CAT 2004 Detailed Solutions

M-PP-01 B1. 1 www.TestFunda.
com
1. Let us denote University 1 as U1, University 2 as U2 and
so on.
Consider day 3. 2 students from UK and 1 student from
USA visited the homepage. Also, 2 and 1 student from
U4 and U6 respectively visited the homepage.
U4 is in UK and U6 is in USA. Similarly, considering
day 2, U3 is in Netherlands and U8 is in India.
Canada has 2, 0 and 0 visitors on days 1, 2 and 3 and so
have U2 and U7. One of U2 and U7 is in Canada.
UK has 2, 0 and 2 visitors on days 1, 2 and 3 and we
know that U4 is in UK. But as U4 has 0 visitors on day 1,
we can say that either U2 or U7 is in UK. (If we assume
that UK has three of the eight listed universities, U4, U1
and U5, then considering the number of visitors on day
1, we do not find appropriate universities for India and
Netherlands.)
Similarly, considering India and Netherlands, U5 and U1
will be in these countries. Thus, we have the following
table.

University Country
University 1 India/Netherlands
University 2 UK/Canada
University 3 Netherlands
University 4 UK
University 5 Netherlands/India
University 6 USA
University 7 Canada/UK
University 8 India

University 1 can belong to Netherlands or India.
Hence, option 3.

2. University 5 can belong to the Netherlands or India.
Hence, option 1.

3. Students from University 4 and University 2/7 from UK
visited Prof. Singhs homepage in the three days.
Hence, option 2.

4. From the table, none of the countries can host more
than two of the listed universities.
Hence, option 1.

5. Let us consider the options:
1. Malaysia and China: The maximum level of
dissimilarity is 4 for V or N.
2. China and Thailand: The maximum level of
dissimilarity is 4 for V.
3. Thailand and Japan: The maximum level of
dissimilarity is 4 for D.
4. Japan and Malaysia: The maximum level of
dissimilarity is 3 for V or N.
Hence, option 4.

6.
China Japan Malaysia Thailand
C 1 2 3 1
P 1 3 1 2
N 2 1 2 0
V 1 0 3 3
D 1 4 3 0

The table gives levels of dissimilarity between India
and the other countries for all traits.
Clearly, Japan is most dissimilar to India (since its level
of dissimilarity is 4).
Hence, option 2.

7.
China Japan Malaysia Thailand
C 1 2 3 1
P 1 3 1 2
N 2 1 2 0
V 1 0 3 3
D 1 4 3 0

From the above table, China is least dissimilar to India
(since its level of dissimilarity is only 2).
Hence, option 1.

8. Consider the levels of dissimilarities for the four
options.
China and Japan 3 (for 'D')
India and China 2 (for 'N')
Malaysia and Japan 3 (for 'N' or 'V')
Thailand and Japan 4 (for 'D')
Hence, option 4.

9. All these questions can be solved by mere observation.

The shaded portion of the graph is the region where
Income > Expenditure and the unshaded portion is
where Expenditure > Income.
DETAILED SOLUTION
CAT 2004
B1
CAT 2004

M-PP-01 B1. 2 www.TestFunda.com
By observation we can see that the average
expenditure of the Dubey family is approximately
2000. The average expenditures of the Ahuja family,
the Bose family and the Coomar family are definitely
lesser than this.
Hence, option 4.

10. By observation, the Coomar family has the lowest
average income.
Hence, option 3.

11. A member of the Ahuja family has the highest income
and lowest expenditure. He/she has the highest
amount of savings.
Hence, option 1.

12. Both the members of the Dubey family have Incomes
that is almost equal to their Expenditures.
Their average savings are the lowest.
Hence, option 4.

13. Taras total grade points = 2.4 5 = 12
She gets B 4 in Finance. As she gets the same grade in
three courses, she would have got B in 3 subjects and F
in 2. (Getting a D in 4 subjects would also give the
correct GPA. However, this is not possible since it is
stated that Tara received the same grade in exactly
three courses.)
Thus, she would have got either B or F in Operations,
but only B is provided in the options (i.e. Manab's
grade).
Hence, option 4.

14. Preetis total grade points = 3.2 5 = 16
Her grade points in Finance, Marketing and Strategy =
0 + 2 + 2 = 4
She scores 12 in Statistics and Operations, which is
possible only if she obtains an A in both these subjects.
Hence, option 1.

15. Utkarshs grade in Marketing
= Fazals grade in Strategy
= (2.4 5 2 0 4 2) = 4 B
Utkarshs grade in Finance = (3 5 6 3 0 4) = 2
D
Hence, option 3.

16. Gowris grade points in Strategy
= (3.8 5 3 3 6 4) = 3 C
Fazals grade points in Strategy
= 4 B (from the previous answer)
Haris grade points in Strategy and Finance
= (2.8 5 4 6 2) = 2, i.e. he got grades F and D in
Strategy and Finance, in some order.
Nishas grade points in Strategy = 6 A
Rahuls grade points in Strategy
= 4.2 5 6 3 6 0 = 6 A
Gowris grade point in Strategy is higher than Haris.
Hence, option 2.

