BRILLIANTS PROGRESSIVE TEST

FOR STUDENTS OF

AIEEE 2011 PT 2 (ONE YEAR)/ PT 5 (TWO YEAR) 10.10.2010

ALL INDIA ENGINEERING ENTRANCE EXAMINATION, 2011

MATHEMATICS, PHYSICS & CHEMISTRY
Time: 3 hours IMPORTANT INSTRUCTIONS Maximum marks: 432

1. The Test Booklet consists of 90 questions. The maximum marks are 432. 2. There are three parts in the question paper. The distribution of marks subjectwise in each part is as under for each correct response. Part A MATHEMATICS (144 Marks) Questions No. 1 to 9 and 13 to 21 and 25 to 30 consist of FOUR (4) marks each and Questions No. 10 to 12 and 22 to 24 consist of EIGHT (8) marks each for each correct response. Part B PHYSICS (144 Marks) Questions No. 33 to 49 and 54 to 60 consist of FOUR (4) marks each and Questions No. 31 to 32 and 50 to 53 consist of EIGHT (8) marks each for each correct response. Part C CHEMISTRY (144 Marks) Questions No. 64 to 69, 73 to 90 consist of FOUR (4) marks each and Questions No. 61 to 63 and 70 to 72 consist of EIGHT (8) marks each for each correct response. 3. Candidates will be awarded marks as stated in instruction No. 2 for correct response of each question.1/4 (one-fourth) marks will be deducted for indicating incorrect response of each question. No deduction from the total score will be made if no response is indicated for an item in the Answer Sheet. 4. Use Blue/Black Ball point Pen only for writing particulars/ marking responses on Side-1 and Side-2 of the Answer Sheet. Use of pencil is strictly prohibited 5. No candidate is allowed to carry any textual material, printed or written, bits of papers, page mobile phone, any electronic device, etc., except the Admit Card inside the examination hall/room 6. Rough work is to be done on the space provided for this purpose in the Test Booklet only. This space is given at the bottom of each page

Name of the Candidate (in Capitals) :________________________________________________

Roll Number: in figures

: in words ___________________________________________________________________

Examination Centre Number:

Name of Examination Centre (in Capitals): ___________________________________________________ Candidate s Signature: ___________________________Invigilator s Signature:____________________ Brilliant Tutorials Pvt. Ltd. AIEEE/PT/MPC/Obj/Qns - 1

SEAL

PART A: MATHEMATICS
1. If sin 1 x + sin 1 y + sin 1 z = x2 + y2 + z2 + 2xyz is equal to (1) 1 (3) 1 (2) 0 (4) None of these
C , 2 , then 2

(3) logb (loga b) (4) None of these 5. If x, y, z are in A.P., then (x + 2y z) (x + z y) (z + 2y x) is equal to (1) xyz (3) 4xyz (2) 2xyz (4) None of these

2. If in ABC, cos A + cos B = 4 sin2 then the sides of the triangle are in (1) A.P. (3) H.P. 3. cos2 (1)
3 12 2 3 3 2
x 2

(2) G.P. (4) None of these

cos
2

cos

5 is 12

(2) 2 3
3 (4) 2

6. Six periods are to be allotted to five subjects such that each subject has at least one period. The number of ways in which this can be done is (1) 5P (6, 5) (2) 5C (6, 5) (4) None of these
log x log 3

(3) 3

(3) P (6, 5)
3
1

4. If logx a, a , logb x are in G.P., then x is equal to (1) loga (logb a)

log log a log log b (2) log a

7. If f (x) =

, then f (1994) is

(1) log 1994 (3) 3 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

(2) 1994 log 3 (4) None of these

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3 8. If |x| is very small as compared to 1, then 1 (1) 1

