still more excellent way" (12:31-13:13). Finally, in chapter 14, he contrasts two particular spiritual gifts, viz glossolalia and prophecy. In verses 14:20-25 Paul describes the impressions of both glossolalia and prophecy on outsiders and unbelievers. When they see people speaking in tongues, they will think that they have gone mad; but when they are faced with people who are prophesying, they will realize that they find themselves in a community of believers.39 In order to per suade his readers, the apostle quotes a passage from the OT, viz. Isa. 40 28:11-12. From this text he concludes that "strange tongues" and glos solalia are things that are proper for unbelievers and, consequently, that prophecy is proper for real Christians.41 For our subject it is impor37 Cf Rom 13 8-10, Gal 5 14, 6 2, and also 1 Cor 13 This rather general com mand which forms the content of the law that governs Chnstian life may be compared with the (equally vague and general) content of "the law of nature" presented by the sage Cf J W Martens, "Romans 2 14-16 A Stoic Reading," NTS 40 (1994) 55-67, esp 67, note 49 38 Cf 1 25,27, 4 10, 8 7, 9-10, 12 22 39 For a detailed discussion on w 20-25, see esp J F M Smit, "Tongues and Proph ecy Deciphering 1 Cor 14,22," Bib 75 (1994) 175-190 40 V 21, "By people of strange tongues and by the lips of foreigners I will speak to this people, yet even then they will not listen to me " On the wording of this verse and the text of Isa 28 11-12 LXX, see esp C D Stanley, Paul, 197-205 41 Cf 22 In w 23-25 Paul does not refer to the effects of glossolalia and prophecy on the inner life of the outsider or unbeliever, in the sense of abhorance or conver-

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tant that Paul introduces the O T quotation with the phrase "In the law it is written...." The term "law" refers, of course, to the Jewish law, or better: to the Scriptures. The formula "it is written ()42 certainly facilitated the Corinthians' interpretation of the word in this sense. As in 9:9 the reference to a passage found in "the law" is meant to add force to the argumentation. Even though in Paul's opinion the Jewish law or the law of Moses as the written code of commandments and customs that constituted the Jewish way of life did not need to be imposed on gentile believers,43 the Scriptures remained for him and other Christians a holy book and "an oracular witness to Jesus Christ." 44 5. 1 Corinthians 14:34 The comparison between prophecy and glossolalia in the first half of chapter 14 is followed by a passage in which Paul argues for order in the assembly (w. 26-40). Any disorderly behaviour should be avoided. In this context the aposde urges women to "be silent in the churches," not "to speak" or to ask questions, but to "be subordinate" and to "ask their husbands at home" (w. 33b-36). Because these verses seem to contradict earlier statements about the role of women in the Christian community, especially 11:2-16, many scholars resort to interpolation theories and only a few attempt to interpret the text as it stands.45

sion. He simply mentions the outsider's or unbeliever's different reactions to people who are speaking in tongues ("you are out of your mind") and to those who are prophesy ing ("God is really among you"): the outsider or unbeliever will consider glossolalia to be something insane and prophecy to be something divine. 42 Cf. 1:19,31; (2:9); 3:19; 10:7; 15:45. 43 See, e.g., Gal. 3:19,23,25; Rom. 10:4. 44 Cf. R.B. Hays, "Three Dramatic Roles. The Law in Romans 3-4," in J.D.G. Dunn (ed.), Paul, 151-164, esp. p. 163: "One function of the Law, thenperhaps its most important function for Paulis to point forward to the coming of Christ and to God's intent to call Jews and Gentiles together into a community that simultaneously confirms the fidelity of God and glorifies God for his mercy." 45 See the commentaries, ad be, and most recently C. Niccum, "The Voice of the Manuscripts on the Silence of Women: The External Evidence for 1 Cor. 14.34-5," NTS 43 (1997) 242-255. Niccum comes to the conclusion that "no extant MS offers evidence of an original omission of 1 Cor. 14.34-5" and that the transposition of these verses after v. 40 in a couple of manuscripts is secondary. Thus, "No other reading has claim to being Original' other than that preserving the traditional sequence of verses" (p. 254). This means that interpolation theories cannot rely on the external evidence. But, on the other hand, the textual evidence cannot be taken as an argument for the Pauline authorship of these verses either: it is still possible that someone else included them before the manuscripts which are known to us now were written.

