MOCK PAPERS ARE BASED ON PREVIOUS YEARS SNAP PAPERS

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MOCK SNAP 2012 SET 1

Time: 120 Minutes

Instructions: 1. For every wrong answer you will score 25% negative marks. 2. All questions in a section carry equal marks. 3. The sequence of the sections may differ but the weightage remains the same as mentioned in the SNAP bulletin.

Sections General English Quantitative, Data Interpretation, Data Sufficiency General Awareness Analytical & Logical Reasoning

Total Marks 40 40 40 60

No. Of Questions 40 40 40 30

**Please note, this is just a mock paper and in no way predicts the exact nature of the actual paper on 16th December, 2012. Use this as a means to prepare and test yourself.

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Section I General English

Directions for questions 1 and 2: The passage given below is followed by a set of two questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question. The spiritual interlocutor interacts without preconceived notions. The good discussant receives without barriers and responds in a heightened state of understanding. The shedding of constructs becomes at once a spiritual and humanist pursuit. Most of us, by force of sub- conscious habit, introduce our experiential and intellectual baggage into our interactions with people. This not only distorts our understanding of the material reality, but inhibits our spiritual growth as well. We stew in our here and now boxes, unable to elevate ourselves as a bird would. Yet, the validity of experience should not be discounted. Experience should be assessed with a certain heightened objectivity for one to draw the right lessons for ones actions. So detachment should be seen as a means to arrive at that state of balanced understanding. It does not preclude pain and compassion; but it discards obfuscation and hypocrisy. Creativity is said to spring from the angst of experience. Often the outpourings of a tortured mind make for great literature and painting. Ironically, existential pain can bring about work of transcendental quality. The beauty and simplicity of Kahlil Gibrans The Prophet is testimony to the literary virtues of spiritualism. The spiritual world is a rich, fulsome, loving nothingness that opens up the heavens, not a musty blankness. Compassion could liberate us from the boundaries of the mind. The house- holder looks after the family out of a sense of duty and affection, which in due course becomes second nature. The mental and emotional universe of such an individual is able to accommodate reality in virtually all its dimensions. Psychologist Eric Fromm points out that love must be all-encompassing by nature for an individual to be spiritually liberated. To love some people and resent others is not real love. 1. Which of the following will be a suitable title for the passage? a. Spiritual Equality b. Limitations of the Intellectual c. Creativity and Spirituality d. Being Spiritual

2. It does not preclude pain and compassion; but it discards obfuscation and hypocrisy. When paraphrased, how will the given sentence read? a. Experience does not prevent pain and compassion but rejects disguise and insincerity. b. Detachment does not prevent pain and compassion but rejects disguise and insincerity. c. Detachment does not prevent pain and compassion but rejects complication and pretense. d. Experience does not prevent pain and compassion but rejects complication and pretense. 3 Coffee with SIBM 2012| An Aspirant Relations Team Initiative

Directions for questions 3 to 6: The passage given below is followed by a set of four questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question. Three judgments by the Supreme Court in the month of July mark a sharp departure from pedantic legalism and point to the possibilities of a transformative constitutionalism that sustains and elaborates the idea of constitutional morality developed in the Naz Foundation judgment of the Delhi High Court in 2009. The three cases are also very different pieces that speak to different realities in similar fashion: Ram Jethmalani vs Union of India (SIT); Nandini Sundar and Others vs State of Chhattisgarh (SJ); and Delhi Jal Board vs National Campaign for Dignity and Rights of Sewerage and Allied Workers (DJB). It might be argued, and rightly too, that radical jurisprudence by the Supreme Court is not a recent phenomenon it has an older history rooted in struggles for civil and political rights. While that is the genealogy of this jurisprudence, we need yet to celebrate each signpost in the development of deliberative jurisprudence that responds not merely to the manifestations of a case, narrowly construed, but sees the larger socio-political context as an inextricable part of the bare facts, so to speak. The guarantee of public goods security, infrastructure for governance, law making and enforcement, provision of material and cultural goods especially for classes that lack the power, privilege and status to secure these for themselves is state obligation. Neither markets (which cater to self-centered activities of individuals and groups) nor purely private social action can be expected to stand in for the state and provide public goods. Central to the delineation of the problem in these cases is the opening out of the idea of constitutionalism to include a broader idea of justice that enables the mapping of injustice in all its complexity. Tracing the link between the existence of perennial channels for unaccounted monies abroad and the erosion of developmental goals of the state, the Supreme Court contextualizes the need to reign in cash flows and ensure total accountability with reference to the structure of a neo-liberal economy. Gunnar Myrdals caution about the dangers of a soft state that spawns the unholy nexus between the law maker, the law keeper, and the law breaker is immediately relevant. Carried away by the ideology of neo-liberalism, it is entirely possible that the agents of the State entrusted with the task of supervising the economic and social activities may err more on the side of extreme caution, whereby signals of wrongdoing may be ignored even when they are strong. Instances of the powers that be ignoring publicly visible stock market scams, or turning a blind eye to largescale illegal mining have become all too familiar, and may be readily cited. The framework of justice by this token stretches illimitably beyond the narrow confines of constitutional law and decided cases to the letter and spirit of the constitution. Modern constitutionalism posits that no wielder of power should be allowed to claim the right to perpetrate states violence against anyone, much less its own citizens, unchecked by law, and notions of innate human dignity of every individual. 3. Which of the following options correctly sums up the areas that the author seeks to cover through the passage? a. Jurisprudence, Justice and the Constitution 4 Coffee with SIBM 2012| An Aspirant Relations Team Initiative

