Module 5 BI

Full Exam Paper plus solution Module 5 . 1 . 1 Level 2 Q 1 SIDS data stored in the FMC Performance database are: (a) Standard Instrument Departures. X (b) Standard Information Departure Service. (c) none of the above. Module 5 . 1 . 1 Level 2 Q 2 In an EICAS system, Secondary Engine parameters move to the upper tube when: (a) the status mode is displayed. X (b) the event record is pressed. (c) MAX IND is reset. Module 5 . 1 . 1 Level 2 Q 3 A Level "B" alert message on EICAS requires: (a) prompt action. (b) time available action. (c) timely action. X Module 5 . 1 . 1 Level 2 Q 4 The Attitude Sphere Pitch and Roll Movement on an EADI are supplied from which of the following systems ? (a) TCAS. (b) IRS. X (c) GPS. Module 5 . 2 . 1 Level 1 Q 5 The result of adding 11001 to 10110 is: (a) 101111. X (b) 111111. (c) 1011111. Module 5 . 2 . 1 Level 1 Q 6 Convert the Octal number 723 to binary. (a) 011100100011. (b) 111010011. X (c) 111100011. Module 5 . 2 . 1 Level 1 Q 7 The logic representation favoured by most designers is: (a) positive logic. X (b) negative logic. (c) positive/negative logic.

Module 5 . 2 . 1 Level 1 Q 8 The resultant of adding the binary numbers 1110, 101, 0011 is: (a) 10011. (b) 10110. X (c) 11010. Module 5 . 3 . 1 Level 1 Q 9 A device used to convert analogue data into digital form is called: (a) a decoder. (b) an ADC. X (c) a DAC. Module 5 . 3 . 1 Level 1 Q 10 An ADC converts: (a) a Digital input into a corresponding Analogue output. (b) an Analogue input into several Analogue outputs. (c) an Analogue input into a corresponding Digital output. X Module 5 . 3 . 1 Level 1 Q 11 A DAC converts: (a) an Analogue input into a corresponding Digital output. (b) a Digital input into a corresponding Analogue output. X (c) a Digital input into several Digital outputs. Module 5 . 3 . 1 Level 1 Q 12 A disadvantage of a simple 3 bit output ADC is that it: (a) gives very poor resolution and is not very practicle. X (b) has a very slow conversion time. (c) has a very fast conversion time. Module 5 . 3 . 1 Level 1 Q 13 The Tracking ADC uses: (a) an ADC in its circuitry. (b) a DAC in its circuitry. X (c) a Servomechanism in its circuitry. Module 5 . 3 . 1 Level 1 Q 14 In A/D conversion what is the Quantisation interval ? (a) The time between successive analogue to digital conversions. (b) 2 raised to the power of n, where n = the number of bits in the A/D converter binary output. (c) The analogue voltage value between successive quantisation levels. X Module 5 . 4 . 1 Level 2 Q 15 An ARINC 429 digital data bus transmission line consists of: (a) a pair of conductors. X

(b) three wires. (c) a single conductor. Module 5 . 5 . 1 Level 2 Q 16 The Boolean identity (A . 1 =): (a) A. X (b) 1. (c) 0. Module 5 . 5 . 1 Level 2 Q 17 When both J and K inputs to a negative edge triggered JK flip-flop are logic 1, the Q output: (a) changes on every clock pulse. X (b) changes on every second clock pulse. (c) is always 1. Module 5 . 5 . 1 Level 2 Q 18 The advantage of using an EXCLUSIVE OR gate rather than a BASIC OR gate is that a logic state: (a) 1 output is obtained when one input is logic 0 and the other logic 1. (b) 0 output is obtained when both inputs are at logic 1. X (c) 1 output is obtained when both inputs are at logic 1. Module 5 . 5 . 1 Level 2 Q 19 The indeterminate state for the RS flip flop is when: (a) both inputs are logic 0. (b) both inputs are logic 1. X (c) the S input is 1 and the R input is 0. Module 5 . 5 . 1 Level 2 Q 20 The speed of data transfer into a simple register using basic S-R bistables is uncontrolled. This is overcome by using: (a) master-slave bistables. X (b) parallel registers only. (c) synchronised clock pulses. Module 5 . 5 . 1 Level 2 Q 21 If the word NOT is added to a proposition the operation is known as: (a) stopping. (b) negating. X (c) commending. Module 5 . 5 . 1 Level 2 Q 22 In an Asynchronous Binary Counter the clock input is connected: (a) to each flip flop. (b) only to the last flip flop.

(c) only to the first flip flop. X Module 5 . 5 . 1 Level 2 Q 23 Negative logic means: (a) the more positive voltage is logic 1. (b) the more negative voltage is logic 1. X (c) all voltages used are negative. Module 5 . 6 . 1 Level 2 Q 24 In Computer Terms a Byte is: (a) a 4-bit word. (b) an 8-bit word. X (c) a 16-bit word. Module 5 . 6 . 1 Level 2 Q 25 In a Computer System, Software is:(a) the operational program. X (b) the physical equipment of the computer system. (c) both of the above. Module 5 . 6 . 1 Level 2 Q 26 Magnetic materials are used in: (a) EPROM. (b) some types of RAMs. X (c) ROMs only. Module 5 . 10. 1 Level 1 Q 27 An LED used in Fibre Optic applications is made of: (a) Indium Oxide. (b) Gallium ****nide Phosphide. (c) Gallium ****nide Indium Phosphide. X Module 5 . 11. 1 Level 2 Q 28 To brighten a PPI tube, the cathode must be taken more: (a) positive or the grid more negative. (b) negative or the grid more positive. X (c) negative or the grid more negative. Module 5 . 11. 1 Level 2 Q 29 In a cathode ray tube, dangerous EHT voltages exist at the: (a) Post Deflection Anode (PDA). X (b) X and Y deflection plates. (c) heaters. Module 5 . 11. 1 Level 2 Q 30 Power supply arrangements are such that the final anode is usually at

earth potential. This is to ensure that: (a) the electrons will have zero deflection at this stage. (b) the PDA facility will have the full effect. (c) de-focusing effects are kept to a minimum. X Module 5 . 11. 1 Level 2 Q 31 Brilliance correction can be achieved by using: (a) low-level clamped trapezoidal pulses. (b) trapezoidal pulses but not if bright-up is being used. (c) trapezoidal pulses but not if blanking is being used. X Module 5 . 12. 1 Level 2 Q 32 ESDS sensitive ICs are transported: (a) in plastic bags only. (b) with their leads open. (c) with their leads shorted. X Module 5 . 14. 1 Level 2 Q 33 HIRF has most effect on: (a) flight control cables. (b) signal carrying cables. X (c) power feeder cables. Module 5 . 15. 1 Level 2 Q 34 Each GPS satellite transmits two: (a) X band frequencies. (b) L band frequencies. X (c) C band frequencies. Module 5 . 15. 1 Level 2 Q 35 Fault ball indications are particularly useful for diagnosing: (a) line defects. (b) transient faults. X (c) open circuit faults. Module 5 . 15. 1 Level 2 Q 36 In a TCAS system, a resolution advisory is indicated by: (a) an open diamond. (b) a red circle and an aural warning. (c) a red square and an aural warning. X Module 5 . 15. 1 Level 2 Q 37 Symbols coloured white on the EADI are: (a) warnings. (b) cautionary warnings. (c) present status situation. X

Module 5 . 15. 1 Level 2 Q 38 The gas found in an IRS Laser Gyro is: (a) Hydrogen. (b) Argon-Helium. (c) Helium-Neon. X Module 5 . 15. 1 Level 2 Q 39 How is the EICAS BITE test cancelled ? (a) By pressing the erase button. (b) By switching the system off. (c) By pressing the test switch again. X Module 5 . 15. 1 Level 2 Q 40 The symbol used to represent a WAYPOINT on an EFIS display is a: (a) star. X (b) square. (c) circle.
Module 2

Module 2(Physics) 1) The gyroscopic principle of "Rigidity" operates on: a. Newtons 3rd Law b. Newtons 2nd Law c. Newtons 1st Law 2) Water is: a. An Element b. A compound c. A mixture 3) Dew point is: a. The Temperature at which condensation actually occurs b. The Temperature at below which condensation occurs c. The Temperature at above which condensation occurs 4)Fibre Optics operate on the principle of: a.?? b. Total internal reflection c.?? 5)In a concave mirror, If an object is placed between the focal point and the pole, the image will be: a. Real, Inverted and larger b. Virtual and on the opposite side

c. Real, erect and diminished 6)For a fixed mass of water at sea level ISA conditions and at 10,000ft: a. The water will boil at a higher temperature than sea level b. The water will boil at the same temperature as sea level c. The water will boil at a lower temperature than sea level 7)An atom that has lost an electron is: a. Positively Charged b. Negatively Charged c. It possesses no charge 8)Youngs modulus of elasticity is: a. Stress multiplied by Strain b. Stress divided by strain c. Strain divided by stress 9)100Kelvin in degrees Celsius is: a.-173 b.273 c.100 10)842 degrees Fahrenheit is equal to: a.400 Degrees Celsius b.450 Degrees Celsius c.232.2 degrees Celsius 11)Which of the following is an example of a Longitudinal Wave a. Sound Wave b. Light Wave c. Radio Wave 12) An astronaut blasting off from Earth experiences a G-Force of? (Take g as 9.8 m/s/s) a.5g b.6g c.7g 13) A ball is dropped from rest. What is its speed after 4 seconds? (Take G as 10m/s.s) a. 20m/s b. 40m/s c. 80m.s Thats all I can remember at present but will try get more. There were a lot of questions bases on the Pressure=Force/Area equation and also manipulating

formula in general. I have also included past questions from Shannon Aerospace Physics exam in the past. 1) Compound are made up of: a. elements in fixed ratios b. substances which retain their original form c. two or more substances mingled together 2) A ball is dropped from rest. What is its speed after 3 seconds?(take G as 10m/s.s) a.90m/s b.45m/s c.30m/s 3)A lifting machine moves an effort a distance of 200cm in order to raise a load by .5m.The Velocity Ratio is: a.0.25 b.4 c.40 4)A force of 15N is needed to move a body of mass 30kg along a footpath with uniform velocity. Find the coefficient of Dynamic Friction:-(take g as 10m/s.s) a.1/20 b.1/2 c.20 5)A motorcycle of mass 400kg is moving at a velocity of 8m/s.Calculate its momentum: a.320 kgm/s b.3200 kgm/s c.50 kgm/s 6)The specific gravity of Meths is 0.8.Its density is: a.800kg/m3 b.800g/m3 c.80kg/m3 7)The density of CU is 8,900kg/m3,what is its relative density: a.8.9 b.89 c.890 8)How does the viscosity of a liquid change with temperature: a. viscosity of a liquid increases with increasing temperature b. viscosity of a liquid decreases with increasing temperature c. Viscosity of a liquid does not change with temperature

9)Which of the following 2 points are equal: a.40 degrees C and 40 degrees F b.-32 degrees C and 0 degrees F c.-40 degrees C and -40 degrees F 10)When is the only time a concave mirror forms a virtual image: a. when the object is placed at the centre of curvature b. when the object is at the focus c. when the object is inside the focus 11)A convex mirror forms a virtual image when: a. the object is inside the focus b. always c. the object is at the centre of curvature 12)Two Vectors are at 90 degrees to each other having magnitudes of 3N and 4N.The resultant is: a.5N b.7N c.1N 13)What is 100 degrees Centigrade in Fahrenheit: a.30 Degrees b.148 Degrees c.212 Degrees 14)What work is done if a force of 100N moves a body 15metres: a.0.15mJ b.1500kJ c.1.5kJ 15)Which of the following has no units: a. Stress b. Strain c. Elasticity 16)A Concave mirror is used for: a. Headlights b. Rear View Mirror c. Periscope 17)What is the wavelength of a note of frequency 1kHz when its velocity is 340m/s: a.0.34m b.3.4m c.0.34km

18)If the speed of a gyro is increased, the force required to precess the gyro is: a. Increased b. Decreased c. Remains the same
Mod2

Module 2 Module 2 - Physics Module 2 Physics A note from the Sender... "A good thing people should be made aware about the B2 exam is the depth that they go into on fibre optics. My last paper contained about six or seven questions, I only remembered a few as they were straight over my head, I can remember them going on a about local oscillators and various other in-depth areas" What do you get when you add 2H2 and O2 a) 2H2O b) 2HO c) 2H20 A gyroscope suffers from apparent wander this is caused by a) Friction on the gimbals and bearings b) The aircraft flying along a north south track c) The earths rotation The splitting of a chemical compound is called a) Analysis b) Bombardment c) Synthesis The specific heat capacity of a gas heated at a constant pressure, will the specific heat capacity of the same gas heated at a constant volume a) Be the same b) Less c) More A time period of 10 microseconds is equal to a frequency of a) 10KHZ b) 1MHZ c) 100KHZ When heat flows from a hot area to a cold area it is called a) Convection b) Conduction c) Radiation

 A quadrature component of a vector is a) 1800 to the original b) 450 to the original c) 900 to the original Attenuation in fibre optic cables is caused by a) Backscattering and microbends b) Absorption and scattering c) Microbends and scattering In a fibre optic flying control system a) The sensor needs electrical power b) The sensor and transmitter require electrical power c) The sensor inputs to the transmitter, which needs power to send the signal down the fibre optic cable 1 Newton is equal to a) 1 Joule per second b) 1 kilogram of force c) 1 kilogram meter per second per second 1 degree rise on the centigrade scale will cause a a) 0.911 rise in 0F b) 33 rise in 0F c) 1.8 rise in 0F Adiabatic compression is when a) Kinetic energy is gained b) A compression cycle where no heat is lost or gained c) Where heat is given of to the surroundings The addition of 2 separate vectors to produces a vector called the a) Sum b) Resultant c) Component

What is the momentum of a ball of mass 2 grams and has a velocity of 10cm/s a) 0.0002kgm/s b) 20Kgm/s

c) 5Kgm/s What is the atomic number? a) Number of protons in an atom b) Number of electrons in an atom c) Number of neutrons in an atom What is the mass number? a) Number of electrons and protons b) Number of neutrons and protons c) Number of electrons and neutrons What is the kinetic energy of a plane of mass of 2 metric tonnes and has a velocity of 2m/s a) 4Kj b) 2Kj c) 0.2Kj In fibre optics the type of cable chosen by a) Matching the diameter of the cable to the wavelength b) Distance required to travel c) The strength of signal needed The most common good refrigerants are a) Water ammonia freon b) Water freon carbon dioxide c) Ammonia freon methyl bromide

