51. What modulation technique is used in WCDMA in downlink? a. BPSK b. QPSK c. 8PSK d.

GMSK

52.How long is the scrambling code? a. 3840 ms b. 3.84 ms c. 10 ms d. 80 ms

53. What Power Control loop adjusts the SIR target? a. Inner loop b. Outer loop c. Open loop d. Pilot loop 54. How many primary scrambling codes are used in WCDMA? a. 15 b. 16 c. 64 d. 512 55. What is the chip rate in WCDMA? a. 4.096 Mchip/s b. 3.84 Mchip/s c. 1.228 Mchip/s d. 3.68 Mchip/s 56. which are the duplexing techniques we use in UMTS. a. FDD and TDD b. OFDMA c. SIMPLEX d. None of the above 57.HSDPA was added in which release. a. REL 5 b. REL 6 c. REL 7 d. REL 8 58. what is the multiple access technique used for UMTS air interface. a. WCDMA

b. TDMA c. OFDMA d. FDD

59. what is the bandwidth of frequency used in UMTS. a. 2 Mhz b. 5 Mhz c. 200 Khz d. 100 Khz

60. Processing gain will be more for a. 12.2 Kbps b. 384 kbps c. 60 Kbps d. 120 Kbps 61.HSUPA was added in which release. a. Rel 6 b. Rel 5 c. Rel 7 d. Rel 8 62. what is the maximum data rate that can be achieved in HSDPA and HSUPA. a. 14.4 Mbps and 5.76 Mbps b. 14.4 Mbps and 17.4 Mbps c. 14.4 Mbps and 11.3 Mbps d. 14.4 Mbps and 13.0 Mbps

63. which power control technique is used at the time of initial access of network. a. Open loop power control b. Fast closed loop power control c. Outer loop power control d. None of the above 64. what is the frequency of power control in GSM and UMTS. a. 2 Hz and 1500 Hz b. 100 Hz and 1500 Hz c. 200 Hz and 1500 Hz d. 300 Hz and 1500 Hz

65. what is the worst CPICH RSCP level. a. -130 dbm

b. -120 dbm c. -115 dbm d. -110 dbm 66. which CPICH Ec/Io is best. a. -16 db b. -10 db c. -8 db d. -9 db

67. IS-95 is based on ____________. a. FDMA b. CDMA c. DSSS d. All of the above 68. Which information format is used to send power control information in WCDMA a. PTC b. TPC c. Slot d. Frame

69. What is duration of one TTI in WCDMA Rel 99 frame structure a. 2ms b. 10 ms c . 5 ms d.15 ms

70. How many slots in 1 Frame in WDCMA ? a. 15 slots b. 10 slots c. 5 slots d. 1 slots

71. How many chips in one slot in WCDMA? a. 38400 chips b. 3.84*10^6 chips c. 2560 chips d. 25600 chips

72. How may chips in one Frame in WCDMA? a. 38400 chips b. 3.84*10^6 chips

c. 2560 chips d. 25600 chips

73. Which functional entities in RNC is used to accept or reject any call in WCDMA? a. Admission control b. Packet scheduler b. Handover control d. Resource manager

74. Scrambling code is used in WCDMA to make difference between a. User in downlink and cell in uplink b. Cell in downlink and user in uplink c. Identity of transmitters and receivers d. channels separation in downlink under one cell and in uplink channels from single user

75. Channelization code is used in WCDMA to make difference between; a. User in downlink and cell in uplink b. Cell in downlink and user in uplink c. Identity of transmitters and receivers d. channels separation in downlink under one cell and in uplink channels from single user 76. Outer loop power control algorithm works on target a. BLER b. FER c. SINR d. SNR 77. Which functional entity in RNC is used to allocate uplink scrambling and downlink channelization code a. Resource Manager b. Admission control c. Handover control d. Packet scheduler

78. Which modulation technique we are using in Rel 5 HSDPA? a. 16QAM b. Qpsk c. BPSK d. Both a & b 79. Channelizaion codes are a. orthogonal code b. Gold code

c. Silver code d. Non-orthogonal code

80. What is duration of 1 chip in WCDMA? a. 0.667 micro second b. 0.26 micro second c. 0.56 micro second d. 1.2 micro second

81. _______ combines multi-path components by coherent combining of multi-path components belonging to the respective user a. Ampere Receiver b. Rake Receiver c. Gaussian Receiver d. Marconi Receiver