b. Jurisprudence, Neo-liberalism and Politics c. Society, Politics and Jurisprudence d. The Constitution, Jurisprudence and Enforcement of justice 4. Central to the delineation of the problem in these cases is the opening out of the idea of constitutionalism to include a broader idea of justice that enables the mapping of injustice in all its complexity. Which of the following statements would correctly paraphrase the above line? a. The main way to define the problem is to merge the understanding of constitutionalism and justice so that all aspects of injustice are covered. b. The essential way to define the problem is to include the understanding of constitutionalism and justice with all aspects of injustice. c. The crucial aspect of defining the problem is to broaden the understanding of constitutionalism and hence justice to include aspects of injustice. d. The crucial aspect of defining the problem is to widen the understanding of constitutionalism and hence justice so that all complexities of injustice are covered. 5. How does the author develop the central idea? a. By making a reference to three cases which form the core of the discussion. b. By making a reference to the Naz foundation judgment which forms the base for the core of the discussion. c. By making a reference to recent judicial developments and referring to the lineage of jurisprudence that includes the socio-political context. d. By making a reference to recent judicial developments and referring to the lineage of jurisprudence in the context of neo-liberalism. 6. It can be inferred that the tone of the author in the third paragraph is a. critical b. forgiving c. objective d. disparaging Directions for questions 7 to 9: Choose the correct option. 7.nymph: _____ :: seraphim : angel a. b. c. d. Maiden Sinner Candle Priest

8. denim: cotton :: ____ : flax 5 Coffee with SIBM 2012| An Aspirant Relations Team Initiative

a. b. c. d.

Sheep Uniform Sweater Linen

9. principle : doctrine :: living : _____ a. b. c. d. Will Dead Likelihood Livelihood

Directions for questions 10 to 15 : Choose the grammatically correct option from the following. 10. a. The number of students applying for the exams are on the increase. b. The number of student applicants is on the increase. c. The number of students applying for the exam are on the increase. d. Increasingly students are applicants for this exam.

11.

a. I am in opposition of him joining the board as a non-executive director. b. I oppose his joining the board as a non-executive director. c. I oppose him joining the board as a non-executive director. d. His joining the board as a non-executive director, I am in opposition of.

12.

a. In order to facilitate collective bargaining, a union was formed. b. The union was formed in order to facilitate collective bargaining. c. An union was formed to facilitate collective bargaining. d. Collective bargaining, for the facility of which, a union was formed.

13.

a. The reason her and her sister decided to take the tram was that there was a forecast about an impending storm. b. The reason she and her sister decided to take the tram was because there was a forecast about an impending storm. c. The reason for she and her sister deciding on taking the tram was because there was a forecast about an impending storm. d. The reason she and her sister decided to take the tram was that there was a forecast about an impending storm.

14.

a. More leisure, as well an abundance of goods, are attainable through automation. b. More leisure and goods is attainable by means of automation. c. More leisure as well as an abundance of goods is attainable through automation. d. Increased leisure and abundant goods are attainable if one uses automated means.

15.

a. Being that the United States has a food surplus it is hard to see why anyone in that country should go hungry. 6 Coffee with SIBM 2012| An Aspirant Relations Team Initiative

b. Since the United States has a food surplus, it is hard to see why anyone in that country should go hungry. c. Being that the United States has a food excess, it is hard to see why anyone in that country should starve. d. Since food is in excess in the United States, it is very strange that there are people hungry in the country. Directions for questions 16 to 17: There are two gaps in the sentence given below. From the pairs of words given, choose the one that fills the gaps most appropriately.

16. An atmosphere that ___ the value and growth of individuals as well as the organization is important, and ___between individuals and the organization must be a team effort. a. exudes, discussion b. encompasses, agglomerate c. promotes, collaboration d. assesses, links 17. A/an _________professional can help you establish a budget for your childrens extracurricular activities based on your _______income and savings goals. a. knowledgeable, current b. qualified, retirement c. experienced, desired d. recommended, projected Directions for questions 18 to 19 : Given below are a few sentences. Each sentence has a pair of words that are italicized. From the italicized words, select the most appropriate words (A or B) to form correct sentences. The sentences are followed by options that indicate the words, which may be selected to correctly complete the set of sentences. From the options given, choose the most appropriate one. 18. I hope they dont ask me anything about politics. I havent the slightest (A) / smallest (B) idea about it. I knew David could always be trusted (A) / relied (B) on in times of crisis. I would like to make a request (A) / demand (B) to the hotel management that they allow people to choose the TV program they want to watch. The business has lost a lot of orders recently and is going through a thin (A) / poor (B) time. It was not the ideal (A) / idyll (B) solution to the problem. a. b. c. d. ABAAA ABABB ABBAA BBAAB

19. In his position as (A) / of (B) managing director, he is responsible for more than 300 employees. He planned the event so meticulously that the outcome was entirely causal (A) / casual (B). 7 Coffee with SIBM 2012| An Aspirant Relations Team Initiative

They created a custom (A) / costume (B) design for a diwali card. I suspect (A) / expect (B) his motives are not entirely good. The economics (A) / economic (B) of the project are very encouraging. a. b. c. d. ABAAB AAAAA BAAAB BBAAA