The specific gravity of a substance is calculated by a) The density of the body divided by the density of water b) Density of the body squared c) Density of the body squared multiplied by the density of water An atom with 3 free electrons is said to be a) Trivalent b) Pentavelent c) Covalent

 The heat required to change a liquid to a gas is called the heat of a) Fusion b) Vaporisation c) Condensation The 'Sl' unit of Mass is a) The pound (LB) b) The metre (m) c) The Kilogram (kg) The Sl base unit of length is: a) The centimetre b) The kilometre c) The metre The Sl unit of acceleration is: a) The square metre (m2) b) The metre per second squared (m/s2) c) The metre/second (m/s) The Sl unit of density is a) The cubic metre (m3) b) The Pascal (Pa) c) The kilogram per cubic metre (kg/m3)

The Sl unit of energy is a) The Joule (J) b) The Watt (W) c) The Pascal (Pa) Ten kilograms is expressed numerically as a) 10kg b) 1 Mg c) 10K A force of 10 million Newton's is expressed numerically as a) 1 MN b) 10mn c) 10MN 1. An atom consists of:

Protons and electrons Protons and neutrons Protons, neutrons and electrons 2. The maximum number of electrons in the inner shell of an atom is: 2 4 8 3. A good refrigerant has: High condensing temperature, high condensing pressure High condensing temperature, low condensing pressure Low condensing temperature, high condensing pressure 4. Stress is given by: Force per unit area

5. An object accelerating down a slope would gain kinetic energy: Equal to the potential energy lost Greater than the potential energy lost Less than the potential energy lost 6. Produced quality of sound depends on: Frequency and harmonics of the waves being produced Pure sine waves being produced by the source Quality of the receiver 7. An atom with five electrons in its outer shell is: Covalent Pentavalent Trivalent

8. Temperature is a measure of: Heat energy of particles The amount of vibration of particles

9. The weight of an object in air suspended in gas or liquid would: Decrease Increase Stay the same 10.If 5kg of ice melts it would: Take up less volume Take up more volume Take up the same volume 11.In a heat pump: Flow across the condenser is always in one direction The compressor gains heat The condenser loses heat 12.Precession in a gyro is: Inversely proportional to the magnitude of the torque applied Proportional to the magnitude of the torque applied Proportional to the square of the magnitude of the torque applied

13.Particles vibrating in air: Produce waves Tend to give off heat 14.The force which opposes twisting deformation in a material is: Strain Stress Torsion 15.A gyro with a fixed point free to rotate in three axis is: An earth gyro A space gyro A tied gyro 16.Heat received from radiation is: Inversely proportional to the distance from the source Inversely proportional to the square of the distance from the source

Proportional to the distance from the source 17.For a diffusing lens the image is: Behind the lens Beyond the lens 18.When light rays enter a medium with a different refractive index: They change speed

19.A converging lens can focus light rays: Because it is a sphere Because the incoming rays are already converging Because the light rays travel more slowly in the centre 20.Two sound waves of close frequency could be heard as: A beat Two distinct sounds Two varying sounds 21.The mass of a proton equals the mass of a: Beta particle Electron Neutron 22.Catalysts: Slow down reactions Speed up and slow down reactions Speed up reactions 23.A force perpendicular to a beam is: Compressive Shear Tensile 24.What is the speed of sound in air at 0 degrees C: 331 metres per second 25.What temperature scale is used with the Combined Gas laws: Centigrade Fahrenheit Kelvin

26.What is the speed of light in air: 300 000 kilometres per second

27.If a ray of light enters a fibre optic cable with refractive index 1.5, What is the speed of the ray in the cable: 200 000 kilometres per second 300 000 kilometres per second 400 000 kilometres per second

28.Focal length is equal to: Half the distance between the centre of the sphere and the mirror 29.Mass number is equal to: The number of protons and electrons in an atom The number of protons and neutrons in an atom The total mass of an atom 30.Graded index fibre optic cable: Has a variable refractive index across its cross sectional area 31.To what height would water rise in a tube given the pressure is 1 bar: 9.81 metres 10.19 metres 32.For a concave lens the image is A chromatic orb Real Virtua 33.If a wave travelling to a point meets a wave, from that point, of equal frequency: A standing wave is formed The two waves cancel each other out They have no effect on each other

34.What shape is a venturi tube: Gradually tapers to minimum cross sectional area Maximum cross sectional area in the centre Minimum cross sectional area in the centre 35.If a fluid moves slowly it has: High viscosity Low viscosity Medium viscosity 36.What is boundary layer: Air at the wing vortices Laminar flow over the wings reducing drag 37.What is the energy required to change state from solid to liquid: Heat of fusion Heat of vaporisation Specific heat-------------------Module 11

1) Air above mach 0.7 is a) compressible b) incompressible c) compressible only when above the speed of sound 2) spongy brakes are usually a result of a) air in the system b) internal leakage c) external leakage 3) Over inflated tyres may cause damage to a) wheel hub b) wheel flange c) brake drum 4) what is 111,1MHz a) ILS b) VOR c) COMMS 5) At what colour does a yellow fuseable plug on a wheel melt at? a) ? b) ? c) ?

6) Above the critical mach no. the drag coefficient will a) increase b) decrease c) remain the same 6) Oxygen cylinders are removed from a/c and tested every a) 2 years b) 3 years c) 6 years (maybe 4 years was an answer)
Modules 6 and 7

1. To correctly tension cables it can help to: a. Have control surface locks in to support weight and adjust turnbuckles equally.* CAIP AL/3-7 b. Take up initial slack by additional pulleys c. Use a cable run with turnbuckles at least every eight feet 2. Honeycomb for repair can be removed with: a. a drill b. Locally manufactured concave knife c. A Router* CAIP AL/7-6 3. Aircraft skin is joggled to: a. Conform to the Area rule b. Provide smooth airflow at faying surfaces* c. Make a frame lighter but stronger 4. Dzuz Fasteners provide: a. For easy hammering into position b. A close tolerance fit c. Quick release fasteners at inspection panels * naval hardware 5. The pot life of a cold cured resin: a. Increases with increase of temperature b. Is not reliant upon temperature fluctuations c. Decreases with an increase in temperature * ATTITA composite notes/CAIPAL7-6 6. British turnbuckles are checked for safety by: a. Attempting to pass a hardened pin probe through the inspection hole *CAIP3-7 b. Attempting to pass locking wire through the hole c. Looking through the hole and checking for threads showing

7. A full list of decals would be found in a. ANOs b. Maintenance schedule c. Aircraft log book 8. a Skydrol hydraulic seal would be made of a. Butyl rubber, ethylyne propolyne or Teflon * Phosphate ester based fluid b. Natural rubber Vegetable based fluid c. Synthetic rubber Mineral based fluid CAIP AL/3-21 9. The British system of heat treatment codes is a. A series of numbers b. A series if letters *CAIP BL/9-1 c. Numbers and letters 10. The American system of heat treatment codes uses a. Numbers b. Letters c. Numbers and Letters *A&P General Sect 7 11. When fitting a replacement flexible hose a. Ensure adequate clearance between the hose and the aircraft structure *CAIP 3-13 b. Use the old one to apply the set c. Always pressure test before fitting 12. What is used to prevent chaffing of a cable through a bulkhead a. Cable is wrapped with lubricated hessian sleeve b. Radiused quadrants c. Fairleads * naval hardware 13. Resin to hardener ratio is 100:45, how much hardener is used with 60 grammes of resin a. 47 grammes b. 27 grammes * c. 145 grammes 14. The specified torque for loading a bolt is 50ils/ins but an extension of 2 ins is needed to reach the bolt in addition to the 8inch torque wrench. What will the actual reading be

a. 54lbs/ins b. 40lls/ins * CAIP BL-30 c. 60lbs/ins 15 What colour is used to identify a tertiary structure on a diagram or drawing a. Yellow b. Green * c. Red 16. What colour is used to identify a primary structure on a diagram or drawing a. Yellow b. Green c. Red * 17. If you are unable to identify a structure classification as either primary or secondary what action should you take a. Grade as secondary b. Upgrade as primary * c. Paint it red and stamp it as tertiary 18. What is meant by the term Pitch ratio a. The distance between two holes *CAIP BL/6-29 (Rivet Pitch) b. The distance between the hole and the edge of the material c. The area of contact between the two sheets of metal when joining by rivets 19. What is meant by the term Major Repair a. Repairs which can be made without dismantling for access and do not require the use of specialist tools b. Repairs which can be made whilst the aircraft is enroute c. Repairs which require the use of special jigs, supports or jury structure and some dismantling * 20. The length of solid rivets is in graduations of a. 1/8 inch b. inch c. 1/16 inch * CAIP BL/6-27 21 What would be the diameter and length of a solid rivet if the following markings are given, AS 162-408

a. inch dia, 1 inch length b. inch dia, inch length c. 1/8 inch dia, inch length * CAIP BL/6-27 22. What would the marking .5 indicate after the normal part number of a solid rivet a. Indicates close tolerance rivet * CAIP BL/6-27 b. The diameter of the rivet is half an inch c. The rivet length is in graduations of 1/8 inch 23. What is the pressure range for the Avdel Riveter type F a. 20 to 60 psi b. 60 to 80 psi c. 40 to 60 psi 24. What is the length of the operation stroke of the Avdel Riveter type F a. 7/8 inch b. 1 inch c. inch 25. Solid rivets made from BS L37 will age harden after heat treatment. In what period of time must the rivets be used before re-treatment is required a. 2 hours * CAIP BL/6-27 b. 2 hours c. 4 hours 25. If treated rivets have not been used within the prescribed time they can be re-treated. What is the max number of times that they can be retreated a. Twice only b. Three times * CAIP/BL6-27 c. If no more in stores, as many times as required 26. How can age hardening be delayed a. Dip the rivets in a salt bath for a period of time b. Keep the rivets in a warm oven at a temp of 118deg C for a max of 60 hours c. Place the rivets in a refrigerator set at 0 deg C to 5 deg C for a max of 45 hours * CAIP/BL6-27 27. When fitting Rivnuts how are they secured and prevented from rotating a. Peened

b. Locked at the rear c. A locating key * CAIP BL/6-28

Modules 3, 4 , 5 Part 1

MODULES 3, 4 5 Part 1 1. 1.Air flow around a wing causes (a) Increase in speed and decrease in pressure over the upper surface and a decrease in speed and an increase in pressure over the lower surface (b) Decrease in speed and pressure over the upper surface and an increase in speed and decrease in pressure over the lower surface (c)Increase in speed and pressure over the upper surface and a decrease in speed and pressure ouer the lower surface 2. The centre of pressure is the:(a) Point on the chord line through which the resultant lift force acts (b)Point of maximum pressure on the lower surface of a wing (c)Point through which the resultant of all the weight forces act 3. If the angle of attack is increased the centre of pressure will:(a.)Move forward (b.) Move rearwards (c) Remain stationary 4. With an increase in air density, lift will:a. Increase b. Decrease c. Be unchanged 5. The optimum angle of attack is the angle at which the: (a)Aerofoil produces maximum lift (b) Aerofoil produces least drag (e) The highest lift drag ratio is produced 6.Angle of attack of an aerofoil is the angle between:(a)Wing chord and free steam airflow (b )Wing chord and longitudinal.axis (c)Wing chord and tail plane chord 7. Form drag and skin friction together are known as: (a) Parasite drag (b) Profile drag (c) Induced drag 8. A wing of 40 ins chord has a thickness/chord ratio of 10%. The thickness would be:-

(a) 4ins (b) 0.4 (c)10 ins 9. Induced drag is due to: .(a) Surface roughness (b) Lift being produced (c) Frontal area 10. The fin helps to give: (a) Directional stability about the longitudinal axis (b) Directional stability about the normal axis (c) Longitudinal stability about the normal axis . 11. The critical Mach No is the: (a) Mach No when the aircraft reaches the speed of sound (b) Mach No when a shock wave forms at the leading edges (c) Aircraft Mach No when the airflow at some point on it reaches the speed of sound 12. An aeroplane flying above the critical Mach No will usually experience:(a) A nose down pitch (b)A nose up pitch (c) An oscillation in pitch 13. A Mach Triimner is a device which: (a) Automatically compensates for trim changes in the transonic region . (c) Prevents the aircraft from exceeding its critical Mach No (d) Switches out trim control to prevent damage in the transonic speed range 14. The waisted fuselage on some modern aircraft in the vicinity of the wings is due to: (a) Manufacturing problems (b) The application of area rule (c)Radar interference problems 15. The maximum allowable extension of a chain assembly over normal length is: ( a) 3% (b) 5% ` (c)2% 16. When the flaps are lowered on landing approach the aircraft will: (a) Pitch nose up (b) Pitch nose down (c) Lose Iift rapidly 17. When the right rudder pedal is rooved forwards the: (a) Rudder moves to the left

(c) Rudder servo tab moves to the right (d) Rudder moves to the right I8. A geared balance tab is an auxiliary surface fitted to a main control surface: (a) Operating automatically to assist the pilat moving the surface (b) Operating automatically to provide feel to the controls (c) Operating independently by the pilot to remove excessive loads from the controls 19. An anti balance tab is used to: (a) Trim the aircraft (b) Relieve stick loads Give more f eel to the controls 20. A tab which assists the pilot to move a flying control by moving autoana.tically in the opposite direction to the control surface is called a a. trim tab b. servo tab c. geared balance tab 21. Down movement of the elevator trim tab will: (a) Make the aircraft nose heavy (b) Overcome a tendency for the aircraft to fly nose heavy (c) Overcome a tendeney for the aircraf t to fly tail heavy 22. On an aircraft fitted with spoilers for lateral control, roll to the right is caused. by: (a)Right spoi.lers extending, Ieft spoilers remaininq retracted (b)Left spoilers extending, right spoilers remaining retracted (c)Left and right spoilers extending 23. Aerodynamic balance is used to (a) Prevent flutter of the control surfaces (b) Make the control surfaces easier to move (c) Reduce the control surface Ioad to zero 24. Control surfaces are mass balanced to: (a) Eliminate control flutter (b) Aerodynamically assist the pilot move the controls (c) Provide equal control forces on all three controls 25. In a simple spring feel unit , how does the 'feel' vary? (a) In proportion tp distance of control column from neutral (b) With aircraft speed and control surface deflection (c) With aircraft speed and air density