82. In WCDMA Capacity allocated on a needs basis using best effort approach , which services have highest priority? a. RT service b. NRT service c. Streaming service d. Each having equal priority only FIFO method applied

83. Connection specific power allocation (i.e Initial, maximum and minimum power) is handle by a. Power Control b. Admission control c. Handover control d. Packet scheduler

84. Interference margin(IM) and Load(n) is related as a. IM=-10log(1-n) b. n=-10log(1-IM) c. IM=-20log(1-n)^2 d. IM=-10log(1-n) ^2

85. An incident ray can be defined as : a. a light ray reflected from a flat surface b. a light ray directed toward a surface c. a diffused light ray d. a light ray that happens periodically 86.The term dispersion the process of

a. separating light into its component frequencies b. reflecting light from a smooth surface c. the process by which light is absorbed by an uneven rough surface d. light scattering

87. The cladding which surrounds the fibre core a. is used to reduce ihe optical interference b. is used to protect the fibre c. acts to help guide the light in the core d. ensure that the refractive index remains constant

88. The term singlemode and multimode are best described as a. the number of fibers placed into a fibre-optic cable b. the number of voice channels each fiber can support c. the number of wavelengths each fiber can support d. the index number

89. Flemings left hand rule is used to find a. Direction of force on a current carrying conductor b. direction of flux in solenoid c. direction of magnetic field due to a current carrying conductor d. direction of induced emf

90 . At room temperature, the current in an intrinsic semiconductor is due to a. valence electrons b. holes c. electrons d. B and C

91. Resistor with color bands Red, Violet, Green and Black will have a value a. b. c. d. 27 K +- 10% K 2.7 M +- 20% K 2.7 M +- 5% K 27 K +- 15% K

92. A resistor is rated at 0.75 watt, 1k Ohm. Its current rating is a. b. c. d. 1 mA 27.386 mA 1.268 mA 5.393 mA

93. The correct relation between energy and voltage is a. b. c. d. energy = - voltage/ distance charge = energy x voltage energy = voltage (charge)0.5 energy = voltage/ distance

94. The most widely used LC oscillator is a. b. c. d. Hartley oscillator Crystal oscillator Colpitts oscillator Clapps oscillator

95. Why is channel coding done a. To secure data b. To maintain integrity of data c. Effective trans mission of data d. all of above 96. Advantages of digital over analog signal: a. Noise immunity b. Data security and integrity c. Efficient transmission d. all of the above 97. Min sampling freq for 20-20kHz analog signal is a. 20khz b. 40khz c. 44.1khz d. 20hz 98. Duplexer is used to a. couple two antennas to a transmitter without interference b. isolate the antenna from the local oscillator c. prevent interference between two antennas connected to a receiver d. use for reception or transmission without interference 99. Radio FM is used for a.LF b.HF c.VHF d.UHF 100. In demodulation of PCM it is first converted to a.PPM b.PWM c.PAM d.None 101. Digital signal is called a discrete signal because a. It is discrete in amplitude b. It is discrete in time c. It is discrete in amplitude and time d. It is discrete in phase.

102. Which of the following is digital modulation a. PAM b. PFM c. PPM d. QAM

103. Time division multiplexing can be done for a. analog signal b. Both analog and digital signal c. Digital signal d. Amplitude modulated signal

104.What is true about pair cable and coaxial cable a. Twisted pair cable is balanced and co-axial cable is unbalanced b. Twisted pair cable is unbalanced and co-axial cable is balanced c. Both balanced d. Both unbalanced

105. The method of signal transmission in optical fibre is a. Refraction b. Reflection c. Total internal reflection d. Scattering 106. What is characteristic of PDH. a. Synchronous b. Asynchronous c. Almost synchronous d. None of the above

107. Which one is not the data rate in PDH a. 64 Kbps b. 34 Mbps c. !39 Mbps d. 155.55 Mbps

108. Which one is not the data rate in SDH a. 64 Kbps b. 2 Mbps c. 622 Mbps

c. 8 Mbps

109. Reduction in signal amplitude during travelling is known as a. attenuation b. Chromatic dispersion c. Multimode dispersion d. Scattering 110. Which one of these is not a transmission topology a. Star b. Chain c. Loop d. Chriss cross

111. What is the frequency range in satellite microwave a. 2-4 Ghz b. 1900-1800 Mhz c. 7 Ghz d. 23 Ghz

112. What is the frequency which is not used in India for terrestrial microwave a. 2.2 Ghz b. 7 Ghz c. 15 Ghz d. 23 Ghz 113. Which one is not true in terms of polarization a. Horizontal Polarization b. Vertical Polarization c. Circular Polarization d. Space Polarization

