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IIT-JEE Full Test 3 (Paper I)

A

CHEMISTRY
SECTION I
Single Correct Choice Type
This section contains 8 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its answer, out of which ONLY ONE is
correct.
1. For reaction,
2 2 4
2NO (g) N O (g) ,
2 4
p,m( N O )
C 2x 6xT = + ,
2
p,m( NO )
C x 2xT = + ,

o
(1)
H A at T1 = +x kcal / mole then
o
(2)
H A at T2 = ?
(A) x (1 + 2T2 2T1) (B) x + xT2 xT1 (C) x (1 + T2
2
T1
2
) (D) x (1 T2 T1)

2. What intermediate is expected to involve in the reaction?

HBr

H
OTs
H
Br

(A)
H
H

(B)
H

(C)

(D) None of these

3. H2A, is a weak dibasic acid with K1(H2A) = 2 10
3
and K2(H2A) = 2 10
7
. Similarly, H2B is also a weak dibasic acid with K'1(H2B) = 3
10
2
and K'2 (H2B) = 3 10
5
. The stability of HA

with respect to HB

in their respective solution is:


(A) 10
1
times that of HB

(B) 10 times that of HB




(C)
5
3
10
4
times that of HB

(D)
5
4
10
9

times that of HB


4.
Me
C
Me
C
H
OH
+
2
4
Hg(OAc) / THF
NaBH / OH
A.


A is
(A)
Me
C
Me
CH
2
OH
OH

(B)
O

(C)
Me
CH
Me
CH
OH
OH

(D) none of these

5. A solution of a non-volatile solute in water has a boiling point of 375.3K. The vapour pressure of water above this solution at 338 K is
[Given p0 (water) = 0.2467 atm at 338 K and Kb for water = 0.52 K kg mol
1
]
(A) 0.18 atm (B) 0.23 atm (C) 0.34 atm (D) 0.42 atm

6. What is the product (D) of the following reaction?

3
(i)t BuO
(ii) H O
D.
+

CH
3
NH R
O

(A)
CH
3
N R
O
t-BuO
H

(B)
N
H
R

IIT-JEE Full Test 3 (Paper I)

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(2)
A
(C)
N
R

(D)
N
R

7. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct(s)?

H
Br Cl
H
H
Br H
Cl
Br
H H
Cl
Br
H Cl
H
(A) (B) (C) (D)


I. (A) and (B) are diastereomers II. (B) and (C) are enantiomers
III. (A) and (D) are geometric isomer IV. (A) and (C) are optical isomer
(A) only I is true (B) I, II & III are true (C) I & II are true (D) I, III and IV are true

8. Among the following which has the highest spin magnetic moment
(A) [CoF6]
3
(B) [NiF6]
4
(C) [Co(SCN)6]
4
(D) [Mn(SCN)6]
4


SECTION II
Multiple Correct Choice Type
This section contains 4 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its answer, out of which ONE OR MORE
is/are correct.

9. Which among the following are true about compounds of Boron and Si
(A) B2O3 and SiO2 are acidic in nature (B) Both B2O3 and SiO2 exist in two allotropic forms
(C) Borate and silicates structural units are different in structure
(D) Halides of both are easily hydrolysed except BF3

10. For a reaction in gaseous phase 2 A(g) 4B(g) + C(g)
if initial pressure is P0, total pressure of the gaseous mixture at time t is Pt and total pressure of the gaseous mixture at infinite time is P,
reaction follows first order kinetic, then which of the following is correct?
(A)
0
0 t
3P
K t n
5P 2P
| |
=
|

\ .
(B)
( )
t
3P
K t n
5 P P

| |
=
|
|

\ .