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When the text in its present form is analysed, however, several obser vations become apparent. First, the passage about the silence of women fits quite well into the immediate context, where the order in the assem bly is at stake. Moreover, it fits equally well into the larger unit of dis 46 course. Secondly, the situation described in our passage is different than the one described in 11:2-16. In the latter passage Paul forbids women "to pray" or "to prophesy" with their heads unveiled, irrespec tive of the location where they find themselves. The situation is quite different in 14:34-35. Here, the apostle forbids women "to speak" in the assembly, that is, to interfere with what is going on there. 47 "Chattering" by women in the midst of the assembly should be avoided.48 Conse quently, there do not seem to be decisive arguments against Pauline authorship of w . 33b-35. The author (Paul) gives four arguments why women should be silent. First, it is customary in all other churches that women do not talk in the Christian assembly. Secondly, women should be subordinate. Thirdly, in the event that they want clarification about something, women should ask their husbands at home. And fourthly, it is shameful for women to speak in church. The third argument is in fact an admonition to women to speak about divine matters with their own husbands at home, which is, of course, quite easy to put into practice. The first argument is a ref erence to what is habitual in other local churches. Its intention is to help the Corinthians realize that they are a part of the world-wide church of Jesus Christ. 49 The other two arguments are references to the nature of things or the natural feeling ("it is shameful. . .") 5 0 and to what is customary in human society ("they . . . should be subordinate"). Thus, according to Paul, nature as well as society provide us with argu ments for a prohibition of women's speech in the Christian assembly. One of the reasons why women should be silent is that, as was men tioned above, they "should be subordinate," viz. to their husbands. This attitude of subordination reflects quite well the Hellenistic ideas about the role of women in household and society. The notion that the wife had to be submissive to her husband was (almost) generally taken for
46 So also, e g , C D Osburn, "The Interpretation of 1 Cor 14 34-35," Essays on Women in Earliest Christianity 1 (ed C D Osburn, Joplin College, 1993) 219-242 47 So also, e g , Berger in D Preu - Berger, Bibelkunde des Alten und Neuen Testaments II (UTB 972, Heidelberg Quelle & Meyer, 1980) 376 48 This prohibition of women's speech in the assembly is wholly in agreement with the Hellenistic depreciation of women speaking in public see, e g , Plutarch, Numa 25, 9-10 {Vitae par 11 AB), Comugaha praecepta 31-32 {Mor 142 CD) 49 Cf 36 and 1 Cor 1 2, 4 17, 7 17, 11 16 50 Cf 11 6,14-15

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granted. In order to convince his readers, the apostle Paul refers to this general feeling, adding at the same time that "the law also says so" ( ). His argument here seems to follow more or less the same line as his argument in 9:7-8. There, too, he tried to per suade his readers by mentioning some unwritten customs and the law. The examples from both custom and law were introduced as illustra tions of the same argument. Something similar seems to be the case in 14:34. As one of the reasons why women should be silent in the Christian assembly in Corinth, the apostle refers to what is custom ary in the Graeco-Roman society, viz. that women are subordinate to their husbands. He goes on to say that "the law" directs the same. This time, however, he does not quote a passage from a specimen of "the law," for instance, the Jewish Law (or Scriptures), to illustrate his argument as he did in 9:9.52 He only appeals to "the law," sug gesting that "the law," too, mentions women's subordination to their husbands. But to what law does the term "the law" refer in 14:34? Most scholars think that the author is appealing to the Jewish law, or more precisely, the Jewish Scriptures. The difficulty, of course, is the fact that the O T does not say a word about the subordination of women. Even Gen. 3:16, a passage which is the closest parallel to our verse, has a com pletely different wording 53 and can hardly have been the text Paul had in mind when he wrote his words about women in 1 Cor. 14:34-35. Of course, Paul could have been thinking of "the spirit" of the Jewish law. According to its (Jewish) interpreters, the law of Moses teaches the inferiority of women to men. 5 4 But if this explanation of Paul's