20. Choose the correct antonym for Garrulous a. Taciturn b.Voluble c. Placid d. humdrum 21. A single word equivalent for the statement Speak falsely with deliberate intent is a. repudiate b. prevaricate c. disparage d. equivocate 22. Identify the option with the correct spelling. a. paraphernalia b. programme c. paediatrics d. beserk 23.If leaf is to leaves and knife is to knives, then belief is to -------a. beliefs b. believes c. belief d. believing 24. In the following sentence choose the erroneous segment/s A B C

He is one of those people / who thinks / he owns the world a. Error in segment A b. Error in segment B c. Error in segment A & C

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d. Error in segment B & C Directions for questions 25 to 29: In these questions the opening of a paragraph is given, followed by four sentences. Arrange the sentences logically to form a coherent paragraph. 25. Whenever she came to town, she had the press in hot pursuit. A.Bankers, the global chaps, the ministers and the top bureaucrats. B.The other was the company she kept. C. Photographers, shedding corporate ennui, chased her in Delhi, in Mumbai. D.Those honey brown eyes, the Armani suits, and three-inch stilettos and the white, very white teeth in a tanned face were part of the reason. a. ADBC b. DCBA c. CDBA d. CBAD 26. James Gleick, the science journalist who wrote Faster, the Acceleration of Just about Everything argues that the world is more rushed, more connected, with more time saving devices. A.Politics, culture, religious ceremonies, peace processes, sport, information technology and management decisions are all packed crazily into ever-narrowing time spans. B.Though the term Hurry Sickness may not c onvey the gravity of the affliction; the author says it is a portmanteau phrase, which includes attention deficit disorder and being collectively manic. C.There is no doubt that the manic need for novelty and distraction is a manifestation of the faster pace of life. All too often though, it is grimly illustrated in all its preservations, such as the trivialisation of the Oval Office and the American Presidency with the Lewinsky scandal. D.In another age it would be called sensation-seeking; in the decade of five-minute crises and conflict-resolution, it is called political death and vengeance. a. ADCB b. ABCD c. DCBA d.DACB 27. Even as the Vajpayee administration declares that it is in the process of unleashing a second generation of reforms, it is clear that the task ahead is more fundamental than it appears. A. There is no doubt that setting the governments finances in order tops the reform agenda. 9 Coffee with SIBM 2012| An Aspirant Relations Team Initiative

B.Which is why this jumbo dispensation at the Centre must try its very best to be sure-footed. C.If the new government were to take meaningful steps in just this direction is the next six months, it would be the ruling coalitions biggest millennium gift to the people. D.So, before we start examining whether India can rival China as an investment destination in the next few years or whether the 21st century will belong to India, we must ask ourselves whether nearly a decade of varying shades of liberalisation has ushered in a reformist mindset a thinking that puts equal emphasis on globalisation and deregulation.

a. b. c. d.

BACD BCDA CBDA CDAB

28. What does the state do in a country where tax is very low? A.It investigates income sources and spending patterns or tries to spy upon the taxpayer. B.Exactly what the tax authority tries to do now, even if inconsistently. C.It could also encourage people to denounce to the tax authorities any conspicuously prosperous neighbours who may be suspected of not paying their taxes properly. D.The ultimate solution would be an Orwellian System. a. BACD b. DBAC c. ABCD d. DCBA 29. The species, which are most numerous in individuals, will have the best chance of producing variations within any given period. A. Hence any rare species will be less quickly modified or improved within any given period, and they will be consequently beaten in the race for life by the modified descendants of the commoner species. B. From these considerations I think it inevitably follows, that as new species in the course of time are formed others will become rare and finally extinct. C. We have evidence of this in the fact that it is the more common species that afford the greatest number of varieties, or incipient species. D. Extinction or survival, therefore, is a function of a parameter that is totally beyond the control of the species. 10 Coffee with SIBM 2012| An Aspirant Relations Team Initiative

a. b. c. d.

ABCD CABD ABDC DCAB

Directions for questions 30 and 31: In the questions below the sentences have been given in Active/Passive voice. From the given alternatives, choose the one which best expresses the given sentence in Passive/Active voice. 30.You can play with these kittens quite safely. a. These kittens can played with quite safely. b. These kittens can play with you quite safely. c. These kittens can be played with you quite safely. d. These kittens can be played with quite safely. .31.I cannot accept your offer. a. Your offer cannot be accepted by me. b. I cannot be accepted by your offer. c. The offer cannot be accepted by me. d.Your offer cannot be accepted. Directions for questions 32 to 34: Choose the correct synonym 32. COMELINESS a. comfort b. peace c. coziness d. pleasing appearness 33. CACHE a. trick b. ready money c. hiding place d. Indian lean-to 34. DRAB a. dull or colourless b. tired c. discouraged 11 Coffee with SIBM 2012| An Aspirant Relations Team Initiative

d.shabby Directions for questions 35 to 37: Choose the correct antonym 35. ZENITH a. b. c. d. Acme Top Nadir Pinnacle

36. CAPACIOUS a. b. c. d. Limited Follish Caring Changeable

37. ELOQUENCE a. expressiveness b. articulateness c. persuasiveness d. inarticulacy 38. rook : chess :: ____ badminton a. b. c. d. Grass Tennis Shuttlecock Swing

39. There are two gaps in the sentence/paragraph given below. From the pairs of words given, choose the one that fills the gaps most appropriately. Herodotus celebrates the glory of human _______ with a vigor that ________ parochial Plutarch. a. diversity, infuriates b. bigotry, incenses c. creativity, flails d. ingenuity, flays 40. There are two gaps in the sentence/paragraph given below. From the pairs of words given, choose the one that fills the gaps most appropriately. A Beethoven quartet does not represent sorrow, but ________ it in hearer and player alike; and yet it is emphatically not a ______ experience. Like tragedy it brings intense pleasure and insight. a. incites, tragic