(C)
1/ 2
K t 0.693 = (D) pressure of A(g) at time t is
t
2
(P P )
3



11. Which of the following reaction(s) is/are correct(s)?
IIT-JEE Full Test 3 (Paper I)



A
(A)
O
CH
3
conc.HI

OH
3
CH I +

(B)


conc.HI
3 3 3 3
(CH ) C O Pr (CH ) CI Pr OH +


(C)
HI
3 3 2 3 3 2
(CH ) C CH O Pr (CH ) C CH OH Pr I +
(D)
conc.HI
3 2 2
3 2 2
CH CH CH O CH CH CH
CH CH CH OH CH CH CH I
= =
= + =


12. A metal A crystallizes into FCC lattice. B atoms are present in tetrahedral voids so as to form a perfect crystal. If the edge length of
cube is x and rA and rB are radii of A and B, then
(A)
A
4r 2x = (B)
A B
r r 3x + = (C)
A B
3
r r x
4
+ = (D)
B
A
r
0.256
r
=

SECTION III
Comprehension Type
This section contains 2 groups of questions. Each group has 3 multiple choice questions based on a paragraph. Each question has 4 choices
(A), (B), (C) and (D) for its answer, out of which ONLY ONE is correct.


Paragraph for Questions Nos. 13 to 15
Aqueous 200 ml 0.1M H2A solution when titrated against 0.1 M NaOH shows different results in presence of different indicators. For
phenolphthalene indicator it is converted to Na2A and with methyl orange it is converted to NaHA.

1
3
a 2
K H A 10

= ,
2
6
a 2
K (H A) 10

=
H2A + NaOH NaHA + H2O (Methyl orange)
H2A + 2NaOH Na2A + 2H2O (Phenalpthalene)
13. When 100 ml of NaOH is added in presence of methyl orange indicator, pH of solution is
(A) 3.5 (B) 4.5 (C) 3 (D) 4

14. When 200 ml of NaOH is added in presence of phenolpthalene indicator, then pH of solution is
(A) 3.5 (B) 4.5 (C) 3 (D) 4

15. When 200 ml of NaOH is added in presence of methyl orange indicator, pH of solution is
(A) 4.5 (B) 5 (C) 4 (D) 3.5

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Vidyadhar Nagar : Office No. 102, 1st Floor, Shivam Apartment, P. No. 4, Central Spine, Vidyadhar Nagar, Jaipur Ph :
0141-6595558
(4)
A
Paragraph for Questions Nos. 16 to 18
To explain the nature of bonding beautifully in transition metal complexes, out of lot of theories, valence bond theory (VBT) has great
importance, which is based on the theory of covalent bonding. It deals with electronic structures of central metal ion in its ground state, kinds of
geometry and magnetic properties of the complex.
According to VBT
(i) The central metal ion or atom contains a number of s, p and d atomic orbitals equal to its co-ordination number. First of all, these atomic
orbital hybridise together to form hybrid orbital which are same in number as the atomic orbital hybridizing together. These are vacant,
equivalent in energy and have definite geometry.
(ii) The complexes having unpaired electron is known as para-magnetic complex and having no unpaired electron is known as diamagnetic
complex.
Magnetic moment due to spin only = spin only = ( 2) . . n n B M +
where, n = no. of unpaired electron.
(iii) Nature of ligands also influences the nature of the complex compounds. Stronger ligands make pairing of electron against Hunds rule,
and generally produces inner orbitals complex are complexes in which ligands use the inner d-orbital of central metal ion.
Weaker ligands does not make pairing of electron and obeys Hunds rule and generally produces outer d-orbital complexes.
Keep in mind that the chelated complex is more stable than that of the non-chelated complex..
16. Which of the following is not the square planar complex ?
(A) [Ni(CN)4]
-2
(B) [Cu(NH3)4]
2+
(C) [Pt(NH3)4]
2+
(D) [Ni(CO)4]

17. In square planar complex, which of the following d-orbitals are used up ?
(A)
2 2
x y
d

(B)
2
z
d (C)
xy
d (D)
yz
d

18. Which of the following complex is more stable ?
(A) [Cr(en)3]
2+
(B) [Cr(CN)6]
3-
(C) [Cr(H2O)6]
3+
(D) [Cr(EDTA)]
-


IIT-JEE Full Test 3 (Paper I)



