AHEAD Test and Discussions AIIMS SIMULATED TEST III

1. Which of these is indicated in highly carious mouths?

a.

a.

Radicular cyst

b. Dentigerous cyst

2.

Starting with few restorations in a mouth in which the caries c. Keratocyst d. Simple bone cyst process is still active 11. The radiographic examination of a 10 year old child disclosed a b. Repeated restorations in failed cases circumscribed radiolucent lesion 2cm in diameter in lower right c. Managing a child's grossly carious teeth by multiple extractions molar region. Scalloping is a prominent feature particularly d. Fluoride varnish applications or disclosing agents around and between the roots of teeth. The lesion was sharply outlined but lacked a radio-opaque periphery was somewhat Where a child has multiple open cavities, what is the irregularly shaped and extended 5 to 6mm above apices of molars strategy to be followed? and 10 mm inferiorly towards the lower border of mandible. a. Attempt is made to render the cavities caries free There is no epithelial lining. b. Infected tissue is removed under local anesthesia a. Dentigerous cyst b. Radicular cyst c. The provision of long definitive treatment is made c. Keratocyst d. Solitary bone cyst d. Minimal tissue is removed allowing placement of temporary dressing 12. Gorlins syndrome is

3.

4.

5.

a. Autosomal dominant trait associated with keratocyst What is wrong in the order in which items of operative care b. Autosomal recessive trait associated with keratocyst are provided? c. X linked recessive trait associated with keratocyst a. Small, simple restorations should be completed first d. X linked dominant trait associated with keratocyst b. Extractions should be the first items c. Quadrant dentistry should be practiced 13. A triad of symptoms including recurring oral ulcers, d. Endodontic treatment should follow completion of simple recurring genital ulcers, and eye lesions are feature of restorative treatment a. Steven Johnsons syndrome b. Behets syndrome c. Osteoartheritis d. Aperts Syndrome Which of these will you restore first? a. Maxillary anterior b. Maxillary posterior teeth 14. MAGIC Syndrome has all of the following feature except c. Mandibular anterior d. Mandibular posterior teeth a. Mouth ulcer b. Genital ulcer Which of the following is not true regarding the need for a c. Erythema Multiforme d. Inflammed cartilage recall in pediatric patients? 15. Harpengina can be distinguished from primary herpes simplex a. Rate of progression of dental caries can be more rapid in virus infection by all of the following features except children than in adults a. Herpangina occurs in epidemics; HSV infections do not. b. erosive tooth wear is faster in primary than in permanent b. Lesions of herpangina occur on the pharynx and posterior teeth portions of the oral mucosa whereas HSV primarilyaffects c. periodic assessment of oro facial growth and the the anterior portion of the mouth. developing occlusion is required c. Lesions of herpangina tend to be bigger than those of d. Monitoring of periapical lesions including cysts around HSV. erupting teeth d. Herpangina does not cause a generalized acute gingivitis Which of these should not be duration of a recall visit? a. 3 months b. 12 months c. 6 months d. 18 months like that associated with primary HSV infection. 16. Which of the following has the clinical features of Unilateral vesicles on an erythematous base chiefly The process of dental caries consists of a occurring along the course of the nerve? a. Dissolution of enamel matrix by proteolytic bacteria and a. Chickenpox b. Acute lymphonodular pharyngitis destruction of dentin by acidogenic microorganism c. Herpes Zoster d. Hand foot and Mouth disease
b. c. d. Demineralization of tooth substance and lysis of organic 17. The nerves most commonly affected with HZ are all except elements by an adherent community of micro-organisms. a. C3 b. C4 c. L1,L2 Dissolution of enamel and dentin by acids produced by bacteria. d. First division of Trigeminal nerve Dissolution of tooth by acids exclusively

6. 7.

8.

A constant feature associated with radicular cyst is a. Impacted tooth b. Missing tooth c. Non vital tooth d. Anomalous tooth

18. Treatment of ANUG for routine cases involves all except a. Debridement & Irrigation b. Curettage c. Hydrogen peroxide 1.5to 2%in water mouth rinses thrice a day d. Antibiotics

9.

A patient exhibits marked attrition of deciduous and permanent 19. It is no longer appropriate to routinely place bands on all teeth and radiograph reveals a marked tendency towards teeth that are to receive fixed attachments because obliteration of many pulp canals. The patients mother and a. Bonded attachments are less irritating to gingival brother also have history of this condition. The most likely b. Bonded attachments are less prove to produce decalcification diagnosis is

a. c.

