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Total Marks Scored : 29/60 Q.1) A. The first name is family name and the second name is order name. B. The first and second name is species name. C. The first name is species name and the second name is genus name. D. The first name is genus name and the second name is species name. Correct Answer: D Your answer: D Solution: Because the rule says generic name should come first and the specific name comes next. Q.2) A. The sister chromatids of paternal chromosomes B. Non sister chromatids of homologous chromosomes C. Sister chromatids of maternal chromosomes D. Sister chromatids of homologous chromosomes. Correct Answer: B Your answer: D Solution: crossing over occurs always between chromatids belongs to paternal and maternal Chromosomes, they are considered as homologous chromosomes. Q.3) A. 13 B. 26 C. 39 D. 52 Correct Answer: B Your answer: C

Solution: Endosperm develops from primary endosperm nucleus (PEN) which is triploid. Therefore, 2n = 26 in all the vegetative cells of that plant. Tissue culture results in the formation of clones as the type of division involved is mitosis. Q.4) A. 26 B. 24 C. 12 D. 22 Correct Answer: B Your answer: B Solution: The meiosis II is the equational cell division. Hence, the chromosome number is maintained. Q.5)

A. TMV and HBV B. HBV and HIV C. HIV and TMV D. HBV and Rhizobium Correct Answer: C Your answer: B Solution: TMV and HIV are RNA viruses (retroviruses) and therefore to multiply, they have to first undergo reverse transcription. To synthesise proteins, they have to first synthesise DNA by reverse transcription. Then they have to transcribe the message to mRNA followed by translation. HBV and Rhizobium are organisms with DNA as the genetic material. Q.6) A. Rhizopus B. Plasmodium C. Rhizobium D. Diatom Correct Answer: C Your answer: B Solution: All except 3 are eukaryotes Q.7) A. Plasmodium B. Entamoeba C. Trypanosma D. Ascaris Correct Answer: A Your answer: D Solution: No.1 is found inside liver cells and RBC all others in the GI tract Q.8) A. A = Antipodals, B = Raphe, C = Nucellus, D = Synergids, E = Funicle, F = Micropyle B. A = Synergids, B = Polar Nuclei, C = Antipodals, D = Funicle, E = Micropyle, F = Nucellus C. A = Antipodals, B = Synergids, C = Polar nuclei, D = Funicle, E = Micropyle, F = Nucellus D. A = Antipodals, B = Polar Nuclei, C = Synergids, D = Nucellus, E = Micropyle, F = Funicle

Correct Answer: D Your answer: D Solution: Antipodals 3 haploid cells that are situated towards the chalazal end of the female gametophyte (embryo sac) Raphe Part of the funicle that grows over the body of the inverted (anatropous) ovule on one side Nucellus Massive nutritive tissue in the angiosperm ovule Synergids 2 haploid cells present towards the micropylar end in the angiosperm ovule Funicle Stalk of the ovule Micropyle Opening (in the integuments) of the ovule Polar Nuclei 2 haploid nuclei which fuse to form diploid secondary nucleus in a , mature angiosperm ovule

Q.9) A. Monodelphous B. Syngenecious C. Adelphous D. Synandrous Correct Answer: D Your answer: B Solution: Adelphy refers to the union of filaments, syngeny refers to the union of anthers. Synandry refers to the union of both filaments as well as anthers Q.10) A. Seeds B. Roots C. Leaves D. Stem Correct Answer: C Your answer: C Solution: The alkaloid is present mostly in the leaves Q.11) A. Peptidyl transferase is an enzyme with four coiled polypeptide chains. B. Carbonic anhydrase is the lipid molecule that acts as a catalyst. C. Rubisco is an enzyme present in cytoplasm of plant cell. D. All enzymes have specific turn over number at constant temperature. Correct Answer: D Your answer: C Q.12) A. Carbohydrate B. Protein C. Lipid D. Nucleic acid Correct Answer: A Q.13) A. Glycosidic Bond

Your answer: B

B. Hydrogen bond C. Phosphodiester Bond D. Nucleosidic Bond Correct Answer: B Your answer: B Q.14) A. Protocells B. Protobionts C. Microspheres D. Coacervates Correct Answer: D Q.15) A. B, C and E B. A, B, C and E C. ) B and E D. A, C and E Correct Answer: C Q.16)

Your answer: B

Your answer: A

A. Eyes B. Caudal fin C. Ears D. Lateral line sense organ Correct Answer: D Your answer: D Q.17) A. Head of cockroach B. Neck of cockroach C. Eyes of cockroach D. Leg of cockroach Correct Answer: D Your answer: D Q.18) A. Red dane, murrach, Hallikar, Ongole B. Amrith Mahal, Sahiwal, Sindhi, Hariyana C. Jersey, Red dane, Brown swiss, Mehsana. D. Nagpuri, surti, Jersey, Ongole. Correct Answer: B Your answer: C Q.19) A. Labeo Rohita B. Chamaeleon C. Scoliodon D. Columba livia Correct Answer: B Your answer: C

