Q1.

If

, then

is ______

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Q2. If

, then

is ______

A B C D

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Q3. If

and

, then

is ______.

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Q4. The ratio of the present ages of the father and daughter is
ages would be . Find the present age of the father.

. After 12 years, the ratio of their

A 68 B 64 C 58 D 54

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Q5. P and Q are two workers. For each hour, P earns Rs.3 less than Q. the hourly earnings of P and Q are in the
ratio . Find the total earnings of both on a day on which both work for 9 hours.

A Rs.243 B Rs.324 C Rs.270 D Rs.252

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Q6. The present cost of a house site is Rs 15,000. After one year its cost increases by 10% at the end of
second year its cost would go up by 15% over the cost at the end of first year. What would be the cost of the house site at the end of second year?

A Rs 19,875 B Rs 18,975 C Rs 18,900 D Rs 18,750

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Q7. A shopkeeper bought 500 eggs at Rs 4 per 10 eggs. Among them 20 eggs are found broken and 30 eggs
spoiled. If he sold the remaining eggs at Rs 0.55 per egg, how much did he gain or lose? Find its percentage.

A 47.50,

47.50,

C 46.50,

46.50,

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Q8. What is the difference between the compound interests on Rs.5000 for 1
annum compounded yearly and half-yearly?

years at 4% per

A Rs. 2.04 B Rs. 3.06 C Rs. 4.80

D Rs. 8.30

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Q9. Find the compound interest on Rs.15,625 for 9 months at 16% per annum compounded quarterly.

A Rs. 1851 B Rs. 1941 C Rs. 1951 D Rs. 1961

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Q10. The difference between simple interest and compound interest on Rs. 1200 for one year at 10% per
annum reckoned half-yearly is :

A Rs. 2.50 B Rs. 3 C Rs. 3.75 D Rs. 4

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Q11. From the top of a 200 meters high building, the angle of depression to the bottom of a second building is
20 degrees. From the same point, the angle of elevation to the top of the second building is 10 degrees. Then the height of the second building is

C 200 none of these

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Q12. In a right triangle ABC with angle A equal to 90 o, find angle B and C so that sin(B) = cos(B)

A 30 B 45 C 60 none of these

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Q13. In a right triangle ABC, tan(A) = 3/4. Then sin(A) + cos(A) =

B 1

none of these

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Q14. Find an exact value (i.e., in terms of surds), for

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Q15. Find an exact value (i.e. in terms of surds), for cos (15).

none of these

Q16. The temperature at which Fahrenheit and the Celsius scale will give numerically equal but opposite sign
is

+ 40 F and 40 C +11.43 F and 11.43 C

11.43 F and +11.43

C

40 F and + 40
C

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Q17. A faulty thermometer reads 10 C in place of 5 C and 70 C in place of 80 C. What is the freezing point
of water according to this thermometer?

A 6 C B 8 C C 5 C D 3 C

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Q18. When the temperature of a metallic coin is raised by 80 C, its diameter increases by 0.2 %. Then

area of a face of the coin increases by 0.6 % thickness increases by 0.6 % volume increases by 0.4 % coefficient of linear expansion of the material is 0.25 104 C1

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Q19. A thin copper wire of length L increases in length by 1 % when heated from temperature T 1 to T 2. The
percentage change in area when a thin copper plate having dimensions 2 L L is heated from T 1 to T 2 is

A 1% B 3% C 2% D 4%

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Q20. Two rods of length l1 and l2 are made of materials whose coefficients of linear expansion are

and 2. If the difference in the lengths is independent of temperature, then

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Q21. The brass scale of a barometer gives correct reading at 0 C. The barometer reads 75 cm at 25 C. What
is the actual atmospheric pressure at 27 C ?
brass

= 19 10

1.

75.401 cm 75.041 cm 74.541 cm 75.104 cm

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Q22. A clock with a metallic pendulum is 5 seconds fast each day at 15 C and 10 seconds slow a day at 30
C. Find the value of co-efficient of linear expansion for the material of the pendulum.

32 105 C1. 43 105 C1. 23 105 C1. 28 105 C1.

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Q23. A tungsten wire with a diameter of 0.20 mm is stretched until the tension becomes 50 N. The wire is then
clamped to an aluminum rod when both are at a temperature of 150 C. The tension in the wire when both are brought to a temperature of 20 C is (Y tungsten = 34 10 10 Nm 2, tungsten = 4.5 10 6 C 1) (Neglect the expansion of aluminium rod)

A 6.25 N B 50 N C 43.75 N D 56.25 N

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Q24. When heated in copper vessel ( c), a liquid shows an expansion co-efficient of x and in a silver container
it shows y. The linear expansion co-efficient of the silver container will be

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Q25. A horizontal tube open at both ends, contains a column of liquid. The length of this liquid column does

not change with temperature. Let = coefficient of volume expansion of the liquid and = coefficient of linear expansion of the material of the tube, then