Enamel hypoplasia Mottled enamel

b. Dentinogenesis imperfecta d. Enamel hypomaturation

c. Both (a) & (b)

d. Bonded attachments are more esthetic

20. All of the following are the indications for banding rather than
bonding except one a. Teeth that will receive heavy intermittent forces against the attachments b.Teeth with short clinical crowns c. Teeth that will need both labial & lingual attachments d.Teeth with Long clinical crowns

10. A 45 yr old pt. comes to a dental clinic with a pus drainage

through the apical region of the lower left first molar. This tooth is symptomless and is absolutely discoloured. Histopathogenesis reveals the presence of hyaline eosinophilic bodies along with the presence of cholesterol crystals. Radiographic features shows round or ovoid well circumscribed radiolucency at the root 21. The gingival margin of the band should apex.These findings would suggest

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AHEAD Test and Discussions AIIMS SIMULATED TEST III

a. b. c. d. go slightly subgingival clear the gingival margin by at least 2 mm clear the gingival margin by more than 2 mm Remain slightly supragingival

22. A brass wire separator is normally left in place for a. 1 2 hrs b. 1 2 days c. 5 7 days d. 10 12 days

33. Errors in mounting casts on articulator can be detected when a. Centric relation is used as the horizontal reference position. b. Centric occlusion is used as the horizontal reference position. c. Centric relation is used as the vertical reference position. d. Centric occlusion is used as the vertical reference position.

23. Separating springs which exert a scissors action above 34. Which of the following statement about centric relation is enough for banding in approximately incorrect a. 1 day b. 1 week a. This position is more constant and definite than vertical c. 2 weeks d. 3 4 weeks dimension, and is independent of the presence or absence of teeth 24. The necessary force to seat a preformed band should be b. Errors in mounting casts on articulator can be detected supplied by when centric relation is used as the horizontal reference a. Masticatory muscles of the patient position. b. Arm strength of the dentist c. It's a position from which all other eccentric movements c. Arm strength of the dental assistant occur. It's an intersection of right and left border position. d. Tongue pressure of the patient d. Accurately recorded centric relation aids in proper 25. Sterilization implies adjustments of incisal guidances for control of eccentric a. Destruction of pathogenic bacteria movements. b. Destruction of non-pathogenic bacteria 35. Incisal guidance: is measured as, c. Destruction of bacteria and viruses a. It is usually expressed in degrees of angulation from the d. Destruction of all forms of microbial and viral life horizontal by a line drawn in the sagittal plane between the 26. In an autoclave, minimum required temperature to incisal edges of the upper and lower incisor teeth when positively destroy all living organisms is closed in centric occlusion. a. 1340 F b. 1210 F c. 1210 C d. 1340 C b. It is usually expressed in degrees of angulation from the vertical by a line drawn in the sagittal plane between the 27. Flash method of steam sterilization implies 0 incisal edges of the upper and lower incisor teeth when a. Heating at 134 F for 3 minutes 0 closed in centric occlusion. b. Heating at 134 C for 3 minutes c. It is usually expressed in degrees of angulation from the c. Heating at 1210 F for 3 minutes horizontal by a line drawn in the coronal plane between the d. Heating at 1210 F for 20 minutes incisal edges of the upper and lower incisor teeth when 28. All of the following are true except closed in centric occlusion. a. Dry heat can be used to sterilize dental handpieces, d. It is usually expressed in degrees of angulation from the powders, oil etc. vertical by a line drawn in the coronal plane between the b. It is also a good method of sterilization for objects that incisal edges of the upper and lower incisor teeth when cant withstand steam or boiling water closed in centric occlusion. c. Compared to moist heat, it is a rapid method of sterilization d. Dry heat do not attack glass and will not rust instruments 36. With a given vertical overlap incisal guide angle can be made flatter by 29. Which of the following procedure is both diagnostic as well a. Increasing the horizontal overlap and by reducing vertical as curative overlap. a. Exfoliative cytology b. Punch Biopsy b. Increasing the horizontal overlap and by increasing vertical c. Incisional Biopsy d. Excisional Biopsy overlap. c. Reducing the horizontal overlap and by reducing vertical 30. Which of the following procedure is least invasive overlap. a. Exfoliative cytology b. Punch Biopsy d. Reducing the horizontal overlap and by increasing vertical c. Incisional Biopsy d. Excisional Biopsy overlap. 31. Accurately recorded centric relation aids in proper 37. A woman suffers a fracture of the left tenth and eleventh adjustments of condylar guidances for control of ribs. Which of the following organs is most likely to have a. Eccentric movements. b. Tongue movements. been injured by these fractured ribs? c. Border movements d. Bennet movements a. Descending colon b. Jejunum 32. An accurate centric relation orients the a. Lower cast to the opening axis of the mandible. b. Upper cast to the opening axis of the mandible. c. Lower cast to the closing axis of the mandible. d. Upper cast to the closing axis of the mandible. c. Left adrenal gland d. Spleen articulator and the 38. The tongue will move in which direction when protuded with surgical damage to the right hypoglossal nerve? articulator and the a. Downward b. Upward c. Directly forward d. To the right articulator and the 39. You are asked to hold your upper arm against your lateral chest wall, with the palm upward. You then rotate the hand articulator and the so that the palm faces downward, without bending the wrist. This motion is known as:

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AHEAD Test and Discussions AIIMS SIMULATED TEST III

a. c. Abduction of the forearm b. Adduction of the forearm Flexion of the forearm d. Pronation of the forearm a. Vitamin B1 b. Vitamin B2 c. Vitamin B3 d. Vitamin B5 51. Albinism is a disorder involving what substance? 40. An otherwise healthy student taking no medications is a. Aromatic amino acids b. Branched chain amino acids concerned because he has noticed several painless uniform c. Glycolipids c. Glycoproteins "large bumps" at the back of his tongue. These are most 52. A woman vegetarian is found to have a severe riboflavin likely deficiency. The function of which of the following enzymes a. Aphthous ulcers b. Candidal colonies in the citric acid cycle would be most directly affected by c. Circumvallate papillae d. Filiform papillae the riboflavin deficiency? a. Aconitase b. Citrate synthase 41. Attempts to straighten out a flexed thigh cause great pain in c. Isocitrate dehydrogenase d. Succinate dehydrogenase a patient with appendicitis. This is due to the position of the 53. Which of the following pairs of enzymes is required for the process of gluconeogenesis? a. Fructose-1,6-bisphosphatase and pyruvate carboxylase b. Glucose-6-phosphatase and phosphofructokinase-1 42. Which of the following structures does the fetal allantoic c. Glucose-6-phosphatase and pyruvate dehydrogenase duct become in the adult? d. Phosphoenolpyruvate carboxykinase and glucokinase a. Cloaca b. Medial umbilical ligament 54. Cyanide poisoning will directly affect which anabolic c. Urachus d. Ureter process? 43. Under normal conditions, the main drive for respiration is the a. Breaking of covalent bonds in glucose molecules a. Arterial PCO2 acting through central chemoreceptors b. Formation of carbon dioxide b. Arterial PCO2 acting through peripheral chemoreceptors c. Formation of GTP from GDP c. Arterial pH acting through central chemoreceptors d. Movement of hydrogen ions through channels in the d. Arterial pH acting through peripheral chemoreceptors respiratory enzymes 44. Which of the following types of nerve fibers carry pain that 55. is aching, burning, sometimes throbbing, and poorly localized? a. Group II fibers b. Group III fibers c. Type C fibers d. Substance P Global eradication of Lyme disease is unlikely in the foreseeable future because Borrelia burgdorferi a. Can be maintained in nature indefinitely by a tick vector b. Has a tough outer coat that is resistant to environmental stresses c. Has humans as its primary reservoir d. Is resistant to antibiotics and disinfectants appendix near which muscle? a. Adductor magnus b. Biceps femoris c. Gluteus maximus d. Psoas major