7x 23 x 6 25 x 6
1 3

2x

3 4

Statement 2: is equal to
23 x 6 25 x 6

r=1

r n

r =

n n

10. Statement 1:

adj adj adj A = A

n 1
3

(2) 1

(3) 1

(4) 1

where n is the order of matrix A. Statement 2: 11. Statement 1:

adj A = A
n

Question Numbers 9 to 13 are of Assertion and Reason type. Mark your response according to the following options. (1) Statement 1 is true, statement 2 is true, statement 2 is not a correct explanation of statement 1. (2) Statement 1 is true, statement 2 is false. Statement 1 is false, statement 2 is true. Statement 1 is true, statement 2 is true, statement 2 is a correct explanation of statement 1. Coefficient of x (1 + 2x + 3x 16x15)2 is 680
2 15

Circles x2 + y2 = 144 and x2 + y2 6x 8y = 0 do not have any common tangent.

Statement 2:

(3)

If one circle lies completely inside the other circle, then both have no common tangent. No. of ways in which 10 identical toys can be distributed among 3 students if each receives at least two toys is 9C2 .

12. Statement 1:

(4)

9. Statement 1:

in Statement 2: No. of positive integral solutions of x + y + z + w = 7 is 6C2 .

+ ... +

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4 13. Statement 1: Let A and B be 2 independent events and if P (A) = 0.4 and P (A B ) = 0.9, then P (B) is Statement 2:
1 . 6

(1) real (3) rational

(2) non-real (4) None of these

18. The solution set of the equation 2 2x + 8 32 2x + 1 = 0 is

1 1 , 16 16

If A and B are independent, then P (A B) = P (A) P (B)

(1)

(2)

4,

14. Given n (U) = 25, n (A) = 14, n (B) = 10, n (A B) = 5, where U is the universal set, A and B are subsets of U. Then n ((A B)c) = (1) 19 (2) 10 (3) 5 (4) 6 (3) 16 , 16 (4) None of these

15. The fourth term of a G.P. is 2, then the product of first 7 terms is (1) 64 (2) 128 (3) 32 (4)
1 27

19. A class is composed of 2 brothers and 8 other boys. In how many ways can all the boys be seated at a round table so that the 2 brothers are not seated beside each other? (1) 360040 (3) 480040 (2) 440040 (4) 282240

16. If a2 + b2 + c2 = 1, then ab + bc + ca lies in the interval (1)

1 ,3 2 1 ,1 2

(2)

1, 2 1 2

(3)

(4)

1,

20. There are 4 different green dyes, 3 different blue dyes and 2 different red dyes. The total number of combinations of dyes that can be chosen taking at least one green and one blue dye is (1) 340 (3) 560 (2) 420 (4) 640

17. The product of the roots of the equation x 4mx + 3e roots are
2 2 log m

4 = 0 is 8, then its

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5 21. The term independent of x in the

24

24. A circle is drawn on the major axis of the ellipse 9x2 + 16y2 = 144 as diameter. The equation of the circle is (1) x2 + y2 = 4 (2) x2 + y2 = 3 (4) x2 + y2 = 9

expansion of

3 x
2

is

(1)

24

8 8

(2)

24

C 3
8

(3) x2 + y2 = 16

(3)

24

C 3
6

(4) 38
C
1

25. From any point on the circle x2 + y2 = a2 tangents are drawn to the circle
1 9
12

22. The sum of

12

1 3

12

C
2

1 27

x2 + y2 = a2 sin2 (0 < < between them is (1) 2 (2)

), the angle 2

+... up to 12 terms is
12 12

(1)

4 3

(2)

3 4
12

(3)
12

(4) None of these

(3)

3 4

(4)

4 3

26. If the mean of n observations 12, 22, 32, ... n2 is

46n , then n is equal to 11

23. If A =

1 2 , then An = 0 1 2 n 0 1 1 n 0 1

(1) 11

(2) 12

(3) 23

(4) 22

(1)

1 2n 0 1 1 0 2n 1

(2)

27. The median of the data 13, 15, 11, 6, 4, 2, 18, 8 is (1) 5.5 (3) 9.5 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK (2) 8.5 (4) 11.5

(3)

(4)

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6 28. The distance between the lines 4x + 3y = 11 and 8x + 6y = 15 is (1) (3)