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b. elicits, sad c. invokes, pleasurable d. imbues, memorable

SECTION-II: QUANTITATIVE, DATA INTERPRETATION AND SUFFICIENCY

1. A number P2 has 15 factors and exactly 2 prime factors. In that case, the number P has a. 8 factors b. 6 factors c. 8 or 6 factors d. 4 factors 2. P and Q working together can finish a piece of work in x days. Working alone, P can finish the work in x+5 days, while Q can finish it in x+45 days. What is x? a. 15 days b. 20 days c. 25 days d. 10 days Instructions for questions 3 to 6: In the following questions: Mark a. if the question can be answered by using one of the statements alone, but not by using the other statement alone Mark b. if the question can be answered by using either one of the statements alone Mark c. if the question can be answered by using both the statements together Mark d. if the question cannot be answered in any combination of the given statements 3. The sum of the cost prices of two articles, a and b, is 150. What is the price of b? Statement I a is greater than 50, but not greater than or equal to 130 Statement II b changes by a value of 6 when there is a change in the value of one of articles by 10 % and the value of the other article by Rs. 55. 4. 102 is a natural number which is perfectly divisible by x. What is x? Statement I x+2 is divisible by 4 Statement II 3 is a factor of x+17 13 Coffee with SIBM 2012| An Aspirant Relations Team Initiative

5. If A is a prime number, is B also prime? Statement I B = 9A + 7 Statement II AB is even 6. Given two natural numbers, x and y, such that neither are greater than 5, can unique values of x and y be determined? Statement I x + y = 10 Statement II x/y = 1 7. How many triangles are possible such that their sides are all natural numbers less than 8? a. 12 b. 13 c. 14 d. 11 8. If x and y are two natural numbers such that they have 16 as their HCF and 136 as their LCM, it can be definitively said, that: a. Such a pair doesnt exist b. Only one such pair exists c. Two such pairs exist d. Many such pairs can exist 9. The last digit of 29982 + 5333 is: a. An even number greater than 5 b. An odd number lesser than 5 c. An even number lesser than 5 d. An odd number greater than 5 10. Which of the following is NOT a square of a natural number? a. 4096 b. 32768 c. 7569 d. 37249 11. The sum of the first 50 terms common to the arithmetic progressions, 15, 19, 23 and 14, 19, 24 is a. 25450 b. 23345 c. 26645 d. 25678 12. Two vessels contain equal quantities of milk and water. A student transfers half the content of the milk vessel into the water vessel. He then transfers half the mixed contents of the water vessel to the milk vessel. If the student were to continue to operate similarly, how many more transfers would be required to bring the ratio of water to milk in the water vessel to 6:5? 14 Coffee with SIBM 2012| An Aspirant Relations Team Initiative

a. b. c. d.

1 2 0 3

13. y as a percentage of x is the same as x as a percentage of (x + y). Find the numerical value of y as a percentage of x. a. 73 b. 34 c. 62 d. 57 14. I am three times as good as my brother at completing a piece of work, and therefore, I can finish the work 60 hours faster than him. Working together, how long would me and my brother finish the same piece of work? a. 30 days b. 23 days c. 21 days d. 22.5 days 15. The ratio of times taken by a ship to travel the same distance upstream and downstream is 2.2:1. Find the ratio of the speed of the boat and the speed of the water current, respectively, if the time taken to travel the distance upstream is 528 minutes. a. 2:1 b. 3:2 c. 8:3 d. None of these 16. The digits of a two-digit number are in the ratio 2:1. If the difference between the number obtained by reversing the digits and the number itself is 36, what is the difference between the sum and difference of the two digits of the number? a. 8 b. 6 c. 10 d. 12 17. What is the difference between the total number of arrangements of the letters of the word DEALING and the number of arrangements in which all the vowels of the word dont come together? a. 7! 720 b. 8! 540 c. 7! 5040 d. 8! 360 18. A hollow cylindrical vessel is 21 cm high with an external diameter of 8 cm. If the density of the cylinder material is 8000 kg/m3, what would be the weight of the vessel? a. 3.6 kg 15 Coffee with SIBM 2012| An Aspirant Relations Team Initiative

b. 3.696 kg c. 36960 g d. 2400 g 19. A bullock cart has to cover 80 km in 10 hours. If it covers half the journey in three-fifths of the time, what would be the required speed of the bullock cart to reach its destination in the remaining time? a. 13 km/h b. 10 km/h c. 11 km/h d. 8 km/h 20. How many three digit numbers can be formed with the digits 2, 3, 5, 6, 7 and 9, such that none of the digits are repeated, and the numbers are divisible by 5? a. 20 b. 11 c. 15 d. 12 Q21 to 24 After the 2010-2011 season, the ICC calculated the number of runs scored by ten batsmen namely Dhoni, Watson, Sangakkara, Pietersen, Smith, Kohli, Cook, DE Villiers, Clarke and Amla. It is known that out of these 10 batsmen, Dhoni scored the least number of runs. The bar chart provides information of the number of runs scored (in excess or in deficit) by Kohli, Cook, De Villiers, Clarke and Amla as comparison to runs scored by Dhoni, Watson, Sangakkara, Pietersen and Smith. For example, the difference between the number of runs scored by Watson and Amla is 24. Which means it could be 24 less or 24 more than Watson.