45. If a drug is taken that stimulates sympathetic cholinergic neurons, which of the following responses is expected? 56. A patient experiences a severe bite wound from a pit bull. a. Bradycardia b. Bronchoconstriction He receives a booster injection of tetanus toxoid and an c. Diaphoresis d. Increased gastrointestinal motility injection of penicillin G. Several days later, the wound is inflamed and purulent. The exudate is cultured on blood 46. If a drug is taken that stimulates sympathetic cholinergic agar and yields gram-negative rods. Antibiotic sensitivity neurons, which of the following responses is expected? tests are pending. Which of the following is the most likely a. Bradycardia b. Bronchoconstriction pathogen? c. Diaphoresis d. Increased gastrointestinal motility a. Bartonella henselae b. Brucella canis c. Clostridium tetani d. Pasteurella multocida 47. One hour before a dental procedure a patient receives four 500-mg amoxicillin capsules. On arriving at the dental office 57. A patient with nuchal rigidity and headache undergoes lumbar puncture. The CSF contains markedly increased the dentist notices that the patient has maculopapular rash numbers of lymphocytes, leading to a presumptive and is wheezing. The effector cell in this type of diagnosis of viral meningitis. Which of the following groups hypersensitivity is a(n) of viruses is most likely to be involved? a. Eosinophil b. Mast cell c. Megakaryocyte d. Neutrophil a. Adenoviruses b. Enteroviruses c. Human papillomaviruses d. Poxviruses 48. An increase in which of the following is the most likely explanation for the swelling in the legs seen with congestive 58. A patient who is unable to tolerate clindamycin therapy for heart failure? the treatment of an intraoral anaerobic infection would be a. Interstitial colloid osmotic pressure b. Lymph flow most likely prescribed which of the following agents? c. Plasma colloid osmotic pressure d. Right atrial pressure a. Ciprofloxacin b. Metronidazole c. Tetracycline d. Tobramycin 49. An infant diagnosed with phenylketonuria would be expected to be deficient in which of the following 59. Serum analysis of a symptomatic patient yields elevated ALT, HBsAg, Anti-HBc, HBeAg, and bilirubin. All other nonessential amino acids, assuming that it is not obtained values are normal. What is the hepatitus B status of this from dietary sources? recruit? a. Asparagine b. Cysteine c. Glutamine d. Tyrosine a. Asymptomatic carrier b. Chronic active carrier c. Fulminant hepatitis B 50. Which of the following cofactors is required for d. Recovered from acute self-limited HBV decarboxylation of alpha-ketoacids?
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AHEAD Test and Discussions AIIMS SIMULATED TEST III

60. A 23-year-old woman has Toxic Shock Syndrome. A diffuse d. The dorsal surface of the tongue is nearly level with the erythematous rash with areas of desquamation over the occlusal surface of the posterior teeth. hands and feet is noted. Infection with which of the 70. Curve of Spee cannot be copied onto the denture in the same way as seen in natural dentition because in natural dentition following agents is the most likely cause of these signs and a. Christensens phenomenon exists. symptoms? b. The radii of the curve depends on the angle of the incisal a. Clostridium perfringens b. HIV-1 guidance and the condylar guidance. c. Shigella dysenteriae d. Staphylococcus aureus c. There is no balanced occlusion. 61. Diameter of bristle in soft tooth brush is: d. Condylar paths are dependent on TMJ anatomy a. 0.1 mm b. 0.2mm c. 0.3mm d. 0.4mm 62. Debris from orthodontic appliances and fixed prosthesis is 71. Which of the following is NOT a major more efficiently removed by mechanisms of action for fluoride in a. Manual tooth brush b. Rinsing caries inhibition? c. Oral irrigation device d. Powered brush 63. 1g of plaque(net weight)contains how many bacteria? a. 2 x 103 b. 2x108 c. 2x1011 d. 2 x 1013 64. Oxygen tension in a periodontal pocket is a. 1-2 %o2 b. 5-10% o2 c. 10-15 % o2 d. 15-20% o2

a. b. c. d.

Increases remineralization of enamel. Inhibits carbohydrate metabolism Reduces enamel solubility.

ability to prevent reduction of the pH of plaque

65. Which of the following is incorrect? a. Microbes that need positive eh for viability are aerobes b. Those that need ve eh are anaerobes c. Older plaque eh is 141 mv d. Older plaque eh is 41mv 66. At what level does mucogingival line lie interdentally from the level of crest of alveolar bone b. 3mm b. 4mm c. 5mm d. 7mm 67. In complete denture patients incisal guidance is not present and it is arbitrarily set using a standard incisal guide value while arranging the anterior teeth. Which of the following statement is incorrect
a. b.

72. A parent of a 6-year old child asks about

fluoride supplementation. The child weighs 20 kg and lives in a fluoridedeficient area with less than 0.3 ppm of fluoride ion in drinking water. What do you recommend?

a. Sodium fluoride, 1-mg tablets, to be chewed and swallowed

at bedtime.

b. Sodium fluoride, 2-mg tablets, to be chewed and swallowed c.

at bedtime. Topically applied gels of 2.0% NaF Mouth rinses of 0.2% NaF weekly

c. d.