7 2 7 10

(2) 4 (4) None of these

30. An urn contains 9 balls two of which are red, three blue and four black. Three balls are drawn at random. The probability that they are of same colour is
5 84 3 4 3 9 7 17

29. If the letters of the word INDEPENDENCE are written down at random in a row, then the chance that no two E s occur together is (1) (3)
14 55 54 55

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

(2)

1 55

(4) None of these SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

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PART B: PHYSICS
31. The dimensional equation for magnetic flux is (1) ML T I (3) ML
2 2 2 2

(1) 112.5 m (3) 122.0 m

(2) 117.5 m (4) 127.5 m

(2) ML T I
1 0 2

33. An 80 kg man standing on ice throws a T

2

(4) M L T

32. Two particles A and B of mass 20 gm and 40 gm respectively are projected simultaneously from the points P and Q on the ground. The velocities of A and B make 45 and 135 with the horizontal as shown in the Figure. Both the particles travel in the same vertical plane with an initial speed of 49 ms 1. The points P and Q are separated by a distance of 2.45 m. After collision, A retraces its path. The position of B when it hits the ground is (g = 9.8 ms 2)

4 kg body horizontally at 6 ms 1. The frictional coefficient between the ice and his feet is 0.02. The distance through which the man slips is (g = 10 ms 2) (1) 2.25 m (3) 2.15 m (2) 2.20 m (4) 2.10 m

34. Identical point masses each equal to M are kept at distances x = 0, x = 1, x = 2, x = 4 ............ The net gravitational force on the mass M at x = 0 due to all other masses will be
2 4 GM 3

(1) Infinite

(2)

(3)

4G 3M
2

(4) zero

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8 35. A spring mass system with unequal masses is placed at rest on a smooth horizontal surface. The spring is initially kept compressed with a thread. When the spring is cut, the mass M moves so as to enter in a vertical circular loop of radius r. The minimum compression x in the spring so that the mass m may negotiate the vertical loop is the boat with a speed of 4 ms 1 with respect to the water. The river has a current of 3 ms 1 and its width is 100 m.

36. The velocity (in magnitude and direction) of the boat with respect to the shore is (1) 4 ms 1 ; tan 1
5 3 3 4 3 5 5 4

(1)

5 mgr m k M 3 mgr M m k m 5 mgr k M M m

(2) 5 ms 1 ; tan 1

(2)

(3) 5 ms 1 ; tan 1

(3)

(4) 3 ms 1 ; tan 1

(4)

3 mgr M k m

37. The landing point of the rowboat when it reaches the opposite bank is (1) 133 m (3) 167 m (2) 125 m (4) 75 m

Question numbers 36 and 37 are based on the following paragraph A rowboat proceeds perpendicular to the bank of a river. The rower propels

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9 38. A satelite orbiting around the earth of radius R is shifted to an orbit of radius 2R. The time taken for one revolution will increase nearly by (1) 2 times (3) 2.8 times (2) 2.5 times (4) 3.2 times Question numbers 41 and 42 contain Statement 1 and Statement 2. Of the four choices given after the statements, choose one that best describes the two statements. 41. Statement 1: If the temperature of any ideal blackbody is increased by 100%, then there will be 400% increase in quantity of radiation emitted from its surface.
4

39. Water filled in a tank has a hole h metre from its top. The distance x where the stream of water will touch the ground from the bottom (in m) is

Statement 2:

Equation

E T =4 E T

also true for large percentage increase. (1) Statement 1 is true, statement 2 is false Statement 1 is true, statement 2 is true ; statement 2 is the correct explanation of statement 1 Statement 1 is true, statement 2 is true ; statement 2 is not the correct explanation of statement 1 (4) (3) 2 (4) 1 Statement 1 is false, statement 2 is true

(1) 2 h H (3)
2hH

(2) 2 g H (4)
2gH

(2)

40. The beat frequency produced when the following two waves x1 = 12 sin (484 t 7 x) and x2 = 12 sin (480 t 7 x) are sounded together is (1) 4 (2) 3