A
SECTION IV
Matrix-Match Type
This section contains 2 questions. Each question contains statements given in two columns,
which have to be matched. The statements in Column I are labelled A, B, C and D, while the
statements in Column II are labelled p, q, r, s and t. Any given statement in Column I can have
correct matching with ONE OR MORE statement(s) in Column II. The appropriate bubbles
corresponding to the answers to these questions have to be darkened as illustrated in the
following example: If the correct matches are A p, s and t; B q and r; C p and q; and D s
and t; then the correct darkening of bubbles will look like the following.




19. (i)
2 2
(i) Ozonolysis
5 8 3 3 4 2 (ii) CH N
A(C H O ) B(C H O ) +
OCH
3

(ii)
OCH
3
2 2
(i) Ozonolysis
2 2 2 4 6 3 (ii) CH N
C(C H O ) D(C H O ) +

Match the following :
Column I (Different Tests/Reactions) Column II (Produced Compounds)
(A) FeCl3 test (p) A
(B) Haloform test (q) B
(C) Tollens test (r) C
(D) Intramolecular cannizaro reaction (s) D

20. Consider the following 4 cells
Cell A: Pt/H2(g, 1atm) | NH3 (aq, 0.1M) || CH3COOH (aq, 0.1M) | H2 (g, 1 atm)/Pt
Kb = 10
5
Ka = 10
5

Cell B:
2 11 2 3
Cu(s) | Cu (aq,10 M) || Cu (aq, 10 M) | Cu(s)
+ +

Cell C:
3 3
2 2
Pt / H (g,1atm) | NaOH(aq,10 M) || HCl(aq,10 M) | H (g,1atm) / Pt


Cell D:
5
a( HCN) 10
4
2 2 4 2
K
Pt / H (g,1atm) | CN (aq, 0.1M) || H SO (aq,5 10 M) | H (g,1atm)/ Pt

=



Match the following :
Column I Column II
(A) Cell A (p)
o
cell
E = 0
(B) Cell B (q)
cell
E = 0.4728 V
(C) Cell C (r) pH at anode is 11
(D) Cell D (s) pH at cathode is 3



MATHEMATICS

SECTION I
Single Correct Choice Type
This section contains 8 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its answer, out of which ONLY ONE is
correct.

21. If x
2
+ 9y
2
= 1, then minimum and maximum value of 3x
2
27y
2
+ 24xy is
(A) 0, 5 (B) 5, 5 (C) 5, 10 (D) 0, 10

22. The harmonic mean of two numbers is 4 and their arithmetic mean and geometric mean satisfy the relation 2A + G
2
= 27. The numbers
are
(A) 6, 3 (B) 5, 4 (C) 5, 5/2 (D) 3, 1

23. If A,B,C are any three events in a sample space, such that
( ) ( ) ( ) ( ) P A B C P A P B P C > + + , then the events A,B,C are
(A) Pair wise independent (B) Exhaustive events
(C) mutually independent (D) mutually exclusive

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(6)
A
24. For x
2
(o + 2)|x| + 9 = 0 to have real solutions, the range of o is
(A) [, 4] (B) [4, ) (C) (, 7] [11, ) (D) [4, )

25. If e is any complex number such that ze = |z|
2
and | z z | | | 4, + e+e = then as e varies, then the area of locus of z is
(A) 4 sq. units (B) 8 sq. units (C) 16 sq. units (D) 12 sq. units

26. If a, b, c be three natural numbers in A.P. and a + b + c = 30, then the possible number of values of a, b, c is
(A) 19 (B) 24 (C) 30 (D) 36

27. tan(cos
1
x) is equal to
(A)
2
1 x
x

(B)
2
x
1 x +
(C)
2
1 x
x
+
(D)
2
x
1 x


28. Let A(1, 1, 1) and B(1, 1, 1) be the vertices of triangle ABC such that ZA = ZB. The locus of the vertex C is
(A) x + 2y + z = 0 (B) 2x + y z = 0 (C) x y + z = 0 (D) x 2y + z = 0


SECTION II
Multiple Correct Choice Type
This section contains 4 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its answer, out of which ONE OR MORE
is/are correct.