A steep inclined plane, is detrimental to the stability equilibrium d. of the denture-base hence the incisal guidance should be as flat as aesthetics and phonetics will permit. When the arrangement of the anterior teeth necessitates a vertical 73. If dentin wall have been dried during bonding then they overlap, a compensating horizontal overlap should set to prevent may be re-wetted with: dominant incisal guidance (anterior interference) from upsetting a. Gluma densensitizer b. Water unsaturated applicator tip the occlusal balance on the posterior teeth. c. Phosphoric acid d. Ethyl alcohol If the incisal guidance is steep, it requires steep cusps, a steep occlusal plane, or a steep compensating curve effect an occlusal 74. During conventional class III tooth preparation remaining old balance. restorative material on the axial wall should be removed except: The angle formed by this protrusive path to the vertical plane is a. The periphery of remaining restorative material is not intact called as the incisal guide angle.

68. The occlusal plane is determined by the lower anterior teeth and
the commissure of the mouth. Which of the following statement about setting up of the denture occlusal plane is incorrect

a. b. c. d.

The occlusal plane should terminate posteriorly at the junction of anterior one-third and posterior two-third of the retromolar 75. pad. The parotid papilla is on the average 3.3 mm above the occlusal plane and it can be used as a guide for establishing the height of the occlusal plane. If the occlusal plane is too low, then the tongue can overlap the 76. lower teeth and cause tongue bitting. From cuspid to cuspid, the rim is inclined slightly backwards.

b. The use of underlying dentin is necessary to effect a stronger bond c. The tooth pulp was symptomatic pre operative d. Excavation nearer to the pulp

Initially, the axial wall depth of beveled conventional class III tooth preparation is a. 0.2 mm b. 0.5 mm c. 0.75 1.25 mm d. 1.25 mm Length wise direction of gingival retention groove is a. An angle bisects the junction of axial and external walls b. Parallel the DEJ without undermining the adjacent enamel of dentin support c. Both a & b d. Parallel to the long axis of the tooth Most used methods for creating a working cast with removable dies from an elastic impression require two pours. The first and second pours are made to a. Produce removable dies and establish intra arch relationship b. Produce removable dies

69. The lower posterior teeth should not crowd the tongue or interfere with its normal function. Incorrect statement about tongue position with respect to denture teeth is a. The buccal cusps of the molars are approximately in 77. vertical alignment with the mylophyoid ridge. b. At rest, after swallowing, the tip of the tongue touches the lingual surfaces of the lower anterior teeth. c. The lateral border of the tongue will be at the level of the lingual contour of the lower natural posterior teeth.

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AHEAD Test and Discussions AIIMS SIMULATED TEST III

c. d. Establish inter arch relationship Produce dies with established paths of placement
a. b. The powder may have been contaminated by water, from high humidity or a wet dispensing spoon. The temperature of the mixing water may have been higher than 23 degree celsius. Under mixing and too short mixing shortens the working time. The mixing bowl or spatula may have been contaminated with particles of set investment containing calcium sulfate dihydrate, accelerating the reaction.

78. Pindex system to make dies offers many advantages EXCEPT: a. The first pour becomes the die segment and can be made c. quickly and easily. d. b. Dowel pins can be positioned precisely where needed. c. Dowel pins are automatically positioned parallel, which facilitates die removal. d. Type 4 gypsum can be treated to create a more abrasion- 88. The boxing edge of a dental stone master cast was trimmed on a model trimmer several days after it had been poured. Trimming resistant die surface by this system
79. An acute apical periodontitis is found a. Around vital teeth. b. Around non vital teeth c. Around vital as well as non vital teeth. d. Around teeth with purulent exudates around the apex

was much more difficult than when done soon after the dental stone had set. Why was the cast more difficult to trim?

a. b.

c. 80. Which of these neurochemicals induce a state of hyperalgesia in local nerve fiber? d. a. Serotonin b. Prostaglandin 89. The recommended total dose of diethylcarbamazine (DEC) c. Both of these d. Histamine for mass drug administration in areas where W. bancrofti 81. Pain which is electrical, shocking, short, lasting several infection is endemic is: seconds but not longer than a minute and is confined to one a. 36 mg/kg body weight b. 46 mg/kg body weight side and involve one division of the nerve is c. 60 mg/kg body weight d. 72 mg/kg body weight a. Herpes zoster b. Trigeminal neuralgia c. Myocardial pain d. Impacted tooth or cyst of third molar 82. Latent virus of herpes zoster resides in the a. Stellate ganglion b. Cervical ganglion c. Sphenopalatine ganglion d. Gsserian ganglion 90. Which one of the following represents filaria endemicity rate? a. Microfilaria rate b. Filaria disease rate c. Mosquito infestation rate d. Combination of microfilaria and disease rate