(3)

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10 42. Statement 1: In order to fully charge a capacitor C to a potential difference of V, the energy supplied by the battery is CV2. Statement 2: The work done in moving a charge q = (CV) through a potential difference V is qV. 400 gm. If the entire mechanical work is used up in producing heat and the rate of rise of temperature of the block is 0.8C/sec. Specific heat capacity of the steel = 500 J/ kg/K 43. The rate of working of the drill is (1) 150 W (3) 170 W (2) 160 W (4) 180 W

(1)

Statement 1 is true, statement 2 is false Statement 1 is true, statement 2 is true ; statement 2 is the correct explanation of statement 1 Statement 1 is true, statement 2 is true ; statement 2 is not the correct explanation of statement 1

44. The angular rotation of the drill in one sec in radian is (1) 8 (3) 12 (2) 10 (4) 14

(2)

45. The couple required to drive the drill is (3) (1)

4 2

N-m

(2)

3 1

N-m

(4)

Statement 1 is false, statement 2 is true

(3)

N-m

(4)

N-m

Question numbers 43 to 45 are based on the following paragraph A steel drill making 240 revolutions/min is used to drill a hole in a steel block. The mass of the block and the drill is

46. The temperature of two bodies A and B are 727C and 327C. The ratio of the rates of heat radiated by them H1 : H2 is (1) 727 : 327 (3) 256 : 98 (2) 625 : 81 (4) 5 : 3

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11 47. The energy stored in the capacitor is (1)

3 A
0

2 A

2d 2 A

(2)

3d 3 A

(3)

(4)

(1) 256 J (3) 264 J

(2) 260 J (4) 268 J

49. In the circuit shown below, the cells have negligible internal resistance. If the galvanometer G reads zero, the value of the resistor R is

48. Four metallic plates each with a surface area A of each side are placed at a distance d from each other. When the plates are connected as shown in Figure, the capacitance of the whole system between a and b is (1) 100 (3) 375 (2) 200 (4) 500

50. A bulb of 220 V and 300 W is connected across 110 V circuit. The percentage reduction in the power is (1) 25 % (3) 60 % SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK (2) 50 % (4) 75 %

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12 51. The thermo e.m.f. of a copper constanton couple is 45 V per degree. The smallest temperature difference that can be detected with this couple and a galvanometer of 90 resistance capable of measuring current of 1 A is (1) 2C (3) 1.5C (2) 1C (4) 2.5C a minimum balancing length changes to 680 cm. The internal resistance of the cell is (1) 1.5 (3) 2.5 (2) 2 (4) 3.0

52. The negative Zn pole of Daniel cell sending a current constantly through a circuit, decreases in mass by 0.26 gm in 1 hour. If the electrochemical equivalents of zinc and copper are 32.5 and 31.5 respectively, the increase in mass of the positive copper pole in this time is (1) 0.235 gm (2) 0.242 gm (3) 0.246 gm (4) 0.252 gm 53. In a potentiometer experiment, balancing length with a cell is 760 When an external resistance of 17 connected in parallel to the cell, the cm. is the

54. A horizontal uniform disc can roatate freely on a rigid vertical axis passing through its centre O. A man stands at rest at the edge of the disc at a point M. The mass of the disc is 22 times the mass of the man. The man starts walking along the edge of the disc anticlockwise. When he returns to M after completing one rotation relative to the disc, the disc has rotated through

(1) 30 (3) 60

(2) 45 (4) 90

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13 55. A battery of internal resistance 4 is connected to the network of resistance as shown in the Figure. In order to get maximum power to the network, the value of R in ohm should be 58. Steam at 100C is passed into 1.4 kg of water kept in a calorimeter of water equivalent 0.03 kg at 20C till the temperature of the calorimeter and contents reach 80C. Latent heat of steam is 2.26 106 J kg
1

and sp.heat

capacity of water is 4200 J kg/C. The mass of steam condensed in kilogram is nearly equal to (1) 0.15 kg (3) 0.18 kg (1) 1 (2) 1.5 (3) 2 (4) 2.5 (2) 0.16 kg (4) 0.20 kg