See, e.g., Plutarch, Coniugaha praecepta 33 {Mor. 142 E), "If they (= women) subor dinate themselves () to their husbands, they are c o m m e n d e d . . . control ought to be exercised by the man over the woman. . . " (text and trans. F.G. Babbitt in LCL); cf. further, of course, Eph. 5:24; Col. 3:18; 1 Tim. 2:11; Tit. 2:5; 1 Pet. 3:1,5. See also C. Vatin, Recherches sur k manage et la condition de h femme mane l'Epoque hellnistique (Paris: de Boccard, 1970), esp. pp. 200-201; and A. Standhartinger, Das Frauenbd im Judentum der hellenistischen eit. Ein Beitrag anhand von 'Joseph und Aseneth' (AGAJU 26; Leiden-New York-Koln: Brill, 1995), esp. pp. 59-76. 52 The fact that Paul appeals to "the law" without quoting a particular text is used by G.D. Fee as one of the arguments against Pauline authorship of w . 34-35 (see G.D. Fee, Commentary, p. 707). He identifies, however, "the law" with the Jewish law or the Jewish Scriptures and overlooks the possibility that "the law" may refer to something other than the Jewish law. 53 "To the woman he said, '. . . your desire shall be for your husband, and he shall rule over you ( )'." 54 See, e.g., Josephus, Contra Apwnem 2,201, "The woman, says the Law, is in all things inferior to the man. Let her accordingly be submissive (). . ." (text and

51

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thinking is true, it is the only place where Paul appeals to the intentions of the Jewish law by such a general designation. It is very doubtful that his (gentile) readers in Corinth would have understood the Pauline phrase this way. The deadlock may be solved when we assume that "the law" in v. 34 does not (exclusively) refer to the Jewish law, but to the law in general or to the laws that are found in so many cultures and among so many nations in the Graeco-Roman world more or less comparable with its use in 9:8. Thus, Paul does not refer to one particular law, but to the laws that one may find in each country, nation, or city. For all laws of that time reflected the (Hellenistic) ideas about the (inferior) role of women in household and society.55 And though these laws did not usually mention explicitly that "women should be subordinate",56 they contained all kinds of commandments concerning, for example, marriage, divorce, household, and business which were the results of the general feeling of the inferiority of women. This general feeling in the Graeco-Roman world, which found expression in many "customs" and other human (unwritten) manners, provided a basis for many of these commandments.57 In an attempt to persuade his readers to prohibit women from speaking in the Christian assembly, Paul was surely correct in referring to "the law" in general. Of course, he might have thought of the Jewish law in particular, but only because he was a Jew and was most acquainted with that particular code. But the reference itself is to the law in general. And it was most probably understood this way by Paul's readers in Corinth.

trans. H. St. J. Thackeray in LCL); however, (the passage is suspected by some scholars on the basis of the N T parallels); Philo, De opifcio mundi 167. 55 See also above (and note 51). 56 That is, of course, the reason why Paul does not quote a particular passage from a specimen of "the law," as he did in 9:8-9. 57 For such a use of , referring to socially accepted practices or feelings reflected in laws and commandments, cf., e.g., Plato, Respubhca 604 B, "The law, I suppose, declares ( ) that it is best to keep quiet as far as possible in calamity and not to chafe and repine . . ." (text and trans. P. Shorey in LCL); Pseudo-Socrates, Epistle 6, "Indeed, the law does command ( . . . ) that children be raised by their parents until a d u l t h o o d . . . " (text [trans. S. Stowers] taken from A.J. Malherbe, The Cynic Epistles. A Study Edition [SBL Sources for Biblical Study 12; Missoula: Scholars Press, 1977] 236-237); Lucan, Patriae laudatio 4, "If one pays his father proper honour, as law and nature direct ( ), then one should honour his fatherland still more . . ." (text and trans. A.M. Harmon in LCL).