26. In a fully powered control system, how is the aircraft directionally trimmed about the normal axis? (a) By aileron trim tab (b) moving the balance tab on the rudder (c ) Repositioning the rudder surf ace 27. Stressed skin constructios is: (a) A method of fitting skins under tension (b)A structure in which the skin is load bearing (c) A process in which skin and stingers are machined from solid 28. A monocoque structure: (a) Has no supporting members, all the loads being taken by the skin (b) Has some supporting members to help the skin take the loads (c) Is made entirely from one single piece of metal 29.An integrally machined structure has (a)Stiffeners attached to the skin by bonding (b) Stiff eners attached to the skin by welding (c)Has skin and stiffeners machined from a solid block 30. Fuselage frames are numbered to: (a) Give an easy reference for location of components etc (b) Ensure that frames are manufactured to the correct specification (c) Aid the manufacturer on assembly in the jig 31.A wing spar is subject mainly to a. Bending loads b. Tensile loads (c) Shear loads 32 . A f ail safe structure has : (a) A higher than normal safety factor (b) A containment shield around a jet engine to prevent fuselage damage in event of engine failure Suff icient strength to permit continued operation for limited time after failure of part of the primary structure 33.When compared with pure aluminium, how would the corrosion resistance of aluminium alloy be best described? (a) Superior (b)Inferior (c) About the same 34. What is the name of the anti-corrosive process applied to some aliminium alloys? (a) Chromating (b) Anodising (c) Livingstoning 35. Which of the following factors make titanium more preferable than mild steel? (a) Strength/weight ratio (b)Low cost of production (c) Better machining properties (ie easier to cut, file,drill etc)

36. What is used to bond laminated sheets of carbon fibre together to produce carbon fibre reinforced plastic structure? (a) Phenolic formaldehyde (b) Polyester resin (c) Epoxy resin 37.What is the purpose of a fatigue meter? (a) It gives the pilot a visual indication of 'G' loads (b) It absorbs loads and registers proof stress (c) It measures loads which are used in the calculation of fatigue life consumption 38. What is meant by the term allowance when riveting? (a) The difference between hole diameter and rivet diameter (b) The amount of rivet shank allowed to form the tail (c) The spacing distance in a double lap joint 39.A close tolerance standard hexagon is identified by (a) A raised disc on the head (b) An embossed ring on the head (c) By a green dyed finish 40.Which of the following close tolerance fasteners does the hexagon part of the nut torque off? (a) Lockbolt (b) Unfixed close tolerance bolt (c) Hi-lock fastener 41. Bending stresses are a combination of: (a) Tension and shear stresses (b) torsional and compression stresses (c)Tension and compression stresses 42. What is used in the neutralising procedure following the spillage of battery acid? (a) A dilute solution of sodium bicarbonate (b) A washing of distilled water (c)An application of a coat of Vaseline 43. What is the effect of immnediate refrigeration (-15C to -20 C ) after solution treatment of alminium alloy components? (a) To suspend natural ageing for a limited period (b) To increase the rate of artificial ageing (c) To soften the metal permanently thus retarding fatigue 44. What causes stress corrosion cracking? (a)A large area of visible corrosion (b) A combination of a steady tensile load and a corrosive condition (c)Overstressing the structure 45. Carbon Reinforced Pl.tic (CRP~ is: (a)Stronger than GRP (b) Weaker than GRP (c) As strong as GRP 46. 'HI-LOCR` fasteners must be, (a)De-greased before use (b)Fitted using a torque wrench (c) Installed 'as received' from stores

47 Under the 'Hole Classification' system, close tolerance bolts are:- (a) Close Ream and Class III (b)Close Ream and Class I (c)Classes I and II 48.In a hydraulic retraction system, operation in the correct order is achieved by , (a) Sequence valves (b) Non-return valves (c) Shuttle valves 49. Hydraulic accumulator gas pressure can be checked: (a) At any time (b) With the system depressurised (c) With the system pressurised only 50.What does a triple redundancy equipped aircraft in a single hydraulic system failure condition use-for primary control? (a) Balance tabs (b) Standby pump system started by the crew (c) The remaining hydraulic systems
Module 5

An FMS SYSTEM, BESIDES CONTROLLING NAVIGATION, THRUST AND AUTO-NAV, ALSO PROVIDES take off and landing warnings dedicated status and warnings gpws warnings What does the CADC feed alt/fms/sec radar stby alt / machmeter cab press ctrllr sensor / machmeter / altimeter The recording medium in an FDR is a HD floppy disk plastic tape coated with ferrite copper foil coated with ferrite CRT horizontal beam control is achieved by a square wave sawtooth wave sinusoidal wave An ARINC 429 bus uses a twisted sheilded pair of wires two bi- directional twin sheathed and earthed wires a single twin wire cable for each transmitter The inputs and outputs of a CADC are pitot and static in;altitude, attitude;IAS and VS out pitot and static in; altitude, IAS, mach and VS out pitot in; static, altitude, mach ,IAS and VS out HSI heading is valid if the heading flag is

in view green out of view ARINC 573 is related to what system INS FDR WX RADAR The rising runway is positioned from information derived from barometric height vertical speed radio altimeter If a signal has quantity in volts and physical position it is digital analogue sychronous Flight director command bars are moved to the correct position by position feedback amplifier gain calibration What information is required before completion of the alignment of an inertail navigation system aircraft present position aircraft present position and heading heading and attitude IRS accelerometers are mounted 60 degrees to each other 45 90 Fly by wire control is acheived by ailerons spoilers spoilers and ailerons Asingle failure of a fly by wire system has no effect on aircraft operation will limit flight profile will reduce operational heights and speeds ARINC 629 current mode couplers are

capacitive resistive inductive In order to maintain HIRF protection, bonding checks between airframe and electrical components carrying voltages greater than 50 volts RMS or DC or main earth return should not exceed 1 megohm 1 OHM 0.05 OHM EADI sky and ground display is provided by synthetic TV signals raster scan stroke pulse Normal transmission order of ARINC 629 LRU'S in periodic mode is in order of power up shortest to largest TG shortest to largest TI
Module 11

Module 11 1. what is the colour band on a hydraulic seal a. white b. yellow c. white or yellow 2. which of the following uses hyperbolic curve a. vor b. dme c. loran c (c is the correct answer) 3. what is the purpose of the p clip in the firewire: a. hold the wires b. prevent chafing. (B is the correct answer) 4. what is the purpose of debooster valve in a hydraulic system: a. increasing the pressure and applying brakes quickly. b. decrease the pressure and slowly releasing the brakes. (B is the correct answer) maintain constant pressure

5. ground spoilers angle is: a. 30 degrees b. 60 degrees (B is the correct answer) c. 50 degrees 6. fuel cross feed valves are supplied with a. 28 volts dc b. battery power. c. 115 volts ac 7. fuel cross feed valves are lubricated by: a. fuel b. special lubricant. c. silicon.
Electrics Multi Choice

1. A circuit of resistance 4 ohms carrying a current of 5 amps has a power loading of a. 20 watts b. 80 watts c. 100 watts

2. 28 volt d.c. circuit carrying a current of 4 amps will have a. 7 ohms resistance b. 70 watts power c. 112 ohms resistance

3. Potential difference is measured in a. amps b. ohms c. volts

4. Current is measured in a. volts b. amps c. ohms

5. Ohm's law states that a. e.m.f. = current divided by resistance b. current = e.m.f. divided by resistance c. resistance = current divided by e.m.f.

6. The power of a circuit in watts may be found by a. dividing e.m.f. by current b. multiplying e.m.f. by current c. multiplying e.m.f. by resistance

7. Individual resistances of 2 ohms, 10 ohms and 5 ohms connected in series have a total resistance of a. 1.25 ohms b. 17 ohms c. 100 ohms

8. Individual resistance of 10 ohms, 10 ohms and 5 ohms connected in parallel have a

total resistance of a. 2.5 ohms b. 25 ohms c. 0.4 ohm 9. Three resistors, of 4, 12 and 6 ohms, are connected in parallel. Their total resistance is a. 22 ohms b. 2 ohms c. 0.5 ohm

10. Bonding is used on an aircraft to a. isolate all electrical circuits to prevent accidental operation of components b. prevent compass malfunction and local accumulation of static charge c. provide a low-resistance path for earth return and to equalize potential throughout the aircraft

11. During a bonding test, the double-pronged lead is a. used as a probe b. attached to the main aircraft earth c. attached to the component under test while the single-prong lead is used as a probe

12. With the 2-prong lead of a bonding tester shorted out by the single-prong lead, a a. minimum of 10 megohms will be registered b. zero reading will show

c. maximum resistance reading will show

13. Two 12-volt batteries of 40 ampere-hour are connected in series. They will produce a. 24 volt at 40 amp for one hour b. 12 volt at 20 amp for one hour c. 24 volt at 80 amp for one hour

14. The correct electrolyte for a charged lead-acid battery is a. dilute sulphuric acid at 1.310 s.g. b. dilute potassium hydroxide at 1.27 s.g. c. dilute sulphuric acid at 1.27 s.g.

15. Circuit breakers are fitted in circuits to a. disconnect the supply to the circuit in the event of an overload b. act as an additional protection in case the fuse fails to rupture c. reduce the supply to the circuit then the generator output is too high

16. In a 24 d.c. electrical system, output from the generator is a. 28 volt controlled d.c. b. 28 volt wild d.c. c. 24 volt controlled d.c.

17. An H.T. tester is a

a. low-reading ohmmeter b. low-voltage, high-reading ohmmeter c. high voltage ohmmeter 18. In a simple electric circuit, in the power-consuming devices connected in parallel, the total current consumed is a. the sum of the currents taken by the devices divided by the number of devices b. the sum of the currents taken by the devices c. the sum of the reciprocals of the currents taken by the devices.

19. If the cross-sectional area of a conductor is doubled, with voltage constant, the current will be a. halved b. constant c. doubled

20. Output from a d.c. generator is controlled by a. current in the field circuit b. a resistor in the generator output circuit c. the resistance in the armature circuit

21. A short-circuits in a "single pole" circuit could be caused by a. a broken conductor between the bus bar and the item of equipment b. wiring between the bus bar and the item of equipment going to aircraft earth c. an open circuit between the item of equipment and aircraft earth

22. The tests to be carried out on an aircraft circuit are in the order a. insulation, continuity, bonding b. continuity, bonding, insulation c. bonding, continuity, insulation

23. Thermo-couples in a jet pipe temperature system are connected in a. parallel b. series c. combined series and parallel

24. Capacitance of a capacitor depends on a. applied voltage, plate area and dielectric material b. distance between plates, plate area and dielectric material c. charging current, applied voltage and plate area

25. A battery for use on aircraft must have a capacity of a. 50% b. 90% c. 80%
Module 5 Multi Choice - part 2

300. Passive sensors in fibre optics a) require power for the processing signal before they send them down the fibre optic b) require no power and they do not process signals # c) process the signal but do not require power

301. An LCD display uses what type of power supply? # a) Continuous AC b) Variable level DC voltage c) DC voltage 302. Fibre optic data bus links are # a) bi-directional b) one way data buses c) simplex 303. 0011011000101001 when transferred to computer language this information can be a representation of a) binary, octal or decimal numbers # b) hex, octal and binary numbers c) hex, octal and decimal numbers 304. In a bi-stable memory circuit # a) the memory is lost as soon as power is removed b) the memory is retained indefinably c) the memory needs to be refreshed constantly, even when power is on 305. in an analogue to digital converter, the input voltage # a) stays on constantly b) is switched by the digital input c) is intermittent 306. In an RS flip flop output is one. This means it is # a) set b) reset c) intermediate 307. ARINC 629 utilizes # a) full duplex b) half duplex c) simplex 308. Optical fibre losses are due to a) absorption only # b) absorption, scattering and reflection c) radiation, absorption and reflection 309. The cone of acceptance is measured between # a) longitudinal axis of the core and the outer angle b) the two outer angles c) the diameter of the core

310. An R-2R Converter has values or resistance a) whose precision are accurate # b) whose relative precision are accurate c) whose precision are not accurate 311. An ALU is an example of # a) LSI b) SSI c) MSI 312. What does 1 represent in an analogue system? # a) Switches closed, magnetised b) Switches open, unmagnetised c) High frequency 313. A centralised monitoring computer system is used a) to test system during flight and for BITE test of systems on the ground using a carry on control unit # b) to test systems in flight and on the ground using a centralised on board control unit c) testing systems on the ground only 314. A signal in an ARINC 629 system uses a) a pair of wires per transmitter unit # b) a twisted pair of wires or fibre optics c) a single wire 315. A beam deflection on EFIS displays are # a) electromagnetism b) electrostatic c) solid state 316. A nand and nor to become a not gate have # a) inputs connected together b) inputs inverted c) outputs inverted 317. An in-series ARINC 429 system transmits using a) wave dividing multiplexing # b) time dividing multiplexing c) encoder 318. Fibre optic cables use a) reflective outer shell # b) refractive outer shell c) reflective inner shell

319. A sinusoidal circular time constant produces what output? # a) 90 degrees out of phase b) 180 degrees out of phase c) In phase 320. A terminal controller a) transmits only when addressed b)is repetitive transmitting # c) will transmit only once during each transmit interval 321. What is the advantage of series over parallel message sending? a) Quicker b) More information sent # c) Only one pair of conductors 322. The number of LRUs which transmit/receive on ARINC-429 is dependent upon a) size of S.D.I b) speed of transmission & size of aircraft systems # c) parallel input impedance 323. In fibre optic cable, signals are separated by # a) active optic filter b) passive optic filter c) low pass filter 324. In an EFIS display, the lines, Scales, Indicator and Synoptic are generated by a) synoptic scan # b) stroke scan c) raster scan 325. Speed of computer process information depends upon a) the size of the programme # b) the time period to access the memory c) the external inputs to the system 326. A typical example of a mass storage memory device which "write once" and "read many" is # a) a CD Rom b) an IC c) a magnetic tape 327. When handling PCB's labelled ESDS, what precaution are taken? # a) Isolate electrical power before installing on Aircraft b) First earth with aircraft then to it c) Do not touch its pins as copper contamination can occur