56. An electric heating element consumes 300 W when connected to a 110 V line. If the line voltage becomes 220 V, the power consumed will be (1) 1080 W (3) 1160 W (2) 1120 W (4) 1200 W

59. Two coils, a primary of 500 turns and a secondary of 20 turns are wound over an iron core of length 25 cms and cross section of 2 cm radius. If r = 800, then the coefficient of mutual induction is nearly equal to (1) 14 mH (2) 16 mH (3) 18 mH (4) 20 mH 60. A galvanometer gives full scale reading of 50 mA, when a p.d. across its terminals is 0.15 V. It can be used as an ammeter of range 0.100 A by connecting a shunt resistance of (1) 0.00075 (3) 0.0015 (2) 0.00045 (4) 0.015

57. There is an air bubble of radius 1mm at a depth 20 cm below the free space of water. The surface tension of water is 0.075 Nm 1 and density is 1000 kg/m3. The excess of pressure inside the bubble over above the atmospheric pressure is (1) 2110 pascal (3) 2210 pascal (2) 2160 pascal (4) 2260 pascal

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14

PART C: CHEMISTRY
61. The number of moles of oxygen in one litre of air containing 21% of oxygen by volume, under standard conditions, is (1) 2.10 mole (3) 0.186 mole (2) 0.21 mole (4) 0.0093 mole 2Fe(s) +
3 O 2 2
g

molten iron. Given that

3 O 2 2

2Al(s) +

Al2O3 (s); H1 = 400 kcal mol 1 Fe2O3 (s) ; H2 = 200 kcal mol 1

62. In a saturated solution of sparingly soluble electrolyte AgIO3 (Molar mass = 283), the equilibrium which sets in, is AgIO3(s)
Ag
aq

IO

3 aq

What is the H for the formation of 1 mole of iron? (1) 100 kcal (3) + 100 kcal (2) 200 kcal (4) + 200 kcal
+

The ksp (AgIO3) at a given temperature is 1 10

8

. What is the mass AgIO3

present in 100 mL of its saturated solution? (1) 1.0 10 4 g (2) 28.3 10

2

64. The magnetic moment of MX

(atomic

(3) 2.83 10 3 g (4) 1.0 10 7 g 63. In the thermite reaction between ferric oxide and metallic aluminium produces

number of M = 25) is 15 Bohr magnetons. The number of unpaired electrons and the value of X respectively are (1) 5, 2 (3) 3, 4 (2) 3, 2 (4) 4, 3

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15 65. Consider the following statements. (A) A sigma () bond is formed when two s-orbitals overlap. (B) A pi () bond is formed when two hybridised p-orbitals axially overlap. (C) A bond is weaker than bond. Which of the above statements is/are correct ? (1) A and B (3) A alone (2) B and C (4) B alone (2) 69. The reaction in which hydrogen peroxide acts as a reducing agent is (1) PbS(s) + 4 H2O2 (l) PbSO4 (s) + 4H2 O( l) 2KI(aq) + H2O2( l) 2KOH(aq) + I2(aq) (3) 2FeSO4
(aq)

68. The equivalent mass of FeC2O4 (s) when it is titrated with warm dilute H2SO4 against aqueous KMnO4, in term of its molar M is (1) M (2)
M 2

(3)

M 3

(4)

M 5

66. The effect of surface tension of liquid is (1) rise of liquid in a capillary tube (2) spherical shape of liquid drops (3) upward movement of water in plants (4) All of the above 67. The density
1

+ H2SO4

(aq)

+ H2O2( l)

Fe2 (SO4)3 (aq) + 2 H2O( l) (4) Ag2O(s) + H2O2(l) 2Ag(s) + H2O(l) + O2 (g) 70. A metal crystallises in two cubic phases FCC and BCC whose unit cell lengths are 3.5 and 3.0 respectively. The ratio of their densities is (1) 0.72 (3) 1.26 (2) 2.04 (4) 3.12

of

gas

mixture

is

0.00130 gmL at STP. The vapour density of the gaseous mixture is (1) 28.9632 (3) 14.4816 (2) 29.12 (4) 14.56