17. The number of mixer-grinders in operation in any year
can be divided into four categories: Newly purchased,
one year old, two year old and older.
Consider Naya mixer-grinders.
As 30 mixer-grinders were in operation in 1997 and
the brand itself was introduced in that year, all 30 were
newly purchased.
In 1998, 80 were in operation, out of which 30 were
one-year old.
50 were newly purchased.
In 1999, 124 were in operation, out of which 50 were
one-year old.
Out of the 30 purchased in 1997, 20% or 6 were
disposed of in 1999.
30 0.8 = 24 out of the 124 were two-year old.
Similarly in 2000, 134 were in operation, out of which
50 were one year old, 40 were two years old and 24
were older than two years.
Thus we have the following:

Naya Mixer-Grinders
Old
Year
In
Operation
1
year
2
years
Older New
Disposed
of
1997 30 0 0 0 30 0
1998 80 30 0 0 50 0
1999 124 50 24 0 50 6
2000 134 50 40 24 20 10
Consider Purana Mixer-grinders. As 10 of these were
disposed of in 1997,

70 mixer-grinders in operation in 1995 were old. The
break-up of these however cannot be found.
Out of the 162 in operation in 1996, 50 were one year
old. The break-up of the rest cannot be found as we do
not have data of years before 1995 and we have not
been given the number of mixer-grinders purchased in
1996.
In 1997, 182 were in operation and 10 were disposed
of. Thus 182 + 10 = 192 mixer-grinders were either
newly purchased or old.
Out of these 192, 162 existed in 1996 too.
192 162 = 30 were newly purchased in 1997.
As the number of newly purchased mixer-grinders in
1996 is not known, the number that were disposed of
in 1998 cannot be found. Consequently, the number
that were newly purchased also cannot be found.
Continuing this process for the years 1999 and 2000,
the entire data can be presented as follows:

CAT 2004

Purana Mixer-Grinders
Year
In
Operation
Old New Disposed of
1995 120 70 50
1996 162
1997 182 152 30 10
1998 222
1999 236 216 20 6
2000 236

10 + 6 = 16 Naya mixer-grinders were disposed of by
the end of 2000.
Hence, option 2.

18. 50 Naya mixer-grinders were purchased in 1999.
Hence, option 2.

19. 20 Purana mixer-grinders were purchased in 1999.
Hence, option 1.

20. As the number of Purana mixer-grinders purchased in
1996 is not known, the ones purchased and disposed of
in 1998 and 2000 cannot be determined.
Hence, option 4.

21. Let one kilogram of potatoes, onions and gourd cost Rs.
p, Rs. o and Rs. g respectively. Then p + o + g < 75.

Consider statement A:
2p + g < p + 2g
p < g
But, nothing is known about o.
Statement A is insufficient.

Consider statement B:
p + 2o = o + 2g
o + p = 2g
The cost of 1 kg of gourd is the average of the costs of
1 kg potatoes and 1 kg onions.
g is neither the costliest nor the cheapest.
But the costliest vegetable cannot be found.
Statement B is insufficient.

Considering both statements together:
p < g and g is the average of p and o
o > g
Onions are the costliest.
Hence, option 3.

22. Let Tarak get h heads and t tails.
Let Tarak be at 0 on the number line.
Then the blue mark is at 3 and the red mark is at 2.

h + t = 21 and
h t = 2 (if he stops at the blue mark) or
h t = 3 (if he stops at the red mark)
Solving, 2h = 23 (however, this is not possible)
or 2h = 18
h = 9 and t = 12
Tarak stops at the blue mark.
Statement A is sufficient.

h = t 3 and h t = 2 or h t = 3
He stops at the blue mark.
Statement B is also sufficient.
Hence, option 2.

23. Let Nandini use a, b, c and d notes of denominations 1,
2, 5 and 10 respectively.
Then c + d = a + b + 1 and price of the article = a + 2b +
5c + 10d

a + b + c + d = 13
2(a + b) + 1 = 13
a + b = 6, c + d = 7
Price of the article cannot be found from this data.
a + 2b + 5c + 10d = 10k
As a, b, c, d 1, 10k 18
k 2
But, statement B is also insufficient.

Considering both statements together:
We know that a + b = 6, c + d = 7 and Price = 10k
When c = 2 and d = 5, Price = a + 2b + 60
When c = 4 and d = 3, Price = a + 2b + 50
Even if we assume that there is only one value of (a, b)
such that a + 2b is a multiple of 10, we will still get at
least 2 values for the price of the article.
Hence, data is insufficient.
Hence, option 4.

24. Let A, B, C and D get the highest to lowest scores in that
order.

Consider statement A: A votes for B, B votes for A and
C votes for A.
If D votes for A, A wins.
If D votes for B, there is a tie between A and B and A
wins as he has the highest score.
If D votes for C/D, A wins.
Statement A alone is sufficient.

Consider statement B: D votes for B. This statement
alone is not sufficient.
Hence, option 1.