Soaking the cast in slurry water was not done Compressive strength of dental stone increases to about twice that when wet Temperature of water poured on model trimmer was less than 35 degree celsius. Pouring of the cast was done too rapidly

83. Aspects of a patient's medical background that might have 91. Match List-I (Trace elements) with List-II (Deficiency states) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists: been implicated in spontaneous pulpal degenera-tion are all List-I List-II of these except a. Magnesium 1.Growth failure a. Sickle cell anemia b. Herpes zoster b. Iodine 2.Tetany c. Vitamin D resistant rickets d. Bells palsy c. Zinc 3.Protein energy malnutrition d. Selenium 4.Goitre 84. Which of these is not a primary treatment for hypersenCodes: sitivity? A. a b c d B. a b c d C. a b c d D. a b c d a. Use of physical agents b. Iontophoresis technique 4231 2413 4213 2431 c. Laser technology d. Endodontics 85. The surface of a high-strength dental stone die was abraded 92. Classification of grades of protein energy malnutrition given by Indian Academy of Paediatrics has adopted: during preparation of the wax pattern. Type 4 gypsum can be treated to create a more abrasion-resistant die surface by a. ICMR standards a. Immersing the die in hardening solutions resulting in a higher b. Standards developed by National Institute of Nutrition, setting expansion of high-strength dental stone Hyderabad b. Immersing the die in colloidal silica c. Local standards d. NCHS standards
c. d. Immersing the impression in 2% glutaraldehyde Immersing the die in saturated calcium sulfate dihydrate solution 93. Flouxetine is a: slurry water. a. Anti. psychotic drug

86. A dental stone master cast for a complete denture was placed in a

Avoid immersing of the cast in water c. A quick awakening from general anaesthesis Use a saturated calcium sulfate dihydrate solution slurry d. Increase of the stress response water to immerse the cast 95. Oxytocin is characterized by all except: c. Immersing the cast in colloidal silica a. Circulates entirely in free form b. Plasma half life 5-7 minutes d. Mount the cast on the articulator after a gap period of six hours c. Level increase during labor d. Released in pulsatile fashion 87. A gypsum investment was mixed with water in the 96. Ethambutol toxicity leads to: proportions as recommended by the manufacturer, but the a. Steven Johnson syndrome b. Pupillary dilatation working time was too short to invest the wax pattern. All of c. Visual loss with color vision defects d. Bulls eye retinopathy the following are causes of this problem EXCEPT
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bowl of water before it was mounted on an articulator. Inadvertently, the cast was left in the water overnight. After the 94. Advantages of regional analgesia blockade are all these except: cast was mounted and dried, an unusually rough surface a. A reduced need for opioids appeared. What is the possible solution to this problem b. Early resumption for normal activity and ambulation

b. Used in opiate poisoning c. Tricyclic antidepressant d. Selective sacrotin reuptake inhibitor

a. b.

AHEAD Test and Discussions AIIMS SIMULATED TEST III

97. Advantages of the paralleling technique are all of the following EXCEPT a. Increased exposure time due to long cone
b. Little or no root superimposition on a maxillary molar view

c. d.

Accurate diagnosis of periodontal bone height (given minimal distortion) Image formed is dimensionally accurate

98 . Which of the following is not a disadvantage of the bisecting

technique?

a. b. c. d.

Image on x-ray film may be dimensionally distorted Increased exposure time Due to the use of a short cone (which results in divergent rays), the image is not a true reproduction of the object May not be able to judge the correct alveolar bone height

99 . Which of the following is a major disadvantage of the paralleling technique?

a. b. c. d. The image formed on the film will not have dimensional accuracy Due to the amount of distortion, periodontal bone height cannot be accurately diagnosed An increase in exposure time is necessary due to the use of a long cone An increase in exposure time is necessary due to the use of a short cone

100 .The two x-ray techniques that are utilized in dentistry for taking periapical films are a. Bisecting technique and Paralleling technique b. Perpendicular technique and Paralleling technique c. Bisecting technique and perpendicular technique d. cross arch technique and Paralleling technique

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