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16 71. The degree of dissociation of aqueous calcium nitrate solution containing 7g per 100 g water at 373 K is 70%. The vapour pressure of the solution is (1) 726 mm of Hg (2) 730 mm of Hg (4) the impact of the dispersion medium on the colloidal particles of the dispersed phase 74. Which statement adsorption ? is wrong about

(3) 745.94 mm of Hg (4) 750 mm of Hg 72. What is the rate law that corresponds to the data given for the following reaction X + Y Z? Exp. No. (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) [X] M 0.012 0.024 0.024 0.012 [Y] M 0.035 0.070 0.035 0.070 Initial rate 0.10 0.80 0.10 0.80

(1) Increase of pressure increases the amount of adsorption. (2) Increase of temperature decreases the adsorption. (3) The adsorption may be a single layer or multilayer. (4) Size of the adsorbate does not affect extent of adsorption. 75. The true statement about a catalyst is (1) A catalyst takes part in the reaction. (2) A catalyst feasible by negative. makes the reaction more

(1) Rate = k [Y]3 (2) Rate = k [Y]4 (3) Rate = k [X] [Y]3 (4) Rate k = [X] [Y]
2 2

making

73. The cause of Brownian movement is (1) heat changes in the liquid state (2) convection current in liquid (3) attractive forces between colloidal particles and molecules of dispersion medium (3) A catalyst accelerates the reaction by bringing down the activation energy of the reaction. (4) A catalyst alters the equilibrium constant of the reaction.

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17 76. Reduction of MnO solution, produces (1) Mn

2 1 4

in a strongly basic

(1) In case of a weak electrolyte solution on dilution, specific conductance decreases its equivalent conductance increases. (2) The molar conductance of a solution of weak electrolyte increases on dilution. (3) The equivalent conductance of an electrolyte does not change on dilution. (4) The degree of ionisation of a weak electrolyte is given by
=
c o

(2) MnO

2 4

(3) MnO2

(4) Mn2O7

77. Which of the following is not the property of the sol, gum in water? (1) High concentration of dispersed phase can be easily obtained (2) Coagulation of gum sol is reversible (3) Viscosity and surface tension of the sol are nearly the same as that of water (4) The charge of gum particles depends on the pH of the medium and it may be positive, negative or zero 78. The emf of Daniel cell is 1.1 volt, the change in free energy in the cell is (F = 96500 Coulomb mol 1) (1) 212.30 kJ (3) + 212.30 kJ (2) 106.15 kJ (4) 318.45 kJ

where c and o are equivalent conductances at concentration C and zero respectively. 80. The hydride ion H is a stronger base than OH ion. Which of the following reactions will occur if sodium hydride (NaH) is dissolved in water? (1) H (2) H (3) H
aq

H O
2

H O
3

aq

aq

H O
2

OH

aq

2 g

79. Which of the following statements is false?

aq

H O 2OH
2

aq

(4) None of these

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18 81. Thomas slag, a biproduct of iron / steel industry is (1) CaCO3 (2) MnSiO3 (3) Ca3 (PO4)2 CaSiO3 (4) CaSiO3 82. The hybridisation of atomic orbitals of nitrogen in NO , NO
2 3

84. Which is not correct about greenhouse effect? (1) It results in global warming (2) CO2 is one of the main compounds responsible for it (3) It results in lowering of ocean water over the years (4) CH4, O3, CFC contribute to the greenhouse effect
2

and NH

are

85. Amongst Ni(CO)4,

2

Ni CN

and

(1) sp, sp3 and sp2 respectively (2) sp, sp2 and sp3 respectively (3) sp2, sp and sp3 respectively (4) sp2, sp3 and sp respectively 83. Out of the following compounds, which one would have zero dipole moment ? (1) 1, 1-dichloroethene (2) cis-1, 2-dichloroethene (3) trans-1, 2-dichloroethene (4) 1, 2, 3-trichloroethane

