Narayana Grand Test - 8

CODE BLUE
NARAYANA
I I T A C A D E M Y

NARAYANA GRAND TEST 8
PAPER I I (Dat e : 22012011)

Ti me: 3 hour s Maxi mum mar k s: 237

Pl ease read the i nstructi ons careful l y. You ar e al l otted 5 mi nutes speci fi cal l y for thi s purpose.

INSTRUCTIONS

A. General:
1. This booklet is your Question Paper containing 57
questions. The booklet has 16 pages.
2. The question paper CODE is printed on the right
hand top corner of this booklet.
3. No additional sheets will be provided for rough work.
4. Blank papers, clipboards, log tables, slide rules,
calculators, cellular phones, pagers, and electronic
gadgets in any form are not allowed inside the
examination hall.
5. Log and Antilog tables are given.
6. The answer sheet, a machine-gradable Objective
Response Sheet (ORS), is provided separately.
7. Do not tamper / mutilate the ORS or this booklet.
8. Do not break the seals of the question-paper booklet
before being instructed to do so by the invigilators.

B. Filling the bottom-half of the ORS:
9. Write your Registration No., Name, Name of the
Centre and Sign with pen in the appropriate boxes.
Do not write these anywhere else.
10. Darken the appropriate bubbles under each digit of
your Registration No. with HB pencil .

C. Question paper format & Marking Scheme:
11. The question paper consists of 3 parts (Chemistry,
Mathematics and Physics) and each part consists of
four Sections.
12. Section-I contains 6 multiple choice questions. Eacth
question has 4 choices (A), (B),(C) and (D), out of
which ONLY ONE is correct. For each question in
Section I: you will be awarded 5 marks if you have
darkened only the bubble corresponding to the correct
answer and zero mark if no bubbles are darkened. In
all other cases, minus two (-2) mark will be awarded.

13. Section-II contains group of 5 questions. The answer
to each of the questions is a single digit integer,
ranging from 0 to 9. The correct digit below the
question number in the ORS is to be bubbled. For
each question in Section II: you will be awarded 3
marks if you darken the bubble corresponding to the
correct answer and zero mark if no bubble is
darkened. No negative marks will be awarded for
incorrect answers in this Section.

14. Section-III contains 2 paragraphs. Based upon each
of the paragraphs 3 multiple choice question have to
be answered. For each question in Section III: you will
be awarded 3 marks if you darken only the bubble
corresponding to the correct answer and zero mark if
no bubbles are darkened. In all other cases. Minus
one (-1) mark will be awarded.

15. Section-IV contains 2 questions. Each questions has
four statements (A<B, C and D) given in Column I,
and five statements (p,q,r,s and t) in Column II. Any
given Column-II. For example, if for a given question,
statement B matches with the statements given in q
and r, then for that particular questions, against
statement B, darken the bubbles corresponding to q
and r in the ORS. For each question in Section IV :
you will be awarded 2 marks for each row in which
you have darkened the bubble(s) corresponding to the
correct answer. Thus, each question in this section
carries a maximum of 8 marks. There is no negative
marks awarded for incorrect answer (s) in this Section.
.

Name of the Student Rol l Number

I have read all the instructions and shall abide by them

..
Signature of the Candidate
I have verified all the information filled in by the Candidate

..
Signature of the Invigilator

This question paper contains 16 Pages GT-8 P-2 22-01-2011
space for rough work
2

PART I : CHEMI STRY
SECTI ON I
Si ngl e Correct Choi ce Type
This section contains 6 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out
of which ONLY ONE is correct.
1. Which of the following is V-shaped
(A)
2
3
S
(B)
3
I
(C)
3
N
(D) none of these

2. The ion that cannot be precipitated by both HCl and H
2
S is
(A) Pb
2+
(B) Cu
+
(C) Ag
+
(D) Sn
2+

3. The major product of the following reaction would be

4. For pure water at 25
o
C and 50
o
C the correct statement is
(A)
o o
25 C 50 C
pH pH = (B)
o o
25 C 50 C
pH pH >
(C)
o o
50 C 25 C
pOH pOH = (D)
o o
25 C 50 C
pOH pOH <

5 The apparent rate constant for a reaction is
1
app
k C
k
1 C
=
+ o
where C is the concentration
of the reactant, k
1
and o are constants. Calculate the value of C for which k
app
has 90% of
its limiting value at C tending to very large values. (given o =9 10
5
)
(A) 10
-6
mole/litre (B) 10
-4
mol/litre
(C) 10
-5
mole/litre (D) 5 10
-5
mol/litre

6. For evaporation of water at 90
o
C
(A) AH <TAS (B) AH >TAS
(C) AH =TAS (D) cannot be co-related
3
SECTI ON I I
Integer Type
This section contains a group of 5 questions. The answer to each of the questions is a single-digit
integer, ranging from 0 to 9. The correct digit below the question no. in the ORS is to be bubbled.
7.

The value of (m+n) is

8. Calculate pH using the following cell.

( ) ( ) ( ) ( )
2 2
Pt H |H xM ||H 1M |Pt H
1 atm 1atm
+ +
if E
cell
=0.2364 V.

9. How many unpaired electrons can be accommodated in a p-orbital?

10. When 100 ml of a mixture of O
2
and O
3
was passed through turpentine, there was a
reduction of volume by 20 ml. When 100 ml of such a mixture is heated, the volume
increases to 22n ml. Find the value of n.

11. A metal complex coordination number six having three different types of ligands a, b and
c of composition Ma
2
b
2
c
2
can exist in several geometrical isomeric forms; the total
number of such isomers is
SECTI ON I I I
Paragraph Type
This section contains 2 paragraphs. Based upon each of the paragraph 3 multiple choice questions
have to be answered. Each of these questions has four choice (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY
ONE is correct.
Paragraph for Questions Nos. 12 to 14
When a liquid is completely miscible with another liquid, a homogeneous solution
consisting of a single phase is formed. If such a solution is placed in a close evacuated
vessel, the total pressure exerted by vapour, after the system attained equilibrium will be
equal to the sumof partial pressures of the constituents. A solution is said to be ideal if
its constituents follow Raoults law under all conditions of concentrations i..e, the partial
pressures of each and every constituent is given by
o
i i i
p x p = . Where p
i
is the partial
pressures of the constituent i, whose mole fraction in the solution is x
i
and
o
i
p is the
corresponding vapour pressure of the pure constituent.
The changes in the thermodynamic functions when an ideal solution is formed by mixing
pure components is given by the following expression.
4

mix total i i
i
G n RT x lnx A =

(1)
where n
total
is the total moles of all the constituents present in the solution.

mix total i i
i
S n R x lnx A =

(2)

mix total i i total i i
i i
H n RT x lnx n x lnx 0 A = =

(3)

mix
U 0 A = (4)
Since both the components of an ideal binary liquid system follow Raoults law of the
entire range of the composition, the partial pressure exerted by the vapours of these
constituents over the solution will be given by

o
A A A
p x p = (5)

o
B B B
p x p = (6)
where x
A
and x
B
are the mole fractions of the two constituents in the liquid phase and
o
A
p
and
o
B
p are the respective vapour pressures of the pure constituents. The total pressure
(p) over the solution will be the sum of the partial pressures. The composition of the
vapour phase (y
A
) can be determined with the help of Daltons law of partial pressures.
12. For an ideal solution in which
o o
A B
p p > , the plot of total pressure (p) versus the mole
fraction of A at constant temperature in the vapour phase is
(A)

p
p
B
o
p
A
o
0
1
1
0
y
A
y
B
(B)

p
p
B
o
p
A
o
0
1
1
0
y
A
y
B

(C)

p
p
B
o
p
A
o
0
1
1
0
y
A
y
B

(D)

p
p
B
o
p
A
o
0
1
1
0
y
A
y
B

5
13. A plot of reciprocal of total pressure (1/p) (y-axis) versus y
A
(x-axis) gives
(A) a linear plot with slope =
o o
B A
1 1
p p
| |
|
\ .

(B) a linear plot with slope =
o o
A B
1 1
p p
| |
|
\ .

(C) a linear plot with slope =
o
B
1
p

(D) a linear plot with slope =
o o
A B
p p

14. Two liquids A and B forman ideal solution at temperature T. When the total vapour
pressure above the solution is 600 torr, the mole fraction of A in the vapour phase is 0.35
and in the liquid phase 0.70. The vapour pressures of pure B and A are
(A) 800 torr; 1300 torr (B) 1300 torr, 300 torr
(C) 300 torr, 1300 torr (D) 300 torr, 800 torr

Assume that there were four possible values
1 1
1, , , 1
2 2
| |
+ +
|
\ .
for the spin quantum
number m
s
. Principal quantumnumber n is defined as usual. However, quantumnumber
l and m, are defined as follows:
l : 1 to (n +1) in integral steps
m
l
: - l/2 to +l/2 (including zero, if any) in integral steps
The orbitals corresponding to l =1, 2, 3, designated as A, B, C .. respectively.
15. The number of elements that would be present in the second period of the periodic table
is
(A) 9 (B) 20 (C) 24 (D) 36

16. If Aufbaus principle is not violated i.e. (n +l) rule must be followed, the outermost
electronic configuration of an element with atomic number 100 would be
(A) 3B
8
4A
4
(B) 3C
16
4A
8
(C) 3C
12
4B
8
(D) 4B
12
5A
8

17. The number of sub-orbitals and the maximumnumber of electrons that can be filled in
E-orbitals are respectively
(A) 6, 24 (B) 5, 20
(C) 7, 28 (D) cannot be determined

6
SECTI ON I V
Matri x Type
This section contains 2 questions. Each question has four statements (A, B, C and D) given in Columns
I and five statements (p, q, r, s and t) in Column II. Any given statement in Column I can have correct
matching with one or more statement(s) given in Column II. For example, if for a given question,
statement B matches with the statements given in q and r, then for that particular question, against
statement B, darken the bubbles corresponding to q and r in the ORS.
18.
Column I Column II
(A) [Ni(Gly)
2
] (P) Tetrahedral
(B) [Co(en)
3
]
3+
(Q) octahedral
(C) [Cr(Gly)
3
] (R) geometrical isomerism
(D) cis platin (S) optical isomerism
(T) square planar

19. Column Matching :

Column I Column II (Basic nature)
A)
N
H
N
NH
2
NH
2
(I) (II) (III) (IV)

P)
IV I II III > > >
B)
NH
2
CH
3
NH
2
NO
2
NH
2
(I) (II) (III) (IV)
NH
2

Q)
IV III II I > > >
C) NH
2
CH
3
CH
2
NH
2
NH
2
CH
3
(I) (II)
(III)
(IV)
NH
2
CH
3

R)
I II IV III > > >
D)
NH
2
NH
2
(I) (II)
(III)
(IV)
N
N
H

S)
I III II IV > > >

7

MATHEMATI CS
SECTI ON I
20. If the sumof the coefficients in the expansion of (q +r)
20
(1 +(p 2)x)
20
is equal to
square of the sumof the coefficients in the expansion of [2r q x (r +q). y]
10
, where p, r,
q are positive constants, then
(A) rq s p (B)
2
q r +
> p
(C) r, p and q are in G.P. (D) 1/r, 1/p an 1/q are in H.P.
21. Complete set of values of 'a' for which 4
x
a.2
x
a +2 s 0 has atleast one solution in
(1, 2) is
(A) |
.
|
\
|
,
5
18
(B) (0, 2)
(C) |
.
|
\
|
5
18
, 2 (D) (2, )
22. Given 1 | | | | = = b a

and 3 | | = + b a

. If c
is a vector such that ( ) b a b a c

= 3 2 ,
then ( ) b c

. is equal to
(A)
2
1
(B)
2
1

(C)
2
3
(D)
2
5

23. There are two circles whose equations are x
2
+y
2
=9 and x
2
+y
2
8x 6y +n
2
=0,
n e I, having exactly two common tangents. Then the number of possible values of n is
(A) 2 (B) 8
(C) 9 (D) 7
24. If ( )
0
1
n
r
r
r
f x a x
=
| |
=
|
\ .
, where a
r
s are positive real constants, then f(x) is
(A) not continuous at x =1
(B) continuous everywhere but not differentiable at x =0
(C) continuous everywhere but not differentiable at x =1
(D) differentiable everywhere
25. If x +y +z =t, tan x tan z =2 and tan y tan z =18, then tan
2
z =
(A) 15 (B) 16
(C) 19 (D) 20
8

SECTI ON I I
Integer Type
26. Let x, y, z, t be real numbers such that x
2
+y
2
=9, z
2
+t
2
=4, and xt yz =6. Then
greatest value of P =xz is

27. A cricket player played n (n >1) matches during his career and made a total of
( )( )
1
1 2 2
4
n
n n
+
+
runs. If the player made
1
.2
n k
k
+
runs in the k
th
match ( ) 1 k n s s ,
the value of n is equal to
28. Let G
1
, G
2
and G
3
be the centroids of the triangular faces OBC, OCA and OAB of a
tetrahedron OABC. If V
1
denotes the volume of tetrahedron OABC and V
2
that of the
parallelepiped with OG
1
, OG
2
and OG
3
as three concurrent edges, then the value of
4V
1
/V
2
is (where O is the origin)
29. If n is the number of ways in which 15 identical blankets can be distributed among six
beggars such that everyone gets atleast one blanket and two particular beggars get equal
blankets and another three particular beggars get equal blankets, then the value of n/2 is
30. ( ) ( )
/2
0
sin cos 2
n
n
Let I x x dx n
= + >
}
. Then the value of ( )
2
2 1
n n
nI n I is

SECTI ON I I I
Paragraph Type
ONE is correct.
Let ( )
n
n
x
f x lim cos
n
| |
=
|
|
\ .
, ( )
( )
n
n
n
g x lim1 x x e
= + . Now, consider the function y =h(x),

where h(x) = ( ) ( )
1 1 1
tan g f x

.

31.
( ) ( )
( ) ( )
x 0
ln f x
lim
ln g x
+
is equal to
(A)
1
2
(B)
1
2

(C) 0 (D) 1

9
32. Domain of the function y =h(x) is
(A) ( ) 0, (B) R
(C) (0, 1) (D) [0, 1]

33. Range of the function y =h(x) is
(A) 0,
2
t | |
|
\ .
(B) ,0
2
t | |
|
\ .

(C) R (D) ,
2 2
t t | |
|
\ .

y =f(x) is a parabola of the formy =x
2

+ax +1, its tangent at the point of intersection of y-axis
parabola also touches the circle x
2
+y
2
=r
2
. It is known that no point of parabola is below x-axis.

34. The radius of circle when a attains its maximumvalue is
(A)
1
10
(B)
1
5

(C) 1 (D) 5
35. The slope of the tangent when radius of the circle is maximum, is
(A) 0 (B) 1
(C) 1 (D) not defined
36. The minimumarea bounded by the tangent and the coordinate axes is
(A)
1
4
(B)
1
3

(C)
1
2
(D) 1
10
SECTI ON I V
Matri x Type
37.
Column I Column II
(A) The number of nondifferentiable points on the curve
y =|e
|x|
4| is
(p) 1
(B) Length of the latus rectumof the parabola defined by
x =cost sint and y =sin2t is
(q)
0
(C)
The number of real solution of the equation
x
2log (x 3)
x 16
+
= is
(r) 3
(D) If in a AABC, 2R =r
1
r, then 2cosA is equal to (s) 2

38.
Column I Column II
(A) The minimumvalue of a +b +c +d
if log
3
(a +b) +log
3
(c +d) > 4 is
(p) 18
(B) The number of distinct terms in the expansion of
14
1 1
x y
x y
| |
+ + +
|
\ .
is
(q) 225
(C) The remainder when (23)
86
is divided by 100 is (r) 89
(D) If the third termin the expansion of
10
5
log x
1
x
x
| |
+
|
\ .
is 1000
and x >1, then the value of x is
(s) 100

11

PHYSI CS
SECTI ON I
39. A cyclic process ABCA is performed on an ideal
gas in which gas expanded isobarically from A to
B, then it is cooled isochorically from B to C and
finally it is compressed isothermally from C to A.
The net heat +20 joule is absorbed in this cyclic
process. Similarly in process BCDB heat absorbed
is +5 joule. For a cyclic process ADCA performed
on the same ideal gas,
(A) +15 joule net heat is absorbed
(B) +15 joule net heat is rejected
(C) +25 joule net heat is absorbed
(D) +25 joule net heat is rejected

V
P
A D B
C

40. The sensitivity of a potentiometer can be increased by
(A) Decreasing the length of potentiometer wire
(B) Increasing the length of potentiometer wire
(C) Increasing the emf of the cell in primary circuit
(D) Decreasing the external resistance connected in primary circuit
41. A small mirror of mass mis suspended by a light thread of length L. The angle through
which the thread will be deflected when a short pulse of laser of energy E falls normally
on the mirror is
(A)
2E
mc 2g
u =
l
(B)
mc g
2E
u =
l
(C)
mc 2g
2E
u =
l
(D)
2E
mc g
u =
l

42. An electron is moving on a circular path around a stationary neutron under gravitational
interaction. Masses of the neutron and electron are M and mrespectively. If Bohrs
quantum condition holds here the minimum permissible de Broglie wavelength
associated with the electron will be
(A)
2
h
2 GMm t
(B)
2
2
h
2 GMm t
(C)
2
2
h
2 GM m t
(D)
2
2
h
4 GM m t

43. The electron in H-atom makes a transition fromn
1
n
2
where n
1
and n
2
are the
principal quantumnumber of the states. Assume Bohrs model to be valid. The time
period of the electron in initial state is 27 times that in final state. Find the possible value
of n
1
and n
2
if only just first 10 states are in the visible range of instrument
(A) 3, 9 (B) 39, 13 (C) 56, 14 (D) 2, 10
12
44. The activity of a radioactive sample decreases to one tenth of the original activity A
o
in a
period of one year. After 9 more years its activity would be
(A)
o
A
100
(B)
o
A
90
(C)
o
10
A
10
(D)none of these
SECTI ON I I
Integer Type
45. Consider a horizontal surface moving vertically
upward with velocity 2 m/s. A small ball of mass 2
kg is moving with velocity

2i 2j . If coefficient
of restitution is 1/2 and friction coefficient is 1/3
then find horizontal component of velocity of the
ball after collision.

2 m/s
x
y

46. An open tank having dimensions 1 m 2 m 3m
completely filled with water is kept on a horizontal
surface. The mass of water than spills out is 100x
kg, when the tank is slowly accelerated at the rate
of 2 m/s
2
then find the value of x.

a
o
=2 m/s
2

2 m
1 m
3 m

47. Consider the electrical circuit shown in steady
state. Electrostatic potential energy stored by
the capacitor C
2
is how many times the
electrical energy stored by capacitor C
1
?

R R
R
R R
C
3
= C
C
2
= C
C
1
= C
V
V
R

48. As shown in the figure, light is incident normally on
one face of a prism. A liquid of refractive index is
placed on the horizontal face AC. The refractive
index of the prismis 3/2. If total internal reflection
taking place on the face AC, should be less than
I 3
4
, where I is an integer. Find the value of I.

A
C
B
90
o
90
o
30
o
60
o

13
49. A neutron having kinetic energy 12.5 eV collides with a hydrogen atom at rest. Neglect
the difference in mass between the neutron and the hydrogen atom and assume that the
neutron does not leave its line of motion. Find the possible kinetic energies of the neutron
after the event.
SECTI ON I I I
Paragraph Type
ONE is correct.
The displacement of the medium in a sound wave is given by the equation
y
1
=A cos (ax +bt), where A, a, b are positive constants. The wave is reflected by an
obstacle situated at x =0. The intensity of reflected wave is 0.64 times that of incident
wave. Then find
50. The wavelength and the frequency of the incident wave are
(A)
b
,n
a 2
t
= =
t
(B)
2 b
,n
a 2
t
= =
t

(C)
2 b
,n
a
t
= =
t
(D)
b
,n
a
t
= =
t

51. The equation for reflected wave is
(A) y
1
=0.8 A sin (bt ax) (B) y
1
=0.8 A cos (bt ax)
(C) y
1
=0.8 A sin (bt ax) (D) y
1
=0.8 A cos (bt ax)
52. In the resultant wave formed after reflection, the maximumand minimum values of
particle speeds in mediumare
(A)
max min
V 1.8Ab, V 0.2Ab = = (B)
max min
V 1.6Ab, V 0.1Ab = =
(C)
max min
V 1.4Ab, V 0.1Ab = = (D)
max min
V 1.2Ab, V 0.2Ab = =
A particle having a charge q and mass mis projected fromorigin with velocity
o
v v i =

in a uniformmagnetic field
o
o
B
3B

B i j
2 2
= +
at the moment t =0.

53. Pitch of the helical path described by the particle is
(A)
o
o
2 mv
qB
t
(B)
o
o
mv
qB
t
(C)
o
5 mv
qB
t
(D)
o
6 mv
qB
t

54. z-component of velocity becomes
o
3v
2
at time t =
(A)
o
2 m
B q
t
(B)
o
m
B q
t
(C)
o
m
2B q
t
(D)
o
m
4B q
t

14
55. Maximumz-coordinate of the particle is
(A)
o
o
3mv
B q
(B)
o
o
2 3mv
B q
(C)
o
o
2mv
B q
(D)
o
o
mv
B q

SECTI ON I V
Matri x Type
56. Column I Column II
(A) Magnetic flux passing through the loop is maximum (P) Magnetic flux is zero
(B) Magnetic flux passing through loop is constant, but not
zero
(Q) Induced emf is
constant
(C)
i (increasing)

Plane of loops are perpendicular.
(R) Induced emf is zero
(D)

B
F
costant
C

Vertical plane
(S) Induced emf is
variable
(T) Magnetic flux is non-
zero

15
57.
Column I Column II
(A) A charged capacitor is connected to the ends of the
wire
(P) A constant current flows
through the wire
(B) The wire is moved perpendicular to its length with a
constant velocity in a uniform magnetic field
perpendicular to the plane of motion
(Q) Thermal energy is
generated in the wire
(C) The wire is placed in a constant electric field that has a
direction along the length of the wire
(R) A constant potential
difference develops
between the ends of the
wire
(D) A batter of constant emf is connected to the ends of the
wire
(S) Charge of constant
magnitude appear at the
ends of the wire
(T) Motional emf is developed

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Narayana Grand Test - 8

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CODE BLUE

(D) none of these

is a vector such that ( ) b a b a c

= + . Now, consider the function y =h(x),

at the moment t =0.

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