29. If in a AABC, ZC = 90 and b, sinA, cosA are rational numbers, then
(A) a is rational (B) c is irrational (C) c is rational (D) a is irrational

30. If p and q are odd integers, then the equation x
2
+ 2px +2 q = 0
(A) has no integral roots (B) has no rational roots
(C) has no irrational roots (D) has no imaginary roots.

31. A line which makes an acute angle u with the positive direction of xaxis is drawn the point A(4, 3) to meet the line x = 8 at B and y = 6
at C, then
(A) AB = 4 sec u (B) AC = 3 cosec u
(C)
2 2
16 9
1
(AB) (AC)
+ = (D)
2(4sin 3cos )
AB AC
sin 2
u+ u
+ =
u


32. Let a and b be odd integers such that 0 < a < b, let f(x) = x
a/b
for x e R, then
(A) f is differentiable everywhere (B) f '(0) does not exist
(C) f increases on (0, ) (D) f increases on R


IIT-JEE Full Test 3 (Paper I)



A
SECTION III
Comprehension Type
This section contains 2 groups of questions. Each group has 3 multiple choice questions based on a paragraph. Each question has 4 choices
(A), (B), (C) and (D) for its answer, out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

Paragraph for Questions Nos. 33 to 35

A point P moves such that sum of the slopes of the normals drawn from it to the hyperbola xy = 16 is equal to the sum of ordi nates of feet of
normals. The locus of P is a curve C.

33. The equation of the curve C, is
(A) x
2
= 4y (B) x
2
= 16y (C) x
2
= 12y (D) y
2
= 8x

34. If the tangent to the curve C cuts the coordinate axes in A and B, then the locus of the middle point of AB, is
(A) x
2
= 4y (B) x
2
= 2y (C) x
2
+ 2y = 0 (D) x
2
+ 4y = 0

35. Area of the equilateral triangle, inscribed in the curve C, having one vertex as the vertex of curve C.
(A) 772 3 sq. units (B) 776 3 sq. units (C) 760 3 sq. units (D) 768 3 sq. units

Paragraph for Questions Nos. 36 to 38

1. P(AB) = P(A) + P(B) P(AB)
2.
A
P
B
| |
|
\ .
means probability of occurrence of A given that B
has occurred
A P(A B)
P
B P(B)
| |
=
|
\ .

3. P(AB) = P(A)P(B)
Events A & B are independent.
A B B A A B
A
B
Venn Diagr am

4. If events A & B are independent, then A and B are also independent, A and B are also independent

36. If
3 2 1 A A
P(A) , P(B) , P(A B) , then P P
4 3 12 B B
| | | |
= = =
| |
\ . \ .

(A) 0 (B)
1
3
(C)
1
2
(D)
3
4

37. If
1 1
P(A) , P(B) ,
3 2
= = then the range of P(A B) is
(A)
1
0,
3
(
(

(B)
1 1
,
6 2
(
(

(C)
1 1
,
3 2
(
(

(D)
1 2
,
3 3
(
(



38. If
1 3
P(A) , P(B) ,
3 4
= = then the range of P(A B) is
(A)
1
0,
3
(
(

(B)
1
0,
4
(
(

(C)
1 3
,
3 4
(
(

(D)
1 3
,
4 4
(
(



SECTION IV
Matrix-Match Type
This section contains 2 questions. Each question contains statements given in two columns,
which have to be matched. The statements in Column I are labelled A, B, C and D, while the
statements in Column II are labelled p, q, r, s and t. Any given statement in Column I can have
correct matching with ONE OR MORE statement(s) in Column II. The appropriate bubbles
corresponding to the answers to these questions have to be darkened as illustrated in the
following example: If the correct matches are A p, s and t; B q and r; C p and q; and D s
and t; then the correct darkening of bubbles will look like the following.