= 2 = 2 = 3 = 3

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Q26. A volume (V) versus absolute temperature (T) graph was obtained as shown, when a given mass of an
ideal gas was heated. During the heating process from state 1 to state 2, the pressure

remained constant

B decreased changed erratically

D increased

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Q27. A tank of volume 01

temperature

is filled with oxygen at a gauge pressure of

Pa and

47 . After sometime, because of a leak, the gauge pressure drops to decreases to 27 C. The mass of oxygen that has leaked out is about

Pa and the temperature

A 88 g B 128 g C 176 g D 256 g

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Q28. Equal masses of three liquids A, B and C have temperature 10 C, 25 C and 40 C respectively. If
A and B are mixed, the mixture has a temperature of 15 C. If B and C are mixed, the mixture has a temperature of 30 C. If A and C are mixed, the mixture will have a temperature of

A 29 C B 25 C C 20 C D 16 C

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Q29. 250 g of water and equal volume of alcohol of mass 200 g are replaced successively in the same
calorimeter and cools from 60 C to 55 C in 130 seconds and 67 seconds respectively. If the water equivalent of the calorimeter is 10 g, then specific heat of alcohol is (CW = 1 cal g 1 C 1)

1.3 cal g1 C1

0.67 cal g1 C1 0.62 cal g1 C1 0.985 cal g1 C1

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Q30. 50 R calories of heat is required to raise the temperature of 4 moles of an ideal gas at constant pressure
from 50 C to 55 C. The gas may be

A N2 B CO2 C He D CH4

Q31. When water and carbon dioxide are formed during an exothermic reaction it is a

Synthesis reaction Single displacement reaction Combustion reaction Double displacement reaction

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Q32. The ion that is isoelectronic with CO is

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Q33. Which of the following sets of quantum numbers represent an impossible arrangement?

n = 3, l = 2, m= -2, s A = n = 4, l = 0, m = 0, s B = n = 3, l = 2, m = -3, s C = n = 5, l = 3, m = 0, s = D -

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Q34. Which of the following statements is correct concerning elements in the periodic table?

All the elements in group 13 are metals The halogens are all gasses at room temperature Elements of group 1 have higher electron affinities than group 17 elements

Elements of group 1 have lower ionisation energies than those of group 17

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Q35. Which of the following orbital diagrams violates Aufbau principle?

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Q36. As principal quantum number n becomes higher, the gap between successive energy levels in an atom

A Decreases B Increases Remains the same Are all the same

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Q37. The most suitable material to use for photoemission is

A Neon gas Aluminum oxide

C Caesium D Fluorine

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Q38. The first 4 ionisation energies of an element are 191, 578, 872, and 5962 K cal mol 1. The valency of
the element is

A 1 B 2 C 3 D 4

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Q39. In general electron affinity has negative values. Electron affinity of noble gasses have positive values
because

They form only covalent bonds They have stable valence shell configuration and resist addition of electron They are in gaseous state and readily accept extra electron Heat is released when they accept electrons

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Q40. Which statement about atomic orbitals before hybridisation is not true

They can have different sizes They can have different shapes They can have different energies They have to contain 1 electron each

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Q41. According to VSEPR theory the geometry of the electron pairs in the valence shell of oxygen in
OF
2

molecule would be

A Linear Tetrahedra l Square planar Octahedra l

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Q42. The ideal condition for the formation of a covalent bond is (absolute values of electron affinity must be
considered).

Low ionisation energy and high electron affinity High ionisation energy and high electron affinity

High ionisation energy and low electron affinity Large difference in electronegativity

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Q43. The hybridisation of carbon in diamond, graphite and ethyne are, respectively

sp3, sp, sp2 sp, sp2, sp3

2 C sp, sp , sp 3 2 D sp , sp , sp

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Q44. Consider the two reactions given below:

(I) CuSO 4(s)+ 5H 2O(l) (II) CuSO 4(s) Cu
2+

CuSO 4.5H 2O(s) (aq) + (aq)

The reactions represent, respectively

Hydration and solvation Sublimation and solvation Hydration and ionisation Solvation and hydration

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Q45. Ca(OH) 2 + 2CH 3COOH (CH 3COO) 2Ca + 2H 2O is a

Oxidation reaction reduction reaction Neutralisation reaction

Dehydrogenation D reaction

Q46. Which of the following crops would enrich the soil with nitrogen?

A apple B pea C paddy D potato

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Q47. In agriculture, broadcasting is used for

ploughing the fields rotating the crops removing the weeds sowing the seeds

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Q48. Fish liver oil is rich in

A A and B B B and C C A and D D only D

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Q49. Tomatoes are cultivated by the practice called

transpiratio n translocatio n transportatio n transplantatio n

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Q50. The Rhizobium bacteria present in the root nodules of pea plants can fix one of the following from the
atmosphere. This one is

hydroge n

B oxygen nitroge n

D halogen

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Q51. The food obtained from animals is very rich in

A fats carbohydrate s mineral s

D proteins

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Q52. The Government Agency responsible for purchasing grains from the farmers, safe storage and
distribution is

A CBI B FBI C FCI D FDI

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Q53. Poultry gives us

A eggs B meat

meat as well as eggs

D honey

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Q54. Which of the following can be used as a food preservative?

sodium metabisulphite

B citric sodium benzoate all the above

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Q55. Which of the following disease is not caused by viruses?