21. Out of these batsmen, who scored the maximum number of runs? a. Sangakkara b. De Villiers c. Cook d. Watson 16 Coffee with SIBM 2012| An Aspirant Relations Team Initiative

22. How many batsmen have scored more number of runs than Kohli but less than that by Amla? a. 3 b. 2 c. 1 d. 0 23. The ICC formed 5 teams such that each team comprised of exactly 5 batsmen. Among the following teams, which team has scored the least aggregate number of runs? a. Dhoni, Amla, Watson, Clarke and Smith b. Cook, Smith, Kohli, Amla and Pietersen c. De Villiers, Amla, Dhoni, Watson and Cook d. Cook, Clarke, Smith, Kohli and Amla 24. If the total number of runs scored by Smith in the 2010-11 season is 1450, then how many of the 10 mentioned batsmen scored less than 1510 runs? a. 0 b. 1 c. 2 d. 3

Q25 to 29 Study the following graph and answer the following questions.

25. For the following pairs of years the total exports from the three companies together are equal? a. 2002 & 2003 b. 2003 & 2005 c. 2004 & 2005 d. 2002 & 2005 26. Average annual exports during the given period for company B is approximately what percent of the average annual exports for company C? a. 87.12% b. 89.64% c. 91.21% 17 Coffee with SIBM 2012| An Aspirant Relations Team Initiative

d. 93.33% 27. In which year was the difference between the exports from companies A & B the minimum? a. 2001 b. 2002 c. 2003 d. 2004 28. What is the difference between the average exports of the 3 companies in 2000 and the average exports over the given years? a. Rs 15.33 Cr b. Rs 18.67 Cr c. Rs 20 Cr d. Rs 22.17 Cr 29. In how many of the given years were the exports from the company C more than the average annual exports over the given years? a. b. c. d. Q30 to 33 The following table gives the percentage distribution of the population of the 5 states A, B, C, D & E on the basis of poverty line and sex. 1 2 3 4

30. If the male population above the poverty line for state C is 19 million, then the total population of state C is? a. 45 million b. 48.5 million c. 53.5 million d. 62.5 million 31. What is the number of females above the poverty line in the state D if it is known that the population of state D is 7 million? a. 3 million b. 2.43 million c. 1.33 million d. 5.7 million 18 Coffee with SIBM 2012| An Aspirant Relations Team Initiative

32. What will be the male population above the poverty line for state A if the female population below the poverty line for state A is 21 million? a. 21 million b. 23 million c. 27 million d. 33 million 33. What will be the female population above the poverty line for state B if the female population below the poverty line for state B is 30 million? a. 70 million b. 75 million c. 80 million d. 85 million 34. If the population of males below the poverty line of state B is 2.4 million and that of state E is 6 million, then what is the ratio of the total population of states B & E. a. 1:3 b. 2:5 c. 3:7 d. 4:9 Q35 to 40 The pie chart shows the sources of funds to be collected by the National Highways Authority.

35. Near 20% of the funds are arranged through a. Octroi b. Assistance c. Annuity d. Borrowings 36. The combination of which 2 sources provide approximately as much as Assistance? a. Octroi & Borrowings 19 Coffee with SIBM 2012| An Aspirant Relations Team Initiative

37.

38.

39.

40.

b. Toll & Octroi c. Annuity & Octroi d. Borrowings & Annuity If the toll is to be collected through an outsourced agency by allowing a maximum 10% commission, how much amount should be permitted to be collected by the outsourced agency, so that the project is supported with Rs. 4910 crores? a. Rs 6213 Cr b. Rs 5827 Cr c. Rs 5401 Cr d. Rs 5316 Cr If the National Authority could receive a total of Rs. 9695 crores as Assistance, by what percent (approximately) should it increase the Borrowings to arrange for the shortage of funds? a. 4.5% b. 7.5% c. 6% d. 8% The central angle corresponding to Borrowings is a. 52 b. 137.8 c. 187.2 d. 192.4 The approximate ratio of the funds to be arranged through the toll and through borrowings is a. 2:9 b. 1:6 c. 3:11 d. 2:5

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SECTION-III: GENERAL AWARENESS

1. In which of the following fields was the noble prize first given in 1969, where as in the others in 1901? 1. Physics 2. Peace 3. Economics 4. Literature 2. What features in the reverse side of the Bharat Ratna award? 1. National emblem 2. Sun 3. Ashok chakra 4. Indian flag 3. Which among the following states recorded lowest infant mortality rate (IMR) in 2011? a. Goa and Manipur b. Kerala and Tamil Nadu c. Jharkhand and Uttarakhand d. Manipur and Nagaland

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4. Which among the following films has won the BEST FILM award in the 14 th Mumbai film festival? a. Miss lovely b. Valley of saints c. Shaheed d. Mumbai cha raja 5. As per a report, India received $ 2.21 Billion in FDI in February 2012, which among the following countries invested the most in India? a. Singapore b. USA c. China d. Mauritius 6. In India the foreign exchange reserves are kept in the custody of which of the following? a. SBI b. RBI c. EXIM d. Ministry of Finance 7. Which of the following states in India has recently started the Gram Suraj Abhiyan to reach out to the people in the remote areas? a. Chattisgarh b. Rajasthan c. Punjab d. Haryana 8. The new variety Rajarajan 1000 is of which of the following? a. Wheat b. Barley c. Rice d. Pulse 9. Who among the following is the writer of the best seller The world is flat : A brief history of the 21st century ? a. Amartya Sen b. Thomas Friedman c. Connie Schultz d. Eugene Robinson 10. Which among the following state/ union territory of India has the lowest population density as per the provisional data of census 2011? a. Lashwadeep b. Arunachal Pradesh c. Sikkim d. Nagaland