39. Match the following:

IIT-JEE Full Test 3 (Paper I)

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(8)
A
(A) If x, y e [5, 5], then number of solutions (x, y) of the inequation
2
cosec x 1 2
3
2 2y 4y 1
4

+ s
(p) 1
(B) The number of solutions of the system of equations Re(z
2
) = 1,
|z| = 1, is

(q) 2


(C) The least +ve integral value of for which the equation
4 3 2
4
x x 4x 4 0
3
+ = has no real root
(r)
3
(D) If f(x) = tanx + 2tan2x + 2
2
tan (2
2
x) + .. + 2
n 1
tan(2
n 1
x) + 2
n
(cot2
n
x), then the
value of f '(t/6), is

(s) 4

40. Match the following:

Column I Column II
(A) The number of integral solutions of the equation
x + 2y = 2xy is
(p) 1
(B) The number of real solutions of the system of equations
2 2 2
2 2 2
2z 2x 2y
x , y , z
1 z 1 x 1 y
= = =
+ + +

(q)
2
(C) If a(y + z) = x, b(z + x) = y, c(x + y) = z, where a = 1, b = 1,
c = 1 admit non-trivial solutions, then
1 1 1
1 a 1 b 1 c
+ +
+ + +
is
(r) 0
(D) The number of solutions of the equation
2 2 2
3x 6x 7 5x 10x 14 4 2x x + + + + + s is
(s)
Infinite


IIT-JEE Full Test 3 (Paper I)



A

PHYSICS

SECTION I
Single Correct Choice Type
This section contains 8 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its answer, out of which ONLY ONE is
correct.

41. A monochromatic beam of width t is incident at 45 on an air water interface as shown in
the figure. The refractive index of water is and that of air is 1. The width of the beam in
water is,
(A) ( 1) t (B) t
(C)
2
1
t

(D)
( )
2
2 1
t

.
t
Air
Water


42. The variation of gravitational intensity g for a uniform solid sphere of mass M and radius R is given by

(A)

r=R
r
g
O

(B)

r=R
r
g
O

(C)

r=R
r
g
O

(D)

r=R
r
g
O


43. Which one of the following processes represents a gammadecay ?
(A)
A A
Z Z 1
X X a b

+ + + (B)
A 1 A 3
Z 0 Z 2
X n X c

+ +
(C)
A 0 A
Z 1 Z 1
X e X g

+ + (D)
A * A
Z Z
X X f +

44. An organ pipe filled with oxygen gas at 47C resonates in its fundamental mode at a frequency of 300 Hz. If it is now filled with nitrogen
gas, at which temperature will it resonate at the same frequency, in the fundamental mode ?
(A) 7C (B) 41.1C (C) 280C (D) 92.7C

45. A projectile is projected in the earths gravitational field with initial kinetic energy E. The horizontal of the projectile range is R. If the mass
of the projectile is 1 kg, then the angle of projection of the projectile will be equal to
(A) ( ) E 2 / gR sin
1
(B) ( ) E 2 / gR sin 2
1
(C) ( ) E 2 / gR sin 5 . 0
1
(D) ( ) E 2 / gR sin 4
1


46. A small cube of mass m slides down a circular path of radius R cut into a larger block of mass M,
as shown in the figure. M rests on a table and both blocks move without friction. The blocks are
initially at rest and m starts from the top of the path. The velocity v of the cube as it leaves the
block is
m
R
M

(A)
2mgR
M
(B) 2gR (C)
2mgR
m M +
(D)
2MgR
m M +


47. One end of a spring of force constant k is fixed to a vertical wall and the other to a body of mass m resting on a smooth horizontal
surface. There is another wall at a distance x0 from the body. The spring is then compressed by 2x0 and released. The time taken to
strike the wall is
(A)
m
6 k
t
(B)
m
k
(C)
2 m
3 k
t
(D)
m
4 k
t

48. A parallel plate capacitor has a capacitance C and charge Q. Another plate is inserted in between the plates of the capacitor at the
center and is connected by a long wire to another far off spherical conductor of radius R. What is the potential difference between the
edge of the sphere and one of the outer plates ?
(A)
Q
C
(B)
4
Q
C
(C)
2
Q
C
(D)
2Q
C


SECTION II
Multiple Correct Choice Type
This section contains 4 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its answer, out of which ONE OR MORE
is/are correct.