328. A computer consist of at least the C.P.U and # a) memory and input & output port b) register section, ALU, timing and control section c) memory, ALU, input & output port 329. Electromagnetic compatibility is achieved by # a) shielding, screening, earthing, bonding and interference filters b) enclosing the system with same frequency and strength of which screening is done c) coating in a conductive paint 330. The supply to an LCD is # a) AC b) current restricted DC c) voltage restricted DC 331. The method of producing (white) lines for aircraft symbols, V/S scale etc. on an EADI is by # a) stroke scan b) raster scan c) trapezoidal input 332. In modern aircraft, the output from the clock is used a) to synchronise the signals on the control bus # b) give GMT details to the flight recorder and other systems c) to provide a clock pulse for CRT 333. Audio sounds recorded digitally a) are not as accurate due to clipping and input errors # b) are superior quality and "data preservation" c) are narrow bandwidth 334. When carrying out HIRF maintenance on aircraft, the max resistance is a) 1 milliohm b) 1 ohm # c) 0.05 ohms 335. A computer message 3B4 is a) binary b) octal # c) hexadecimal 336. One of the ARINC 429 formats is a) hexadecimal # b) BCD c) octal

337. When does voice data recording commence? # a) On engine start b) From aircraft take off run c) After take off when airborne 338. What is 54 octal in hexadecimal # a) 2C b) 4F c) 2F 339. A heading reference of 320 degrees in a word label format would be written as a) 101010001 # b) 11010000 c) 01000111 340. within an EFIS display system, all displays have 1 bit of information missing. What would be the most probable cause? a) Symbol generator and sensor input # b) Display controller and sensor input bus c) Display controller and symbol generator 341. A computer using RAM would utilise a) a compact disc # b) an integrated circuit (chip) c) magnetic tape 342. With a j-k flip flop which is the output set # a) q = 1 b) q = 0 c) either 343. If the glideslope pointer is below the centre mark the aircraft is a) on the glideslope b) below the glideslope # c) above the glideslope 344. 2D in decimal is # a) 45 b) 43 c) 41 345. The operational data base of the FMS may have to be modified in flight a) by the pilot b) automatically by the DADC # c) It cannot be modified in flight

346. An LED will emit light when # a) it is forward biased b) it is reverse biased c) either forward or reverse biased if a sufficient level of ac voltage is applied 347. On an EFIS system the weather radar is displayed on a) the EADI # b) the EHSI c) the FMC CDU 348. CADC outputs are a) altitude, vertical speed, IAS, mach no b) altitude ,vertical speed, angle of attack, TAT, SAT # c) altitude, vertical speed, TAS, CAS, mach no, SAT, TAT 349. Data is converted from serial to parallel and parallel to serial by a) a parallel register # b) a shift register c) a synchronous counter 350. A group of bits transmitted at the same time is a) a clock signal # b) parallel data c) serial data 351. A typical characteristic of a CMOS is # a) low power dissipation b) high voltage handling c) high power dissipation 352. If one EICAS CRT fails # a) the remaining CRT will display primary EICAS data b) the FMS CDU will display the failed CRT data c) the standby CRT will automatically take over 353. 84 decimal in hexadecimal is # a) 54 b) f4 c) 5f 354. EADI displays # a) pitch and roll attitudes b) heading and weather radar c) pitch, roll and waypoints 355. on an EHSI in weather radar mode, a severe storm would be shown as

a) orange areas with black or yellow surrounds # b) red areas with black surrounds c) blue areas with white background 356. Variations in light on EFIS displays are compensated for by # a) integrated light dependant resistors in the display compensating for each display individual b) An external light dependant resistor mounted on the flight deck compensating for all displays in a parallel-parallel format c) manual adjustment by flight crew on EFIS controller 357. The input bus into a central processor unit is a # a) one way bus b) bi directional bus c) two way bus 358. A method used in modern aircraft for reporting in flight faults to an engineering and monitoring ground station is a) TCAS II # b) ACARS c) TAWS 359. A CRT display has the advantage over an LCD display by a) brighter clearer output b) more energy efficient # c) large viewing angle 360. Most fibre optic connectors are designed so a) the receptacle has to torque to a designated torque to ensure correct alignment # b) the connectors can not be over tightened c) the connector can not be replaced on the aircraft 361. The self test function on an EFIS system can be tested a) in the air only # b) on the ground only c) in the air and on the ground 362. Each of the symbol generator outputs in an EFIS system can be # a) displayed of each individual display b) only no. 2 can be displayed on the no.1 c) can not be interchanged 363. An AND gate with inverted inputs and an inverted output is equivalent to a) an AND gate # b) an OR gate c) a NOR gate

364. Logic gates internal operating mechanisms are produced from a) thin film resistors # b) transistors c) diodes 365. To display a circle on a CRT you use a) 2 sine waves 180 degrees out of phase # b) 2 sine waves 90 degrees out of phase c) 2 square wave 90 degrees out of phase 366. The light source used in fibre optics is # a) higher bandwidth than visible light b) lower bandwidth than visible light c) visible light 367. When the power is removed from a bi-stable memory device, it's memory will # a) be lost indefinitely b) be saved indefinitely c) downloaded to memory 368. BITE tests are inhibited for ground use during a) take-off b) gear retraction # c) forward motion 369. Software changes come under the responsibility of a) the national aviation authority # b) the aircraft constructor c) the engineer 370. A multiplexer # a) takes many signals in and converts it to a serial transmission output b) takes one signal in and converts it to a parallel transmission output c) takes many signals in and puts these in a parallel transmission on the output 371. The CPU consists of a) register and arithmetic logic unit only # b) ALU, timing and control section, register c) register, timing and control section only 372. The ARINC 429 system uses the following system to transfer data a) non return to zero b) harvard bi phase # c) bi-directional return to zero

373. Which of the following ARINCs are bidirectional? a) 429 # b) 629 c) 573 374. Data is transferred on the MIL-STD-1553B by using a) bipolar return to zero # b) manchester bi-phase c) non return to zero 375. The general arrangement of ARINC 629 includes a) current mode coupler, data bus cable only b) data bus cable, stub cable, voltage mode coupler # c) data bus cable, current mode coupler, stub cable 376. To deflect the beam of a CRT horizontally, coils are placed on the neck of the tube a) one on the side, one at the bottom b) each side # c) top and bottom 377. During flight (non fault conditions) the EICAS system displays on the lower CRT # a) secondary engine parameters b) synoptic display c) flight phase page 378. Who can design new software? # a) BCAR section A8 approved company b) BCAR section A1 approved company c) The CAA 379. Data bus cables are terminated using # a) 130 ohms resistor b) 100 ohms resistor c) 25 ohms resistor 380. Modern aircraft with electronic displays would display information on airframe and engine on which system? a) Flight management system # b) Electronic centralised aircraft monitoring system (ECAM) c) EADI 381. The Flight data recorder starts recording a) after take off b) on aircraft roll out from stand # c) after the first engine has started

382. Data to flight data recorder can be taken form a communal data bus if a) it goes directly to it b) the power is within flight data recorder limits # c) if source isolation has been considered 383. In arinc 429 data field is bits 11 to 28. If the bits 11 to 18 had pad bits, the L.S.B. Of the data would be # a) bit 19 b) bit 11 c) bit 28 384. The BCD data field of arinc 429 is contained within bits a) 1- 8 # b) 11- 29 c) 11- 28 385. After attaching a wrist strap to you wrist (which is connected to aircraft ground), prior to removal of ESDS equipment, the resistance measured a) between the strap and the pin ground must be >10 Megohms # b) between your skin and the pin ground must be <10 megohms c) between the strap and the pin ground must be <10 meghms 386. The major source of degradation of HIRF protection is a) corrosion b) damage to static wicks # c) radio filter break down 387. The resistance of the magnetic coils of a C.R.T. Is offset by using # a) trapezoidal voltage b) constant voltage c) saw tooth voltage 388. If the magnetic deflection plates produce a magnetic field which is parallel to the horizontal then the trace is deflected in a) horizontal axis b) circular motion # c) vertical axis 389. Light transmission in a fibre optic cable is due to # a) repeated internal reflection b) refraction of the light c) defraction of the light 390. The name given to the joining of two fibre optic cables by aligning them carefully and bringing them into close proximity of each other is a) Fusion

# b) End to end c) Lens Coupling 391. In a fibre optic cable a) only one data signal can be sent down it at any one time # b) multiple data signals can be sent down it at one time c) data can only be sent in one direction 392. A logic 1 may be represented in an analogue system by, where Q is an output of a latch / flip-flop a) switch open / light on / Q b) switch closed / light off / Not Q # c) positive / magnetised / Q 393. A central fault display system should be available through a) a bite test # b) a easily accessible multifunction control display unit c) a central bite test box with clear LED indications 394. An analogue to digital converter where it counts up to binary state equal to the analogue in put and then back down when this is reached is a a) successive approximation counter # b) a tracking ramp type converter c) flash type converter 395. Transistors are used in a current triggered D to A device to a) switch on the input b) switch of the inputs # c) change the state of the inputs 396. Radio altitude is displayed on a EFIS system a) on the Electronic horizontal situation indicator # b) on the electronic artificial direction indicator c) on the RMI 397. A flight data recorder should be capable of recording a) the last 25 hours b) the last 25 hours of aircraft flight # c) the last 25 hours with engines running 398. Op amps generally used in ADCs and DACs are normally # a) high input impedance, low output impedance b) high input impedance , high output impedance c) low input impedance , how output impedance 399. Magnetic materials are used in

a) ROMs only # b) some RAMs c) EPROM 400. The pins on an op amp are numbered a) clockwise # b) anticlockwise c) cross ways 401. A parallel register # a) reads each bit to be stored simultaneously b) requires a clock pulse for each bit c) reads the stored data when logic 0 is applied to the read line 402. HIRF protection is in the order of # a) hardened skin and protecting wires / LRUs b) bonding as many parts of the aircraft as possible and a maximum resistance of 0.05ohms c) periodically turn off components whilst radio transmitting 403. 16 hexadecimal converted to decimal is equivalent to a) 38 b) 48 # c) 22 404. To get logic 1 using this gate a) A or B = 1 b) A and B = 1 # c) A and B = 0 405. What logic gate would this circuit represent? a) NAND Gate b) NOR gate # c) AND gate 406. Decimal 10 converted to binary is a) 1111 b) 1001 # c) 1010 407. What systems uses base 10? # a) Decimal b) Digital c) Octal 408. What systems use base 16?

a) Octal b) BCD # c) Hexadecimal 409. EADI pointers, dials and engine data is produced using # a) stroke b) raster c) electromagnetic waves 410. Fibre optic cables consists of a silica glass core and # a) refractive outer cladding b) reflective outer cladding c) reflective inner cladding 411. The waveform to the coil of a CRT is # a) trapezoidal b) ramp c) analogue 412. Analogue logic 1 is a) closed switch, Logic Q=0 # b) closed circuit, Logic Q=1 c) open circuit 413. ARINC 629 is transmitted using # a) fibre optics or twisted pair of wires b) single wire for each transmitter c) SWG 28 wire 414. BITE for ground use only is switched off a) when breaks are released b) when undercarriage up # c) on take-off 415. Fibre optics relies on a) fibre absorbing light # b) light reflecting off cladding c) light escaping cladding 416. The "light" emitted from a LED used within a fibre-optic system will have a wavelength # a) slightly longer then that of visible light b) slightly shorter then that of visible light c) equal to that of visible light 417. Binary coded decimal, BCD, format has a minimum of

# a) four "0s" or "1s" b) 2 lots of four "0s" or "1s" c) 3 lots of four "0s" or "1s" 418. A simplex system has # a) 1 transmitter and multiple receivers b) 1 bus controller and 1 remote terminal c) 1 bus controller and multiple receivers 419. Fibre optic cable over copper cable has the following advantages a) non-conductive, easier to manufacture and assemble, greater bandwidth # b) non-conductive, greater bandwidth, greater signal security c) greater bandwidth, greater signal security, more robust 420. a EFIS system ADI displays pitch, roll a) autoland, altitude, compass rose and flight director bars b) autoland, decision height, range to altitude and flight director bars and slip indicator # c) autoland, rad alt, decision height and slip indicator 421. What is the Hexadecimal number F86 in Binary? # a) 111110000110 b) 111110000001 c) 3974 422. What is 11000012 - 1011002? a) 1101112 b) 100011012 # c) 1101012 423. During normal functioning of an ECAM system the engine data shown on the Engine/Warning display comes from the a) EFIS channel of DMC3 # b) ECAM channel of DMC1 c) ECAM channel of DMC3 424. To create a bi-directional communications link within an ARINC 429 system a) only one databus is required # b) two databuses are required c) four databuses are required 425. Using I.N.S. an aircraft flies a) course directed by ground station # b) great circle route c) rhumb line 426. What warnings can an FMS provide?