114. Which one has the maximum capacity a. Bpsk b. Qpsk c. 16 QAM d. 64 QAM

115. Antenna is a a. Passive device b. Active device c. Can be both d. Can be component of active and passive

116. Which antenna we use for microwave communications a. Omni b. Dipole c. Dipole Array d. Parabolic

117. Which one is the not the parameter for antenna a. Gain b. 3 dB beam width c. Front to back ratio d. Main to side lobe ratio

118. High BER is indication of good transmission a. True b. False

119. The connection between IDU and ODU is done by a. IF cable b. Co-axial cable b. RF cable c. LAN cable

120. Which one is true regarding gain a. dbd>dbi b. dbi> dbd c. dbi=dbd d. None of above

121. Which one is equation for free space loss a. 92.4+20logf(ghz)+20logd(km) b. 92.4+20logf(Hz)+20logd(mt) c. 92.4+20logf(Mhz)+20logd(mt) a. 92.4+20logf(Khz)+20logd(km)

122. Which microwave frequency can have maximum range a. 23 Ghz b. 18 Ghz

c. 15 Ghz d. 7 Ghz

123. What is data rate of primary rate PCM a. 16 Kbps b. 64 Kbps c. 128 Kbps d. 256 Kbps

124. Which mode of transmission we use in between BTS and BSC as per Europeans specification a. E1 b. T1 c. ATM d. Frame Relay

125. What is data rate of E1/T1? a. 2.048Mbps/1.544 Mbps b. 1.92Mbps/1.544Mbps c.1.544Mbps/2.048 Mbps d. 2.048Mbps/1.92 Mbps

126. How many bits in IPv6 address a. 32 b. 64 c. 128 d. 256 127. How many address classes for IPv4 a. 4 b. 2 c. 16 d. 8 128. Numbers of layer in TCP/IP Protocol stack a. 7 b. 4 c. 3 d. 5

129. Ethernet is a. Layer 1 b. Layer 2

c. Both d. None

130. Signaling required for a. call setup b. handover c. call management d. all of the above

131. Online charging systems are used for a. postpaid charging b. prepaid charging c. call forwarding d. Call handover

132. IN is used for a. Prepaid management b. Call routing c. Call forwarding d. Postpaid routing

133. OSS is used for a. Performance management b. Fault management c. Configuration management d. All of above

134. Billing data is generated in form of a. CDR b. Toll ticket c. Both of above d. None of above

135. Which one is the fixed data in HLR a. IMSI b. TMSI c. VLR d. SGSN address 136. Which one is not a supplementary service a. O/G (outgoing call)

b. Call forward c. Call Barring d. Call conferencing

137. Difference between GMSC and MSC is a. MSC have VLR and GMSC not have any VLR b. MSC have HLR GMSC have VLR c. Both can true d. None of above

138. IMSI Attach/detach process done at a. VLR b. HLR c.AUC d. EIR

139. MSC communicates with other core nodes via a. MAP b. BSSAP c. ISUP d. NUP

140. HLR uses the______ to communicate with AUC. a. IMSI b. TMSI c. MSRN d. MSISDN

141. SGSN and GGSN connected via______interface a. Gn b. Gi c. Gb d. Gp

142. Database of all prepaid users is stored in a. VLR b. HLR c. SDP d. SSF

143. Charging for mobile calls is done in a. BTS b. BSC c. MSC d. SMS-SC

144. MCC for India is a. +91 b. 404 c. 405 d. B and C

145. Country code of India is a. +91 b. 404 c. 405 d. B and C

146. IMSI is combination of a. MCC+MNC+MSIN b. MCC+MNC+ SN c. CC+NDC+SN d. TAC + FAC + SNR+SP

147. MSRN is combination of a. MCC+MNC+MSIN b. MCC+MNC+ SN c. CC+NDC+SN d. TAC + FAC + SNR+SP

148. IMEI is combination of a. MCC+MNC+MSIN b. MCC+MNC+ SN c. CC+NDC+SN d. TAC + FAC + SNR+SP

149. Whenever any incoming call arrive in mobile network from PSTN it will routed to a. GMSC b. MSC c. HLR d. VLR

150. Which network changes introduced in Rel 4 architecture a. MSS& MGW b. MSC & VLR c. HLR & VLR d. MSS & VLR