49. A thin convex lens made up of refractive index 0 is immersed in liquid 1 then which statement is wrong
(A) Lens will be converging if 1 > 0 (B) Lens will be convex only if 1 < 0
(C) Lens will become convex only if 1 > 0 (D) Lens will be diverging if 1 > 0

IIT-JEE Full Test 3 (Paper I)

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DEXL IIT-JEE Academy; Raja Park :DEXL House, 468-A, Gali No. 4, Raja Park, Jaipur Ph : 0141-4036660/4034848
Vidyadhar Nagar : Office No. 102, 1st Floor, Shivam Apartment, P. No. 4, Central Spine, Vidyadhar Nagar, Jaipur Ph :
0141-6595558
(10)
A
50. A dipole of dipole moment p is placed at a distance r from a point charge Q (as shown in
figure). Choose the correct statement.
(A) Torque acting on the dipole is zero
(B) Force acting on the dipole due to the electric field produced by Q is zero.
(C) Potential energy of the dipole due to the point charge Q is
2
o
Qp
4 r tc

(D) Force acting on the dipole due to the point charge Q is
3
o
Qp
2 r tc


p
Q
r


51. A particle of mass m is doing horizontal circular motion with the help of a string (conical
pendulum) as shown in the figure. If speed of the particle is constant then,
(A) the angular momentum of the particle about O is changing
(B) magnitude of angular momentum about O remains constant
(C) Z component of the angular momentum remains conserved
(D) Z component of torque is always zero.
O
Z (vertical)
Y
X
g u


52. The network shown in the figure is part of a complete circuit. If at a certain instant, the
electric current i is 10 A
(A) if electric current is increasing at a rate of 10
3
A/s, then
VA VB is zero
A B
10mH
20V
i
10mH

(B) if electric current is increasing at a rate of 10
3
A/s, then time rate of increase of magnetic energy in one of the inductors is 10 J/s
(C) if electric current is increasing at a rate of 10
3
A/s then time rate of increase of the total magnetic energy stored in both the inductors
is 200 J/s
(D) none of these

SECTION III
Comprehension Type
This section contains 2 groups of questions. Each group has 3 multiple choice questions based on a paragraph. Each question has 4 choices
(A), (B), (C) and (D) for its answer, out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

Paragraph for Questions Nos. 53 to 55

Figure shows a self-excited magneto-hydrodynamic (MHD) generator in which an electrically conducting gas of electrical conductivity o moves
with speed u along a duct with a square cross section of dimension a.
IIT-JEE Full Test 3 (Paper I)



A
duct
electrode
solenoid
p
1
u
p
2

The gas is driven by a pressure difference Ap = p1 p2. Metal electrodes of length are set in the top and bottom walls of the duct while a
magnetic field exists perpendicular to the insulated side walls of the duct. An emf is therefore set up between the electrodes which drives a
current through a long solenoid of n turns per unit length and negligible resistance which in turn provides the magnetic field.