# a) Discrete warnings b) Spurious faults c) Ground faults only 427. Aircraft heading HDG is a) the angle between True North and the desired track b) the angle between True North and the actual track # c) the angle between True North and the longitudinal axis of the aircraft 428. For an IRS System to pass the Alignment System Performance Test the a) entered present latitude and longitude must agree with the latitude and longitude at last power down b) the No 1 and No 2 must both have the same latitude and longitude present position entered # c) the latitude entered must be within given limits of the latitude computed by IRU 429. The accepted error from INS / IRS is a) 2 miles / hour + 3 miles b) l mile / hour + 3 miles # c) 3 miles / hour + 3 miles 430. Control Display Unit, CDU, selection of TKE aka Track Angle Error, displays a) distance perpendicular from the selected track # b) difference in degrees that the aircraft is to the right or left of the desired track c) difference in degrees from True North in a clockwise direction from the desired track 431. in the EICAS system, when is the maintenance mode available? a) On the upper and lower screens - only available on the ground # b) Lower screen only - only available on the ground c) In flight 432. On a modern aircraft when are BITE checks carried out? a) When BITE selected b) After engine shut down # c) Continuously when system is in use 433. What causes the X and Y beam deflections in an EFIS CRT display? # a) Electromagnetic b) Electrostatic c) Either 434. in an IN system, the purpose of the stable platform is to # a) prevent unwanted acceleration affecting the accelerometers b) provide attitude reference c) stop the gyros from toppling

435. The three accelerometers on a stable platform are mounted a) parallel to each other # b) orthogonally c) 12Oo apart 436. An IN system requires data from the a) doppler system b) satellites # c) air data computer 437. XTK aka cross track is the a) angle in degrees that the aircraft track is left or right of desired track b) actual track across the earths surface # c) perpendicular distance from the desired track 438. The output of an INS can be fed to a) vertical speed indicators # b) attitude indicators c) altimeters 439. The three accelerometers on a strapdown platform are mounted a) parallel to each other # b) 90o to each other c) 120o apart 440. Gyro-compassing is the term used for a) self-alignment in azimuth b) self alignment in the vertical # c) use of the gyro-magnetic compass system to align the platform 441. Centralized Aircraft Monitoring System operates to a) perform in-flight and ground tests of aircraft systems by carrying out a BITE # b) give red warnings and amber cautions to display system status c) perform in-flight BITE only 442. The control of the speed or rate that the F/D Command bars move can be controlled by a) position feedback # b) rate or velocity feedback c) amplifier gain 443. The Centralized Aircraft Monitoring System uses the maintenance mode of operation a) in the air only # b) on the ground only c) either ground or air

444. Why does an ARINC databus system send data to LRUs in series? a) More information can be sent b) Takes less time # c) Saves weight 445. Can an LRU transmit and receive on more than one 629 bus? # a) Yes b) No c) Only if paralleled 446. ARINC 629 LRUs transmit a) when addressed # b) when terminal gap is sensed c) when signal gap is sensed 447. How is multiplication achieved in an ALU? # a) by addition b) by subtraction c) by coupling 448. What is the function of a status register? # a) To indicate the status of the microprocessor b) To store a program during an interrupt c) To synchronise the clock pulse 449. An ADC uses advance approximation to a) increase resolution # b) increase speed c) increase accuracy 450. A DAC uses a precision amplifier to # a) ensure the output voltages remain accurate b) ensure the input remains accurate c) compensates for the variation of the feedback resistor due to temperature 451. A BCD word occupies bits 11-29, if 11-15 are filled with padders then the LSB of the word will be # a) 16 b) 29 c) 11 452. If part of a display is lost on a CRT, this could be due to # a) an inoperative symbol generator or input sensor b) an inoperative symbol generator or control panel c) loss of power to the CRT

453. To reduce HIRF on radio equipment a) periodically check bonding leads for condition # b) ensure all static wicks are in place c) transmit on all radio frequencies to determine which frequencies are causing the interference 454. When a BITE test is carried out on a system with moving parts it should be a) carried out without operating moving parts # b) carried out ensuring all moving parts are operated and taken to there stops c) carried out ensuring all moving parts are operated but not to there mechanical stops 455. A simplex system has # a) one transmitter, many receivers b) a bus controller and separate controller c) one transmitter, one receiver 456. The smallest operation of a CPU is # a) the timescale b) the processor sub-cycle c) the processor cycle 457. in a fibre optic system, different light frequencies are separated by # a) an active filter b) a passive filter c) a star network 458. The most common CRT for an EFIS system screen is a a) electrostatic b) electromagnetic # c) combined 459. Sensors in a fibre optic flight control system a) require power for processors # b) do not require power c) require processing to give output 460. An accuracy amp is used to a) give output at required level # b) compensate for temperature variation c) make output between 0 - 5V 461. L.E.D.s can give a) high definition displays b) red and green displays only # c) monochrome displays only

46 2. Fibre optic systems can transmit data in a) one direction only b) in two directions # c) both directions at the same time 463. When handling a PCB you should ensure that a) electrical power is isolated # b) ground yourself first to aircraft then PCB c) ensure you do not touch the ends so that copper contacts do not become contaminated 464. For large bandwidth high-speed fibre optic transmission what sort of cable would you use? # a) Single mode b) Graded index c) Step index 465. In an R-2-R ladder converter the values of resistors # a) are precise b) do not need to be of precise values c) only the first resistor need to be precise 466. In fibre optics the wavelength of the light is a) less than visible light # b) more than visible light c) equal to that of visible light 467. What is the advantage of an ILD over an LED when used as a light source in fibre optics a) higher bandwidth # b) lower frequency range c) lower intensity 468. A typical example of a mass storage device is # a) CD ROM b) IC c) magnetic tape 469. A typical example of an IC is a) ALU # b) CPU c) dip switch 470. A circular time constant produces what sort of output? a) in phase b)180o out of phase

# c) 90o out of phase 471. Speed of light in a fibre optic fibre a) is always the same no matter what material it is # b) is never greater then the speed of light in free space c) increases if it passes through material of higher refractive index 472. A device, which converts serial to parallel and parallel to serial for arithmetical functions, is a a) Multiplexer and De-Multiplexer # b) Shift Register c) Parallel to serial and serial to parallel converter 473. In an Arinc 429 Word label-representing heading is 320, this is represented in bits 18 as # a) 01101000 b) 01011001 c) 00001011 ---474. What would be the outputs if A=0 B=0 C=1 # a) 0, 1 b) 1, 1 c) 0, 0 ----475. What would be the outputs if A=1 B=1 C=0 a) 0, 1 b) 1, 1 # c) 1, 0 476. The angle of incidence of a beam of light in a fibre optic cable will be a) twice that of the cone of acceptance # b) approximately half that of the cone of acceptance c) parallel with the end of the cable 477. A fibre optic cable is connected to a unit that will not be frequently disconnected. The preferred type of connector to be used is a a) Ball lens type # b) Butt type c) Quick disconnect type 478. A cyclic test should be performed for ECAM # a) during power up b) during in-flight c) MCDU

479. How is the symbol generator detecting the program error # a) looking at the odd parity without error b) looking at the even parity without error c) check sum bites for error detect 480. What is EPROM? # a) erasable programmable read only memory b) enhanced programmable read only memory c) erasable programming read only module 481. A CRT is # a) electromagnetic b) electrostatic c) solid state i 482. What is used for the power of 10? a) octal b) digital # c) decimald 483. What is 44 in hexadecimal? # a) 2c b) 2d c) 2F 484. What is octal 33in hexadecimal? a) 22 b) 11 # c) 1b 485. at low ambient temperatures, an LCD screen a) loses contrast # b) is slower to update as data changes c) viewing angle becomes larger 486. Colour CRT shadowmask screen resolution is # a) 84 triads b) 400 lines per square inch c) 600 lines per scan 487. A multiplexer in test equipment could be used for # a) analogue to digital converter b) frequency divider c) digital to analogue converter

488. Where does the clock signal in a microiprocessor come from? a) ALU # b) Control unit c)Memory 489. Where is the operating program for the CPU stored? a) ALU b)Control unit # c) Memory unit 490. An LCD display # a) has three colours only b) has infinite colours c) is monochrome 491. in ARINC 629 aperiodic mode, LRUs transmit in order of a) power up # b) shortest terminal gap to longest terminal gap c) longest terminal gap to shortest terminal gap 492. ARINC 629, aperiodic mode is used # a) for normal operation b) for landing and approach operation c) for database loads 493. What is the device used to convert Binary Coded Decimal into separate supplies for a seven segment digital display? a) Multiplexer b) Demultiplexer # c) Decoder 494. How is ARINC 429 bi-directional data transfer achieved? a) Via a twisted pair of shielded cables # b) Using two data buses c) Via a current mode coupler 495. A basic computer would consist of a) register section, ALU and timing and control section # b) memory, input/output ports and CPU c) RAM/ROM and input/output ports ----496. A B S 000 011 101 110

497. This is the truth table for a # a) E-OR b) NOT c) NAND 497. Where is the rising runway? # a) EADI b) EFIS c) CRTs in the passenger cabin 498. What is ILS marker frequency? # a) 75 Mhz b) 100 Mhz c) 125 Mhz 499. On an external power socket the two short pins are a) for the AC interlock circuit # b) to prevent arcing when inserting and extracting the socket c) used to act as a guide 500. Flat plate antenna is # a) series of waveguides with slots b) a parabolic antenna c) used to transmit RF signals only 501. Relationship of CMCs to BITE systems is best described as a) CMCS replaced but is not related to the older BITE system. # b) CMCS monitors the individual BITE systems and presents data. c) CMCS modifies and upgrades BITE systems 502. Operation of a frequency counter is such that a) it changes the incoming waveform to a standard square wave. # b) It detects incidences of peak value c) it compares the incoming waveform with standard sine waves 503. As far as a software product is concerned # a) the 'Verification' phase includes performance testing a programmed EPROM b) the 'Validation' phase is done to the software rather than to the component. c) the 'Software Release' phase is the same as the 'Finished Product' phase 504. A segmented configuration for the display of alphanumeric date requires a) at least 13 segments for all upper and lower case letters b) the starburst display for numbers and lower case letters only. # c) 16 segments to display the full range of capital letters and numerals

505. for braided cables, the amount of braiding a) is a trade-off design feature b) must conform to the requirement for the shielding to cover at least 50% of the surface of the cable # c) keeps radiated power inside the emitting assembly or away from the susceptible circuit 506. Electronic CRT beam display is used typically in a) IRU control display units. b) distance measuring indicators; digital counters # c) weather radar indicators 507. What is the quickest method of analogue to digital conversion? a) Voltage to frequency # b) Flash converter c) Single ramp method 508. in a colour cathode ray tube, how is the phosphor arranged in the tube? a) A red layer on the front with two green layers behind it b) Layers of red, blue and green # c) A single phosphor layer containing red, green and blue 509. An LCD which is back lit is a) monochrome b) three colours # c) multicoloured 510. An 8 data input multiplexer has how many Data select lines # a) 3 b) 2 c) 8 511. An electronic flight instrument display consists of; a) ADC, Altimeter, VSI and ASI # b) Mode control panel, Raster and Stroke generator display, microprocessor and Data inputs c) ADI, HSI and Symbol generator 512. An octal format hexadecimal number 3F written as binary would be a) 101 011 b) 110 111 # c) 111 111 513. What is a passive device? a) Matrix LCD # b) Capacitor

c) LED 514. A priority encoder a) Outputs the selected input # b) Outputs the highest input c) Outputs the lowest input 515. The data format use to transmit signal to flight data recorder a) Manchester 2 bi-phase 12 bit # b) Harvard bi-phase 12 bit c) Bi-Polar RZ 12 bit 516. The output voltage of arinc 429 signal is a) +5v b) -5v # c) +10v to -10v 517. How many bytes can be carried in a 32bit word # a) 4 bytes b) 2 bytes c) 8 bytes 518. An Arinc 629 label word is # a) 12 bits b) 8 bits c) 10 bits 519. Which of the following ESDS devices can withstand higher static electricity voltage? a) ECL b) MOSFET # c) SCR 520. An IRU interface test is carried out # a) only on the ground b) in the air c) on the ground or in the air 521. For a computer to start up the basic instruction is from the a) ALU b) RAM # c) ROM 522. What is a passive device? a) Matrix LCD b) LED

# c) Capacitor 523. A backlighted LCD a) has infinite colours b) is monochrome # c) has only 3 colours 524. An example of a small size integrated circuit would be a) DIP switch b) ALU # c) Control Processor Unit 525. The smallest operation possible in a computer is the # a) timing cycle b) processor sub-cycle c) processor cycle 526. A common used material in computer manufacturing is a) ferrite material b) permeamag material # c) ferromagnetic material 527. FMS system gives warning indications for a) cruise b) take off and landings only # c) any flight phase 528. An aircraft on an ILS approach is below the glideslope centre line, the glideslope pointer is # a) above the centre line b) below the centre line c) level with the datum 529. A dot matrix/LED construction is a) 4x7 or a 9x5 rolling end display # b) 4x7 or a 5x7 rolling end display c) 5x9 or a 4x7 rolling end display 530. FMS CDU warnings are a) OFST and Fail b) fail and MSG # c) MSG, fail and OFST 531. A current mode coupler contains E core assembly. The purpose of the E core is # a) couple the signal to the data bus b) provide effective screening of the signal through the current mode coupler

c) enable easy access for monitoring purposes 532. Testing of CADC can be carried out a) in the air # b) ground only c) air and ground 533. EHSI information displayed, is invalid in the pre-set heading mode when a) flags out of view b) flag green # c) flag in view 534. CMC, central maintenance computer, works to # a) perform in-flight bite and ground tests of aircraft systems, ie BITE b)give red warnings and amber cautions to display in accordance with system status c) perform in-flight bite only 535. The TX/RX of Arinc629 is a) encoder/decoder # b) multiplex/de-multiplex c) switching 536. Terminal gap in ARINC 629 is a) always the same period b) flexible # c) can be changed by adjusting the rx/tx software
Module 4

JAR-66 MODULE 4 1. THE COLOUR OF AN LED IS DUE TO A) THE ACTIVE MATERIALS B) A PLASTIC LENS C) A COLOUR FILTER 2. PICTURE OF AN SCR IS IT A A) SCR B) FET C) PNP TRANSISTOR 3. A DIODE IS CONNECTED ACROSS AN LED TO A) PREVENTS THE LED WORKING UNTIL A CERTAIN VOLTAGE LEVEL IS REACHED B) PROTECTS THE LED IF A.C.IS CONNECTED C) PREVENTS BACK EMF WHEN THE LED IS SWITCHED OFF 4. GERMANIUM DIODES ARE USED FOR

A) SIGNAL DETECTION B) RECTIFICATION C) 5. WHEN TESTING A DIODE WITH A MULTIMETER THE POSITIVE LEAD IS CONNECTED TO A) ANODE, NEGATIVE TO THE CATHODE B) CATHODE, NEGATIVE TO EARTH C) CATHODE, NEGATIVE TO ANODE 6. WHAT ELECTRONIC DEVICE CONNECTS ACROSS A RELAY TO PREVENT BACK EMF A) BI-DIRECTIONAL ZENER DIODE B) SCHOKKY DIODE C) GUNN DIODE 7. WHICH DIODE HAS A LOWER FORWARD BIAS VOLTAGEA) SILICON B) GERMANIUM C) BOTH THE SAME 8. A MULTI LAYER PCB HAS A) CIRCUITS AND COMPONENTS ON BOTH SIDES B) MULTIPLE LAYERS OF CIRCUITS C) CIRCUITS ON ONE SIDE, COMPONENTS ON THE OTHER 9. WHEN A PCB IS FULLY ASSEMBLED IT IS COATED WITH A) INSULATING VARNISH B) WAX C) CONFORMAL COATING 10. A DESYNN ROTOR IS A) A PERMANENT MAGNET B) ELECTROMAGNET C) 11. WHEN A STEP INPUT TO A SERVO SYSTEM OVERSHOOTS AND OSCILLATES IT IS A) UNDER DAMPED B) OVER DAMPED C) CRITICALLY DAMPED 12. A DIFFERENTIAL SYNCHRO HAS A) ONE 3 PHASE ROTOR AND ONE 3 PHASE STATOR B) ONE 3 PHASE ROTOR AND ONE SINGLE PHASE STATOR C) ONE SINGLE PHASE ROTOR AND ONE 3 PHASE STATOR

13. A DIFFERENTIAL SYNCHRO CAN BE USED AS A A) TRANSMITTER B) TRANSMITTER OR A RECEIVER C) RECEIVER 14. POSITION FEEDBACK IN A SERVO SYSTEM IS A) IN PHASE WITH THE INPUT B) ANTI-PHASE WITH THE INPUT C) 90 DEGREES OUT OF PHASE WITH THE INPUT 15. VELOCITY FEEDBACK IS A) PROPORTIONAL TO SERVOMOTOR SPEED B) INVERSELY PROPORTIONAL TO SERVOMOTOR SPEED C) THE SAME ALL THE TIME 16. VELOCITY FEEDBACK WHEN THE SERVOMOTOR HAS STOPPEDIS A) AT A MAXIMUM IN-PHASE WITH THE INPUT B) MAXIMUM ANTI-PHASE WITH THE INPUT C) ZERO 17. A TORQUE SYNCHRO HAS AC. POWER TO THE A) STATOR B) ROTOR AND STATOR C) ROTOR 18. A ZENER DIODE IS USED FOR A) RECTIFICATION B) VOLTAGE STABILISATION C) 1.what will be the output frequency of a three phase half have rectifier:a.double b.same frequency c.thrice. 2.in a bridge rectifier: a.output is equal to the whole of the transformer secondary winding. b.output equal to the whole of the transformer primary winding. c.output equal to the half of the transformer secondary winding. 3.a resolver had a. 2 windings(one stator one rotor). b.6 windings(3stator 3 rotor). c.4 windings(2stator 2 rotor).

4.for signal diodes we use: a.germanium. b.silicon. c.graphite. 5.for a zener doide we generally use: a.germanium. b.silicon. c.gallium. 1. An RC Connected Amp has? Ans. No DC across. 2. When a PN junction is forward biased, it conducts via? Ans. Majority carriers. 3. Thermal runaway in a transistor refers to. Ans. High current flow when temperature rises. 4. When is maximum voltage induced into the rotor of a control synchro? Ans. 0 degrees 5. Resistors and capacitors to couple stages of amplifiers so that? Ans. Only AC can be supplied. 6. An astable multivibrator is a? Ans. Free running vibrator. 7. Op amps use what power supply? Ans. 5v to 15v DC. 8. To check the output of a Synchro stator it would be preferable to use? Ans. A Valve Voltmeter. 9. Synchro capacitors are connected into synchro systems to? Ans. Increase the accuracy of the control synchro. 10. In a Slab Desynn transmitter the? Ans. Pick offs rotate on the slab resistor. 11. The purpose of the Flywheel incorporated into a synchro? Ans. To prevent oscillations. 12. If in a servo system, the amplitude from the feedback system is below normal, the servo will? Ans. Oscillate.

13. A Desynn instrument has a positive irregular increasing error, you would adjust? Ans. Lever length. 14. Torque synchro receiver bearing friction will cause? Ans. Misalignment. 15. A control system synchro pointer is? Ans. Motor driven. 16. A DC signal converted to a phase sensitive AC is? Ans. Modulation. 17. If velocity feedback in a servo system is above optimum, this will cause? Ans. Sluggish operation. 18. In an Integrated Circuit, the components are mounted by? Ans. Metal oxide film etched onto the surface. 19. For a NPN transmitter to conduct the collector circuit has to be? Ans. More positive than the base. 20. When forward biased, current flow is mainly due to the? Ans. Majority carriers. 21. When forward biased, the? Ans. Positive is connected to the P type and the negative is connected to the N type. 22. In a PNP transmitter, which way does the conventional current flow? Ans. Emitter to Collector. 23. In an Integrated circuit, the components are inserted? Ans. By doping in successive layers. 24. The typical voltage drop across an LED is? Ans. 2 V 25. In an electronic circuit with an operational amplifier connected in the push-pull configuration, the circuit? Ans. Utilises both sides of the input signal. 26. Pin 3 on an Op Amp has a + symbol. This designates? Ans. Non-inverting input. 27. An advantage of a FET when compared to a bi-polar transmitter is?

Ans. The input resistance is higher. 28. The semiconductor material most commonly used in chips is? Ans. Silicon 29. The typical bandwidth for an audible frequency amplifier is? Ans. 10 100 KHz. 30. What control system is used on an input that gives a controlled predetermined output? Ans. Closed loop. 31. Increasing velocity feedback from optimum will give? Ans. A sluggish performance. 32. A rate control servo system with a steady input voltage will give? Ans. Constant speed. 33. Where are de-coupling capacitors used in digital circuits? Ans. Close to the positive pin. 34. What are the majority carriers for forward biased PN junction devices? Ans. Electrons and holes. 35. The resistance measured using an AVO between Collector and Emitter of a transmitter is? Ans. Same both ways. 36. Germanium in its pure state is? Ans. Neutral. 37. Common Collector has the following characteristics? Ans. Medium voltage gain, High current gain and Non-inverting output. 38. Two push pull transmitters have what commoned? Ans. Emitters. 39. In a Common Emitter Amplifier, RE is used for? Ans. Stabilisation. 40. If the reverse bias voltage across a Diode is too high? Ans. Load current reverses. 41. The rotor coil of a Synchrotel? Ans. Is stationary. 42. An increase in the amplitude of a rate feedback signal will cause?

Ans. Reduced hunting. 43. An increase in Negative feedback will? Ans. Decrease system sensitivity. 44. In integrated circuit is manufactured by? Ans. Doping impurities into layers of intrinsic material. 45. A de-coupling capacitor in a PCB is used to? Ans. Pass AC only. 46. A monostable vibrator? Ans. Is switched on by a trigger pulse then within a pre set time will eventually return to its original state. 47. Position feedback is used to? Ans. Ensure control surface moves to the demanded position by the controls
Module 15

1. A felt filter in an oil lubrication system should be a) removed and cleaned in a container of lead free petrol * b) removed and replaced with a new filter element c) removed and cleaned in MEK 2. What filter is used in a oil scavenge pump in the inlet side of the pump? a) Wire wound filter * b).Wire mesh filter c) Threaded filter 3. Anti-icing for a turboprop is achieved by a) bleed air supply from compressor * b) electric bonded heater mats c) hot oil supply from lubrication system 4. HEIU ignitor plugs receive their electrical supply from a) discharge inductor * b) discharge capacitor c) starter system electrical circuit 5. Switch over on a FADEC engine occurs * a). only on engine start up

b) when engine is shut down c) when the A and B channels are 'healthy' 6. Vibration pick-ups are located * a) on the turbine case b) on the fan/compressor case c) on both fan and turbine cases 7. A divergent intake is a) convergent/Divergent from front to rear b) divergent/Convergent from front to rear * c) divergent from front to rear 8. High frequency vibration a) energises air particles prior to compression b) can give an indication of a fluctuating (EPR) * c) causes engine components to crack 9. What is used as an extinguishant in fire bottles? a) Water * b). Halogenated hydrocarbons c) Freon compounds 10. What purpose does the nose cone serve on the (N1) fan on a high bypass engine? a) Assist in diffusing airflow b) Reduce and straighten any turbulent air * c) Streamlined fairing
Module 6

1. The head marking on a close tolerance BSF bolt is a) a lowered ring under the hexagon b) a series of dots on the head face c) a raised disk on the head face 2. In the drawing, what letter represents the length of a BSF bolt? a) B b) C c) A

3. In the drawing, both bolts are correctly wire locked when a) both A nad B are right hand treads b) both A and B are left hand threads c) A is a right hand thread and B is a left hand thread 4. Turnbuckles are correctly fitted when a) the inspection hole is blind or the required number of threads are showing b) both rods are seen to touch in the inspection hole c) both rods enter the barrel by the same amount 5. Taper roller bearings are used for which of the following purposes? a) To transmit thrust loads with radial loads b) To transmit radial loads whilst resisting axial movement c) To permit axial movement whilst resisting radial load 6. Sheet metal should be stored a) on its edge in racks to prevent scratching b) stacked flat to prevent bending of sheets c) above 25 degrees centigrade 7. An aluminium alloy bolt may be identified by a) its colour (dyed green) b) the letter A stamped on the head c) its colour (dyed black) 8. A (British) 3/8" dia UNF bolt will have the diameter code letter a) N b) J c) G

9. The continuous coloured line on a hose assembly a) will assist in detection of any twist in an installed hose b) identifies hose material c) identifies fluid compatibility of hose 10. Clad aluminium alloy (alclad) has a pure aluminium coating of a) 5% of alloy thickness b) 1% of alloy thickness c) 0.002" regardless of alloy thickness 1. The main metal in monel is a) nickel b) stainless steel c) aluminium 2. Austenitic stainless steels are a) magnetic b) non-magnetic c) hardened by heat treatment 3. A tube complying to BS T51 is a) tungum b) high pressure seamless copper tube c) HTS tube 4. Adapter nipples are not required on a) pipe to pipe coupling b) pipe to internally coned adapter c) pipe to externally coned adapter 5. The storage life of a flexible hose can be up to but not exceeding a) 2 years

b) 4 years c) 5 years 6. The markings on a flexible hose must include the a) manufacturers name b) date of manufacture c) internal bore size 7. The stationary race of a journal bearing is normally a) an interference fit b) a push fit c) a spigoted fit 8. Inspection of bearings is normally carried out a) in situ b) when dismantled c) when removed from an assembly 9. Damage to the shield of a bearing should result in a) rejection of the bearing b) replacement of the shield c) no action 10. The formation of steel depends upon a) the formation of pearlite into austenite b) the presence of pearlite in the structure c) the formation of austenite into pearlite 1. To correctly tension cables it can help to: a. Have control surface locks in to support weight and adjust turnbuckles equally.* CAIP AL/3-7 b. Take up initial slack by additional pulleys c. Use a cable run with turnbuckles at least every eight feet 2. Honeycomb for repair can be removed with:

a. a drill b. Locally manufactured concave knife c. A Router* CAIP AL/7-6 3. Aircraft skin is joggled to: a. Conform to the Area rule b. Provide smooth airflow at faying surfaces* c. Make a frame lighter but stronger 4. Dzuz Fasteners provide: a. For easy hammering into position b. A close tolerance fit c. Quick release fasteners at inspection panels * naval hardware 5. The pot life of a cold cured resin: a. Increases with increase of temperature b. Is not reliant upon temperature fluctuations c. Decreases with an increase in temperature * ATTITA composite notes/CAIPAL7-6 6. British turnbuckles are checked for safety by: a. Attempting to pass a hardened pin probe through the inspection hole *CAIP3-7 b. Attempting to pass locking wire through the hole c. Looking through the hole and checking for threads showing 7. A full list of decals would be found in a. ANOs b. Maintenance schedule c. Aircraft log book 8. a Skydrol hydraulic seal would be made of a. Butyl rubber, ethylyne propolyne or Teflon * Phosphate ester based fluid b. Natural rubber Vegetable based fluid c. Synthetic rubber Mineral based fluid CAIP AL/3-21 9. The British system of heat treatment codes is a. A series of numbers b. A series if letters *CAIP BL/9-1 c. Numbers and letters 10. The American system of heat treatment codes uses

a. Numbers b. Letters c. Numbers and Letters *A&P General Sect 7 11. When fitting a replacement flexible hose a. Ensure adequate clearance between the hose and the aircraft structure *CAIP 3-13 b. Use the old one to apply the set c. Always pressure test before fitting 12. What is used to prevent chaffing of a cable through a bulkhead a. Cable is wrapped with lubricated hessian sleeve b. Radiused quadrants c. Fairleads * naval hardware 13. Resin to hardener ratio is 100:45, how much hardener is used with 60 grammes of resin a. 47 grammes b. 27 grammes * c. 145 grammes 14. The specified torque for loading a bolt is 50ils/ins but an extension of 2 ins is needed to reach the bolt in addition to the 8inch torque wrench. What will the actual reading be a. 54lbs/ins b. 40lls/ins * CAIP BL-30 c. 60lbs/ins 15 What colour is used to identify a tertiary structure on a diagram or drawing a. Yellow b. Green * c. Red 16. What colour is used to identify a primary structure on a diagram or drawing a. Yellow b. Green c. Red * 17. If you are unable to identify a structure classification as either primary or secondary what action should you take

a. Grade as secondary b. Upgrade as primary * c. Paint it red and stamp it as tertiary 18. What is meant by the term Pitch ratio a. The distance between two holes *CAIP BL/6-29 (Rivet Pitch) b. The distance between the hole and the edge of the material c. The area of contact between the two sheets of metal when joining by rivets 19. What is meant by the term Major Repair a. Repairs which can be made without dismantling for access and do not require the use of specialist tools b. Repairs which can be made whilst the aircraft is enroute c. Repairs which require the use of special jigs, supports or jury structure and some dismantling * 20. The length of solid rivets is in graduations of a. 1/8 inch b. inch c. 1/16 inch * CAIP BL/6-27 21 What would be the diameter and length of a solid rivet if the following markings are given, AS 162-408 a. inch dia, 1 inch length b. inch dia, inch length c. 1/8 inch dia, inch length * CAIP BL/6-27 22. What would the marking .5 indicate after the normal part number of a solid rivet a. Indicates close tolerance rivet * CAIP BL/6-27 b. The diameter of the rivet is half an inch c. The rivet length is in graduations of 1/8 inch 23. What is the pressure range for the Avdel Riveter type F a. 20 to 60 psi b. 60 to 80 psi c. 40 to 60 psi 24. What is the length of the operation stroke of the Avdel Riveter type F a. 7/8 inch

b. 1 inch c. inch 25. Solid rivets made from BS L37 will age harden after heat treatment. In what period of time must the rivets be used before re-treatment is required a. 2 hours * CAIP BL/6-27 b. 2 hours c. 4 hours 25. If treated rivets have not been used within the prescribed time they can be re-treated. What is the max number of times that they can be retreated a. Twice only b. Three times * CAIP/BL6-27 c. If no more in stores, as many times as required 26. How can age hardening be delayed a. Dip the rivets in a salt bath for a period of time b. Keep the rivets in a warm oven at a temp of 118deg C for a max of 60 hours c. Place the rivets in a refrigerator set at 0 deg C to 5 deg C for a max of 45 hours * CAIP/BL6-27 27. When fitting Rivnuts how are they secured and prevented from rotating a. Peened b. Locked at the rear c. A locating key * CAIP BL/6-28 1. How do you check a turnbuckle is in safety ? a) use the inspection hole or check the number of threads showing b) ensure that the turnbuckle cannot be turned by hand c) make sure that no threads are showing at either end of the turnbuckle 2. The vacuum connections in a fibre glass repair must overlap the ? a) breather mat b) peel ply c) top layer of glass fabric directly 3. The taper of a standard taper pin is ? a) 1 in 36 b) 1 in 48 c) 1 in 20 4. Stress relieving by heat treatment ?