Solution: These are the arboreal adaptations of chamaeleon Practical based question Q.20) The diagram of Palaemon is given. Identify the parts labeled a, b, c, d, e A. a. Rostrum, b. antenna, c. telson, d. non-chelate legs e. Carapace B. a. Carapace, b. antenna, c. telson, d. non-chelate legs e. rostrum C. a. Carapace, b. antennule, c. chelate legs, d. non-chelate legs e. rostrum D. a. Carapace, b. rostrum, c. telson, d. non-chelate legs e. antenna Correct Answer: B Your answer: D Solution: The right parts of Palaemon are a. Carapace, b. antenna, c. telson, d. non-chelate legs e. rostrum

Q.21) A. Template strand B. Leading strand C. Sense strand D. Lagging strand Correct Answer: D Your answer: D Solution: The discontinue strand is called lagging strand due to the presence of okazaki fragments. Q.22) A. Its molecular weight is generally lesser than that of mRNA B. More than one form of tRNA exist for each kind of amino acid C. It initiates translation by binding to DNA D. It has the shortest life span among all other kinds of RNA Correct Answer: A Your answer: D Solution: Every amino acid is recognized by a different tRNA during protein synthesis. mRNA has the shortest life span among all the kinds of RNA. Its molecular weight (and also the number of nucleotides) is greater than other types of RNA Q.23) A. Genome B. Gene pool C. Gene bank D. Geno type Correct Answer: A Your answer: A Solution: 2 & 3 refers to all types of genes of a population No. 4 is the genetic make up of an organism Q.24) A. A+T/C+G

B. A+G/ C+T C. A+C/ G+T D. G+T/A+C Correct Answer: A Your answer: B Solution: Total number of Adenine of a strand will be equal to total number of Thymine on the complimentary strand and the total number of Guanine of a strand will be equal to the total number of Cytosine on the other strand, and also Adenine Thymine and Cytosine Guanine ratio is unity for a species. Q.25) A. D B. B C. C D. F Correct Answer: A Your answer: D Q.26) The disorders like muscular dystrophy, colour blindness, hemophilia, etc. can be treated by A. Monoclonal antibodies. B. DNA finger printing. C. Gene therapy. D. Antibiotics. Correct Answer: C Your answer: C Solution: These are genetic diseases therefore they can be treated by gene therapy. Q.27) Unorganized, undifferentiated mass of parenchyma cells produced during cell culture is called A. Callose B. Callus C. Caleese D. Calls Correct Answer: B Your answer: B Solution: Unorganized, undifferentiated mass of parenchyma cells produced during cell culture is called by the name Callus. Q.28) A. restriction sites B. recognition sequences C. either a) or b) D. palindromic DNA Correct Answer: C Your answer: C Solution: Restriction endonuclease cannot cut ssDNA. Q.29) Read the statements and find out the correct one. Statement A - Collenchyma tissue is absent in all monocot roots. Statement B - Cells of cork are compactly arranged and deposited with pectin. A. Statement A is correct and statement B is wrong. B. Statement B is correct and statement A is wrong C. Both the Statements A and B are correct

D. Both the Statements A and B are wrong Correct Answer: C Your answer: C Q.30) Tyloses are A. Responsible for plugging the lumen of vessels B. Special epidermal hairs covering the stomata in certain plants C. Callose pads in sieve plates that block translocation D. Secretions which heal wounds in plants Correct Answer: A Your answer: A Solution: Tyloses are extensions of parenchyma cells into the lumen of vessels. Q.31) The cambium ring formed at the time of secondary growth is a combination of A. Promeristem and primary meristem B. Primary meristem and secondary meristem C. Secondary meristem and intercalary meristem D. Intercalary meristem and ground meristem Correct Answer: B Your answer: C Solution: The cambium ring consists of fascicular cambium and interfascicular cambium. Fascicular cambium is a primary meristem whereas interfascicular cambium is secondary meristem (formed due to the dedifferentiation of parenchyma cells of the medullary rays in line with fascicular cambium. Q.32) Identify the factor from the given when its percentage increases in the atmosphere, the rate of transpiration decreases. A. Temperature B. Humidity C. Light D. Wind velocity Correct Answer: B Your answer: B Solution: Humidity when increases it saturates the atmosphere with water, therefore the rate of transpiration decreases. Q.33) Deplasmolysis occurs when a A. Dried plant cell is placed in hypotonic solution. B. Turgid plant cell is placed in hypertonic solution. C. Plasmolysed cell is kept in hypotonic solution. D. Plasmolysed cell is kept in hypertonic solution. Correct Answer: C Your answer: D Solution: Deplasmolysis is a process of regaining of plasmolysed cells when kept in a hypotonic solution. Q.34) The chemical structure of ATP molecule was clarified by A. Alexander todd B. Karl Lohmann C. Fritz Lipman D. Karl Landsteiner