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11. Which among the following Is the International grouping of the industrialized economies of the world? a. G-20 b. G-8 c. G-4 d. OECD 12. An African country, Sudan has been broken into two recently with formation of a new country named South Sudan. Economy of South Sudan will depend on its a. Minerals b. Agricultural products c. Forest products d. Fishery products 13. China recently objected the participation of an Indian company in its joint venture with another country for offshore oil exploration. which one among the following is that country? a. Myanmar b. Vietnam c. South Korea d. Japan 14. How many fundamental rights have been constituted in our constitution? a. Six b. Seven c. Five d. Eight 15. The panna mukta oil fields are located in which of the states of India? a. Maharashtra b. Andra Pradesh c. Karnataka d. Madhya Pradesh 16. Which among the following leader of India belongs to the left front? a. Veerappa moily b. Ram Vilas Paswan c. Prakash Karat d. Raj Thackery 17. Which among the following five year plans was launched with a specific motto of growth with stability? a. Third b. Fourth c. Fifth d. Sixth

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18. Which country launched the first artificial satellite? a. USA b. USSR c. China d. Japan 19. Who among the following was selected as the businessman/ businesswoman of the year by the fortune magazine? a. b. c. d. Indra nooyi Jeff bezos Warren buffet Mark zucerberg

20. Tom and James Monaghan started a pizza restaurant.James sold his 50 % stake to his bro for a used VW Beetle. Which chain? a. Dominos b. Pizza hut c. Pizza place d. Wimpys 21. One of the well known FMCG brand had a photo of a lamp in its early packs and it had Diwali had its sub brand. Name the brand. a. Asian paints b. Tata salt c. Nirma d. Ariel 22. Who among the following is named as the new chairman of the ICC cricket committee? a. Anil kumble b. Rahul dravid c. Sunil gavaskar d. Kapil dev 23. The book controversially yours is a biography of?\ a. Salman rushdie b. Shoib akhtar c. Fatima Bhutto d. Wasim akram 24. The book straight from the guts is written by? a. Jack whelch b. Steve jobs c. Richard branson d. Bill gates 25. The governor of the reserve bank of india is? 24 Coffee with SIBM 2012| An Aspirant Relations Team Initiative

a. Deepak parekh b. Yv reddy c. D. subbarao d. Bimal jain 26. Parachute is a brand of? a. Marico b. HUL c. Dabur d. Procter and gamble 27. In which category are the arjun awards given? a. National sports b. State level sports c. Athletics d. Hockey 28. Who won the man booker prize in the year 2012? a. Bring up the bodies b. The white tiger c. Disgrace d. The gathering 29. Sariska and ranthambore are the reserves for which of the following animals? a. Tiger b. Elephant c. Rhino d. Hippo 30. Which among the following company is the worlds largest tea producer? a. Tata tea Ltd b. Hindustan Unilever c. Mcleod russel d. Godrej tea 31. Which among the following committees had recommended privatization and restructure of LIC? a. Malhotra committee b. Narsimham committee c. J reddy committee d. Raja chelliah committee 32. Which of the following bank is facing a probe in Koda case? a. Union bank of india b. State bank of india c. ICICI bank d. HDFC bank 25 Coffee with SIBM 2012| An Aspirant Relations Team Initiative

33. Green park where test cricket is played is located in? a. Chennai b. Kanpur c. Kolkata d. Mumbai 34. 2018 FIFA world cup will be held in? a. France b. Russia c. UK d. Argentina 35. Which of the following places in India does not have a Stock Exchange? a. Udaipur b. Delhi c. Mumbai d. Ahemdabad 36. Which of the following schemes launched by the Government of India aims at enhancing the livelihood security of the people in rural areas by guaranteeing hundred days of employment in a financial year to a rural household whose adult members volunteer to do unskilled manual work? a. MGNREGA b. ASHA c. Kutir jyoti scheme d. TRYSEM 37. According to the 8th Annual Global Retail Development Index(GRDI), which one of the following countries is 'most attractive' retail marker in the world? a. India b. China c. Usa d. Japan 38. What is the full form of ESOPs as seen in financial newspapers? a. Early sales opportunities b. Employee Stock Options c. Executive Salary Options d. Emergency Stock Operation 39. Which among the following monoculture crops provide(s) immediate cash to the farmers? a. Tea in Assam b. Rubber in Africa c. Suger cane in india d. Coffee in brazil 26 Coffee with SIBM 2012| An Aspirant Relations Team Initiative

40. ....is the largest oil refinery in India. a. Haldia b. Koyali c. Digboi d. Trombay

SECTION-IV: ANALYTICAL AND LOGICAL REASONING

In questions 1 & 2, two statements are followed by two inferences. Mark your answer as:A. If only inference I follows B. If only inference II follows C. If both of them follows D. If neither of them follows 1. All Peter are Piper. Some Pickle are Piper I. Some Peter are Pickle II. Some Pickle are Peter

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Coffee with SIBM 2012| An Aspirant Relations Team Initiative

2. All boats are ships. Some ships are jinxed vessels I. Some boats could be jinxed vessels II. Some jinxed vessels could be ships but not boats Answer the questions 3 to 6 on the basis of information given below. Six nurses Aniket, Babul, Chaya, Dhvanil, Erica and Fatima are working for Mihir hospital, which requires three nurses per day. The availability of various nurses on various days of the week is as follows. a. Aniket and Babul will not work together and both of them will not be available on Mondays and Thursdays. b. Chaya is a dedicated nurse and works 7 days a week. c. Dhvanil is married and will not be available on weekends. d. Erica and Fatima will always work together, if possible and one of them will have her off on Monday and the other on Wednesday. e. Any triplet cannot be repeated on two consecutive days. 3. Who will be working on any Monday? a. Chaya, Dhvanil, Erica b. Chaya , Erica and Fatima c. Chaya, Dhvanil, Fatima d. Either 'a' or 'c' 4. If Aniket, Chaya and Dhvanil work on Friday then who will be working on Saturday? a. Aniket, Chaya, Erica b. Babul, Dhvanil, Fatima c. Chaya, Erica, Fatima d. Aniket, Dhvanil, Erica 5. If Erica is ill, who will be working on Thursday? a. Chaya, Dhvanil, Fatima b. Chaya, Dhvanil, Babul c. Dhvanil, Fatima, Aniket d. Chaya, Babul. Fatima

6. If Chaya decides to take off on Wednesday, then who essentially works on Wednesday? a. Dhvanil b. Erica c. Fatima d. Both (B) & (C) Refer to the data below and answer the questions that follow. Four friends Abhishek, Bipin, Chetan and Deb are playing a game Pass it on. Initially each of them has 24 coins. The game starts with Abhishek passing a coin to Bipin, then Bipin passing 2 coins to Chetan, then Chetan passing 3 coins to Deb and then Deb passing 4 coins to Abhishek. At this point, one round is completed. In the 2nd round, Abhishek passes 5 coins to Bipin, Bipin passes 6 coins to Chetan and so on. The game ends when one person has all the coins and he is declared the winner. 7. Find the number of coins with Bipin in the 8th round just after he has received the coins from Abhishek. a. 32 28 Coffee with SIBM 2012| An Aspirant Relations Team Initiative

b. 44 c. 45 d. 46 8 If BELIEF is written as 'a f k k d i', how is SELDOM written in that code? a. r d k c n l b. t f k e n p c. r f k e n n d. r f k f n p For Question No. 9 & 10, mark the appropriate choice. 9. Amit can set questions for MBA exams because he has experience to set questions for Bank exams. This statement is based on the assumption that a. The questions of Bank exams are harder than that of MBA exams. b. Both exams are conducted by the same board. c. Those who can set questions for Bank exams can set questions for MBA exams also. d. Number of papers asked in both exams are same. 10. My TV has an electronic child lock with an optional password and cannot be opened in my absence. It therefore follows. a. My TV has been missed before this lock facilities. b. Electronic child lock with a provision to alter the password is an effective security device. c. Children used to watch vulgar shows in the absence of their guardians. d. All TVs without this special facility can be easily opened. 11. The extent to which a society is really free can be gauged by its attitude towards artistic expression. Freedom of expression can easily be violated in even the most outwardly democratic of societies. When a government arts council withholds funding from a dance performance that its members deem obscene, the voices of a few bureaucrats have in fact censored the real obscenity of repression. Which of the following, if true, would most seriously weaken the argument above? a. Failing to provide financial support for a performance is not the same as actively preventing or inhibiting it. b. The term obscenity has several different definitions that should not be used interchangeably for rhetorical effect. c. Members of government arts councils are screened to ensure that their beliefs reflect those of the majority. d. The councils decision could be reversed if the performance were altered to conform to public standards of appropriateness. 12. The increase in the number of newspaper articles exposed as fabrications serves to bolster the contention that publishers are more increased in boosting circulation than in printing the truth. Even minor publications have staff to check such obvious fraud. The argument above assumes that a. fact checking is more comprehensive for minor publications than for major ones. b. everything a newspaper prints must be factually verifiable. c. newspaper stories exposed as fabrications are a recent phenomenon. d. only recently have newspaper admitted to publishing fraudulent stories intentionally. 13. A brochures for City X highlights the reasons why residents should move there rather than to other cities in the state. One reason that the brochure mentions is the relative ease of finding a job in 29 Coffee with SIBM 2012| An Aspirant Relations Team Initiative

City X, where the unemployment rate is 4.7 percent. Which of the following statements, if true, casts the maximum doubt on the validity of the reason to move to City X mentioned above? a. Other reasons to move City X include the schools system and easy access to recreational activities. b. The state where City X is located has an average unemployment rate of 3.9 percent. c. Most of the Jobs in City X are hourly rather than salary jobs. d. The national unemployment rate, calculated during the last census, is 4.3 percent. For questions 14-16 use the data given below and answer the questions that follow. At an Electronic Data Processing Unit, five out of the eight program sets P, Q, R, S, T, U, V and W are to be operated daily. On any one day, except for the first day of a month, only three of the program sets must be the ones that were operated on the previous day. The program operating must also satisfy the following conditions: (i) If program P is to be operated on a day, V cannot be operated on that day. (ii) If Q is to be operated on a day, T must be one of the programs to be operated after Q. (iii) If R is to be operated on a day, V must be one of the programs to be operated after R. (iv) the last program to be operated on any day must be either S or U. 14. Which of the following could be the set of programs to be operated on the first day of a month? a. T, U, R, V, S b. U, Q, S, T, W c. V, Q, R, T, S d. Q, S, R, V, U 15. Which of the following is true of any days valid program set operation? a. R cannot be operated at fourth place. b. Q cannot be operated at third place. c. P cannot be operated at third place. d. T cannot be operated at third place. 16. If R is operated at third place in a sequence, which of the following cannot be the second program in that sequence? a. T b. S c. Q d. U In each of the following questions, a matrix of certain characters is given. These characters follow a certain trend, row-wise or column-wise. Find out this trend and choose the missing character. 17.

a. 12 b. 8 c. 4 d. 16 30 Coffee with SIBM 2012| An Aspirant Relations Team Initiative

18.

a. 14B b. 12C c. 10C d. 16C Read the following information to answer these questions. The Director of a Management Institute has announced that six guest lectures on different areas like Leadership, Decision Making, Quality Circle, Motivation, Assessment Centre and Group Discussion are to organized, one on each day from Monday to Sunday. (i) Motivation should be organized immediately after Assessment Centre. (ii) Quality Circle should be organized on Wednesday and should be followed by Grope Discussion. (iii) Decision Making should be organized on Friday and there should be a gap of two days between Leadership and Group Discussion. (iv) One day there will be no lecture (Saturday is not that day), just before that day Group Discussion will be organized. 19. Which of the pairs of lectures were organized on the first and the last day? a. Group Discussion and Decision Making b. Group Discussion and Quality Circle c. Quality Circle and Motivation d. None of these 20. How many lectures are organized between Motivation and Quality Circle? a. Three b. Two c. One d. Four 21. Which day will the lectures on Leadership be organized? a. Friday b. Wednesday c. Tuesday d. None of these 22. Statement : Lack if coordination University, it colleges and various authorities has resulted in students ousted from one college seeking migration to another. Course of action : I. If a student is ousted from a college, the information should be sent to all other colleges of the University. II. The admission to all colleges of the University should be centralized at the University. III. A separate section should be created for taking action against students indulging in antisocial activities. a. Only III follows b. Only II follows 31 Coffee with SIBM 2012| An Aspirant Relations Team Initiative

c. Only I follows d. Only II and III follow 23. Statement : Faced with a source crunch and a depression overall economic scenario, State Y is unlikely to achieve the targeted per cent compound growth rate during the 9th Plan. Course of action : I. The targeted growth plan should be reduced for the 10th plan. II. The reasons for the failure should be studied. III. The performance of State Y should be compared with other states. a. Only II and III follow b. Only I and II follow c. Only I follows d. All follow 24. If MACHINE is coded as 19-7-9-14-15-20-11, now will you code DANGER? a. 13-7-20-9-11-25 b. 11-7-20-16-11-24 c. 10-7-20-13-11-24 d 13-7-20-10-11-25 25. Pointing to a photograph, a lady tell Pramod, I am the only daughter of this lady and her son is your maternal uncle. How is the speaker related to Pramods father? a. Sister-in-law b. Wife c. Either (1) to (2) d. Neither (1) nor (2) 26. If P + Q means P is the husband of Q; P Q means P is the sister of Q and P Q means P is the son of Q, which of the following shows A is the daughter of B? a. D B + C A b. B + C A cCBA d. A D B Answer the questions on the basis of information giver below. Six persons A, B, C, D, E and F are photographer, engineer, lawyer, housewife, waiter and journalist, not necessarily in that order. There are two married couples in the group who stay together a. A is married and his wife is a housewife. b. B, the lawyer is married to the photographer sister of A. c. D is the brother of C, who is not the housewife. d. E, the journalist has taken a vow of never getting married. e. The waiter is engaged to his girlfriend. 27. Who is the wife of B? a. E b. F c. D d. C 28. Who is the wife of A? a. C b. D c. E 32 Coffee with SIBM 2012| An Aspirant Relations Team Initiative

d. F 29. Who is the engineer? a. D b. C c. A d. F 30. Who is the waiter? a. F b. C c. E d. D

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Coffee with SIBM 2012| An Aspirant Relations Team Initiative

ANSWER KEY SECTION I 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. d c a d c c a d 9. 10. 11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 16. d a c b d c b c 17. 18. 19. 20. 21. 22. 23. 24. a a b a d c a d 25. 26. 27. 28. 29. 30. 31. 32. c b a a b d a d 33. 34. 35. 36. 37. 38. 39. 40. c a c a d c a b

SECTION II 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. c a c c a b b a 9. 10. 11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 16. d b a a c d c a 17. 18. 19. 20. 21. 22. 23. 24. a b b a a d d c 25. 26. 27. 28. 29. 30. 31. 32. a d c c d d b d 33. 34. 35. 36. 37. 38. 39. 40. d b b c c c c b

SECTION III 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. d a a a b b a c 9. 10. 11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 16. b b b a b a a c 17. 18. 19. 20. 21. 22. 23. 24. b b b a b a b a 25. 26. 27. 28. 29. 30. 31. 32. c a a a a c a a 33. 34. 35. 36. 37. 38. 39. 40. b b a a a b b b

SECTION IV

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1. c 2. d 3. d 4. c 5. a 6. d

7. d 8. d 9. c 10 b 11. a 12. b

13. b 14. a 15. a 16. c 17. b 18. d

19. d 20. a 21. d 22. c 23. b 24. c

25. b 26. d 27. d 28. d 29. c 30. d

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Coffee with SIBM| An Aspirant Relations Team Initiative