a) reduces residual stresses due to manufacturing process b) reduces the hardness of heat treated materials c) restores the full fatigue life to "life limited" structural components 5. Alclad materials can be heated ? a) as many times as required b) once only c) 3 times only 6. What are the rigid pipes on gas turbine engines made from a) copper b) stainless steel c) aluminium alloy 7. What are the signs of fretting corrosion ? a) flaking b) intergrannular cracking c) black powder or cocoa staining 8. The colour code on sheet metal indicates ? a) only the specification of the material b) the specification and gauge of the material c) that the material is from an approved source 9. Spherical roller bearings resist what loads ? a) large thrust and moderate radial b) large radial but no thrust c) large radial and moderate thrust 10. If a non-ferrous metal being examined by chemical test turns black when caustic soda is applied to the surface, the metal is ? a) aluminum b) alclad c) dural 11. The patern of a gear is the ? a) mark it leaves on the mating gear b) profile of the gear teeth c) the path they take when the gear is rotating
Part 66 Module 4 (g)

On a PCB, a decoupling capacitor is used to get rid of transient currents between which points? a) The electronic circuit and the aircraft ground b) Interspaced along the circuit c) The negative rail and the rest of the circuit

In an LED, what is used to make the colour? a) The doping material b) The electrons c) The plastic lens cover An atom with 5 electrons in its outer shell is part of a) an N type material b) a P type material c) a C type material In a FET, the junction connections are called a) drain, source and gate b) base, collector and emitter c) drain, collector and junctions In the Boolean algebra statement below, the gate described is F = A.B.C a) Nand b) Nor c) And An increase in negative feedback to the servo amplifier a) increases amplifier stability b) decreases amplifier stability c) has no effect How is a push-pull transistor arrangement connected? a) emitter to emitter b) collector to collector c) base to base Thermal runaway in a transistor is caused by a) excessive heat causing maximum current flow b) excessive heat causing minimum current flow c) low heat causing minimum current flow A single integrated circuit Op Amp has how many pins? a) 4 b) 7 c) 8 A thyristor is commonly used for a) voltage regulation b) overvolts regulation

c) rectification A diode which emits photons when conducting is a a) zener b) varactor c) light emitting Avalanche breakdown occurs when a) forward bias becomes excessive b) forward bias exceeds a certain value c) reverse bias exceeds a certain value The electrodes of an SCR are a) anode, cathode, source b) source, drain, gate c) gate, cathode, anode What gives an LED its colour? a) A gas b) The cover c) Composition and impurity of the compound For conduction of a transistor the emitter junction is a) fwd biased b) reverse biased c) fwd or reverse as appropriate to the input signal In a PNP transistor which way does conventional current flow a) base to emitter b) collector to emitter c) emitter to collector Infinite gain, infinite input impedance & zero output impedance is characteristic of a a) Class A amp b) Class B amp c) Op amp Forward voltage of a silicon diode is a) 0.6V b) 0.2V c) 1.6V An advantage of a common emitter is a) it is a voltage follower b) it has high power gain c) it has high voltage gain

What amplifier is biased at cut off a) A b) B c) C When testing a transistor with an ohmmeter, what is the resistance of the emitter/collector? a) High resistance one way b) High resistance both ways c) Low resistance both ways What is the typical volts drop across an LED a) 1.6V b) 0.2V c) 0.4V What diode gives off light photons when forward biased a) LED b) Shottky diode c) Gunn diode A logic circuit with more than one gate will have a) one of 2 states of logic output b) 2 or more outputs c) an analogue output In a synchro, what is used to convert signals from one form to another? a) Transmitter b) Transducer c) Transformer Components on an integrated circuit are a) in the solid b) don't need them c) on the surface What diode is used to stop power spikes in a coil? a) Two directional zener diode b) Shottky diode c) Gunn diode The anode of a diode is connected to a +4v DC supply and the cathode is connected to a +2v DC supply. The diode is a) forward biased not conducting b) reverse biased not conducting

c) forward biased conducting Using electron flow in a diode the current flows from a) Anode to Cathode b) Cathode to Anode c) Cathode to Base A control surface position feedback signal is a) proportional to surface position b) inversely proportional to surface position c) non-linear In a PNP transistor, conventional current will flow when a) the emitter is more positive than the base b) the base is more positive than the emitter c) the collector is more positive than the emitter An E&I transformer out of datum has a) equal and opposite voltages in each windings b) unequal and opposite voltages in both windings c) no voltage in either winding A gyro will provide a) rate feedback b) velocity feedback c) positional feedback In a common collector circuit the output and input are a) out of phase by 90o b) in phase c) out of phase by 60o In velocity feedback the signal is a) in phase b) out of phase c) equal to the error signal When a hole diffuses from the p region to the n region a) it becomes a minority carrier in the n region b) lowers the potential barrier c) raises the potential barrier A junction diode a) has one p-n junction b) is similar to a vacuum diode but cannot rectify c) can handle only small currents

A germanium diode is used for a) voltage stabilisation b) rectification c) signal detection A germanium diode a) has a lower forward bias voltage than a silicon diode b) has a higher forward bias voltage than a silicon diode c) has the same forward bias voltage as a silicon diode a VLSIC has a) less than 1000 gates b) more than 1000 gates c) more than 10,000 gates A momentary input at the reset input of a flip flop will a) reset the true output to 0 b) reset the true output to 1 c) clock in new data from the data inputs Which type of flip flop has only 1 data input a) RS b) JK c) D A low pass filter has a) a capacitor in series and an inductor in parallel b) a capacitor in parallel and an inductor in series c) both capacitor and inductor in parallel When you use an op amp as a buffer it has a) high input impedance and low output impedance b) low input impedance and high output impedance c) the same input an output impedance What switches off a thyristor? a) Remove the gate voltage b) Remove supply voltage c) Reverse bias gate When an SCR is switched on it has a) high resistance b) low resistance c) no change in resistance
Part 66 Module 4 (f)

A differential synchro transmitter used for addition has a) the TDX S1 and S3 connections cross connected to the TX b) the TDX S1 and S3 connections cross connected to the TR c) the TDX R1, R3 and S1, S3 connections cross connected to the TX If forward bias is increased from zero on a p-n junction, a rapid increase in current flow for a relatively small increase in voltage occurs a) only after the forward bias exceeds the potential barrier b) when the flow of minority carriers is sufficient to cause an avalanche breakdown c) when the depletion layer becomes larger than the space charge area An LVDT has a) an output winding which is wound in series opposition b) an input winding whose voltage will change with load movement c) an output winding whose voltage and frequency is linear to load angular movement A diode connected across a relay coil is used to a) allow the coil to energize with only one polarity b) cause a delay in switching on c) dissipate coil spikes on switch off Differential transmitters are used to a) add or subtract two electrical signals b) add or subtract a mechanical signal to an electrical synchro signal c) increase the operating speed of the synchro receiver To convert a differential synchro from subtraction to addition you would a) reverse the reference phase supply b) change over two rotor and stator connections c) change over all three stator windings When resolving a Cartesian input to a Polar output a) the inputs are a shaft angle and a voltage b) the outputs are two voltages c) the inputs are two voltages To check the forward resistance of a diode with a multimeter, the lead connected to the positive terminal is put to the a) anode b) cathode c) either anode or cathode A resolver synchro output is obtained from a rotor with a) one single coil b) two coils at 90o to each other

c) three coils at 120o to each other The input and output signals of a common emitter amplifier are a) equal b) out of phase c) in phase The output of a resolver synchro is a) dependant upon the position of the rotor only b) proportional to the speed of input rotation c) a function of the rotor position and excitation voltage The rotor of an autosyn position indicating system is a) a permanent magnet b) an electromagnet c) spring controlled A band pass filter excludes frequencies a) above the frequency required only b) below the frequency required only c) above and below the frequency required The rotor of a magnesyn transmitter is a) a dc electromagnet b) a permanent magnet c) an ac electromagnet In general the accuracy of a synchro system increases if the a) stator current is high b) stator current is low c) rotor current is high Torque synchro systems are normally used when the a) mechanical load is low b) mechanical load is high c) system accuracy is of extreme importance In a resolver synchro the stator windings are electrically disposed by a) 90o b) 120o c) 180o The induced signal in the output coils of the magnesyn system a) de-saturates the soft iron core b) damps the pointer oscillations c) is of a value of 800 Hz

The direction of the induced (secondary) magnetic field in a synchro transmitter a) is 90o to the primary magnetic field b) in the same direction as the primary field c) is in the opposite direction to the primary field The cogging effect in synchros is rectified by a) using carbon brushes b) using an elliptical cog c) skewing the rotor A transistor is said to be in the quiescent state when a) no signal is applied to the input b) it is unbiased c) no currents are flowing In an unbiased p-n junction, current flow is a) due to the diffusion of minority carriers only b) zero, because no charges are crossing the junction c) zero, because equal but opposite currents are crossing the junction Reversal of the power supply to either the transmitter or the receiver of a torque synchro system would a) cause a 180o displacement between the transmitter and the receiver b) have no effect on the indication, but would cause a heavy current to flow c) make the receiver rotor rotate in the opposite direction Torque synchro systems are normally used when the a) mechanical load is low b) mechanical load is high c) system accuracy is of extreme importance A common base transistor circuit is so called because a) the base region is located between the emitter and collector region b) the base is n-type material c) the base is common to the emitter and collector circuits What device transfers one energy type to another? a) Transmitter b) Transducer c) Transponder Which way does conventional current flow in a PNP junction? a) Collector to emitter b) Emitter to base

c) Collector to base Electrical power is supplied to a synchro rotor a) directly b) through slip rings c) through a commutator The purpose of a flywheel incorporated in a synchro is to a) increase the driving force b) prevent oscillations c) prevent insect ingress In an operational amplifier, the two input waves are the same amplitude, same frequency, but exactly anti-phase. What would the output be? a) Double b) Zero c) Half A thyristor has which of the following? a) High resistance when switched on b) High resistance when switched off c) A positive temperature coefficient On an integrated circuit the hole in the top left corner is pin 1. The pins are counted a) clockwise b) anticlockwise c) from left to right In a synchro system, if two stator lines are crossed the receiver will a) not be affected b) be 180o out c) reverse direction In the following Boolean algebra statement, which gate is described? F=A+B+C a) Or b) Not c) And In an E and I signal generator at datum, the voltage on the secondary windings a) are equal and opposite b) is maximum c) is zero In a synchro resolver, the stator coils are at what angle in relation to one another?

a) 45 degrees b) 80 degrees c) 90 degrees In a synchrotel, the a) rotor is fixed and the stator moves b) rotor and stator is fixed c) stator is fixed and the rotor moves
Part 66 Module 4 (e)

The junction barrier offers opposition to only a) holes in the p-region b) free electrons in the n-region c) majority carriers in both regions An increase in velocity feedback will a) decrease the speed the load moves b) increase the speed the load moves c) have no effect on speed A two phase motor will stop when a) the reference phase is reversed b) the control phase is reversed c) the control phase is zero A tachogenerator output is a) variable frequency, constant voltage b) variable voltage, constant frequency c) variable frequency, variable voltage Rate feedback can be obtained from a a) synchro b) tachogenerator c) potentiometer Positional feedback can be obtained from a a) synchro b) tachogenerator c) potentiometer The frictional force in a servomechanism that is proportional to speed is called a) stiction b) coulomb friction c) viscous friction The 'null' point in a control synchro is when the two rotors are a) at 90o to each other

b) parallel to each other c) wired in series If two of the stator leads are cross connected in a control synchro system, a 25o clockwise rotation of the input rotor would result in the output rotor a) moving 25o clockwise b) moving 25o anticlockwise c) moving 180o to rectify the defect Damping in a servomechanism is easier to apply if a) the mechanism is light and has low inertia b) the mechanism is heavy and has high inertia c) the mechanism is light and has high inertia Reverse bias a) lowers the potential barrier b) raises the potential barrier c) greatly increases the majority carrier current If the electrical connections to the feedback generator in a control synchro system were disconnected, the a) motor would run in the wrong direction b) input signal to the amplifier would reduce c) system would tend to oscillate An increase in servo amplifier gain a) reduces the speed of the system b) increases system response c) reduces tendency to hunt In a control synchro the stator current ceases to flow when the a) CT rotor is at null b) two rotors are aligned c) power is removed The term 'velocity lag' refers to a a) speed error b) position error c) acceleration error The rotor of an AC tachogenerator a) has skewed slots b) has a copper, brass or aluminium cylinder c) rotates at constant speed A servo system with transient negative velocity feedback

a) is damped with little velocity lag b) is damped with high velocity lag c) is underdamped with high velocity lag To reverse the direction of rotation of a two phase induction motor a) reverse the polarity of the control phase b) reverse the polarity of both the control phase and reference phase c) shift the reference by 90o In a rate servo (speed control) the signal into the servo amplifier is a) input voltage plus tachogenerator output b) input voltage minus tachogenerator output c) input voltage plus position feedback voltage Loss of DC to a servo amplifier causes the motor to a) run continuously b) stop c) reverse Avalanche breakdown occurs when a) forward current becomes excessive b) forward bias exceeds a certain value c) reverse bias exceeds a certain value An AC servo demand can be converted to drive a DC motor by the introduction of a a) rectifier b) modulator c) demodulator Synchro indicator systems are used when the indication is required to move a) a fraction of the input distance b) slower than the input rate c) at the same rate as the input A linear variable differential transformer is used to measure position feedback where a) 360o of rotation and high angular accuracy is required b) accuracy is of limited importance but robust construction and reliability is important c) an output whose phase is related to direction of movement and amplitude linear over a wide range A low frequency sinusoidal input will cause a closed loop servomechanism load to a) move to a demand position with no overshoot b) move backwards and forwards at the input frequency c) move to the demand position and then return to the datum position without any overshoot

To reduce oscillations about a demand position a) the amount of velocity feedback would be decreased b) the amount of velocity feedback would be increased c) the amount of position feedback would be increased If a servo amplifier is suffering from drift a) the load would move to a new position, proportional to the drift and stay there b) the load would move to a new position, proportional to the drift and then return back to the datum position c) the load would oscillate about the datum position In a transient velocity feedback circuit, the tachogenerator output is summated with the demand voltage a) only when the load is slowing down b) at all times when the load is moving c) only when the load is speeding up or slowing down Positive feedback applied to a servomechanism a) decreases the response of the system b) opposes the demand signal c) increases the response of the system A differential synchro rotor consists of a) one winding parallel to the transmitter rotor b) two windings at 90o apart c) three windings at 120o apart
Part 66 Module 4 (d)