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6. 1 Corinthians 15:56 The last occurrence of in 1 Corinthians is found in 15:56. This verse is certainly one of the most problematic verses in the letters of Paul. It stands almost at the end of Paul's long treatise on the resur rection of believers at the end of time. It is undoubtedly meant to underline the role and power of death in human life and to show the people in Corinth that the triumph over death will not be achieved until the parousia of Jesus Christ. In a recent article,58 J. Holleman and the present author have made an attempt to understand the verse "in the context of Paul's communication with the Christian believers in the community of Corinth and not primarily from what is said in other Pauline letters." This means that we do not regard 1 Cor. 15:56 as "a brief compendium of Paul's theology as to the relationship of sin and the law to death," 5 9 which he worked out in more detail in his letters to the Galatians and to the Romans; neither do we start from the rather common interpretation of as the Torah or the Jewish law. Instead, we argued "that both the connection between death and sin and the connection between sin and law are to be understood against the background of Hellenistic popular philosophy." 60 As to the first connection, the relationship between death and sin as it is expressed by the phrase "the sting of death is sin" (v. 56a), Paul introduced a well-known Jewish Hellenistic idea, which he linked up with the Greek concept of the degeneration of mankind. 61 The notion that death "came through a human being," viz. the first man Adam (1 Cor. 15:21-22), was a common Jewish Hellenistic conception. Since the times of Adam, death has been an active power in the life of man kind, and, as Paul argues in 1 Cor. 15, it will remain so until the end of time (v. 26). In our verse Paul speaks about "sin" ( ) as "the sting of 62 death" ( ). In other words, sin is the means by which the power of death injects, as it were, mortality in man. Although Adam's transgression of God's command was the origin of mortality, Paul recognized as well that whenever a human being sins, he incurs the same punishment Adam once received, viz. mortality. That is: all
58 H.W. Hollander - J . Holleman, "The Relationship of Death, Sin, and Law in 1 Cor. 15:56," NovT35 (1993) 270-291, and the literature mentioned there. 59 So G.D. Fee, Connthians, 805. 60 H.W. Hollander - J . Holleman, "Relationship," 273. 61 See H.W. Hollander - J . Holleman, "Relationship," 275-279. 62 The expression "the sting of death" comes from Hos. 13:14 (LXX) quoted by Paul in the preceding verse (v. 55).

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humans are mortal because all humans sin. Humans do not sin as a result of hereditary sinfulnessthis conception was strange to Paul and other Jewish or early Christian writersbut because of the fallen nature of mankind due to the degeneration of human culture or society. This concept of a degeneration of human society was widely current in the Hellenistic world.63 Jewish authors like Philo were acquainted with it, and there is nothing against assuming that Paul, too, was familiar with this concept. From Paul's view, the present was (still) an age of sin and death, only to be overcome by the parousia of Jesus Christ. Paul's rather pessimistic view on the miserable state of humanity, which he shared with many of his contemporaries, 64 is underlined once more by the last words of 1 Cor. 15:56b, "and the power of sin is the law." In 1 Cor. 15 the Jewish law is not an issue at all, so that we may conclude that the word "law" in v. 56 most probably refers to something other than the Torah. This conclusion is all the more rein forced by the fact that the terms "death" and "sin" in the same verse are used generally and refer to universal powers. This makes it plau sible that the reference here, once again, has to do with the law in general, or to the (written) laws that are found in all sorts of cultures and among all kinds of nations. The fact that Paul connected "sin" and "the law" as closely as he does in v. 56b has, first of all, to do with a depreciation of laws in the Graeco-Roman world of his days. 65 According to many Hellenistic authors, especially the Cynics and Stoics, (written) lawsin particular all those laws that were found all over the world since the famous and God-inspired lawgivers of old had diedwere associated with nega tive aspects of human life and were regarded as an imperfect means to regulate society. Most of them turned out to be obstacles to true