53. The induced emf, c is equal to
(A) Ba u (B) B a u (C)
2
B
a
u
(D)
B
a
u


54. The resistance R in the path provided by the gas between the electrodes is
(A)
a
o (B)
1
a o
(C)
1
o
(D)
1
o


55. The current generated is given by
(A) i a P = A o u (B)
1
2
a( P ) A o u (C)
1
2
(a P ) A o u (D)
1
2
P(a ) A o u

Paragraph for Questions Nos. 56 to 58

Spectral lines in the atomic spectra result due to downward transition of electron from some excited state (principal Q.N. (n+x)) to less excited
state or ground state (principal Q.N. n). The wave numbers of spectral lines in the spectra of atom or ion containing only one electron fit into the
empirical equation

2
H 2 2
1 1 1
V R Z
n (n x)
(
= =
(
+


where q = 1, 2, 3 and 4 for the lines of Lyman, Balmer, Paschen and Brackett series respectively and it remain the same for all the lines of a
given series whereas x = 1, 2, 3, . for successive lines

2 2 4
H 3
2 K e
R
h C
t
= =Rydberg constant of hydrogen
= reduce mass of atom or ion =
mass of electron mass of nucleus
mass of electron + mass of nucleus


Mass of electron (me) being negligible in comparison to that of nucleus, Mass comes to be almost and taking this approximation RH is
calculated to be 109677 cm
1
.
In an atom or ion the energy of electron is quantized and lowest possible energy state is known as ground state. The energy state just above
the ground state is called 1
st
excited state and so on. The amount of energy required to remove the most loosely bound electron in an atom or
ion in its gaseous state is called IP. All the other terms in above equation have their usual meanings.

56. The wavelength of photon ( e hc/ = ) corresponding to the 3
rd
I P of Li atom (z = 3) in its 2
nd
excited state is
(A) 911.7 (B) 101.5
(C) 100.3
(D) cannot be calculated with the above equation applicable for one electron system

57. The wave number of the spectral line of H atom corresponding to longest wave length transition of the Lyman series is
(A) RH (B)
H
3
R
4
(C)
H
5
R
36
(D)
H
R
2


58. Suppose electron in H atom is replaced by negative meson (t) having the same charge as that of electron but almost 200 times as
heavier as electron. The wave number of the second line of Balmer series of this mesonic H atom ignoring nuclear motion will be
(A)
8 1
4.113 10 m

(B)
8 1
41.13 10 m

(C)
8 1
411.3 10 m

(D)
6 1
4.113 10 m



SECTION IV
Matrix-Match Type
IIT-JEE Full Test 3 (Paper I)

Space for Rough Work
















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(12)
A
This section contains 2 questions. Each question contains statements given in two columns,
which have to be matched. The statements in Column I are labelled A, B, C and D, while the
statements in Column II are labelled p, q, r, s and t. Any given statement in Column I can have
correct matching with ONE OR MORE statement(s) in Column II. The appropriate bubbles
corresponding to the answers to these questions have to be darkened as illustrated in the
following example: If the correct matches are A p, s and t; B q and r; C p and q; and D s
and t; then the correct darkening of bubbles will look like the following.


59. A charge q is placed inside a spherical cavity, made in an uncharged conducting sphere
of radius R as shown. A point charge Q is placed at a separation d from the centre of
solid sphere as shown in the figure.



a
Q
O d
r
R
X
r
q

Column A Column B
(A) Electrostatic potential at point X inside the
conductor
(p)
kQ kq kq kQ
d R r ' r
+
(B) Electrostatic potential at point O (q)
2
kQ
r

(C) The magnitude of the electrostatic field at point
X inside the conductor due to the charges
induced at the outermost surface only
(r)
kQ
r

(D) Electrostatic potential due to all the induced
charges at point X inside the conductor
(s)
kQ kq
d R
+

60. Column I contains some equation of motion along x axis w.r.t. time and column II measures distance, speed and acceleration at t = 1
sec.

Column I Column II
(A) x = 5t
2
+ 6t + 1 m (p) Distance = 12 m
(B) x = 8t
2
+ 8 m (q) Speed = 16m/s
(C) x = 3t
3
+ t
2
+ 5t (r) Acceleration = 10m/s
2

(D) x = t
3
+ 2t
2
+ 9t (s) Parabolic path




IIT-JEE Full Test 3 (Paper I)



A

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