A measles smallpo x

C cholera D polio

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Q56. The micro-organisms which can reproduce and multiply only inside the cells of other organisms are

A protozoa

B fungi bacteri a

D viruses

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Q57. Deforestation increases the level of one of the following in the atmosphere. This one is

A ozone carbon dioxide

C oxygen water vapour

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Q58. Which of the following is not a part of Pachmarhi Biosphere Reserve?

Bori Wildlife Sanctuary Satpura National Park Bandipur National Park Pachmarhi wildlife Sanctuary

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Q59. Which of the following is not a correct statement for sowing seeds?

seeds should be sown at right intervals seeds should be sown at right depth seeds should be sown in dry soil wet soil

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Q60. The National park which is located in Rajasthan is

Corbett National Park Kanha National Park Satpura National Park

Sariska National D Park

Q61.

A B C none of these

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Q62.

none of these

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Q63. A passenger train covers the distance between stations X and Y, 50 minutes faster than a goods train.
Find this distance if the average speed of the passenger train is 60 kmph and that of goods train is 20 kmph.

A 20 kms B 25 kms C 45 kms D 40 kms

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Q64. The speed of a motor boat itself is 20 km/h and the rate of flow of the river is 4 km/h. Moving with the
stream the boat went 120 km. What distance will the boat cover during the same time going against the stream?

A 80 B 180 C 60 D 100

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Q65. The difference between the compound interest and the simple interest on a certain sum at 12% p.a. for
two years is Rs.90. What will be the value of the amount at the end of 3 years?

A 9000 B 6250 8530.8 0 8780.8 0

Q66. Three moles of nitrogen and two moles of carbon dioxide are mixed in a container. Calculate of the
gaseous mixture.

A 1.11 B 0.93 C 1.21 D 1.37

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Q67. One gram of water at 10 5 Pa is converted into steam at 100 C. Volume of 1 gram of steam is 1671 CC.
If the latent heat of evaporation is 540lcal, the change in the internal energy due to evaporation is

A 167 cal B 540 cal C 500 cal D 581 cal

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Q68. An ideal gas undergoes a thermodynamic cycle as shown. Choose the corresponding pT graph.

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Q69. The following are the pV diagrams of cyclic process for a gas. In which of these processes is heat
absorbed by the gas?

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Q70. Two identical containers A and B with frictionless pistons contain an ideal gas of mass mA and
mB respectively at the same temperature, having same Volume V. When gas is allowed to expand isothermally in both A and B to same final volume 2 V, changes in pressure are found to be p and 1.5 p respectively then,

Q71. VSEPR theory basically states that

The repulsion of atomic nuclei help determine the shapes of covalent molecules The repulsion between electrons helps determine the shapes of covalent molecules The repulsion between bonds helps determine the shapes of covalent molecules None of the statements are correct

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Q72.
The graph above shows the trend of first ionisation energy from H (At. No. = 1) to K (At. No. = 19). The elements marked X and Y are, respectively

Oxygen and Sulphur Fluorine and Chlorine Chlorine and Bromine Nitrogen and Oxygen

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Q73. The ratio of velocity of the electron in the ground state of Li 2+ and 1 st excited state of He 2+ is

A 3:1 B 2:3 C 3:2 Cannot be determined

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Q74. The magnitude of electron affinity of halogens follow the order

F > Cl > Br > I I > Br > Cl > F F > Cl > I > Br Cl > F > Br > I

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Q75. The reaction 2P 4 + 12H 2O 5PH 3 + 3H 3PO 4 represents

Solvatio n Hydratio n Disproportionati on Acidificatio n

Q76. The indiscriminate killing of which of the following animals can lead to loss in the production of food
grains?

A Birds B Snakes Grasshopper s

D Rats

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Q77. One of the following is not a part of the fauna of Pachmarhi Biosphere Reserve. This one is

A yak B leopard blue bull barking deer

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Q78. Which of the following is an endangered species of animals?

A Dinosaur Asiatic lion Irish deer

D Hyena

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Q79. Which of the following are endangered species?

Dodo, Yak, Deer, Black buck, Tiger, Crow, Kashmir stage, Dinosaur, Lion tailed macaque, Snow leopard.

Dodo, Yak, Deer, Black buck, Tiger, Crow, Kashmir stage Black buck, Tiger, Kashmir stage, Lion tailed macaque, Snow leopard.

Crow, Kashmir stage, Dinosaur, Lion tailed macaque Black buck, Tiger, Crow,Lion tailed macaque, Snow leopard

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Q80. Name the causative micro-organisms of the following plant diseases

(1) Rust of wheat (2) Citrus canker (3) yellow vein mosai of bhindi (Okra)

(1) bacteria (2) Fungus (3) virus (1) Fungus (2) bacteria (3) Fungus (1) Fungus (2) bacteria (3) virus

(1) Fungus (2) virus (3) D bacteria