Correct Answer: A Your answer: A Q.35) Read the statements A and B. Statement A: Flow of sap through xylem is unidirectional. Statement B: Flow of sap through phloem is bidirectional. Identify the correct choice on the two statements. A. Statement A is correct and B is wrong B. Statements both A and B are wrong C. Statements both A and B are correct D. Statement A is wrong and B is correct Correct Answer: C Your answer: A Q.36) Complete oxidation of a molecule of glucose produces 36 ATP molecules. It is equalent to A. 52 k cals of energy B. 36 k cals of energy C. 686 k cals of energy D. 868 k cals of energy. Correct Answer: C Your answer: C Solution: 686 k cals of energy is released when 1 molecule of glucose is oxidized completely, which is equal to 36 ATP. Q.37) During Calvin cycle the enzyme Rubulose bicarboxylase functions as the catalyst for A. Decarboxylation B. Phosphorylation C. Reduction D. Carboxylation Correct Answer: D Your answer: B Solution: Q.38) Calvin cycle is also called C3 pathway because A. Three carbon dioxide molecules enter into the cycle. B. Three Calvin cycles occurs simultaneously. C. First formed intermediate stable compound is a 3 carbon compound called phosphoglyceric acid. D. Carbon trichloride is formed during this cycle. Correct Answer: C Your answer: C Solution: The first formed intermediate stable compound during Calvin cycle is a 3 carbon compound called phosphoglyceric acid, therefore it is called C3 pathway. Q.39) Rapid growth in plants takes place during A. Initial phase of cell division B. Exponential phase C. Decelerating phase D. phase of maturation Correct Answer: B Your answer: B Solution: In 1,3,4 there is least growth

Q.40) Plateau phase in the growth curve is an another name for A. Lag phase B. Log phase C. Steady phase D. Exponential growth phase. Correct Answer: C Your answer: C Solution: The rate of growth slows down after exponential growth phase in the plant body, it is called plateau phase. Q.41) What will be the probable proportion of children of blood group O to the parents having blood group A and B. A. Nil B. 25% C. 50% D. 75% Correct Answer: B Your answer: B Solution: If the parents are heterozygous A & B, probability is that children of all four blood groups are produced at 1:1:1:1 ratio. Q.42) The hybridization on Mirabilis jelapa conducted by Carl Corens is called incomplete dominance because A. Both the genes are expressed completely in the generation B. Only dominant gene is expressed in the generation C. Both the genes are expressed partially in the generation D. The ratio is 1:2:1 Correct Answer: C Your answer: C Solution: It is called incomplete dominance because both the allels are partially expressed in the F1 generation Q.43) Name the scientists who rediscovered the Mendels hybridization techniques A. De Vries, Tschermak, Carl Correns B. T. H. Morgan, Charles Darwin, Carl Correns C. De Vries, T. H. Morgan, Sewall Wright. D. Tschermak, De Vries, T. H. Morgan Correct Answer: A Your answer: D Solution: De Vries of Holland, Tschermak of Austria, Carl Correns of Germany rediscovered Mendelian principles. Q.44) When a dwarf pea plant was treated with gibberellic acid (GA), it grew as tall as the pure tall plant. If this GA treated plant is crossed with a pure tall plant, then the progeny will have A. Only tall plants B. 50% dwarf plants and 50% tall plants C. 75% tall plants and 25% dwarf plants D. 25% homozygous tall plants, 25% heterozygous tall plants and 50% dwarf plants Correct Answer: A Your answer: C

Solution: Dwarf plants grow tall when treated with gibberellins. But they remain genetically dwarf and therefore, yield only tall plants (hybrids) on crossing with pure tall plants. Q.45) Swamp deer is mainly protected in the A. Dachigam national park B. Bandipur national park C. Kanha national park D. Gir national park Correct Answer: C Your answer: C Solution: 1) Hangual (Kashmir stag) is protected in Dachigam national park. 2) Asiatic elephant is protected in Bandipur national park. 4) Lion is protected in Gir national park. Q.46) The antidiabetic drug, gymnemic acid reduces the blood glucose level by A. reducing glucose absorption in small intestine B. increasing the utilization of the blood glucose C. inducing glycogenesis in the liver cells. D. increasing the transport of glucose into the cells Correct Answer: A Your answer: C Solution: gymnemic acid is extracted from the roots and leaves of Gymnema sylvetre. Q.47) Read the statements and find out the correct one. Statement A - Species richness increase as move from equator to the poles on the land. Statement B - The bases of genetic diversity is sexual reproduction and involves fusion of genetically distinct gametes A. Statement A is correct and statement B is wrong. B. Statement B is correct and statement A is wrong C. Both the Statements A and B are correct D. Both the Statements A and B are wrong Correct Answer: B Your answer: C Q.48) Match the items of column I with those listed under column II. Choose the correct answer A. A=r, B=p, C=t, D=q B. A=p, B=t, C=r, D=s C. A=r, B=t, C=p, D=q D. A=p, B=t, C=s, D=r Correct Answer: A Your answer: C