When a hole diffuses from a p-region to the n-region it a) becomes a minority carrier in the n-region b) lowers the potential barrier c) raises the potential barrier How are the pins numbered on an op-amp IC? a) counter clockwise from the dot b) clockwise from the dot c) from left to right from the dot To increase the output of a servo amplifier, it is necessary to a) reduce the tacho feedback b) increase the tacho feedback c) increase the position feedback Angular displacement of the control coils with respect to the reference coils in a two phase induction motor are a) 0o, 180o b) 90o, 270o

c) 90o, 120o a two phase induction motor used in a servomechanism a) will always require a starter b) is self starting under light loads c) runs with no slip A servomotor having only a tachogenerator as a feedback device will a) vary its speed with input error voltage b) have a constant speed for any given input voltage c) null out at a position dependant upon input error voltage A hysteresis servo motor is used in a servomechanism because a) it has good starting characteristics b) good speed/voltage relationship c) low inertia The null position of a torque synchro system is when a) the TX and TR rotors are parallel to each other b) the TX and TR rotors are 90o to each other c) the TX and TR rotors are 120o to each other Reversal of two of the stator connections on a torque synchro receiver would cause a) the transmitter to become the receiver b) the output to move the same direction as the input c) the output to move the reverse direction to the input An AC tachogenerator stator has a) two windings 180o apart b) three windings 120o apart c) two windings 90o apart When a hole diffuses from a p-region to the n-region it a) becomes a minority carrier in the n-region b) lowers the potential barrier c) raises the potential barrier How are the pins numbered on an op-amp IC? a) counter clockwise from the dot b) clockwise from the dot c) from left to right from the dot To increase the output of a servo amplifier, it is necessary to a) reduce the tacho feedback b) increase the tacho feedback c) increase the position feedback

Angular displacement of the control coils with respect to the reference coils in a two phase induction motor are a) 0o, 180o b) 90o, 270o c) 90o, 120o a two phase induction motor used in a servomechanism a) will always require a starter b) is self starting under light loads c) runs with no slip A servomotor having only a tachogenerator as a feedback device will a) vary its speed with input error voltage b) have a constant speed for any given input voltage c) null out at a position dependant upon input error voltage A hysteresis servo motor is used in a servomechanism because a) it has good starting characteristics b) good speed/voltage relationship c) low inertia The null position of a torque synchro system is when a) the TX and TR rotors are parallel to each other b) the TX and TR rotors are 90o to each other c) the TX and TR rotors are 120o to each other Reversal of two of the stator connections on a torque synchro receiver would cause a) the transmitter to become the receiver b) the output to move the same direction as the input c) the output to move the reverse direction to the input An AC tachogenerator stator has a) two windings 180o apart b) three windings 120o apart c) two windings 90o apart A junction diode a) has one p-n junction b) is similar to a vacuum diode but cannot rectify c) can handle only very small currents When the rotor of an AC tachogenerator is stationary, the rotor has a) no circulating currents b) low circulating currents c) no magnetic fields

The output of a tachogenerator should be a) sinusoidal b) exponential c) linear With a constant input to a speed control servo, the servo motor a) moves to a certain position b) moves at a constant speed c) oscillates, but otherwise does not move A closed loop servomechanism a) must only have position feedback b) must have both position and velocity feedback c) can have either position or velocity feedback Critical damping in a servomechanism is a) the point which allows just one overshoot before the load comes to rest b) the amount of damping that results in the load just not oscillating c) the critical damping required for the optimum damping of the servomechanism In a control synchro system the power supply is connected to the a) transmitter rotor and amplifier b) receiver rotor and amplifier c) transmitter and receiver rotors Reverse rotation of a control transformer rotor can be caused by a) connections between the transformer rotor and the amplifier reversed b) connections to the transmitter rotor reversed c) short circuit between two transmission lines Velocity feedback a) opposes the demand input b) assists the demand input c) prevents dead space errors Velocity lag can be decreased by a) introduction of an integrator b) keeping the error detector (summing point) output as low as possible c) decreasing the coulomb friction in the system
Part 66 Module 4 (c)

The power supply to a torque synchro system is connected to a) the transmitter stator b) the transmitter rotor only c) the transmitter and receiver rotors

If the rotor of the receiver in a torque synchro system was prevented from aligning with the transmitter rotor, then a) the transmitter rotor will turn to align with the receiver rotor b) the receiver will overheat c) a high current will flow in the stator windings A zener diode a) stabilizes voltage at a predetermined level b) allows current to flow in one direction c) acts like a switch The common collector amplifier is sometimes called the emitter follower circuit because a) the emitter current follows the collector current b) the emitter voltage follows the base voltage c) the emitter voltage follows the collector voltage In a toroidal resistance transmitter indicator system, the power supply is connected to a) the brushes b) the resistor slab c) the rotor When a servo has reached its null and stopped, the velocity feedback is a) zero b) maximum and anti-phase c) maximum and in phase The primary purpose of rate feedback in a positional servo system is to a) ensure minimum response time b) prevent excessive overshoot c) ensure system linearity In an AC rate servo, a steady input will result in the servomotor a) oscillating about a new datum b) rotating at a constant speed c) rotating to a new datum position An E&I bar output at datum has a) no induced voltage in the secondary windings b) an imbalance of voltages in the secondary windings

c) equal and opposite voltages induced in the secondary A non-inverting op-amp a) has a non-inverting input and an inverting output b) has an inverting input and a non-inverting output c) a non-inverting input connection only Amplifiers may be classified as a) common emitter or common collector amplifiers b) voltage amplifiers or impedance amplifiers c) voltage amplifiers or power amplifiers What is a shottky diode used for? a) Very high frequency applications b) Stabilsation c) Rectification The result of cross connecting two of the transmission leads in a torque synchro system and then turning the rotor of the transmitter 60o clockwise would be a) the receiver would move 60o clockwise b) the receiver would move 120o anticlockwise c) the receiver would move 60o anticlockwise The control windings of a two phase servomotor is supplied with AC voltage of a) constant amplitude b) variable phase c) variable amplitude, variable phase In a torque synchro that includes a differential synchro the power supply is connected to a) the transmitter rotor only b) the transmitter and receiver rotors only c) all three rotors A differential synchro rotor has a) three windings b) two windings c) one winding If the rotor of a control synchro sticks a) the system hunts b) high current will flow c) the position feedback will oscillate With the reversal of the connections to the rotor of the transmitter of a torque synchro,

the position of the receiver rotor will be a) unchanged b) changed by 120o c) changed by 180o The application of a 'stick-off' voltage to a control synchro servo system is a) to overcome the effect of static friction b) to overcome the effect of viscous friction c) to prevent alignment to a false null When removing a microprocessor a) no damage is done by static discharge b) considerable damage can be done by static discharge c) ensure the power is OFF to avoid static discharge An amplifier can provide both voltage gain and current gain when it is connected in the a) common base configuration b) common emitter configuration c) common collector configuration How do you increase voltage gain of an amplifier? a) decrease base circuit bias b) decrease input resistance c) increase input resistance In a resolver synchro the stator windings are electrically displaced by a) 90o b) 120o c) 180o A servo system may include a brake, an automatic trim system is one example where a brake is used. The brake is a) applied during trimming to prevent oscillations about the demand position b) applied when trimming is complete to prevent stabilizer creep c) applied during trimming to prevent servo runaway A resolver synchro output is obtained from a rotor with a) one single coil b) three coils at 120o c) two coils at 90o In a control synchro the stator current ceases to flow when a) the CT rotor is at null b) when the two rotors are aligned c) when power is removed

In a speed control servo system (rate control), the purpose of the tachogenerator is a) to make the velocity proportional to servo demand b) to make the deflection proportional to servo demand c) to make it run at constant speed The result of reversing the rotor connections to the receiver of a torque synchro system is that the rotor position a) is unchanged b) is changed by 120o c) is changed by 180o The rotor of a torque synchro indicator is a) supplied with an excitation voltage b) short circuited c) connected in series with the transmitter stator coil
Part 66 Module 4 (b)

What type of diode would be used to stop voltage spikes across a coil of a relay? a) Gunn diode b) Schottky diode c) Double acting diode A silicon diode, when compared to a germanium diode has a) a higher forward bias voltage b) less forward bias voltage c) the same forward bias voltage A zener diode is used for a) rectification b) voltage stabilization c) modulation A multi-layer PCB has a) one layer on either side b) two or more layers on one or both sides c) two or more layers connected in series When a servomotor overshoots after a step input and oscillates it is a) over damped b) under damped c) critically damped

The rotor of a desynn indicator is a) an electromagnet b) a permanent magnet c) an AC magnet The position feedback from a potentiometer is a) anti-phase b) in phase c) 90 degrees out of phase A differential synchro has a) 3 phase stator, 3 phase rotor b) single phase stator, 2 phase rotor c) 3 phase stator, single phase rotor When a servomotor has stopped, the rate feedback from a tachogenerator is a) zero b) maximum and in phase c) maximum and anti-phase A tachogenerator is usually used for a) rate feedback b) angular feedback c) position feedback Differential synchros have a) a transmitter only b) a receiver only c) a transmitter and a receiver In an integrated circuit, the components are mounted a) by means of wires connecting them b) by metal oxide film c) by metal screws One characteristic of the emitter follower is a) low resistance output b) low current amplification c) high voltage amplification

A reduction from the optimum setting of the velocity feedback in a servo loop could cause a) low servo gain b) instability c) slow response

In a torque synchro system, the power supply is connected to a) the rotor windings of the transmitter only b) the rotor windings of both the transmitter and receiver c) the stator windings of the transmitter The phase difference between the supplies of a two phase induction motor is a) 180o b) 90o c) 0o To reduce overshoot errors in a synchro a) the system will have position feedback b) the system will have velocity feedback c) the gain of the amplifier is increased A synchro transformer is used to a) derive an error voltage from a synchro transmitter signal and a shaft position b) obtain a 26 volt AC reference c) add the output of two synchro transmitters Reversal of the complete power to a torque synchro system will a) have no effect b) cause reverse rotation of the receiver rotor c) displace the receiver rotor by 180o The power supply to a torque synchro system is a) AC b) DC c) AC or DC When a positive voltage is applied to the base of a normally biased n-p-n common emitter amplifier a) the emitter current decreases b) the collector voltage goes less positive c) the base current decreases

An amplifier current gain will be slightly less than 1, but its voltage gain will be high, if it is connected in the a) common base configuration b) common emitter configuration c) common collector configuration An open loop system is one which has a) no direct feedback loop b) rate feedback loop c) position feedback only Mechanical friction in a servo results in a) reduced gain b) increased damping c) increased inertia

9. The position feedback signal is a) in phase with the input demand signal b) in anti-phase with the demand signal c) phase advanced by 90o with respect to the input signal

10. A servo system that overshoots and oscillates is a) under damped b) over damped c) critically damped
Part 66 Module 4 (a)

What gives the colour of an LED a The plastic it is encased in b The active element c The type of gas used inside it A germanium diode is used for a rectification b voltage stabilisation c modulation Why is a Diode put in parallel with an LED a To protect it from AC

b So it will only work above a certain voltage c So it will only work below a certain voltage When testing the forward bias of a Diode with a multimeter a The positive lead of the multimeter is placed on the cathode b The positive lead of the multimeter is placed on the anode c It does not matter which terminal the positive lead is placed on In an NPN transistor the P is the a)collector b)base c)emitter The output of a tachogenerator is a)proportional to speed of rotation b)proportional to position c)proportional to acceleration AC power is supplied to a)torque receiver only b)torque transmitter only c)both the torque receiver and torque transmitter How is a PCB protected after manufacture? a)With non-conductive varnish b)With wax c)By conformal coating A differential synchro a)can only be used as a transmitter b)can only be used as a receiver c)can be used as either a transmitter or a receiver Which of the following describes the characteristics of a Thyristor? a)High voltage handling b)High current handling c)High power handling A semiconductor doped with an element having a valency of 5 will produce a)an N type material b)a P type material c)either an N type or a P type depending on what type of semiconductor material is used What are the ideal characteristics of an Op Amp? a)Infinite gain, infinite input Impedance and infinite output impedance

b)Low gain, infinite input Impedance and zero output impedance c)Infinite gain, infinite input Impedance and zero output impedance What gate does the following Boolean expression represent F = A.B.C a)AND b)OR c)NOT What gate does the following Boolean expression represent F = A+B+C a)NOT b)NOR c)OR To decrease the voltage gain of a common emitter amplifier you would increase the resistance in the a)base circuit b)collector circuit c)emitter circuit A resolver has a)2 coils on the rotor and 2 coils on the stator b)3 coils on the rotor and 2 coils on the stator c)2 coils on the rotor and 3 coils on the stator The 'null' point on a control synchro is when the two rotors are a)at 90o to each other b)parallel to each other c)wired in series A FET when compared to a junction transistor is a)low impedance b)high impedance c)current operated
EASA 66 Short answer questions

EASA 66 Short answer questions example 1.What is M.E.D.A (maintenance error detection aid) and how does it work. 2. On initial engine start up #2 engine fails to ignite how would you troubleshoot 3. How would you certify an aircraft after it had suffered an accident/incident 4.How do aircraft manufacturers design aircraft to counteract HIRF

Part 66 Modue 6 (B1)

What does the 0 in 2024-T3 mean: a. The alloy has been modified b. The percentage of impurities in the alloy c. The alloy has not been modified. What is a Rockwell tester used for: Hardness Testing Fatigue Testing Tensile Testing What type of a test involves stretching material until it breaks? Fatigue Testing Tensile Testing Hardness Testing During a Rockwell Hardness test, what dimension is measured: The diameter of the indent The depth of the indent The diameter and depth of the indent What type of test involves using a weighted pendulum to strike a material until fracture: Impact Resistance Test Fatigue Testing Hardness Test What type of heat treatment can be used on DD rivets: Annealing Solution Treatment Precipitation Here are my Guesses! What does the 0 in 2024-T3 mean: a. The alloy has been modified What is a Rockwell tester used for: Hardness Testing What type of a test involves stretching material until it breaks? Tensile Testing During a Rockwell Hardness test, what dimension is measured: The diameter of the indent

What type of test involves using a weighted pendulum to strike a material until fracture: Impact Resistance Test What type of heat treatment can be used on DD rivets: Precipitation