Ni Cl

,
2 2

(1) Ni(CO)4 and [NiCl4] gnetic ; [Ni (CN)4] gnetic (2) [NiCl4] gnetic
2

are diamais parama 2

and [Ni (CN)4]

are

diamagnetic ; [Ni (CO)4] is parama 2

(3) Ni(CO)4 and [Ni (CN)4] magnetic ; [Ni (Cl)4] agnetic

are dia-

is param-

(4) Ni(CO)4 is diamagnetic and [NiCl4] 2 and [Ni (CN)4] 2 are paramagnetic

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19 86. Lithium tetrahydridoaluminate in ether will not reduce (1) C2H5I (2) CH3 C N (3) CH3 C C CH3 (4) CH3 COOC2 H5 87. Which of the following statements is wrong? (1) Methanoic acid is stronger than ethanoic acid. (2) o-bromobenzoic acid is weaker than o-chlorobenzoic acid. (3) 2- hydroxypropionic acid does not contain a chiral centre. (4) Benzaldehyde does Fehling s solution. 88. Aniline not reduce (1) Ethanal (3) Ethanol (2) Propanone (4) Propan-2-ol (1) C6H5Cl (3) C6H5COOH (2) C6H5NO2 (4) C6H5OH

89. In the following sequence of reactions, the end product is HC CH

90. The correct order of increasing basicity of the given conjugate bases (R CH3) is (1) RCOO < H
C C < R < NH

(2) R < HC C < RCO O < NH (3) RCOO < NH < HC C < R
2

. (4) RCOO < HC C < NH < R The compound C is SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
2

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20 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

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21 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

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READ THE FOLLOWING INSTRUCTIONS CAREFULLY

1. The candidates should fill in the required particulars on the Test Booklet and Answer Sheet (Side-1) with Blue/Black Ball Point Pen. 2. For writing/marking particulars on Side-2 of the Answer Sheet, use Blue/Black Ball Point Pen only. 3. The candidates should not write their Roll Numbers anywhere else (except in the specified space) on the Test Booklet/Answer Sheet. 4. For each incorrect response, one-fourth of the total marks allotted to the question would be deducted from the total score. No deduction from the total score, however, will be made if no response is indicated for an item in the Answer Sheet. 5. Handle the Test Booklet and Answer Sheet with care, as under no circumstances (except for discrepancy in Test Booklet Code and Answer Sheet Code) will another set be provided. 6. The candidates are not allowed to do any rough work or writing work on the Answer Sheet. All calculations/writing work are to be done in the space provided for this purpose in the Test Booklet itself, marked Space for Rough Work . 7. On completion of the test, the candidates must hand over the Answer Sheet to the Invigilator on duty in the Room/Hall. However, the candidates are allowed to take away this Test Booklet with them. 8. Each candidate must show on demand his/her Admit Card to the Invigilator. 9. No candidate, without special permission of the Superintendent or Invigilator, should leave his/her seat. 10. The candidates should not leave the Examination Hall without handing over their Answer Sheet to the Invigilator on duty and sign the Attendance Sheet again. Cases where a candidate has not signed the Attendance Sheet a second time will be deemed not to have handed over the Answer Sheet and dealt with as an unfair means case. The candidates are also required to put their left hand THUMB impression in the space provided in the Attendance Sheet. 11. Use of Electronic/Manual Calculator and any Electronic Item like mobile phone etc., is prohibited. 12. The candidates are governed by all Rules and Regulations of the Board with regard to their conduct in the Examination Hall. All cases of unfair means will be dealt with as per Rules and Regulations of the Board. 13. No part of the Test Booklet and Answer Sheet shall be detached under any circumstances. 14. Candidates are not allowed to carry any textual material, printed or written, bits of papers, pager, mobile phone, electronic device or any other material except the Admit Card inside the examination hall/room.

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