Q.49) The effect noticed immediately with the administration of lysergic acid diethyl amide to a patient is A. stimulation B. depression C. pain relief

D. hallucination Correct Answer: D Your answer: C Q.50) Identify the right statements from the following A. The left lung has 2 lobes and right lung has 3 lobes. B. Inhaled air cools in the nose. C. Thyroid cartilage of larynx is unpaired one. D. Excess of sweating may leads to heart attack Correct Answer: B Your answer: A Solution: The statements I and III are correct whereas, the statement II is wrong because Inhaled air warms the nose and IV, heart attack leads to sweating and V, during inhalation external intercostals muscles contract. Q.51) Identify the path of oxygenated blood in the diagram of the heart given below: A. B. C. D. Correct Answer: B Your answer: B Solution: C Left atrium, D Bicuspid (mitral) valve, F Left ventricle, E Aortic semi lunar valve, A Aorta

Q.52) Diabetes Insipidus is due to A. Hyper secretion of insulin. B. Hypo secretion of insulin. C. Hyper secretion of vasopressin. 4) D. Hypo secretion of vasopressin. Correct Answer: D Your answer: D Solution: It is also called water diurasis due to the hyposecretion of ADH hormone (Vasopressin). Vasopressin helps to reabsorb water from the nephric filtrate at distal convoluted tubule. Q.53) Which one of the following statements is incorrect with reference to the cerebrospinal fluid? A. It is the filtrate of blood plasma containing all components of blood plasma except cells B. It circulates through spaces drained into the venous system through the arachnoid villi C. Anterior choroid plexus secreting CSF is the epithalamus fused with piamater D. Posterior choroid plexus is highly folded part of nonnervous roof of medulla oblongata Correct Answer: A Your answer: C Solution: It is the filtrate of blood plasma containing all components of blood plasma except cells It is not a filtrate of blood plasma since many substances of plasma cannot diffuse into CSF. Hence, blood brain barrier keeps the brain away from many toxic items of blood plasma.

Q.54) The correct sequence that represents the functioning of humoral immunity in human system is A. Bone marrow lymphocytes Bursa fabricius B lymphocytes clonal selection plasma cells B. Bone marrow lymphocytes Thymus T lymphocytes CD4 and CD8 cells. C. Bone marrow lymphocytes Thymus T lymphocytes Interact with macrophages activate B lymphocytes D. T lymphocytes CD4 and CD8 cells antibodies passive and active immunity Correct Answer: C Your answer: C Solution: Q.55) Structure A acts as an endocrine tissue and produces several hormones like human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG), estrogen, progesterone, etc. Identify A. A. Corpus leuteum B. Ovary C. Placenta D. Interstitial cells Correct Answer: C Your answer: A Solution: Q.56) The correct sequence of stages in the development of frog is A. Cleavage Blastula Morula Gastrula B. Cleavage Morula Blastula Gastrula C. Cleavage Blastula Neurula Gastrula D. Cleavage Morula Gastrula Blastula Correct Answer: B Your answer: B Q.57) Egg of frog is explained as A. Microlecithal and Isolecithal B. mesolecithal and telolecithal C. Megalecithal and Telolecithal D. Mesolecithal and Centrolecithal Correct Answer: B Your answer: B Solution: Egg has moderate yolk which is on the vegetal half. Hence 2 is correct Q.58) The cavity of gastrula is the A. Blastocoel which becomes the future alimentary canal. B. Archenteron which becomes the future alimentary canal. C. Blastocoel which becomes the future Body cavity. D. Archenteron which becomes the future reproductive cana Correct Answer: B Your answer: B Solution: The cavity is the archenteron which forms alimentary canal and its opening called blastopore becomes the anus of the future embryo. Q.59) Maceration is a technique which is used to study the xylem thickenings, it includes A. ) Dissolving the cell wall by treated with nitric acid and potassium chlorate.

B. Dissolving the middle lamella by treated with acetic acid and potassium chlorate. C. Dissolving the cells by treated with nitric acid and amino acids. D. Dissolving the middle lamella by treated with nitric acid and potassium chlorate. Correct Answer: D Your answer: A Solution: During Maceration middle lamella of the plant cell are dissolved by treated with nitric acid and potassium chlorate. Q.60) The blood cell shown below is a A. Neutrophil B. Monocyte C. Eosinophil D. Lymphocyte Correct Answer: A Your answer: C Solution: