ECA-II Question Papers

Code No: C9901/RR
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II B.Tech II Semester Supplementary Examinations, Apr/May 2012 PROBABILITY AND STATISTICS ( Common to Civil Engineering, Mechanical Engineering, Computer Science & Engineering, Chemical Engineering, Information Technology, Mechatronics, Computer Science & Systems Engineering, Electronics & Computer Engineering, Production Engineering, Bio-Technology and Automobile Engineering) Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 80 Answer any FIVE Questions All Questions carry equal marks
1. (a) A class has 10 boys and 5 girls. Three students are selected at random one after the other. Find the probability that i. rst two are boys and third is girl ii. rst and third of same sex and second is of opposite sex. (b) A box contains n tickets marked 1 through n. Two tickets are drawn without replacement. Determine the probability that the number on the tickets are consecutive integers. [8+8] 2. (a) For the continuous probability function f (x) = kx2 ex x 0 nd i. k ii. mean iii. variance (b) 20% of items produced from a factory are defective. Find the probability that in a sample of 5 chosen at random. i. none is defective ii. one is defective iii. p(1 < x < 4)
[8+8]
3. (a) Average number of accidents on any day on a national highway is 1.8. Determine the probability that the number of accidents are i. at least one ii. at most one (b) If X is a normal variate, Find: i. ii. iii. iv. to the left of z = 1.78 to the right of z = 1.45 corresponding to 0.80 z 1.53 to the left of z= 2.52 and to the right of z= 1.83.
[8+8]
4. (a) If the distribution of all weights of all men traveling by train from Hyderabad to Delhi has a mean of 70 kgs and a standard deviation of 4 kgs, what is the probability that the combined gross weight of 36 such men is more than 300 kgs. 1 of 2
Code No: C9901/RR
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(b) It has been suggested that an average college teacher in Andhra Pradesh spends less than 10 hours in a week on his own academic schedule. The gures for the time spent during a week are given below for 12 teachers: 7.1 9.6 13.1 3.4 7 .8 0 .1 3 .6 7 .2 8 .4 20.3 4.9 11.1 [8+8]
Is the claim justied with the level of signicance of 0.05?
5. (a) In a random sample of 400 industrial accidents, it was found that 231 were due atleast partially to unsafe working conditions. Construct a 99% percent condence interval for the corresponding true proportion? (b) Two horses A and B were tested according to the time (in seconds) to run a particular track with the following results. Horse A 28 30 32 33 33 29 34 Horse B 29 30 30 24 27 29 Test whether the two horses have the same running capacity. [8+8] 6. (a) The following are the samples of skills. Test the signicant dierence between the means at 0.05 level. Sample-I Sample-II 74.1 77.7 74.4 74 73.8 70.8 74.9 74.2 70.4 69.2 72.2
(b) A machine puts out 20 imperfect articles in a sample of 500. After machine is overhauled it puts out 2 imperfect articles in a batch of 100. Find 95% condence interval. [8+8] 7. (a) Fit the parabola of the form y = a + bx + cx2 for the following data by the method of least squares x -3 -2 -1 0 1 2 3 Y 4.63 2.11 .67 .09 .63 2.15 4.58 (b) Derive normal equations by the method of least squares for the polynomial y = ao + a1 x + a2 x + a2 x2 + ........ + an xn . [10+6] 8. (a) The following table gives experimental values of the three variates X,Y and Z. Fit a multiple regression of the type Z = X + Y. X 1 2 3 5 Y 1 3 4 2 Z 7 18 25 23 (b) The following are the marks obtained by 12 students in Economics and Statistics: Economics(x) 78 56 36 66 25 75 82 62 Statistics(y) 84 44 51 58 60 68 62 58 Compute the Spearman rank correlation coecient between x and y [8+8]
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Code No: R22043
R10
II B.Tech II Semester, Regular Examinations, April 2012 ELECTRONIC CIRCUIT ANALYSIS (Com. to ECE, EIE)
SET - 1
Time: 3 hours Answer any FIVE Questions All Questions carry Equal Marks ~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~ 1.
Max. Marks: 75
a) Perform the small signal analysis of CS Amplifier and explain the characteristics with the help of relevant graphs. b) For the emitter follower with Rs = 1 K and RL = 5 K, determine the various characteristics parameters by assuming h-parameters as hfe = 75, hie = 1.1K, hoe = 25 A/v. (7M+8M)
2.
a) Enumerate the effects of negative feedback on the various characteristics of the amplifier. b) The open loop voltage gain of the amplifier of an amplifier is 50. Its input impedance is 1k. What will be the input impedance where a negative feedback of 10% is applied to the amplifier? (8M+7M)
3.
a) Draw the circuit of Hartley oscillator and explain its working. Derive the expressions for frequency of oscillation and condition for starting of oscillation. b) A crystal has the following parameters: L=0.33 H, Cs=0.0655 pF, Cp=1.0pF and R=5.5K . Find the series resonant frequency and Q-factor of the crystal. (10M+5M)
4.
a) Perform the analysis of two stage RC Coupled JFET-CS Amplifier circuit. b) Draw and explain the circuit diagram of a RC Coupled amplifier. Derive the expression for voltage gain of the amplifier. (7M+8M)
5.
a) Derive the expressions for resistive parameters of Hybrid- model in terms of low frequency h-parameters. b) Following measurements of a certain transistor are available at room temperature and with Ic = 5 mA, VCE=10V, hfe = 100, hie = 600. [Aie] = 10 at 10MHz. Cc = 3pF. Calculate f, fT, Ce, rbe and rbb. 1 of 2 (8M+7M)
Code No: R22043 6.
R10
SET - 1
a) Show that class B push pull amplifiers exhibit half wave symmetry. b) A power transistor is to be used as a class A transformer coupled amplifier and is to deliver a maximum of 5W to a 4 ohm load. Operating point is adjusted for symmetrical clipping with collector supply voltage of 20V. Assume ideal characteristics with Vmin = 0 V. Calculate. i) Transformer turns ratio. ii) Peak collector current iii) Operating point values of ICQ and VCEQ. iv) Power dissipation rating of transistor. v) Collector circuit efficiency. (7M+8M)
7.
a) Draw the circuit diagram of a double-tuned amplifier and explain different stages of simplification of its equivalent circuit. b) A circuit is resonant at 455 kHz and has a 10 kHz bandwidth. The inductive reactance is 1255. What is the parallel impedance of the circuit at resonance? (8M+7M)
8.
a) Draw the circuit and explain how short circuit over load protection is provided in Voltage Regulators circuits. b) Design a zener-shunt regulator with the specifications using a zener diode with Vz = 10 V. Input supply voltage varies from 15V to 25V and the load current varies between 0 and 15 mA. Also determine the line and load regulation. (7M+8M)
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Code No: R22043
R10
SET - 2
Max. Marks: 75
a) With the help of necessary equations, discuss the variations of Av, AI, Ri, Ro, Ap with RS and RL in common Emitter configuration. b) For the emitter follower with Rs = 1 K and RL = 5 K calculate Ai, Ri, Av, Avs and Ro. Assume hfe = 75, hie = 1.1K, hoe = 25 A/v (7M+8M)
2.
a) What are the different types of negative feedback? Explain how the input and output impedances of an amplifier are affected by the different types of negative feedback. b) The open loop gain of an amplifier is 50Db. A negative feedback of feedback factor 0.004 is applied to it. If the open loop gain is thereby reduced by 10% find the change in the overall gain. c) How does negative feedback reduce distortion in an amplifier? (7M+5M+3M)
3.
a) Derive the expression for the frequency of oscillation and the minimum gain required for sustained oscillations of the RC phase shift oscillator using BJT. b) Draw the equivalent circuit of a quartz crystal. What makes the quartz produce stable oscillations? (10M+5M)
4.
a) Draw the circuit for Darlington pair amplifier and derive the expressions for AI, Av, Ri and Ro. b) Three identical non-interacting amplifier stages are cascaded with an overall gain of 0.3dB down at 50 kHz compared to mid-band. Calculate the upper cutoff frequency of the individual stages. (8M+7M)
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Code No: R22043 5.
R10
SET - 2
a) Explain about Hybrid- capacitances. How do Hybrid- parameters vary with temperature? b) The following low-frequency parameters are available for a transistor at ICQ = 5 mA hie = 1K, hre = 10-4 hfe = 100 Cob = 2 pF hoe = 4 x 10-5 A/V fT = 10 MHz (7M+8M)
Compute the values of hybrid- parameters at room temperature.
6.
a) Draw the circuit diagram of class-B push pull amplifier and explain the operation. b) Explain Class D and Class S power amplifiers. Mention their salient features and applications. (8M+7M)
7.
a) Draw the circuit diagram of a double-tuned amplifier and explain its working and derive the expression for I2 max. b) A single-tuned class A transformer-coupled RF amplifier has the following parameters: Transconductance, gm of the transistor = 5mA/V Primary inductance = 100 H Secondary inductance = 50 H Coefficient of coupling = 0.01 Primary resistance = 10 Secondary resistance = 8 The primary is tuned with a 100 pF capacitor and the secondary is loaded by a 10K resistance. Find: The resonant frequency The effective Q of the tuned circuit The 3 dB bandwidth Assume ro of the transistor to be very large. (7M+8M)
8.
a) Define the terms i) Load Regulation ii) Line Regulation iii) Ripple Rejection and iv) Temperature Stability pertaining to Voltage Regulator ICs. b) 7824 regulator IC can deliver a maximum current of 700 mA. Design a circuit using same IC to deliver a current of 3.0 A. (8M+7M)
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Code No: R22043
R10
SET - 3
Time: 3 hours Answer any FIVE Questions All Questions carry Equal Marks ~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~
Max. Marks: 75
1.
a) Perform the small signal analysis of CD Amplifier and explain the characteristics with the help of relevant graphs. b) Consider a single stage CE amplifier with Rs = 1K, Re = 50 K, R2 = 2K, Rc = 1K, RL = 1.2K, hfe = 50, hoe = hre = 0. hie = 1.1K. Find Ai, Ro, Av and power gain using approximate analysis. (7M+8M)
2.
a) Explain the general characteristics of negative feedback amplifiers. b) A single stage CE amplifier has a Voltage gain of 600 without feedback. When feedback is employed, its gain reduces to 50. Calculate the percentage of the output which is fed back to the input. (8M+7M)
3.
a) Explain the working of Wien Bridge Oscillator using BJT. Also derive the expression for the frequency of Oscillation. b) The ac equivalent circuit of a Crystal has the Values: L=3 H, CS=0.005pF, R= 2K and Cm=10 pF. Determine the series and parallel resonant frequencies of the Crystal. (8M+7M)
4.
a) Perform the analysis of Boot-Strapped emitter follower Circuit. b) Design a two-stage CE-CE amplifier for the given data. hfe1=hfe2=180, RL=1K IE1=IE2=1mA, S=3, VCC=12V, f=100Hz. Assume identical transistors. (7M+8M)
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Code No: R22043
R10
SET - 3
5.
a) Draw the equivalent circuit of hybrid- model and derive the expressions for Hybrid- impedances in terms of low frequency h-parameters. b) The following low-frequency parameters are available for a transistor at IC =10 mA, VCE=10V and at room temperature hie = 500 hfe = 100 hoe = 10-5 A/V hre = 10-4 (8M+7M) At the same Operating point, fT=50 MHz and Cob = 3 pF Compute the values of all the hybrid- parameters.
6.
a) Deduce the expression which gives the relationship between maximum collector dissipation and maximum power output of class-B push pull amplifier. b) Write short notes on Heat Sinks used in power amplifiers and also give the classification. (8M+7M)
7.
a) Derive the expression for the gain of a single-tuned capacitance coupled amplifier. Discuss about its Selectivity. b) A parallel resonant circuit comprises of an inductor (having inductance of 1mH and resistance of 10) and a parallel capacitor of 100 pF. Calculate: i) Resonant frequency, ignoring the resistance. ii) Resonant frequency, considering the resistance. iii) Q-factor. iv) Impedance at resonant frequency. (7M+8M)
8.
a) Draw the circuit for series type voltage regulator and explain its working. b) A series regulator has stability factor of 6*10-3 and output resistance of 10-4 ohms. Calculate the change in output voltage when i) Unregulated input d.c voltage varies by 10V. ii) Load current varies by 250mA. (7M+8M)
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Code No: R22043
R10
SET - 4
Time: 3 hours
Max. Marks: 75
1.
Answer any FIVE Questions All Questions carry Equal Marks ~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~ a) Perform the small signal analysis of CG Amplifier and explain the characteristics with the help of relevant graphs. b) Consider a single stage CE amplifier with Rs = 1K, Re = 50 K, R2 = 2K, Rc = 1K, RL = 1.2K, hfe = 50, hoe = hre = 0. hie = 1.1K. Determine Ai, Ro, Av and power gain using exact method of Analysis. (7M+8M)
2.
a) Explain the concept of feedback and draw the topologies of various feedback amplifiers. b) Calculate the voltage gain, input impedance and output impedance of a voltage series feedback amplifier having an open-loop gain A=300, Ri=1.5K, Ro=50K and = -1/20. (7M+8M)
3.
a) Perform the Generalized analysis of LC oscillators with suitable block diagram and Obtain the circuit diagrams of Hartley and Colpitts oscillators. b) Design a RC phase-shift oscillator, which has the following specifications: hfe=200, IE=1.5mA, S=8, VCC=12V and oscillation frequency expected is 500Hz. (8M+7M)
4.
a) Draw the circuit diagram of Cascode-transistor amplifier Circuit and analyze its performance. b) Draw the circuit diagram for differential amplifier and perform the analysis with its equivalent circuit. (8M+7M)
5.
a) Explain the concept of CE short circuit current gain with the help of equivalent circuit. b) Following measurements of a certain transistor are available at room temperature and with Ic = 5 mA, hfe = 100, hie = 0.62 K. Short circuit current gain = Ais = 10 at 10MHz. Cbc = 3pF. Calculate fT and f. (7M+8M)
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Code No: R22043
R10
SET - 4
6.
a) Derive the expression for maximum value of conversion efficiency of Class A Power amplifier. b) Ideal class B transformer-coupled audio amplifier is fed from 20 V DC. Transformer ratio is Np Ns = 4 . A 4 ohm speaker is connected to load. Calculate:
i) Maximum signal power delivered to load. ii) Power dissipation rating to each transistor. iii) Maximum excitation current at input if transfer characteristic is linear (hfe = 20) (7M+8M)
7.
a) Draw the circuit diagram of double-tuned amplifier and simplify the same with its equivalent circuit. b) Draw the circuit for single tuned capacitive coupled amplifier and explain its working. Derive the expression for (A/Areso) . (7M+8M)
8.
a) Define different performance parameters of a voltage regulator and explain their importance. b) Design a voltage regulator using IC 723 to provide an output voltage of 5 volts at 1.5A. Fold back current limiting is to be provided so that knee current is 1.6A, short circuit current is 300mA and input voltage is 13 volts. (7M+8M)
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Code No: R22031
R10
II B.Tech II Semester, Regular Examinations, April 2012 MECHANICS OF SOLIDS (Com. to ME, AME, MM)
SET - 1
Max. Marks: 75
a) Draw a typical stress-strain curve for mild steel, indicate salient point and define them b) Compute the stresses at various sections and the total elongation of the bar shown in Figure1. L1 = 4.0 m, L2 = 3.0 m, L3 = 2.0 m, A1 = 100 mm2, A2 = 400 mm2 and A3 = 200 mm2. Es = 2.05 X 105 N/mm2.
2.
Draw the bending moment and shear force diagram for the beam loaded as shown in Figure 2. Mark the values at the salient points. Determine the point of contra flexure also.
3.
Compare the moment carrying capacity of the section given in Figure 3 with equivalent section of the same area but i) Square section ii) Rectangular section with depth twice the width and iii) A circular section.
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Code No: R22031
R10
SET - 1
4.
The unsymmetric I-section shown in Figure 4 is the cross-section of a beam, which is subjected to a shear force of 100 kN. Draw the shear stress variation diagram across the depth.
5.
Determine the forces in the members FH, HG and GI in the truss shown in Figure 5. Each load is 10 kN and all triangles are equilateral with sides 4 m.
Code No: R22031
R10
SET - 1
6.
A girder rests on two supports 5 m apart, and carries a distributed load of 60 kN, 2 m from one support. Find the ratio of maximum deflection to deflection under load. Calculate the increase in volume of a spherical shell of 1 m diameter 1 cm thick, when it is subjected to internal pressure of 2 N/mm2, E = 2.1 x 106 N/mm2 and poisons ratio is 0.3. The maximum stress permitted in a thick cylinder of internal diameter and external radii 20 cm and 30 cm respectively is 15.5 N/mm2. If the external pressure is 4 N/mm2, find the internal pressure that can be applied. Plot the curves showing the variation of hoop and radial stresses through the material. What will be the change in thickness of the cylinder? E = 2.1 x 105 N/mm2 and = 0.3.
7.
8.
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Code No: R22031
R10
SET - 2
Max. Marks: 75
a) The Poissons ratio of a material as 0.3 and its youngs modulus value is 2.1 x 105 N/mm2. What is the value of shear modulus? b) A steel rod of 20 mm diameter passes centrally through a tight copper tube of external diameter 40 mm. The tube is closed with the help of the rigid washers of negligible thickness and nuts threaded on the rod. The nuts are tightened till the compressive load on the tube is 50 kN. Determine the stresses in the rod and the tube, when the temperature of the assembly falls by 500C. Take Es = 200 GN/mm2, Ec = 100 GN/mm2, s = 12 x 10-6 per 0C, c = 18 x 10-6 per 0 C. Draw the shear force and bending moment diagram of the beam shown in Figure 1. Mark the values at the salient points.
2.
3.
A symmetric I-section of size 200 mm 500 mm, 15 mm thick is strengthened with 300mm 20 mm rectangular plate on top flange as shown is Figure 2. If permissible stress in the material is 150 N/mm2, determine how much concentrated load the beam of this section can carry at centre of 6 m span. Given ends of beam are simply supported.
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Code No: R22031 4.
R10
SET - 2
A beam has cross-section as shown in Figure 3. If the shear force acting on this is 50 kN, draw the shear stress distribution diagram across the depth.
5.
Find the forces in all the members of the truss shown in Figure 4 suing method of joints.
6.
A uniform circular bar of diameter, d, and length, l, extends an amount, e, under tensile pull, P, Show that the maximum deflection of the bar when it is used as beam simply supported at its
wel 2 . Find the ratio of /e if l = 75d and 3Pd 2 the maximum bending stress due to W is equal to the tensile stress under the pull, P.
ends and carrying a central load, W, is given by =
7.
A thin cylinder, 5 cm internal diameter and 1 mm wall thickness is closed at its end. And subjected to an internal pressure of 1 N/mm2. Compute the longitudinal and hoop stress in the cylinder. A compound cylinder is formed by shrinkage one cylinder to another. The internal and external radii of the compound cylinder are 15 cm and 24 cm respectively. All the junction radius is 21 cm. If after shrinkage on the radial pressure at the common surface is 5 N/mm2. Calculate the initial stress across the section of the inner and outer cylinder. If the compound cylinder is subjected to an internal pressure of 80 N/mm2, calculate the flexural stress induced. 2 of 2
8.
Code No: R22031
R10
SET - 3
Time: 3 hours
Max. Marks: 75
1.
Answer any FIVE Questions All Questions carry Equal Marks ~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~ a) A bar of uniform thicknesst tapers uniformly from a width b1 at one end to b2 at the other end in a length L. Find the expression for its extension under an axial pull P. b) Tension test was conducted on a specimen and the following readings were recorded. Diameter = 25 mm, Gauge length of extensometer = 200 mm Least count of extensometer = 0.001 mm, at a load of 30 kN, extensometer reading = 60 At a load of 50 kN, extensometer reading = 100, Yield load = 160 kN Maximum load = 205 kN, Diameter neck = 17 mm Final extension over 125 mm original length = 150 mm Find Youngs Modulus, yield stress, ultimate stress, percentage elongation and percentage reduction in area. Draw BM and SF diagrams for the beam shown in Fig. 1, indicating the values at all salient points.
2.
3.
The cross-section of a cast iron beam is as shown in Figure 2. The top flange is in compression and bottom flange is in tension. Permissible stress in tension is 30 N/mm2 and its value in compression is 90 N/mm2. What is the maximum uniformly distributed load the beam can carry over a simply supported span of 5 m?
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Code No: R22031 4.
R10
SET - 3
Draw the shear stress variation diagram for the I-section shown in Figure 3, if it is subjected to a shear force of 200 kN.
5.
Determine the forces in all the members of the truss shown in Figure 4 using method of joints and indicate the magnitude and nature of forces on the diagram of the truss. All inclined members are at 60 to horizontal and length of each member is 3 m.
6.
A beam of uniform cross-section and of length, l, carries a uniformly distributed load, w, per unit length. It is simply supported at the left hand end and at a point 1/3 inside the right hand end. Show the deflection of overhanging end is elasticity and movement of inertia of the beam.
wl 4 , where E and I are the modulus of 648EI
7.
Calculate the increase in volume of a spherical vessel, 1 m diameter and 1 cm thick, when it is subjected to increase in pressure of 2 N/mm2, E = 2.1 x 105 N/mm2 and = 0.3. A compound tube is made by shrinkage one tube on to another, the final dimensions being internal diameter 10 cm external diameter 20 cm and the diameter at the junction between the tubes is 15 cm. If the radial pressure between the tubes to be 20 N/mm2 find the stress in the cylinder i) with no internal pressure and ii) with internal pressure of 100 N/mm2.
8.
Code No: R22031
R10
SET - 4
Max. Marks: 75
a) A tapering rod has diameter d1 at one end and it tapers uniformly to a diameter d2 at the other end in a length L. If the modulus of elasticity is E, find the change in length when subjected to an axial force P. b) Derive the relationship between i) Modulus of elasticity and modulus of rigidity ii) Modulus of elasticity and bulk modulus. Draw the bending moment and shear force diagram for the beam loaded as shown in Figure. 1. Mark the values at the salient points Determine the point of contra flexure also.
2.
3.
a) Derive the bending equation. What are the assumptions made while deriving the bending equation? b) Figure 2 shows the cross-section of a cantilever beam of 5 m span. Material used is steel for which maximum permissible stress is 150 N/mm2. What is the maximum uniformly distributed load carried by the beam?
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Code No: R22031 4.
R10
SET - 4
A beam has cross-section as shown in Figure 3. If the shear force acting on this is 25 kN, draw the shear stress distribution diagram across the depth.
5.
Determine the forces in all the members of the truss shown in Figure 4 using method of joints and indicate the magnitude and nature of forces on the diagram of the truss. All inclined members are at 60 to horizontal and length of each member is 2 m.
6.
Find the maximum deflection for the beam loaded as shown in Figure 5
7.
Calculate the increase in volume enclosed by a boiler shell, 2.5 m long and 1 m in diameter, when it is subjected to an internal pressure of 1.5 N/mm2. The wall thickness is such that the maximum tensile stress in the shell is 25 N/mm2 under pressure. Take = 0.3. The maximum stress permitted in a thick cylinder of internal diameter and external radii 25 cm and 35 cm respectively is 10.5 N/mm2. If the external pressure is 3 N/mm2, find the internal pressure that can be applied. Plot the curves showing the variation of hoop and radial stresses through the material. What will be the change in thickness of the cylinder? E = 2.1 x 105 N/mm2 and = 0.3.
8.
Code No: R22121
R10
II B.Tech II Semester, Regular Examinations, April 2012 DATA COMMUNICATION (Information Technology)
SET - 1
Max. Marks: 75
a) Define Open Systems Interconnection. Explain about the OSI seven-layer International Protocol hierarchy. b) Define Signal analysis. Give a brief description of periodic signals. (8M+7M) a) Explain about wave propagation on metallic transmission lines and metallic transmission line losses. b) Explain about the construction of Optical fiber. Also list the advantages and disadvantages of Optical fiber cables. (8M+7M) a) Define Pulse code modulation. Explain briefly about Pulse code modulation with suitable diagrams. b) Define Multiplexing. Explain briefly about Time-Division Multiplexing. (8M+7M) a) Explain about Skip distance and Free-space path loss. b) Describe in detail about Satellite Communication Systems. a) Discuss in detail about Basic Telephone Call procedures. b) Explain in detail about Message-Channel noise and noise weighting. a) Explain about in detail about Mobile Telephone services. b) Explain briefly about first generation Analog Cellular Telephone Systems.
2.
3.
4.
(8M+7M)
5.
(8M+7M)
6.
(8M+7M)
7.
a) Describe character synchronization and explain the differences between Asynchronous and Synchronous Data Formats. b) Explain in detail about Bar Codes. (8M+7M) a) Explain Voice-Band Modem with block diagram and also discuss its classifications. b) Distinguish between 56K Modems and Cable Modems. (8M+7M)
8.
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Code No: R22121
R10
SET - 2
Max. Marks: 75
a) Explain about various network topologies. Also give a brief description of network classification. b) Discuss briefly about Analog Modulation Systems. (8M+7M) a) Define Transmission line. Describe about balanced and unbalanced transmission lines. b) Explain briefly about the losses in Optical Fiber cables. (8M+7M) a) Describe in detail about Companding. b) Explain in detail about Frame Synchronization. a) Explain in detail about Rays and Wave fronts. b) Describe in detail about Wave Attenuation and Absorption. a) Give a detailed description of Paging Systems. b) Describe various Transmission Parameters in detail.
2.
3.
(8M+7M)
4.
(8M+7M)
5.
(8M+7M)
6.
a) Explain in detail about Cellular Telephone, Frequency Reuse and Interference. b) What is United States Digital Cellular System? Explain briefly about its control and digital voice channels. (8M+7M) a) Describe in detail about Error-Detection mechanisms. b) Determine the LRC and VRC for the following message (use even parity for LRC and odd Parity for VRC): D A T A sp C O M M U N I C A T I O N S (8M+7M) a) Explain about Digital and Channel Service Units. Also distinguish between them. b) Explain in detail about various classifications of Voice-Band Modems. (8M+7M)
7.
8.
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Code No: R22121
R10
SET - 3
Max. Marks: 75
a) Explain in detail about Layered Network Architecture. b) Explain in detail about Non-Sinusoidal, complex wave and list properties of these complex waves. (8M+7M) a) Define Transverse Electromagnetic waves. What are the characteristics of electro-magnetic waves? b) Explain about the Optical Fiber Modes and give their classifications. Also give advantages and disadvantages of each Optical Fiber Mode. (8M+7M) a) Differentiate between Delta Modulation PCM and Differential PCM. b) Explain in detail about Wavelength-Division Multiplexing. a) Explain briefly about Spherical Wave front and the Inverse Square Law. b) Describe in detail about Terrestrial Propagation of Electromagnetic Waves. a) Explain about Cordless Telephones and Electronic Telephones. b) Define Crosstalk. Explain in detail about Private-Line Circuits.
2.
3.
(8M+7M)
4.
(8M+7M)
5.
(8M+7M)
6.
a) Explain about Personal Communication System. Give its advantages and disadvantages. b) Give a brief description about various Network Components. (8M+7M) a) Briefly describe the following error-detection schemes: single-precision checksum, double precision checksum, Honeywell checksum, residue checksum. b) Determine the BCC for the following data- and CRC-generating polynomials: (8M+7M) G(x) = x7+x4+x2+x0 P(x) = x5+x4+x1+x0 a) Discuss briefly about Synchronous Voice-Band Modems. b) Distinguish Voice-Band Modem, 56K Modems and Cable Modems.
7.
8.
(8M+7M)
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Code No: R22121
R10
SET - 4
Max. Marks: 75
a) Explain about two-station data communication circuit. Also give a brief description about parallel and serial data transmission with suitable diagrams. (8M+7M) b) Explain about Quadrature Amplitude modulation and Trellis Code modulation in detail. a) Define Metallic Transmission Lines. Explain about types of metallic transmission lines. b) Explain about the Optical Fiber Communications System with a block diagram. (8M+7M) a) Explain briefly about Signal Voltage-to-Quantization Noise Voltage Ratio. b) Define Carrier Systems and explain in detail about T-Carrier Systems.
2.
3.
(8M+7M)
4.
a) Explain in detail about Electromagnetic Polarization and Optical properties of radio waves. b) Explain in detail about Microwave Communication Systems. (8M+7M) a) Define Subscriber Loop. Explain in brief about working of standard Telephone Set. b) Explain in detail about units of Powers Measurement. (8M+7M) a) Explain about Cell Splitting, Sectoring, Segmentation and Dualization. b) Explain about the architecture of Global System for Mobile Communications. a) Explain briefly about Data Communications Character Codes. b) Explain in detail about Error-Correction mechanisms. a) Discuss briefly about Asynchronous Voice-Band Modems. b) Give a detailed description about Cable Modems.
5.
6.
(8M+7M)
7.
(8M+7M)
8.
(8M+7M)
1 of 1
Code No: R22025
R10
II B.Tech II Semester, Regular Examinations, April 2012 ELECTRICAL CIRCUIT ANALYSIS -II (Electrical and Electronics Engineering)
SET - 1
Max. Marks: 75
a) Compare a three phase star connected system with a delta-connected system. Discuss merits and demerits of the two systems. b) A star connected load with three equal impedances takes 10 kW at 0.8 power factor leading when connected to 440 V, three-phase, three-wire supply. Find the line current if one phase of the load is short-circuited. For the network shown in Fig. 2 calculate the line currents and power consumed if a) the phase sequence is ABC b) if the phase sequence ACB. A IA 100 V, 3-phase, 50 Hz Supply IB B IC Fig.2 3+ j4 2- j2
2.
5 C
3.
a) A dc voltage of 100V is applied in the circuit shown in fig. 3(a) and the switch is kept open. The switch K is closed at t = 0. Find the complete expression for the current. 20
+ -
10 K
100 V
t=0
0.1 H
Fig.3(a) b) A series R-L circuit has R=20 ohms and L=8 H. The circuit is connected across a DC voltage source of 120 V at t=0. Calculate the time at which the voltage drops across R and L are the same.
1 of 2
Code No: R22025
R10
SET - 1
4.
A series RL circuit with R=100 ohms and L= 1H has a sinusoidal voltage source 200 sin(500t + ) applied at time when = 0 . i) Find the expression for current ii) At what value of must the switch be closed so that the current directly enter steady state. a) Determine the Y- parameters of the network shown in fig. 5(a). 3 3 3 6 6 6
5.
Fig.5(a) b) The Z-parameters of a two port network are Z11=15 , Z22=24 , Z12=Z21=6 . Determine ABCD parameters. 6. Determine the ABCD parameters of the network shown in fig. 6 1 V1 11 Fig.6 7. The voltage having the waveform shown in fig. 7.1 is applied to the circuit shown in fig. 7.2. Determine i(t). Vin(t) A T 2T 3T Fig. 7.1 4T t Fig. 7.2 + Vin(t) 2F 3H i(t) 25 I1 4 1 4 2 4 1 4 2 2 V2 21
8.
Determine the Fourier transform of the triangular function shown in fig. 8. f(t) A -T/2 Fig. 8 2 of 2 T/2 t
Code No: R22025
R10
SET - 2
Max. Marks: 75
a) Explain how the reactive power is measured in a 3-phase balanced system. b) A balanced three-phase star connected load 210 kW takes a leading current of 160 A when connected across a symmetrical 1.1 kV, 50 Hz supply. Find the load circuit passive parameters per phase. The following impedances are connected in the form of a star connected unbalanced system and it is connected to a 400 V, 3-phase supply: Z R = j 30 , Z Y = j 3 , Z B = j3 . Calculate the line currents by using i) loop method ii) Star-delta transformation technique. In the circuit shown in fig. 3, switch S1 is closed at t=0 and S2 is opened at t=0.05 sec. Find the transient current. Use differential equation approach. 50 200 V
+ -
2.
3.
100 S2 5H Fig.3
S1
4.
Find the current in the circuit shown in fig. 4 for t>0. At t=0- the network was unenergized. t=0 1H 1F 1
~ 10 sin2t
Fig.4 5.
a) Express z-parameters in terms of h-parameters and ABCD-parameters. b) The y-parameters of a two port network are y11=15 mho, y22=24 mho, y12=y21=6 mho. Determine ABCD parameters. 1 of 2
Code No: R22025
R10
SET - 2
6.
Determine the y-parameters for the two port network shown in fig. 6. j4 S 2S
3S
4S -j2 S -j6 S
Fig.6 7. a) Determine the Fourier series of the repetitive waveform shown in fig. (7.1) up to the 7th harmonic when the repetition time T=25 ms. b) Determine the fundamental frequency current in the circuit shown in fig. (7.2), where R=15 ohms and L=0.0438 H with the voltage waveform given in fig. (7.1). v(t) 150 V R L T t 0 v(t) T/2 -150 V Fig. (7.1) Fig. (7.2)
8.
Determine the Fourier transform of the trapezoidal function shown in fig. 8. f(t) A -b -a Fig. 8 a b t
2 of 2
Code No: R22025
R10
SET - 3
Max. Marks: 75
Two wattmeters A and B give readings as 5000 W and 1000 W respectively of the power measurement in a 3-phase, three wire balanced load system. a) Calculate the power and power factor when both of them read in i) direct and ii) reverse if the voltage of the circuit is 400 V. b) What is the value of the capacitance which must be introduced in each phase so that the whole of the power will appear on wattmeter A? The frequency of the supply is 50 Hz. a) Explain how the three-phase power is measured using two-wattmeter method. b) Find the reading on the wattmeter when the network is connected to a symmetrical three phase, 440 V, supply as shown in fig. 2b. Neglect the electrostatic effects and instrument losses. The phase sequence is ABC. M A V1 V2 L IA 60 56
2.
IB
45
C 3.
IC Fig.2b
In a series RLC circuit, R=6 ohms, L=1 H, C=1 F. A DC voltage of 40 V is applied at t=0. Obtain the expression for i(t) using differential equation approach. For an RC series circuit, a sinusoidal voltage v(t ) = Vm sint is applied at t=0. Find the expression for transient current.
4.
1 of 2
Code No: R22025
R10
SET - 3
5.
a) Express y-parameters in terms of z-parameters and h-parameters b) Determine ABCD parameters of the network shown in fig. 5(b). 1H 2H 1 2 1F 11 Fig.5(b) 0.5 F 21
6.
Find the y-parameters for the network shown in fig. 6 by considering it to be a parallel combination of a capacitive network referred to as Na and a resistive network referred to as Nb. -j1 1 1 2
Fig.6 7. a) The input voltage in volts to a series RL is 0 0 e(t ) = 180 sin(314t + 10 ) + 56 sin(942t + 35 ) + 18 The values of R and L are 18 and 0.0413 H. Determine i) The expression for current, ii) The rms value of voltage and current, and iii) the power factor of the circuit. b) Explain about the exponential Fourier series. Determine the Fourier transform of the function shown in fig. 8. f(t) A 0 -T -A Fig.8 2 of 2 T
8.
Code No: R22025
R10
SET - 4
Max. Marks: 75
a) Explain the relationship between line and phase quantities in a star and delta connected three phase systems. b) Each phase of a three-phase delta connected load has a 0.2 H inductor in series with a parallel combination of an 8 F capacitor and a 100 resistor. If a three phase voltage of 200 V at a frequency of 400 rad/sec is applied to this load, find i) the phase current ii) the line current iii) the total power absorbed by the load. A balanced three phase, three wire 50 Hz, 100 V supply is given to a load consisting of three impedances ZA=(1+j1), ZB=(1+j2) and ZC=(3+j4) ohms connected in star as shown in fig. 2. Compute the voltage across and currents in the three phases of the load using i) Millmans theorem ii) loop current method. Phase sequence is ABC. IA A + ZA
2.
V An = 1000
N + B
I1 ZB I2 ZC Fig.2 IC IB N1
VBn = 100 120

+ C
VCn = 100120
3.
In the circuit shown in figure 3, the switch S is in position 1 for 0.01 seconds and then changed to position 2. Find the time at which the current is zero and reversing its direction. 1 S 100 V
+ -
5 20 V
2 0.1 H
Fig.3 1 of 2
Code No: R22025
R10
SET - 4
4.
For an RL series circuit, a sinusoidal voltage of v(t ) = Vm sin(t + ) is applied at t=0. Find the expression for transient current.
5.
Determine the Z-parameters for the network shown in fig. 5 1 1 1 2 Port 1 V1 11 Fig.5 1 4V1 + 2 V2 Port 2 21
6.
Derive the ABCD parameters for the network shown in fig. 6 as a cascade connection of two identical networks. 2 2 4 1 2 V1 11 Fig.6 1F 1F V2 21
7.
a) The current in an RL circuit with R=12 and i( t ) = 12 sin(900t) + 7 sin(2700t) + sin(4500t) . Determine the effective applied voltage and average power. b) Obtain the trigonometric Fourier series for the waveform shown in fig. 7.b. Vin(t) A T/2 T Fig. 7.b t
8.
a) Explain the properties and applications of Fourier transform. b) Find the Fourier transform of the signal f (t ) = sin( 0 t ) . 2 of 2
Code No: R22051
R10
II B.Tech II Semester, Regular Examinations, April 2012 SOFTWARE ENGINEERING (Computer Science and Engineering)
SET - 1
Max. Marks: 75
Define the terms Software and Software Engineering. State and explain various software myths and reality. Compare the waterfall model with the Unified process. And also list out various categories of non-functional requirements and their importance.
2.
3.
What is meant by requirements management? Discuss in detail about requirements management and requirements validation.
4.
Explain various architectural styles and patterns. And also explain about architectural design.
5.
Discuss the advantages of ObjectOriented design over other design methods. Explain the process of user interface design evaluation.
6.
Define the term software quality. And explain the metrics for design model and metrics for source code.
7.
Distinguish between software Measurement and Metrics. And also discuss in detail the proactive strategies of risk management.
8.
Discuss the necessity for software quality assurance. And explain about the statistical software quality assurance.
1 of 1
Code No: R22051
R10
SET - 2
Max. Marks: 75
1.
Distinguish between software process and software project. Explain about personal and team process models. Differentiate between Incremental process models and Evolutionary process models. And also discuss various topics in a software requirements specification document.
2.
3.
Explain the requirements validation process in detail. And also discuss about data models and object models with suitable examples.
4.
Discuss the importance of design phase in software development. And also explain various software design concepts with suitable examples.
5.
Explain in detail with a suitable example the Object-Oriented design process.
6.
State and explain various testing methods under white-box and black-box testing.
7.
What is the need for risk management? Explain the process of risk identification, risk projection and risk refinement.
8.
What are the formal technical reviews? Explain them. And also discuss about the ISO 9000 quality standards.
1 of 1
Code No: R22051
R10
SET - 3
Max. Marks: 75
Discuss the changing nature of the software. And also explain about process patterns and CMMI.
2.
Distinguish between functional and non-functional requirements. And compare the waterfall model with the Evolutionary process models.
3.
Discuss the importance of system models. And also state and explain various techniques for requirements elicitation and analysis.
4.
Distinguish between data design and architectural design. And also explain the design principles for design quality.
5.
What are factors that will influence on a user interface design? Explain clearly about user interface analysis and design.
6.
What is the need for validation testing? Discuss it with suitable examples. And also discuss the metrics for software testing.
7.
What are the benefits of software measurement? Discuss in detail the RMMM Plan with a suitable example.
8.
State and explain various software quality assurance activities. And discuss how we measure software reliability.
1 of 1
Code No: R22051
R10
SET - 4
Max. Marks: 75
1. Discuss the Evolving role of software and CMMI. And also compare the personal and team process models.
2. Explain with suitable examples the user requirements, system requirements and non-functional requirements.
3. What is meant by feasibility study? State and explain various feasibility studies that may be performed on a software project. And also discuss about context models.
4. What is meant by architectural design? Discuss its significance. And also explain various terminologies in software architecture.
5. Describe the golden rules for a user interface design. Explain the interface design steps.
6. What are the testing strategies for conventional software? Explain them in detail.
7. Explain various categories of software risks. Explain the risk identification and risk projection activities.
8. Explain about statistical software quality assurance and software quality standards.
1 of 1
Code No: R22011
R10
II B.Tech II Semester, Regular Examinations, April 2012 PROBABILITY AND STATISTICS (Com. to CE, CHEM, PE)
SET - 1
Max. Marks: 75
a) A and B throw alternatively with a pair of ordinary dice. A wins if he throws 6 before B throws 7 and B wins if he throws 7 before A throws 6.If A begins show that his chance of winning is 30/61. b) State and Prove Bayes theorem? a) A sample of 4 items is selected at random from a box containing 12 items of which 5 are detective. Find the expected number E of defective items? b) If the probability density function of a random variable x is given by x 2 , for x > 0 f ( x ) = 2 K x e , for x 0 0 Determine i) K ii) The distribution function for x?
2.
3.
a) In 256 sets of 12 tosses of a coin, in how many cases one can expect 8 heads and 4 tails? b) Find the mean and standard deviation of a normal distribution in which 7% items are under 35 and 89% are under 63? a) The mean of certain normal population is equal to the standard error of the mean of the samples of 64 from that distribution. Find the probability that the mean of the sample size 36 will be negative? b) A random sample of 100 teachers in a large metropolitan are a revealed a mean weekly salary of Rs. 487 with a standard deviation Rs. 48. With What degree of confidence can we arrest that the average weekly salary of all teachers in the metropolitan area is between 472 to 502? a) Find 95% confidence limits for the mean of a normality distributed population from which the following sample was taken 15,17,10,18,16,9,7,11,13,14? b) Write short notes on Bayesian Estimation?
4.
5.
1 of 2
Code No: R22011
R10
SET - 1
6.
a) In a random sample of 400 industrial accidents it was found that 231 were due at least partially to unsafe working conditions. Construct a 99% confidence interval for the corresponding true proportion? b) Write about i) Critical region ii) left tailed test iii) right tailed test? Construct a suitable control chart for the following data and draw your conclusions Sample each of 50 items 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 No. of defectives 4 8 6 7 10 5 9 6 Telephone users arrive at a booth following a Poisson distribution with a average time of 5 minutes between two successive arrivals. The time taken for a telephone call is on an average 3 minutes and it follows an exponential distribution. What is the probability that the booth is busy? It is proposed to reduce the average waiting time to less than or half of the present waiting time for completion of the call buy establishing a new booth. What has to be the arrival rate so as to warrant the establishment of new booth?
7.
8.
2 of 2
Code No: R22011
R10
SET - 2
Max. Marks: 75
1.
a) From 6 positive and 8 negative numbers, 4 numbers are chosen at random(without replacement) and multiplied. What is the probability that the product is positive? b) A bag contains 5 balls and it is not known how many of them are white. Two balls are drawn at random from the bag and they are noted to be white. What is the chance that all the balls in the bag are white? a) A continuous random variable X has probability density function f ( x) = 3 x 2 ; 0 x 1 , find a and b such that i) P{X a} = P{X > a} and ii) P{X > b}= 0.05 ? b) Find the mean and variance of the density function 2x f ( x) = , 0 x 3 ? 9
2.
3.
a) The probability that the life of a bulb is 100 days is 0.05. find the probability that out of 6 bulbs i) at least one ii) greater than four iii) none will be having a life of 100 days? b) In a sample of 1000 cases, the mean of a certain test is 14 and standard deviation is 2.5. Assuming the distribution to be normal, find i) how many students score between 12 and 15 ii) how many score above 18 iii) how many score below 8? a) The mean height of students in a college is 155 cms and standard deviation is 15. What is the probability that the mean height of 36 students is less than 157 cms. b) The mean life time of light bulbs produced by company is 1500 hours and SD of 150 hours. Find the probability that lighting will take place for i) at least 5000 hours ii) at most 4200 hours if three bulbs are connected such that when one bulb burns out, another bulb will go on. Assume that life times are normally distributed?
4.
1 of 2
Code No: R22011
R10
SET - 2
5.
a) A research worker wants to determine the average time it takes a mechanic to rotate the types of a car and he wants to be able to assert with 95%. Confidence that the mean of his sample is off by at most 0.5 minutes. If he can presume from past experience that =1.6 minutes how large a sample will have to take? b) In a study of an automobile insurance a random sample of 80 body repair costs had a mean of Rs. 472.36 and the S.D. of Rs. 62.35. If x is used as a point estimate to the true average repair costs, with what confidence we can assert that the maximum error doesnt exceed Rs.10? a) A die was thrown 9000 times and of these 3220 yielded a 3 or 4. Is this consistent with hypothesis that the die was unbiased? b) Find the maximum difference we can expect with probability 0.95 between the means of samples of sizes 10 and 12 from a normal populations if their standard deviations are found to be 2 and 3 respectively? Construct a control chart for mean and the range for the following data on the basis of fuses samples of 5 being taken every hour (each set of 5 has been arranged in ascending order of magnitude). Comment on whether the production seems to be under control, assuming that these are the first data 42 65 75 78 87 42 45 68 72 90 19 24 80 81 81 36 54 69 77 84 42 51 57 59 78 51 74 75 78 132 60 60 72 95 138 18 20 27 42 60 15 30 39 62 84 69 109 113 118 153 64 90 93 109 112 61 78 94 109 136
6.
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8.
In a maintenance shop, the inter-arrival times at tool crib are exponential with an average time of 10minutes. The length of the service time is assumed to be exponentially distributed with mean 6 minutes. Find i) Estimate the fraction of the day that tool crib operator will be idle? ii) The probability that were will be six or more operator waiting for the service? iii) The manager of the shop will install a second booth when an arrival would expect to have to wait 10 minutes or more for the services. By how much must the rate of arrival be increased in order justify a second booth?
2 of 2
Code No: R22011
R10
SET - 3
Max. Marks: 75
a) State the axioms of probability. A box contains 3 white balls, 4 red balls and 5 black balls. Two balls are drawn from the urn at random. Find the probability the both of them are of the same colour? b) A bolt is manufactured by 3 machines A, B and C. A turns out twice as many items as B, and machines B and C produce equal number of items. 2% of bolts produced by A and B are defective and 4% of bolts produced by C are defective. All bolts are put into 1 stock pile and 1 is chosen from this pile. What is the probability that it is defective? a) A player tosses 3 fair coins. He wins Rs.500 if 3 heads appear, Rs. 300 if 2 heads appear, Rs. 100 if 1 head occurs. On the other hand, he loses Rs. 1500 if 3 tails occur. Find the expected gain of the player? b) For the continuous probability function f ( x) = Kx 2 e x when x 0, find i) K ii) mean iii) variance 9 a) The mean of binomial distribution is 3 and the variance is . Find 4 i) The value of n ii) p ( x 7) iii) ( P (1 x < 6) ? b) The mean and standard deviation of the marks obtained by 1000 students in an examination are respectively 34.5 and 16.5. Assuming the normality of the distribution, find the approximate number of students expected to obtain marks between 30 and 60?
2.
3.
4.
a) A random sample of size 64 is taken from a normal population with m= 51.4 and s =68. What is the probability that the mean of the sample will i) exceed 52.9 ii) fall between 50.5 and 52.3 iii) be less than 50.6? b) A random sample of size 25 from a normal population has the mean X = 47.5 and the standard deviation S = 8.4. Does this information tend to support or refute the claim that the mean of the population is = 42.5 ? 1 of 2
Code No: R22011
R10
SET - 3
5.
a) A random sample of size 100 is taken from a population with = 5.1 . Given that the sample mean is X = 21.6 . Construct a 95% confidence interval for the population mean ? b) The means of two large samples of sizes 1000 and 2000 members are 67.5 inches and 68.0 inches respectively. Can the samples be regarded as drawn from the same population of S.D. 2. 5 inches?
6.
a) A social worker believes that fewer than 25% of the couples in a certain area have ever used any form of birth control. A random sample of 120 couples was contacted. Twenty of them said that they have used. Test the belief of the social worker at 0.05 level? b) Explain the procedure generally followed in testing of hypothesis? Eight samples each of size 6 are drawn at regular intervals from a manufacturing pharmaceutical company. The sample means x and their range are given below. Sample No 1 25 Mean (x ) Range 6 2 3 28 32 4 7 4 5 6 7 8 40 35 36 29 41 3 8 5 4 5 9 10 29 25 8 7
7.
8.
a) Explain briefly the main characteristics of queuing system? b) Explain Traffic intercity? c) Explain (M/M/1: / FCFS ) Queuing model?
2 of 2
Code No: R22011
R10
SET - 4
Max. Marks: 75
a) If n biscuits are distributed at random among m children, what is the probability that a particular child receives r biscuits, where r < n? b) The chance that a doctor A will diagnose a disease x correctly is 60%. The chance that a patient will die by his treatment after correct diagnosis is 40% and the chance of death by wrong diagnosis is 70%. A patient of doctor A, who had disease x, died. What is the chance that his disease was diagnosed correctly? a) From a lot of 10 items containing 3 defectives, a sample of 4 items is drawn at random. Let the random variable X denote the number of defective items in the sample. Find the probability distribution of X when the sample is drawn without replacement? b) Probability density function of a random variable X is 1 Sin x, for 0 x f ( x) = 2 , elsewhere 0
2.
Find the mean, mode and median of the distribution and also find the probability between 0 and ? 2 3. a) 20% of items produced from a factory are defective find the probability that in a sample of 5 chosen at random i) none is defective ii) one is defective iii) P (1 < x < 4) ? b) Determine the probability that getting an even number on face 3 to 5 times in throwing 10 dice together?
1 of 2
Code No: R22011
R10
SET - 4
4.
a) If the population is 3, 6, 9, 15, 27 i) List all possible samples of size 3 that can be taken without replacement from the finite population? ii) Calculate the mean of each of the sampling distribution of means? iii) Find the standard deviation of sampling distribution of mean? b) A manufacture claims that any of his list of items cannot have variance more than 1 cm2. A sample of 25 items has a variance of 1.2 cm2. Test whether the claim of the manufacturer is correct? a) In a random sample of 125 cola drinkers, 68 said they prefer thumsup to pepsi. Test the null hypothesis P = 0.5 against the alternative hypothesis P > 0.5? b) Write short notes on Type-I and Type-II errors? a) The average breaking strength of the steel rods is specified to be 18.5 thousand pounds. To test this sample of 14 rods was tested. The mean and standard deviations obtained were 17.85 and 1.955 respectively. Is the result of experiment significant? b) The means of two random samples of sizes 9 and 7 are 196.42 and 198.82 respectively. The sum of the squares of the deviations from the mean is 26.94 and 18.73 respectively. Can the sample be considered to have been drawn from the same normal population? A manufacturer of computer systems found the number of defectives in 20 sub systems of 40 computer systems 2 5 6 8 3 1 5 8 9 11 5 12 4 6 2 1 4 5 6 7 Construct a control chart for the fraction defective. A machine repairing shop gets average 16 machines per day (of eight hours) for repair and the arrival pattern is Poisson .At the moment there is no repair man available at the shop. The shop owner has two applicants A and B for the job of repairman. Both A and B claim that the service times are exponentially distributed with means 20 and 15 minutes respectively. They demand salaries Rs.500 and Rs.600 per day respectively. The lost time costs Rs 50/- per hour per machine. Assuming that the claims of the applicants are true, which one should be employed.
5.
6.
7.
8.
2 of 2
Code No: V0521
R07
SET - 1
II B.Tech II Semester, Supplementary Examinations, April 2012 SOFTWARE ENGINEERING (Com.to CSE, IT, CSS) Time: 3 hours Answer any FIVE Questions All Questions carry Equal Marks ********* 1. Define the terms Software and Software Engineering. State and explain various software myths and reality. Compare the waterfall model with the Unified process. And also list out various categories of non-functional requirements and their importance. What is meant by requirements management? Discuss in detail about requirements management and requirements validation. Explain various architectural styles and patterns. And also explain about architectural design. Discuss the advantages of ObjectOriented design over other design methods. Explain the process of user interface design evaluation. Define the term software quality. And explain the metrics for design model and metrics for source code. Distinguish between software Measurement and Metrics. And also discuss in detail the proactive strategies of risk management. Discuss the necessity for software quality assurance. And explain about the statistical software quality assurance. Max. Marks: 80
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
1 of 1
Code No: V0521
R07
SET - 2
II B.Tech II Semester, Supplementary Examinations, April 2012 SOFTWARE ENGINEERING (Com.to CSE, IT, CSS) Time: 3 hours Answer any FIVE Questions All Questions carry Equal Marks ********* Max. Marks: 80
1.
Distinguish between software process and software project. Explain about personal and team process models. Differentiate between Incremental process models and Evolutionary process models. And also discuss various topics in a software requirements specification document. Explain the requirements validation process in detail. And also discuss about data models and object models with suitable examples. Discuss the importance of design phase in software development. And also explain various software design concepts with suitable examples. Explain in detail with a suitable example the Object-Oriented design process. State and explain various testing methods under white-box and black-box testing. What is the need for risk management? Explain the process of risk identification, risk projection and risk refinement. What are the formal technical reviews? Explain them. And also discuss about the ISO 9000 quality standards.
2.
3.
4.
5. 6. 7.
8.
1 of 1
Code No: V0521
R07
SET - 3
II B.Tech II Semester, Supplementary Examinations, April 2012 SOFTWARE ENGINEERING (Com.to CSE, IT, CSS) Time: 3 hours Max. Marks: 80 Answer any FIVE Questions All Questions carry Equal Marks ********* 1. Discuss the changing nature of the software. And also explain about process patterns and CMMI. Distinguish between functional and non-functional requirements. And compare the waterfall model with the Evolutionary process models. Discuss the importance of system models. And also state and explain various techniques for requirements elicitation and analysis. Distinguish between data design and architectural design. And also explain the design principles for design quality. What are factors that will influence on a user interface design? Explain clearly about user interface analysis and design. What is the need for validation testing? Discuss it with suitable examples. And also discuss the metrics for software testing. What are the benefits of software measurement? Discuss in detail the RMMM Plan with a suitable example. State and explain various software quality assurance activities. And discuss how we measure software reliability.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
1 of 1
Code No: V0521
R07
SET - 4
II B.Tech II Semester, Supplementary Examinations, April 2012 SOFTWARE ENGINEERING (Com.to CSE, IT, CSS) Time: 3 hours Max. Marks: 80 Answer any FIVE Questions All Questions carry Equal Marks ********* 1. Discuss the Evolving role of software and CMMI. And also compare the personal and team process models. 2. Explain with suitable examples the user requirements, system requirements and nonfunctional requirements. 3. What is meant by feasibility study? State and explain various feasibility studies that may be performed on a software project. And also discuss about context models. 4. What is meant by architectural design? Discuss its significance. And also explain various terminologies in software architecture. 5. Describe the golden rules for a user interface design. Explain the interface design steps. 6. What are the testing strategies for conventional software? Explain them in detail. 7. Explain various categories of software risks. Explain the risk identification and risk projection activities. 8. Explain about statistical software quality assurance and software quality standards.
1 of 1
Code No: V0421
R07
SET - 1
II B.Tech II Semester, Supplementary Examinations, April 2012 PULSE AND DIGITAL CIRCUITS (Com.to ECE, BME, ECC, ICE) Time: 3 hours Answer any FIVE Questions All Questions carry Equal Marks *********
1. a) Prove that an RC circuit behaves as a reasonably good integrator if RC>>15T, where T is the time period of input waveform . Also show that the output is approximately
Max. Marks: 80
Vm cos t /( RC ) b) The square wave shown in Fig.1.1 is fed to an RC coupling network. Time period of both positive cycle and negative cycle is same. What are the voltage waveforms across R and across C if (i) RC is very large, say RC = 10 T, and RC is very small, say RC = 0.1 T.
Fig. 1.1. A square waveform with a DC shift.
2.
a) State and explain clamping circuit theorem. Discuss about the practical clamping circuit with suitable sketches. b) A rectangular waveform of Vp-p =10 V, with on time T1 = 2 ms, and off time T2 = 20 ms is applied to the dc restorer circuit. The circuit has source resistance Rs = 0 ohms, diode forward resistance Rf =10 , cutin voltage V = 0 V, Rr = , R = 500 , C = 0.1F. Compute the steady state output waveform. Repeat the same for R = 1M .
a) Discuss about transistor switching times with suitable sketches. What are the three important factors that contribute to the delay time in a transistor? Explain. b) Derive the expressions for rise time, fall time of a BJT when it is used as an electronic switch.
3.
4.
a) Explain the operation of an emitter coupled astable multivibrator circuit. b) Design a collector coupled monostable multivibrator circuit for the given specifications: VCC = 8V, VBE = -1V, IC(sat) = 2 mA, period of the quasi stable state is 2.5 s. hFE(min) = 20, the ON transistor (Si) has base current which is 50% in excess of minimum base current. Assume R2 = 2R1, and ICBO = 0. Assume suitable data. 1 of 2
Code No: V0421
R07
SET - 1
5.
a) With the help of circuit diagram, explain the principle of operation of a constant current sweep circuit. b) Design a transistor bootstrap ramp generator to provide an output amplitude of 12 V over a time period of 2 ms. The input signal is a negative going pulse with an amplitude of 5 V, a pulse width of 2 ms and the time interval between pulses is 0.5 ms. The load resistance is 2 k and the ramp is to be linear within 1%. The supply is to be 15 V. Assume hFE(min) = 80. a) How an astable multivibrator can be synchronized? Illustrate with waveforms. b) A symmetrical astable multivibrator using Germanium transistors and operating from a 10 V collector supply voltage has a free period of 1ms. Triggering pulses whose spacing is 750 s are applied to one base through a small capacitor from a high impedance source. Find the minimum triggering pulse amplitude required to achieve 1:1 synchronization. Assume that the timing portion of the base waveform is linear. a) With neat diagrams, explain the principle of operation of six diode bidirectional sampling gate. b) Describe the operation of chopper amplifier. Give the operation of the transistor as a chopper switch in ON state and in OFF state. c) Describe the operation of balanced choppers. Write the following: a) DTL NAND gate, b) RTL NOR gate, c) Prove that NAND and NOR gates are universal gates.
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Code No: V0421
R07
SET - 2
II B.Tech II Semester, Supplementary Examinations, April 2012 PULSE AND DIGITAL CIRCUITS (Com.to ECE, BME, ECC, ICE) Time: 3 hours Max. Marks: 80 Answer any FIVE Questions All Questions carry Equal Marks ********* a) Derive an expression for the output voltage levels under steady state conditions of a low pass circuit excited by an exponential input. b) The limited ramp shown in Figure 2.1 is applied to an RC differentiator. Draw to scale, the output waveform for the cases i) T = RC ii) T = 0.2 RC iii) T = 5RC.
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a) Draw the circuit diagrams for double ended clipping of a sinusoidal input signal using diodes and zener diodes. Explain its operation using transfer characteristics of each circuit. b) Draw the circuit diagram for positive clamper circuit and explain its principle of operation.
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a) Explain how a transistor can be used as an electronic switch. Compare switching operation with that of FET. b) Design a high speed Si transistor switch (connected in CE configuration) for the given specifications: VCC = 12 V, -VBB = -10V, IC = 8 mA, hFE(min) = 30, and R2 = 3R1. The resistor R1 is connected between the base of the transistor and the input, and R2 is connected between base of the transistor and VBB. Assume suitable saturation, cut off voltages for the given transistor. a) Derive an expression for the gate width of a monostable multivibrator circuit. b) Design an astable multivibrator to generate a square wave of 2 kHz frequency with a duty cycle of 35%. The specifications of switching transistors used in the circuit are: Supply voltage = 10 V, IC(ON) = 4 mA, hFE = 20, Si transistors. Assume necessary data. 1 of 2
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Code No: V0421
R07
SET - 2
5.
a) Discuss the advantages of Bootstrap time base generators over the Miller circuit, and
explain the operation of Bootstrap time base generator. b) Design a sweep circuit using silicon transistor in the CB configuration to generate a 20 V sweep in a time of 0.1 ms with a slope error not to exceed 0.2%. The circuit uses two supply voltages. The transistor has = 0.98, hib = 20 ohms, hrb = 0.4 x 10-3 and hob = 0.5 mho. Use RE = 1.5 K and select reasonable values of VCC, VEE and capacitor C. 6. a) Discuss about synchronization of a sweep circuit with symmetrical signals. b) How a monostable multivibrator circuit can be used for frequency division? Explain with suitable sketches. c) What do you mean by phase delay and phase jitters? a) Illustrate with neat circuit diagram, the operation of unidirectional sampling gate for multiple inputs. b) Explain the operation of a two input sampling gate which does not have any loading effect on control signal. c) Give the importance of chopper amplifier. Explain the following terms: a) Realization of AND and OR gates using universal gates, b) What is the use of Totem pole configuration? Explain its operation with suitable sketches. Give an example to calculate Fan-out of the circuit.
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Code No: V0421
R07
SET - 3
II B.Tech II Semester, Supplementary Examinations, April 2012 PULSE AND DIGITAL CIRCUITS (Com.to ECE, BME, ECC, ICE) Time: 3 hours Max. Marks: 80 Answer any FIVE Questions All Questions carry Equal Marks ********* a) Design a high pass circuit for three different time constants, low, high and medium. Assume a 4 kHz square wave with 4Vp-p is applied to the circuit. Draw the output waveforms for the time constants mentioned above. b) A square wave whose peak-to-peak amplitude is 2V extends 1V with respect to ground. The duration of the positive section is 0.1 sec and that of the negative section is 0.2 sec. If this waveform is impressed upon an RC integrating circuit whose time constant is 0.2 sec, what are the steady state maximum and minimum values of the output waveform?
a) Explain transfer characteristics of the emitter coupled clipper and derive the necessary
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equations. b) Draw a clamping circuit in which the source resistance Rs of the signal source is taken into account, and also resistance R is connected across the output. Find the state output waveform indicating voltage levels for a complete cycle for a square wave input signal shown in Fig.3.1.
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a) What are the important parameters to be observed when the transistor is operated as electronic switch? Explain them. b) A transistor initially at cutoff with a base to emitter voltage nearly zero, operates with VCC = 12 V and Rc = 1 K. A positive step input voltage of 10 V is applied through a 10 K resistance to the base. It is found that the transistor reaches saturation in 0.3 s. The silicon transistor has hFE = 30 and a collector transition capacitance of 10 pF. What is the common emitter gain-bandwidth product of the transistor? 1 of 2
Code No: V0421
R07
SET - 3
4.
a) What is Schmitt trigger? With the help of a neat circuit diagram and waveforms, explain the working of Schmitt trigger? b) A self biased bistable multivibrator uses silicon transistors with the following specifications: hFE = 25, VCC = 20V, VBB = 2V, RC =1k, R1 = R2, IC(sat) = 10mA . If VBE(off) = -1V and the base current of the ON transistor is twice the minimum base current, design the circuit and show the diagram with appropriate values of the components. a) Discuss about general considerations of Miller and Bootstrap time base generators. b) Design a free running UJT sweep waveform generator with the sweep amplitude of 6 V. The sweep interval of the waveform is expected to be 3 ms with negligible retrace interval. The slope error is 0.75. Determine the values of RB1, RB2, VBB, R, and C in the relaxation circuit. a) Illustrate the terms Synchronization and frequency division of a sweep generator. b) A free running relaxation oscillator has sweep amplitude of 100 V and a period of 1 ms synchronizing pulses are applied to the device such that breakdown voltage is lowered by 50 V at each pulse. The synchronizing pulse frequency is 4 kHz. What is the amplitude and frequency of synchronized oscillator waveform? a) With neat diagrams, explain the principle of operation of four diode bidirectional sampling gate. Compare the performance of the circuit with that of six diode bidirectional sampling gate. b) Describe the errors encountered in series sampling and what is the design procedure that is adopted to minimize these errors. a) With the help of neat circuit diagram and truth table, explain the working of three- input DTL NAND gate. b) What do you mean by fan in and fan out? Discuss about the DTL NAND gate circuit which can improve Fan-out of the gate.
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Code No: V0421
R07
SET - 4
II B.Tech II Semester, Supplementary Examinations, April 2012 PULSE AND DIGITAL CIRCUITS (Com.to ECE, BME, ECC, ICE) Time: 3 hours Answer any FIVE Questions All Questions carry Equal Marks ********* 1. a) Derive an expression for the output voltage levels under steady state conditions of a low pass circuit excited by an exponential input. b) A square wave whose peak-to-peak amplitude is 1V extends 0.5V with respect to ground. The duration of the positive section is 0.1 sec and that of the negative section is 0.2 sec. If this waveform is impressed upon an RC differentiating circuit whose time constant is 0.2 sec, what are the steady state maximum and minimum values of the output waveform? a) List out the types of clamping circuits used in the industry. Give the circuit diagram of each type. Explain the operation of a clamping circuit whose output signal has negative offset. b) Design a diode clamper circuit to restore the positive peaks of 1 kHz input signal to a voltage level equal to 5V. Assume that the diode voltage during forward bias condition is 0.7 V. a) Define rise time, storage time, fall time, and turn off time in the case of transistor as a switch. b) Design a common emitter transistor switch operating with two power supplies VCC = 18 V, -VBB = -12 V. The transistor is expected to operate at IC = 8 mA, and IB = 0.75 mA. The static current gain is 25. Assume Si transistor, and R2 = 5R1. a) Explain the working principle of an emitter coupled monostable multivibrator with neat sketches. b) A fixed bias binary uses NPN silicon transistors with hFE = 25. The circuit parameters are VCC = 10V, VBB = 2V, RC =1k, R1 = 5 k, and R2 = 10 k, VCE(sat) = 0.3V, and VBE(sat) = 0.7V. Verify that one transistor is in cut off and the other one is in saturation. Also find the steady state values of currents and voltages. What is the maximum value of ICBO tolerated before the condition is reached where neither transistor is cut off? Max. Marks: 80
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Code No: V0421
R07
SET - 4
5.
a) A UJT is used as a switch across a sweep capacitor C which is charged through a resistor R to a maximum voltage supply VBB. Prove that the sweep duration is given by. V B B VV Ts = RC ln V B B VP b) With the aid of circuit diagram, explain the operation of constant current sweep generator using CB configuration and write the expression for slope error.
a) Describe the frequency division employing a transistor monostable multivibrator. b) A UJT sweep circuit operates with a valley voltage of 3 V and a peak voltage of 16 V. A sinusoidal synchronizing voltage of 2 V peak is applied between bases. The intrinsic standoff ratio is 0.5. If the natural frequency of the sweep is 1 kHz, over what range of synchronization signal frequency will the sweep remain in 1:1 synchronization with the synchronization signal? a) Sketch circuit of a simple diode bidirectional sampling gate and describe its functioning with neat waveforms. Obtain the expressions for gain A, and the two minimum control voltage levels. b) Discuss about the balance conditions in a bidirectional diode sampling gate. a) Realize two-input TTL NAND gate truth table and explain its operation with suitable circuit diagram. Which type of NAND gate is immune to noise? Explain its working. b) With the help of neat circuit diagram and truth table, explain the working of diode logic AND gate, and RTL AND gate.
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2 of 2
Code No: V0121
R07
SET - 1
II B.Tech II Semester, Supplementary Examinations, April 2012 PROBABILITY AND STATISTICS (Com.to CE, ME, CHEM, AME, MM) Time: 3 hours Answer any FIVE Questions All Questions carry Equal Marks ********* 1. a) The students in a class are selected at random, one after another, for an examination. Find the probability P that the boys and girls in the class arranged alternately if i) the class consists of 4 boys and 3 girls ii) the class consists of 3 boys and 3 girls b) In a certain college, 40%of men and 10% of women are taller than1.8 metres. Further more in the college 60% of students are women. If a student is selected at random and is taller than 1.8 metres find the probability that the selected student is a woman. A discrete random variable X has the following distribution function : 0, forx < 1 1 / 3, for1 x < 4 F ( x) = 1 / 2, for 4 x < 6 5 / 6, for 6 x < 10 1, forx 10
Find i) P(2 < X 6) 3. ii) P( X = 5) iii) P( X = 4) iv) P( X 6) v) P( X = 6)
Max. Marks: 80
2.
a) six dice are thrown 729 times. How many times do you except at least three dice to show a 5 or 6 b) Estimate the minimum marks a student must get in order to receive an A grade if the top 10% of the students are awarded A grade in an examination where the mean of the marks is 72 and standard deviation is 9. a) A random sample of size 64 is taken from a normal population with =51.4 and =68.What is the probability that the mean of the sample will i) exceed 52.9 ii) fall between 50.5 and 52.3 iii) be less than 50.6. b) The claim that the variance of a normal population is 2 = 4 is to be rejected if the variance of a random sample of size 9exceeds 7, 7535. What is the probability that this claim will be rejected even though 2 = 4 ?
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1 of 2
Code No: V0121
R07
SET - 1
5.
a) In a study of an automobile insurance a random sample of 80 body repair costs had a mean of Rs.472.36 and the S.D of Rs.62.35.If X is used as a point estimate to the true average repair costs, with what confidence we can assert that the maximum error doesnt exceed Rs.10? b) Calculate 1 , 1 for the posterior distribution if the random sample size is 80.
X = 18.85, S = 5.55 using S.D of population .

6. a) Random samples of 400 men and 600 women were asked whether they would like to have a flyover near their residence.200 men and 325 women were in favour of the proposal .Test the hypothesis that proportions of men and women in favour of the proposal are same, at 5% level. b) An investigation of the relative merits of two kinds of flash light batteries showed that a random sample of 100 batteries of brand A tested on the average 36.5 hrs with a S.D. of 1.8 hrs while a random sample of 80 batteries of brand B tested on the average 36.8 hrs with a S.D. of 1.5 hrs. Use a level of significance of 0.05 to test whether the observed difference between the average life times is significant. a) The average breaking strength of the steel rods is specified to be 18.5 thousand pounds. To test this sample of 14 rods was tested. The mean and standard deviations obtained were 17.85 and 1.955 respectively. Is the result of experiment significant? b) 1000 students at college level were graded according to their 1.Q and the economic conditions of their homes. Use x2 test to find out whether there is any association between economic conditions at home and 1.Q 1.Q Economic conditions Rich Poor Total 8. High 460 240 700 Low 140 160 300 Total 600 400 1000
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Customers arrive at a one window drive-in bank according to a Poisson distribution with mean 10 per hour. Service time per customer is exponential with mean 5 minutes. The car space in front of the window including that for the serviced can accommodate a maximum of 3 cars. Other cars can wait outside the space. a) What is the probability that an arriving customer can drive directly to the space in front of the window? b)What is the probability that an arriving customer will have to wait outside the indicated space? c) How long is and arriving customer expected to wait before starting service.
2 of 2
Code No: V0121
R07
SET - 2
II B.Tech II Semester, Supplementary Examinations, April 2012 PROBABILITY AND STATISTICS (Com.to CE, ME, CHEM, AME, MM)
Time: 3 hours Max. Marks: 80 Answer any FIVE Questions All Questions carry Equal Marks ********* a) Six boys and six girls sit in a row at random. What is the probability that i) the six girls sit together ii) the boys and girls sit alternately b) A husband and wife appear in an interview for the same post .The probability of husbands selection is 1/7 and that of wifes selection is 1/5. What is the probability that i) both of them will be selected ii) none of them will be selected iii) only one of them will be selected. a) From a lot of 10 items containing 3 defectives, a sample of 4 items is drawn a random. Let the random variable X denote the number of defective items in the sample. Find the probability distribution of X when the sample is drawn without replacement. b) X is a continuous random variable with probability density function given by
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kx 1 (1 x) 1 , for 0 < x < 1. > 0. > 0 f ( x) = o, otherwise

3. a) Adie is thrown 6 times. If getting an even number is a success, find the probabilities of i) at least one success ii) 3 successes iii) 4 success. b) It has been claimed that in 60% of all solar heat installations the utility bill is reduced by at least one-third. Accordingly, what are the probabilities that the utility bill will be reduced by at least one third in i) four of five installations ii) at least four of five installations a) The mean height of students in a college is 155 cms and standard deviation is 15.What is the probability that the mean height of 36 students is less than 157 cms. b) A random sample of size 64 is taken from a normal population with =51.4 and =68.What is the probability that the mean of the sample will i) exceed 52.9 ii) fall between 50.5 and 52.3 iii) be less than 50.6. 1 of 2
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Code No: V0121
R07
SET - 2
5.
a) In a study of an automobile insurance a random sample of 80 body repair costs had a mean of Rs.472.36 and the S.D of Rs.62.35.If X is used as a point estimate to the true average repair costs, with what confidence we can assert that the maximum error doesnt exceed Rs.10? b) What is the maximum error one can expect to make with probability 0.90 when using the mean of a random sample of size n= 64 to estimate the mean of population with 2 = 2.56.
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a) In a big city 325 men out of 600 men were found to be smokers. Does this information support the conclusion that the majority of men in this city are smokers? b) Random samples of 400 men and 600 women were asked whether they would like to have a flyover near their residence.200 men and 325 women were in favour of the proposal .Test the hypothesis that proportions of men and women in favour of the proposal are same, at 5% level. a) A sample of 26 bulbs gives a mean life of 990 hours with a S.D. of 20 hours. The manufacturer claims that the mean life of bulbs is 1000 hours. Is the sample not up to the standard? b) The mean life time of a sample of 25 fluorescent light bulbs produced by a company is computed to be 157 hours with a S.D. of 120 hours. The company claims that the average life of the bulbs produced by the company is 1600 hours using the level of significance of 0.05. Is the claim acceptable? a) Explain briefly the main characteristics of queuing system. b) A TV repair man finds that the time spent on his jobs has an exponential distribution with mean 30 minutes. He repairs sets in the order in which they arrive. The arrival of the sets is approximately poisons with an average of10 per an eight hour day. Find the repairmans idle time each day. How many jobs are ahead of the average set just brought in?
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Code No: V0121
R07
SET - 3
Time: 3 hours Max. Marks: 80 Answer any FIVE Questions All Questions carry Equal Marks ********* a) Six boys and six girls sit in a row at random. What is the probability that i) the six girls sit together ii) the boys and girls sit alternately b) A test of multiple choice questions with four choices is held. A candidate appearing for the test either guesses or recalls or computes the answer for any question. The probability that he makes a guess is 1/6 and the probability that he recalls the answer is 1/3.The pro0bability that his answer is correct, given that he recalls it is 1/8.Find the probability that he computes the answer to the question, given that he answered it correctly. a) From a lot of 10 items containing 3 defectives, a sample of 4 items is drawn a random. Let the random variable X denote the number of defective items in the sample. Find the probability distribution of X when the sample is drawn without replacement. b) The probability density function of a variate X is as follows: X P(X) 0 K 1 3K 2 5K 3 7K 4 9K 5 11K 6 13K
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i) Find P(X<4), P( X 5), P(3 < X 6) 3. a) Find the probability that at most 5 defective components will be found in a lot of 200.Experilence shows that 2% of such components are defective. Also find the probability of more than five defective components. b) A box contains 100 transistors,20 of which are3 defective and 10 are selected at random, find the probability that i) all re defective ii) at least one is defective iii) all are good iv)at most 3 are defective a) The average cost of a studio condominium in the cedar lakes development is Rs.62,000 and the S.D is Rs.4200 .What is the probability that a condominium in this development will cost at least Rs.65,000. b) The claim that the variance of a normal population is 2=21.3 is rejected if the variance of a random sample of size 15 exceeds 39.74. What is the probability that the claim will be rejected even though 2=21.3?
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Code No: V0121
R07
SET - 3
5.
a) It is desired to estimate the mean time of continuous use until an answering machine will first require service. If it can be assumed that = 60 days, how large a sample is needed so that one will be able to assert with 90% confidence that the sample mean is off by at most 10 days. b) A professors feelings about the mean mark in the final examination in probability of a large group of students is expressed subjectively by normal distribution with 0 = 67.2and = 1.5. a) In two large populations, there are 30%,and 25% respectively of fair haired people. Is this difference likely to be hidden in samples of 1200 and 900 respectively from the two populations? b) In a survey of buying habits, 400 women shoppers are chosen at random in super market A located in a certain section of the city. Their average weekly food expenditure is Rs.250 with a S.D of Rs.40.For 400 women shoppers chosen at random in super market B in another section of the city, the average weekly food expenditure is Rs220 with a S.D.of Rs.55.Test at 10% level of significance whether the average weekly food expenditure of the two populations of shoppers are equal. a) The average breaking strength of the steel rods is specified to be 18.5 thousand pounds. To test this sample of 14 rods was tested. The mean and standard deviations obtained were 17.85 and 1.955 respectively. Is the result of experiment significant? b) From the following data, find whether there is any significant liking in the habit of taking soft drinks among the categories of employees Soft Drinks Pepsi Thumsup Fanta Clerks 10 15 50 Teachers 25 30 60 Officers 65 65 30
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A toll gate is operated on a freeway where cars arrive according to a Poisson distribution with mean frequency of 1.2 cars per minute. The time of completing payment follows an exponential distribution with mean of20 seconds. Find i) The idle time of the counter ii) Average number of cars in the system iii) Average number of cars in the queue iv) Average time that a car spends in the system v) Average time that a car spends in the queue. vi) The probability that a car spends more than 30 seconds in the system.
2 of 2
Code No: V0121
R07
SET - 4
Time: 3 hours Max. Marks: 80 Answer any FIVE Questions All Questions carry Equal Marks ********* a) A can hit a target 3 times in 5 shots, B hits target 2 times in 5 shots ,C hits target 3 times in 4 shots. Find the probability of the target being hit when all of them try. b) Suppose three companies X,Y,Z produce T.Vs X produce twice as many as Y While Y and Z produce the same number .It is known that 2% of X,2% of Y and 4% of Y are defective. All the T.Vs produced and put into one shop and then one T.V. is chosen at random i)What is the probability that the T.V is defective ? ii)suppose a T.V chosen is defective, what is the probability that this T.V is produced by company X ? a) A random variable gives measurements X between 0 and 1 with a probability function 12 x 3 21x 2 + 10 x, for 0 x 1 F ( x) = 0, elsewhere 1 1 i) Find P ( X ) and P ( X > ) 2 2 1 ii) Find a number K such that P( X K ) = 2 b) If the probability density function of random variable X is given by
2 kxe x , forx > 0 F ( x) = 0 , forx 0
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Determine i) k ii) the distribution function for X 3. a) six dice are thrown 729 times. How many times do you except at least three dice to show a 5 or 6 b) Find the probability that out of 100 patients between 84 and 95 inclusive will survive a heart operation given that the chance of survival is 0.9. a) The guaranteed average life of a certain type of electric bulbs is 1500 hrs with a S.D of 120 hrs. It is decide to sample the output so as to ensure that 95% of bulbs do not fall short of the guaranteed average by more than 2%.What will be the minimum sample size. b) The claim that the variance of a normal population is 2 = 4 is to be rejected if the variance of a random sample of size 9exceeds 7,7535. What is the probability that this claim will be rejected even though 2 = 4 ? 1 of 2
4.
Code No: V0121 5.
R07
SET - 4
a) A random sample of 20 fuses subjected to overload has mean time for blow of 10.63 minutes with S.D of 2.48 mt. What can we assert with 95% confidence about the maximum error if we use X =10.63 mts as a point estimate of true average it takes such fuses for blow when subjected to overload. b) Calculate 1 , 1 for the posterior distribution if the random sample size is 80.
X = 18.85, S = 5.55 using S.D of population .

6. a) A sample of 900 members has a mean of 3.4 cms and S.D 2.61 cms. Is the sample from a large population of mean 3.25 cm and S.D 2.61 cms. If the population is normal and its mean is unknown find the 95% fiducial limits of true mean. b) An investigation of the relative merits of two kinds of flash light batteries showed that a random sample of 100 batteries of brand A tested on the average 36.5 hrs with a S.D. of 1.8 hrs while a random sample of 80 batteries of brand B tested on the average 36.8 hrs with a S.D. of 1.5 hrs. Use a level of significance of 0.05 to test whether the observed difference between the average life times is significant. a) A random sample of size 16 values from a normal population showed a mean of 53 and a sum of squares of deviation from the mean equals to 150.Cand this sample be regarded as taken from the population having56 as mean ?. Obtain 95% confidence limits of the mean of the population. b) 12 dice were thrown 4096 times and a throw of 6 was reckoned as success. The observed frequencies were as given below. Success 0 Frequencies 447 1 1145 2 118 3 796 4 380 5 115 6 24 7 and over 8
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Find the value of x2 on the hypothesis that the dice were unbiased and hence show that the data are consistent with this hypothesis so far as the x2 test is concerned. 8. The mean rate of arrival of planes at an airport during the peak period is 20 hours. The number of arrivals in any hour follows a Poisson distribution. When there is congestion the planes are forced to fly over the field in the stack awaiting the landing of other planes that arrived earlier.60 planes per hour can land in good weather and 30 planes per hour can land in bad weather. i) How many planes would be flying over the field in the stack on an average in good weather and in bad weather? ii) How long a plane would be in the stack in the process of landing in good and bad weather?
2 of 2
Code No: T0221
R07
SET - 1
II B.Tech II Semester, Supplementary Examinations, April - 2012 POWER SYSTEMS-I (Electrical and Electronics Engineering) Time: 3 hours Answer any FIVE Questions All Questions carry Equal Marks
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Max Marks: 80
1.
a) What are the factors to be considered for selection of the static for a thermal power station? b) A steam power station has an overall efficiency of 20% and 0.6Kg of coal is burnt per KWh of electrical energy generated. Calculate the calorific value of fuel. a) What are the methods of producing nuclear reaction? What is chain reaction? b) Explain the working of a Gas turbine plant with a schematic diagram? a) How are distributions systems classified? b) Discuss the relative merits and demerits of underground and overhead systems. a) Describe briefly how you will solve AC distribution problems. b) A single phase distributor one km long has resistance and reactance per conductor of 0.1 ohm and 0.15 ohm respectively. At the far end, the voltage VB=200V and the current is 100 A at a p.f of 0.8lagging. At the mid-point M of the distributor, a current of 100 A is tapped at a p.f. of 0.6 lagging with reference to the voltage VM at the mid-point . Calculate i) voltage at mid-point ii) sending end voltage VA a).What is sub-station? Name the factors that should be taken care of while designing and erecting a substation. b) State the advantages of out-door sub-stations over in-door sub-stations. a) Explain the causes of low power factor of the supply system? b) Discuss the importance of voltage control in the modern power system. a) What do you understand by the load curve? What informations are conveyed by a load curve? b) A generating station has a connected load of 43MW and a maximum demand of 20MW. The unit generated being 615x106 per annum. Calculate (i) demand factor (ii) load factor. Write short notes on a) Simple tariff b) Flat rate tariff c) Three part tariff 1 of 1
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Code No: T0221
R07
SET - 2
**************
Max Marks: 80
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Briefly describe the main parts and the working of a steam power station with a neat sketch. Draw the schematic diagram of a nuclear power station and discuss its operation. a) Derive an expression for the voltage drop for a uniformly loaded distributor fed at one end. b) How does AC distribution differs from D.C distribution. a) What is the importance of load power factors in AC distribution system? b) A 500 m long single-phase A.C. distributor has a total impedance of (0.02+j0.04) ohm and is fed from one end at 240V. It is loaded as follows: 50A at unity power factor, 200m from feeding point; 100A at 0.8 p.f. lagging, 300m from feeding point; 50A at 0.06 p.f. lagging at the far end. Calculate: i) Total voltage drop ii) Voltage at the far end. a) Discuss the different types of gas insulated sub-stations. b) What are the considerations for the selection of site for an out-door sub-station. a) Discuss the disadvantages of a low power factor? b) What are the various methods of voltage control in a power system? Define and explain importance of the following a) Connected load b) Maximum load c) Demand factor a) Describe the desirable characte5ristics of a tariff? b) What is mean by power factor tariff? What are its types?
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1 of 1
Code No: T0221
R07
SET - 3
**************
Max Marks: 80
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a) What are the advantages and disadvantages of a thermal power station? b) How the coal is utilized in power generation? Describe how it is handled starting from delivery of coal to final combustion stage. a) Discuss the advantages and disadvantages of Nuclear power station b) What are factors to be considered for the selection of site of a nuclear power station? a) State the main types of distribution systems used and compare their applications. b) What are the requirement s of a distribution system. a) Draw the phasor diagram of AC distributor power factor with respect to receiving end. b) A single phase AC distributor AB 300 meters long is fed from end A and is loaded as under: i) 100A at 0.707 p.f. lagging 200 m from point A ii) 200A at 0.8 p.f. lagging 300 m from point A iii) The load resistance and reactance of the distributor is 0.2 ohm and 0.1 ohm per kilometer. Calculate the total voltage drop in the distributor. The load power factors refer to the voltage at the far end. a) Give the comparison of out-door sub-stations and in-door sub-stations. b) What ate advantages of Gas insulated sub-stations? a) Discuss the various methods for power factor improvement? b) Explain with a neat sketch on-load tap changing transformer. Explain briefly a) Load duration curve b) Load curve c) Plant use factor. Describe some of the important types of tariffs commonly used?
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6.
7.
8.
1 of 1
Code No: T0221
R07
SET - 4
**************
Max Marks: 80
1. a) What are the functions of economizer and super heater in a thermal power plant? b) A thermal power stations ha the following data: Max. Demand =20,000KW : Load factor =40% Boiler efficiency=85% : Turbine efficiency =90% Coal consumption=0.9Kg/KWh : Cost of 1 ton of coal=Rs.300 Determine i) thermal efficiency and ii) coal bill per annum. 2. What are the basic components of nuclear reactor? Explain the function of each component.
3. a) Give the comparison between over head system and underground system. b) Write short notes on Ring main distributer. 4. a) What is the method of calculations in A.C. distribution? b) A single phase distributor 2kilometers long supplies a load of 120 A at 0.8 p.f. lagging at its far end and a load of 80 A at 0.9 p.f. lagging at its mid-point. Both power factors are referred to the voltage at the far end. The resistance and reactance per Km (go and return) are 0.05ohm and 0.1 ohm respectively. If the voltage at the far end is maintained at 230V, calculate the voltage at sending end. 5. What are the different types of bus-bar arrangements used in sub-stations? Illustrate your answer with suitable diagram. 6. a) Derive an expression for the most economized value of power factor which may be attained by a consumer. b) Explain the purpose of Booste5r transformer? What are its limitations? 7. Define the following a) Diversity factor
b) Utilization factor
c) Load factor.
8. a) What do you understand by tariff? Discuss the objectives of tariff. b) What is mean by two-part tariff? What are the advantages and disadvantages of twopart tariff?
1 of 1
Code No: V0401/R05
Set No. 1
II B.Tech II Semester Supplementary Examinations, Apr/May 2012 ELECTRICAL TECHNOLOGY ( Common to Electronics & Communication Engineering and Electronics & Telematics) Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 80 Answer any FIVE Questions All Questions carry equal marks 1. (a) Discuss the process of self- excitation in a DC machine. What conditions must be fullled for the machine to self-excite? (b) A shunt generator has a F.L. current of 196A at 220V.The stray losses are 720W and the shunt eld coil resistance is 55 .If it has a F.L. eciency of 88%, Find the armature resistance. Also, nd the load current corresponding to maximum eciency. [8+8] 2. (a) What are the functions of no-volt release and overload release in a starter? Discuss the operation of these two features in a shunt motor starter. (b) A DC series motor of resistance 1.5 runs at 750rpm.at 220V with a current of 20A. Find the speed at which it will run when connected in series with a 4.5 resistance and taking the same current. [10+6] 3. With neat diagram discuss the principle of working of a transformer. [16]
4. (a) What parameters of the equivalent circuit of a transformer can be determined from opencircuit and short circuit tests Explain. (b) A 10 KVA 2500/250 Volts single phase transformer gave the following test results Open circuit test : 250 V, 0.8 A, 50 W Short circuit test: 60V 3A 45 W Calculate the eciency and voltage regulation at full load 0.8 power factor lag. [8+8] 5. (a) Explain the principle of 3-phase Induction Motor with the help of rotating magnetic eld. (b) A 3-phase, 6-pole alternator is coupled to an engine running at 1200 r.p.m. The alternator supplies an Induction Motor which has a full-load speed of 1164 r.p.m. Find the slip and number of poles of the motor. [10+6] 6. (a) Derive EMF equation of an alternator. Also derive expressions for pitch and breadth factor. (b) The stator of 3-phase, 8-pole synchronous generator driven at 750 rpm has 72 slots. The winding has been made with 36 coils having 10 turns per coil. Claculate the rms value of induced emf per phase if the ux per pole is 0.15 mwb, sinusoidally distributed. Assume that full-pitch coils have been used. [10+6] 1 of 2
Code No: V0401/R05
Set No. 1
[16]
7. Explain the constructional features and principle operation of a single phase induction motor. [16] 8. Explain the following with reference to the indicating instruments (a) Deecting torque (b) Controlling torque (c) Damping torque (d) Scale and pointer
2 of 2
Code No: V0401/R05
Set No. 2
II B.Tech II Semester Supplementary Examinations, Apr/May 2012 ELECTRICAL TECHNOLOGY ( Common to Electronics & Communication Engineering and Electronics & Telematics) Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 80 Answer any FIVE Questions All Questions carry equal marks 1. (a) Enumerate the various losses and methods to minimize them in a D.C. Machine. (b) A 100KW, 500V shunt generator is running as a motor on no load at its rated voltage and speed. The total current taken is 9.5A, including a shunt eld current of 2.5A. The resistance of the armature circuit at normal working temperature is 0.1. Calculate the eciency of the generator at full load and at half full load. [6+10] 2. (a) Explain the various losses occurring in a DC machine. (b) Derive the conditions for maximum eciency of a DC motor. (c) A 250V, 4 pole, shunt motor has two circuit armature winding with 500 conductors. The armature circuit resistance is 0.25 , eld resistance is 125 and the ux per pole is 0.02Wb. Armature reaction is neglected. If the motor draws 14A from the mains, then compute i. speed and the internal torque developed. ii. The shaft power, shaft torque and eciency with rotational losses equals to 300W. [4+4+8] 3. With a neat diagram explain the constructional details of a transformer [16]
4. (a) Out line the tests that can be conducted on a transformer to obtain losses for the calculation of eciency. (b) A 5 KVA 2000/250 Volts single phase transformer gave the following test results: Open circuit test : 250 V, 0.8 A, 50 W Short circuit test: 60V 3A 45 W Calculate eciency at full load and half full load 0.8 power factor lag. [8+8] 5. (a) Explain the constructional features of a 3-phase slip ring and squirrel cage Induction Motors. Bring out the merits and demerits of each. (b) A 3-phase star connected Induction motor has 55V across its slip rings on open circuit when normal stator voltage is applied. The rotor is star connected and has impedance (0.7+j5) per phase. Find the rotor current when the machine is i. at stand still with the slip rings connected to a star connected starter with a phase impedance of (5+j4) and 1 of 2
Code No: V0401/R05 ii. running normally with 4% slip.
Set No. 2
[10+6]
6. (a) Briey explain the signicance of pitch factor and distribution factor. Develop the Voltage equation for a 3-phase alternator having fractional pitch and distributed winding. (b) Find the number of armature conductors in series per phase required for the armature of a 3-phase, 10-pole, 50Hz, synchronous generator with 90 slots. The winding is to be star-connected so as to have line voltage of 11 KV. The ux per pole is 0.16 Wb. [10+6] 7. Explain the constructional features and principle operation of a single phase induction motor. [16] 8. Explain the following with reference to the indicating instruments (a) Deecting torque (b) Controlling torque (c) Damping torque (d) Scale and pointer [16]
2 of 2
Code No: V0401/R05
Set No. 3
II B.Tech II Semester Supplementary Examinations, Apr/May 2012 ELECTRICAL TECHNOLOGY ( Common to Electronics & Communication Engineering and Electronics & Telematics) Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 80 Answer any FIVE Questions All Questions carry equal marks 1. (a) A Series generator, having external characteristics which are straight line through zero to 50V at 200A is connected as a booster between a station bus-bar and a feeder of 0.3 resistance. Calculate the voltage between the far end of the feeder and the bus-bar at a current of i. 160A ii. 50A. (b) A Shunt generator delivers 50kW at 250V and 400rpm. The armature and eld resistances are 0.02 and 50 respectively. Calculate the speed of the machine when running as a shunt motor and taking 50kW input at 250V. Allow 1V per brush for contact drop. [6+10] 2. (a) Sketch the 3-point starter used to start D.C. shunt motor and explain the function of no-volt coin and overload coil? (b) A 4 pole DC Series motor has 944 wave connected armature conductors. At a certain load the ux per pole is 34.6 mWb and the total mechanical torque developed is 209Nm. Calculate the line current taken by the motor and the speed at which it will run with an applied voltage of 500V. The total motor resistance is 3 [10+6] 3. With a neat diagram explain the constructional details of a transformer [16]
4. (a) Draw the equivalent circuit of a transformer and explain the procedure to obtain the same from opencircuit and short circuit tests . (b) A 10 KVA 2000/250 Volts single phase transformer gave the following test results Open circuit test : 250 V, 0.8 A, 50 W Short circuit test: 60V 3A 45 W Calculate the eciency and voltage regulation at full load 0.8 power factor lag. [8+8] 5. (a) Sketch and explain the shape of the Torque-Slip characteristic of a squirrel cage Induction motor and deduce the condition for maximum torque. (b) Draw the internal connections of star-delta starter and explain its operation. [8+8] 6. (a) Briey explain the signicance of pitch factor and distribution factor. Develop the Voltage equation for a 3-phase alternator having fractional pitch and distributed winding. 1 of 2
Code No: V0401/R05
Set No. 3
(b) Find the number of armature conductors in series per phase required for the armature of a 3-phase, 10-pole, 50Hz, synchronous generator with 90 slots. The winding is to be star-connected so as to have line voltage of 11 KV. The ux per pole is 0.16 Wb. [10+6] 7. Explain with neat diagrams the following types of single phase induction motors (a) split phase induction motor (b) Capacitor start induction motor. [8+8]
8. Explain with neat sketch the principle of operation of permanent magnet type moving coil instrument [16]
2 of 2
Code No: V0401/R05
Set No. 4
II B.Tech II Semester Supplementary Examinations, Apr/May 2012 ELECTRICAL TECHNOLOGY ( Common to Electronics & Communication Engineering and Electronics & Telematics) Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 80 Answer any FIVE Questions All Questions carry equal marks 1. (a) What purpose is served by the pole shoe in a D.C. machine? (b) What are the advantages and disadvantages of carbon brushes? (c) Why do we use slotted armature in a D.C. machine? (d) Why is armature winding placed on the rotor of a D.C. machine? [4+4+4+4] 2. (a) Give the reasons for the following: i. ii. iii. iv. A Series motor should not be connected to a load through a belt. A Series motor develops a high starting torque. A dierential compound motor is very rarely used. A shunt motor runs at almost constant speed irrespective of load current. [4+4+4+4]
3. (a) Explain the principle of operation of a transformer. (b) Derive an expression for voltage per turn of a transformer. [8+8]
4. What are the dierent losses occuring in a transformer on load. How can these losses be determined experimentallty. [16] 5. (a) Derive the expression for Torque-Slip characteristics of a 3-phase Induction Motor. Explain how the torque of Induction Motor varies with speed with the help of a diagram. (b) Deduce the condition for maximum torque of a 3-phase Induction Motor. (c) A 12-pole, 3-phase Induction Motor is fed from 50Hz supply. If the frequency of rotor e.m.f at Half full-load is 2 Hz, nd the Half Full-load speed and %Slip. [8+4+4] 6. (a) Explain the constructional features of alternator. (b) How e.m.f is induced in an 3-phase alternator? Derive the expression for e.m.f induced in an alternator in terms of pitch and distribution factors. [8+8] 7. Explain the constructional features and principle operation of a single phase induction motor. [16] 8. With a neat sketch explain in detail moving iron attraction type instrument [16] 1 of 1
Code No: V0101/R05
Set No. 1
II B.Tech II Semester Supplementary Examinations, Apr/May 2012 PROBABILITY AND STATISTICS ( Common to Civil Engineering, Mechanical Engineering, Chemical Engineering, Mechatronics, Production Engineering, Bio-Technology and Automobile Engineering) Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 80 Answer any FIVE Questions All Questions carry equal marks
1. (a) State and prove Bayes theorem (b) In a certain college 25% of boys and 10% of girls are studying mathematics. The girls constitute 60% of the students. If a student is selected at random and is found to be studying mathematics, nd the probability that the student is a i. girl ii. boy 2. (a) If X is a continuous random variable with distribution. 1 x+k if 0 x 3 6 f (x) = 0 elsewhere determine i. the value of k ii. the mean iii. P(1 x 2) (b) Derive the formula to nd the mean and variance of Binomial distribution [8+8] 3. (a) 2% of the items of a factory are defective. The items are packed in boxes. What is the probability that there will be i. 2 defective items ii. at least three defective items (b) The marks obtained in statistics in a certain examination found to be normally distributed. If 15% of the marks of the students 60, 40% < 30% marks, nd the mean and standard deviation. [8+8] 4. A population consists of ve numbers 2,3,6,8,11. Consider all possible samples of size two which can be drown without replacement from the population. Find (a) The mean of the population (b) Standard deviation of the population. (c) The mean of the sampling distribution of means [8+8]
1 of 2
Code No: V0101/R05
Set No. 1
[4+4+4+4]
(d) The standard deviation of the sampling distribution of means.
5. (a) In a study of an automobile insurance a random sample of 80 body repair costs had a mean of Rs. 472.35 and a standard deviation of Rs 62.35. If x is used as a point estimate to the true average repair costs, with what condence we can assert that the maximum error doesnt exceed Rs.10. Find also the condence interval with that condence. (b) A manufacturer of electric bulbs claims that the percentage defectives in his product doesnt exceed 6. A sample of 40 bulbs is found to contain 5 defectives. Would you consider the claim justied? [8+8] 6. (a) To examine the hypothesis that the husbands are more intelligent than the wives, an investigator took a sample of 10 couples and administered them a test which measures the IQ as follows: Test the hypothesis with a reasonable test at the level of signicance of 0.05? Husbands: 117 105 97 105 123 109 86 78 103 107 Wives 106 98 87 104 116 95 90 69 108 85 (b) In an investigation on the machine performance the following results were obtained: No.of Units inspected No. of defectives Machine 1 375 17 Machine 2 450 22 Test whether there is any signicant performance of two machines at =0.05 [8+8] 7. (a) Find the most possible values of x and y from the following equations x 5y + 4 = 0, x + 2y 3 = 0 , 2x 3y + 5 = 0 4x + 3y + 1 = 0 [8+8]
(b) Fit a curve of the form y = aebx for the following data x y 1 2 3 4 5 6 1.6 4.5 13.8 40.2 125 300
8. The following are the data on the number of twists required to break a certain kind of forged alloy bar and the percentage of two alloying elements present in the metal. Fit at least sequence regression line on x1 and x2 . [16] No. of tuirists (y) 41 49 69 65 40 50 58 57 31 36 44 57 19 31 33 43 % of elements of A (x1 ) 1 2 3 4 1 2 3 4 1 2 3 4 1 2 3 4 % of elements of B (x2 ) 5 5 5 5 10 10 10 10 15 15 15 15 20 20 20 20
2 of 2
Code No: V0101/R05
Set No. 2
1. (a) The probabilities that students A,B,C,D solve a problem are 1/3, 2/5, 1/5 and 1/4 respectively. If all of them try to solve the problem, what is the probability that the problem is solved. (b) In a bolt factory machines A,B,C manufacture 20%, 30% and 50% of the total of their output and 6%, 3% and 2% are defective. A bolt is drawn at random and found to be defective. Find the probabilities that it is manufactured from i. Machine A ii. Machine B iii. Machine C 2. (a) If F(x) is the distribution function of X given by F (x) = 0 if x 1 4 = k (x D ) if 1 < x 3 =1 if x>3 determine i. f(x) ii. k iii. Mean (b) Find the maximum n such that the probability of getting no head in tossing a coin n times is greater than .1 [8+8] 3. (a) Suppose 2% of the people on the average are left handed. Find i. the probability of nding 3 or more left handed ii. the probability of nding 1 left handed. (b) The mean and standard deviation of a normal variate are 8 and 4 respectively nd i. P(5 x 10) ii. P(x 5) [8+8]
[8+8]
4. Sample of size 2 are taken from the population 1,2,3,4,5,6 without replacement Find (a) The mean of the population. (b) The standard deviation of the population. 1 of 2
Code No: V0101/R05 (c) The mean of sampling distribution of means.
Set No. 2
[44]
(d) The standard deviation of sampling distribution of means.
5. (a) Experiences had shown that 20% of a manufactured product is of the top quality. In one days production of 400 articles only 50 are of top quality. Test the hypothesis at .05 level. (b) If the mean breaking strength of copper wire is 505 lbs with a standard deviation of 15 lbs. The sample is 49 construct 95% condence interval for the mean. (c) If the standard deviation of a sample is 20 and the maximum error with 99% condence is 1.72. How large the sample might be? [5+5+6] 6. (a) To examine the hypothesis that the husbands are more intelligent than the wives, an investigator took a sample of 10 couples and administered them a test which measures the IQ as follows: Test the hypothesis with a reasonable test at the level of signicance of 0.05? Husbands: 117 105 97 105 123 109 86 78 103 107 Wives 106 98 87 104 116 95 90 69 108 85 (b) In an investigation on the machine performance the following results were obtained: No.of Units inspected No. of defectives Machine 1 375 17 Machine 2 450 22 Test whether there is any signicant performance of two machines at =0.05 [8+8] 7. (a) Derive normal equations to t y = axb (b) Fit a parabola of the form y = a + bx + cx2 for the following data x y 2 4 6 8 10 3.07 12.85 31.47 57.38 91.29 [6+10]
8. Calculate the coecient of correlation and the two lines of regression for the following data. [16] X 1 2 3 Y 9 8 10 4 5 6 7 8 9 12 11 13 14 16 15
2 of 2
Code No: V0101/R05
Set No. 3
1. (a) Two dice are thrown. Let A be the event that the sum of the points on face is 9. Let B be the event that at least one number is 6. Find the probability. i. P (A B ) ii. P (A B ) iii. P (A B c ) (b) Let X,Y,Z be three coins in a box. Suppose X is a fair coin. Y is two headed, and Z is weighted so that the probability of heads is 1/3. A coin is selected at random and is tossed. i. If head appears, nd the probability that it is fair. ii. If tail appears, nd the probability that it is the coin Z. [8+8]
2. (a) Calculate expectation and variance of x, if the probability distribution of the random variable x is given by X f -1 0 1 2 3 0.3 0.1 0.1 0.3 0.2
(b) The probability of a man hitting a target is 1/3. i. If he res 5 times, what is the probability of his hitting the target at least twice ii. How many times must he re so that the probability of his hitting the target at least once is more than 90%. [8+8] 3. (a) Using recurrence formula nd the probabilities when x=0, 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 If the mean of Poisson distribution is 3. (b) If the masses of 300 students are normally distributed with mean 68 kgs and standard deviation 3 kgs how many students have masses. i. Greater then 72 kg ii. Less than or equal to 64 kg iii. Between 65 and 71 kg inclusive 4. If the population is 3,6,9,15,27. (a) List all possible samples of size 3 that can be taken without replacement from the nite population. 1 of 2
[8+8]
Code No: V0101/R05
Set No. 3
[5+5+6]
(b) Calculate the mean of each of the sampling distribution of means. (c) Find the standard deviation of sampling distribution of means.
5. (a) A sample of 400 items is taken from a population whose standard deviation is 10. The mean of the sample is 40. Test whether the sample has come from a population with mean 38. Also calculate 95% condence interval for the proportion. (b) A social worker believes that greater than 25% of the couples in a certain area are ever used any form of birth control. A random sample of 120 couples was contacted. Twenty of them said that they have used. Test the belief if social worker at 0.05 level. [8+8] 6. The following are the average weekly losses of worker hours due to accidents in 10 industrial plants before and after a certain safety programme was put into operation: Before: 45 73 46 124 33 57 83 34 26 17 After: 36 60 44 119 35 51 77 29 24 11 Test whether the safety programme is eective in reducing the number of accidents at the level of signicance of 0.05? [16] 7. Fit a parabola of the form y = a + bx + cx2 for the following data by the method of least squares [16] x 20 40 60 80 100 120 y 5.5 9.1 14.9 22.8 33.3 46
8. Observations on price x and supply y the following data was obtained. x = 130, Find (a) coecient of correlation (b) The line of regression of y or x (c) The standard error of estimate. [6+5+6] y = 220, x2 = 2288, y 2 = 5506 and xy = 3467
2 of 2
Code No: V0101/R05
Set No. 4
1. (a) There are 12 cards numbered 1 to 12 in a box. If two cards are selected what is the probability that the sum in odd i. With replacement ii. Without replacement (b) Suppose colored balls are distributed in three indistinguishable boxes as follows: Box-I Box-II Red 2 4 White 3 1 Blue 5 3 Box-III 3 4 3
A box is selected at random from which a ball is selected at a random. What is the probability that the ball is colored (a) red (b) blue 2. (a) If F(x) is the distribution function of X given by F (x) = 0 if x 1 = k (x D)4 if 1 < x 3 =1 if x>3 determine i. f(x) ii. k iii. Mean (b) Find the maximum n such that the probability of getting no head in tossing a coin n times is greater than .1 [8+8] 3. (a) The mean diameter is 12 mm and standard deviation 0.02 mm in a sample of 200 washers produced by a machine. Find the percentage of washers produced whose diameters lie i. within 11.97 to 12.03 mm ii. outside 12.03 mm 1 of 2 [6+10]
Code No: V0101/R05
Set No. 4
(b) Suppose the heights of American men are normally distributed with mean=68 inches and standard deviation 2.5 inches. Find the percentage of people whose heights lie between i. 66 inches and 71 inches ii. atleast 6ft. [8+8]
4. A population consists of 5,10,14,18,13,24 consider all possible samples of size two which can be drawn without replacement from the population. Find (a) The mean of the population. (b) The standard deviation of the population. (c) The mean of the sampling distribution of means (d) The standard deviation of sampling distribution of means. [44]
5. (a) A sample of size 64 and mean 60 was taken from a population whose standard deviation is 10. Find 95% condence interval for the mean. (b) Experience has shown that 10% of a manufactured product is of top quality. What can you say about the maximum error with 95% condence for 100 items (c) A coin is tossed 512 times. Head turned up 244 times. Can you say that the coin is unbiased. [5+5+6] 6. From the following data nd whether there is any signicant liking in the habit of taking soft drinks among the categories of employees. [16] Soft drinks Pepsi Thumsup Fanta Clerks 10 15 50 Employees Teachers Ocers 25 65 30 65 60 30
7. (a) Derive normal equations to t the curve of the form y = a + bx2 (b) Fit a curve of the form y = a + bx for the following data and nd y when x = 12 [6+10] x 1 2 3 y 9 8 10 4 5 6 7 8 9 12 11 13 14 16 15
8. Find the least squares regression equation of X1 on X2 and X3 from the following data. [16] X1 X2 X3 3 5 6 8 16 10 7 4 90 72 54 42 12 14 3 2 30 14
2 of 2
Code No: V0501/R05
Set No. 1
II B.Tech II Semester Supplementary Examinations, Apr/May 2012 SOFTWARE ENGINEERING ( Common to Computer Science & Engineering, Information Technology and Computer Science & Systems Engineering) Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 80 Answer any FIVE Questions All Questions carry equal marks 1. Discuss the key challenges facing the software Engineering. 2. (a) What is non-functional requirements? Give examples for it. (b) Explain the matrices for specifying non-functional requirements. 3. (a) Discuss how feasibility studies is conducted. (b) Why requirements elicitation and analysis is a dicult process? [8+8] [8+8] [16]
4. (a) Discuss the statement, Not every software quality attribute is weighted equally as the software design is developed. (b) Explain the general task set for design. [8+8]
5. Consider the interactive application of Library Management system and develop a design model, a user model, a system image, and a system perception in the user interface modeling. [16] 6. (a) What is CK metrics suite? State and explain the six class-based design metrics for Object-Oriented systems. (b) Discuss the MOOD metrics suit. [10+6]
7. (a) What is the dierence between private and public uses for software metrics? (b) Discuss the guidelines which should be applied when we collect software metrics. [8+8] 8. (a) What is SQA plan? (b) Some people argue that an FTR should asses programming style as well as correctness. Is this a good idea? Why? [8+8]
1 of 1
Code No: V0501/R05
Set No. 2
II B.Tech II Semester Supplementary Examinations, Apr/May 2012 SOFTWARE ENGINEERING ( Common to Computer Science & Engineering, Information Technology and Computer Science & Systems Engineering) Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 80 Answer any FIVE Questions All Questions carry equal marks 1. (a) Explain various classes of software. (b) Dene Software. Why it does not wear out? [6+10]
2. Discuss the use of fourth generation techniques ( 4GT) for software development. [16] 3. Discuss the statement, Software system requirements may be derived or constrained by social and organizational context. [16] 4. (a) Discuss various top-down design strategies. (b) Explain about renement. Why always stepwise renement is preferred? [10+6+4] 5. What are the dierent static and dynamic models that UML provides to document the design? Discuss them clearly with suitable examples. [16] 6. (a) The software analysis and design are constructive tasks, and software testing is considered to be destructive from the point of view of developer. Discuss. (b) Who will test the software, either developer or an independent test group? Discuss the advantage and draw backs of each one. [8+8] 7. (a) Present an argument against lines of code as a measure for software productivity. Will your case hold up when dozens or hundreds of projects are considered? (b) The software used to control a photocopier requires 32,000 lines of C and 4200 lines of Small talk. Estimate the number of function points for the software inside the copier. [8+8] 8. (a) Explain about Sample-Driven reviews. (b) What is statistical SQA? What steps are required to perform it? [8+8]
1 of 1
Code No: V0501/R05
Set No. 3
II B.Tech II Semester Supplementary Examinations, Apr/May 2012 SOFTWARE ENGINEERING ( Common to Computer Science & Engineering, Information Technology and Computer Science & Systems Engineering) Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 80 Answer any FIVE Questions All Questions carry equal marks 1. Suggest two application domains where SEI Capability model is unlikely to be appropriate. Give reasons why this is the case. [16] 2. Recommend the life cycle model (waterfall or evolutionary) for the following software systems. (a) Enterprise Software (b) Management Information Systems. [8+8]
3. What is a behavioural model? Discuss various types of behavioural models with examples for each. [4+12] 4. (a) Explain about data ow and layered architectures. Dierentiate between them. (b) Discuss the criteria used to assess an architectural design. [6+2+8]
5. State and explain with an example the various methods to identify object classes. [16] 6. (a) What questions do black-box tests answer? (b) What is meant by BVA? Discuss the guidelines to create BVA test cases. (c) Discuss about software tools for test case design. 7. (a) With a sample risk information sheet, explain the RMMM plan. (b) Discuss about software tools for risk management. 8. (a) What is SQA plan? (b) Some people argue that an FTR should asses programming style as well as correctness. Is this a good idea? Why? [8+8] [10+6] [5+5+6]
1 of 1
Code No: V0501/R05
Set No. 4
II B.Tech II Semester Supplementary Examinations, Apr/May 2012 SOFTWARE ENGINEERING ( Common to Computer Science & Engineering, Information Technology and Computer Science & Systems Engineering) Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 80 Answer any FIVE Questions All Questions carry equal marks 1. Discuss about software process assessment in detail. [16]
2. Recommend the life cycle model( waterfall or evolutionary ) for the following software systems. a) Customer relations management b) Supply chain management. [8+8] 3. Discuss the statement, Ethnographic studies can reveal critical process details which are often missed by other requirement elicitation techniques. [16] 4. (a) Discuss various top-down design strategies. (b) Explain about renement. Why always stepwise renement is preferred? [10+6+4] 5. What is meant by OOD? Explain various stages in OOD? [16]
6. (a) What is meant by software quality? Discuss clearly the McCalls software quality factors. (b) Discuss about ISO 9126 Quality factors. [10+6]
7. (a) Compute the function point value for a project with the following information domain characteristics. Number of external inputs: 32 Number of external outputs: 60 Number of external inquires: 24 Number of external interface les: 2 Number of internal logical les: 8 Assume that all complexity adjustment values are average. (b) What is an indirect measure? And how are such measures common in software metrics work? [8+8] 8. (a) Discuss the role of an SQA group. (b) Distinguish among bug, error, and defect. [10+6]
1 of 1

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Code No: C9901/RR

Code No: C9901/RR

Is the claim justied with the level of signicance of 0.05?

Code No: R22043

Code No: R22043 6.

Code No: R22043

Code No: R22043 5.

Compute the values of hybrid- parameters at room temperature.

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Code No: R22031

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Code No: R22031 4.

ends and carrying a central load, W, is given by =

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Code No: R22121

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Code No: R22025

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VBn = 100 120

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Code No: R22051

Code No: R22051

Explain in detail with a suitable example the Object-Oriented design process.

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Code No: R22011

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Code No: V0521

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Code No: V0421

Fig. 1.1. A square waveform with a DC shift.

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Code No: V0121

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