63 On this so-called idea of Ursprung und Entartung, developed in particular by the Stoic philosopher Posidonius, see H W Hollander - J Holleman, "Relationship," 278 and 284-286 64 See, e g Dio Chrysostom, Orationes 13,13, "And the opinion I had was that pretty well all men are fools, and that no one does any of the things he should do, or con siders how to rid himself of the evils that beset him and of his great ignorance and confusion of mind, so as to live a more virtuous and a better life, but that they all are being thrown into confusion and are swept round and round in the same place and about practically the same objects, to wit, money and reputation and certain pleasures of the body, while no one is able to nd himself of these and set his own soul free " (trans J W Cohoon in LCL), 17,3-4 6, 74,19, Aehus Anstides, Oratio 2,2,340, "The 'nature' of the people is such that never does a man arise who is altogether good and faultless ( ) " (text and trans G A Behr in LCL), Philo, De virtutibus 10 Cf J W Martens, "Romans 2 14-16," passim 65 See H W Hollander - J Holleman, "Relationship," 280-289

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righteousness, since, as man-made products of common human opin ion, they were often in conflict with nature or the unwritten law of nature. In other words, laws were evidence of humanity's inborn wicked ness and were hardly able to correct humanity's behaviour. Therefore, many (Cynic) philosophers rejected laws and human conventions and tried to live what they considered to be a life in harmony with nature; free, independent, and self-sufficient.66 Paul, however, does not only mention "sin" and "the law" in v. 56b as two symptoms of the miserable state of mankind. In his view "the law" is "the power of sin", the means by which "sin" operates in the pre sent age. "Sin" obtains its power and dominion over men from the very existence of "the law."67 For Paul, this seems to mean that, even though since the first man Adam all human beings are sinners because of the depravity of mankind, the laws have not turned out to be a means to improve men's behaviour; rather, they have contributed to the rein forcement of sin. Laws do not only make people realize that they act badly,68 but they stimulate people to sin as well. All this leads to the conclusion that 1 Cor. 15:56 serves as a short aside on the role and power of death in human life: death will not be overcome until the end of time, until the parousia of Jesus Christ. Intending to point out to his readers the permanent dominion of death

66 Their opinion on laws is expressed fairly well in Lucian, Demonax 59, ". . . that in all likelihood the laws were of no use, whether framed for the bad or the good; for the latter had no need of laws, and the former were not improved by them" (trans. A.M. Harmon in LCL). See further, e.g., Diogenes Laertius 6, 63. 71-72; Maximus Tyrius, Dissertationes 6,5; Epictetus, Dissertationes I 13,5; IV 1,158; 7,17; Dio Chrysostom, Oratwnes 76,4; 80,4; Plutarch, Solon 5,2-3 {Vitae par. 80 F-81 A); Ps. Heraclitus, Epistuk 7; Ps. Diogenes, Epistuk 28. 67 This aspect of the relationship between "sin" and "the law" is somewhat under estimated in H.W. Hollander - J. Holleman, "Relationship." 68 For when there are no laws, there is no instance to show people up as sinners. See, e.g., G.D. Fee, Connthians, 806, "The relationship of law to sin is that the former is what gives the latter its power. . . the law. . . makes sin observable as sin. . . ." Cf. Rom. 4:15b and 5:13b, passages which can be best explained as statements about the role of laws in general and their relationship to men's sins: in these verses is thus generic. Elsewhere in Romans, Paul applies this idea directly to the Jewish law, namely, in 5:20 ("But law came in, with the result that the trespass multiplied") and 7:7 ("if it had not been for the law, I would not have known sin"). On this, see esp. M. Winger, who rightly points to the use of the present tense in 4:15b and 5:13b as a decisive argument in favour of the interpretation of "law" in these verses as referring to the law in general {Law, 83-84); cf. also J.C. Poirier, "Romans 5:13-14 and the Universality of Law," NovT 38 (1996) 344-358, esp. pp. 352-353. For the opposite view, viz. that in Rom. 4:15b and 5:13b the word refers to the law of Moses, see esp. O. Hofius, "Die Adam-Christus-Antithese und das Gesetz: Erwgungen zu Rom 5,12-21," in J.D.G. Dunn (ed.), Paul, 165-206, esp. pp. 193 and 195.

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over men and to make them realize that they still lived in an "age of anxiety," Paul referred to both the power of "sin" and "the law," and their close relationship to "death." Death as well as sin characterize the present age and the fallen state of mankind. "The law," viz. the human and written laws that are found in all sorts of cultures and among all kinds of nations, belongs to the old order as well. It is hardly able to improve humanity's behaviour; on the contrary, it reinforces sin, thus contributing to man's death. Again, in this verse the refer ence is to the law in general, not to a particular law, the Jewish law for instance.

7. Conclusion

The analysis of the five passages in 1 Corinthians where the word occurs has led us to the conclusion that the Jewish law does not seem to be the primary or the only referent of the word in this par ticular letter. The Greek word for "law" could have, like so many other words, different referents. From the context in which the word was used, people understood which referent was meant. Nevertheless, there are a few instances in 1 Corinthians where does refer to the Jewish law; namely, in 9:9, 9:20, and 14:21. In 1 Cor. 9:20b, "those under the law" are without any doubt the Jews, since the phrase is parallel with "the Jews" mentioned in v. 20a. This phrase stands over against "those outside the law" in v. 21, which refers to the gentiles, those who are not under the law of Moses. In 1 Cor. 14:21 Paul quotes Isa. 28:11-12 whereby the O T quotation is preceded by the phrase, "In the law it is written. . . ." Here, "the law" obviously refers to the Jewish law or, better yet, to the Jewish Scriptures. These Scriptures remained for Paul, as for other Christians, a holy book and a witness to Jesus Christ. Another reference to the Scriptures as the holy book of Jews and Christians is found in 1 Cor. 9:9, where the apostle quotes Deut. 25:4. This time, the quotation is introduced as a passage or a command from "the law of Moses." More interesting, however, is the fact that in 1 Cor. 9:8-9 "the law of Moses" is most likely mentioned as a specimen of "the law" in gen eral; that is, as one example of the many (written) laws that are found all over the world in all sorts of cultures and among all kinds of nations. Similar references to "the law" in general are to be found in 14:34 and 15:56. In the former passage, "the law" refers to the collection of laws which was in vogue in the Hellenistic world of Paul's days and which ordered women to be submissive to their husbands. In the latter

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passage, "the law" is introduced as a rather weak instrument. Although it was intended to improve humanity's behaviour, it only contributes to the reinforcement of sin; "the law" belongs together with the power of sin and the power of death to a world that is passing away. As a man living in the Graeco-Roman world, Paul regarded the law of Moses, the Jewish law, as a written legal code that pertained to a particular people or nation, i.e. the Jews.69 As one belonging to the Christian movement, the aposde rejected the law of Moses as an authority in his life and in the lives of his fellow Christians, though the holy Scriptures remained for him an important witness to Jesus Christ and to a new society in which there is "no longer Jew or Greek,. . . slave or free,. . . male and female."70 Instead, Paul viewed himself as being "under the law of Christ" (1 Cor. 9:21), a law that centres on the obedience to "the commandments of God" (1 Cor. 7:19) in general, and the love for one another in particular.

69 The Jewish law defined (or defines) the identity of the Jewish people: it "discloses the will of God, and it marks off the elect people from other nations" (R.B. Hays, "Three Dramatic Roles," 151-155, esp. p. 151). 70 Gal. 3:28. Cf. 1 Cor. 7:19; 12:13; Gal. 5:6; 6:15; Rom. 10:12.

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