25. Consider statement A: There were 60% of 30 = 18
boys in the class.
Kumars rank among boys |0.25 18| or 4
If Kumars rank among boys = 4, there are 2 girls in the
first 6 rankers.
CAT 2004

Rashmis rank is seven.
If Kumars rank among boys is 3, 2 or 1, there are 3, 4
or 5 girls in the first 6 rankers.
Rashmis rank is three.

Consider statement B: There were three boys in the
top 5 and Kumar was 6
th
.
There were 4 boys and 2 girls in the top 6.
Rashmi was not in the top six.
Kumar had a better overall rank.
Statement B is sufficient.
Hence, option 1.

26. Let Zakibs and Supriyos incomes be z and s
respectively.
0.2z > 0.25s

z > s
Zakib and Supriyo spend 0.3z and 0.4s on childrens
education.

Statement A alone is not sufficient.

0.13s > 0.1z

Supriyo spends more than Zakib on childrens
education.
Statement B alone is sufficient.
Hence, option 1.

27. Consider the game against Pakistan (G1).
Runs scored by Y, V and K = 40 + 130 + 28 = 198
Total runs scored = 198/0.9 = 220
Runs scored by R (r1) and S (s1), r1, s1 < 28 and
r1 + s1 22
Consider the game against South Africa (G2).
Runs scored by K, R and S = 51 + 49 + 75 = 175
Runs scored by Y (y2) and V (v2), y2, v2 < 49 and
y2 + v2 75
Consider the game against Australia (G3).
Runs scored by R, Y and S = 87 + 55 + 50 = 192
Runs scored by V (v3) and K (k3), v3, k3 < 50,
v3 + k3 48
Rs M-index = 49
Ss M-index = 50
Vs M-index 49
Ys M-index is either 40 or between 41 and 49.
S had the best M-index.
Hence, option 2.

28. If y2 < 40, then Ys R-index = 87 y2 > 47; i.e. 47 < Ys R-
index 87
If y2 > 40, then Ys R-index = 87 40 = 47
47 Ys R-index 87
Similarly,
23 Ks R-index 51
33 Rs R-index 55 ( r1, s1 < 28 and r1 + s1 22)
53 Ss R-index 75 ( r1, s1 < 28 and r1 + s1 22)
82 Vs R-index 130 ( v3, k3 < 50, v3 + k3 48)
Any one of Y, K or R could have the lowest R-index.
Hence, option 1.

29. From answer to the first question, the M-index of only
R and S can be exactly calculated.
Hence, option 3.

30. Y scored 127 in G1 and G3. V scored 130 in G1 itself.
Ks max score could be 28 + 51 + 48 = 127
Rs max score could be 49 + 55 + 22 = 126
Ss max score could be 75 + 50 + 22 = 147
Only R definitely scored less than Y.
Hence, option 2.

31. Let there be x labour experts. Then, the number of
health, population and refugee relocation experts will
be 2x each.
Hence, x + 2x + 2x + 2x = 7x = 21
x = 3
That is, the number of Labour, Health, Population and
Refugee Relocation experts are 3, 6, 6 and 6
respectively.
Let Australasia have (y + 1) experts. Then the Americas
have 2y experts and Africa and Europe have y experts
each.
y + 1 + 2y + y + y = 21
y = 4
That is, Australasia, Americas, Africa and Europe have
5, 8, 4 and 4 experts respectively.
As Australasia has sent at least 2 experts on population
studies, it has sent 1 expert each for the other three
fields.
The Americas and Europe have sent 1 expert each on
labour.
Europe has sent 1 expert each on Health, Population
Studies and Refugee Relocation.

CAT 2004

Labour Health
Popula-
tion
Studies
Refugee
Reloca-
tion
Total
Africa 0 4
Americas 1 8
Australasi
a
1 1 2 1 5
Europe 1 1 1 1 4
Total 3 6 6 6 21

Number of experts in Refugee Relocation from Africa
cannot be found.
Hence, option 4.

32. If Africa and Americas, each have 1 expert in
population studies, the total number of experts in this
field = 5, which is not possible as we know that the
number is 6.
Option 4 is not possible.
Hence, option 4.

33. If Americas have 1 expert in population studies, we
have the following.

Labour Health
Popula-
tion
Studies
Refugee
Reloca-
tion
Total
Africa 0 1 2 1 4
Americas 1 3 1 3 8
Australas
ia
1 1 2 1 5
Europe 1 1 1 1 4
Total 3 6 6 6 21

Option 3 is not true.
Hence, option 3.

34. Since Africa has 4 experts in total and none of them are
from labour, the number of experts from the other 3
fields should be 4.
Hence, Africas Refugee Relocation experts 2
The total number of Refugee Relocation experts in the
conference was 6. Of these, 1 is from Europe and 1 is
from Australasia.
Hence, Refugee Relocation experts from Africa and
Americas = 4
Hence, Total number of Refugee Relocation experts
from Americas = 2 or 3
Apart from Alex, there is at least one more and at
most 2 more American experts in refugee relocation.
Hence, option 3.

35. Since Pakistans Goals For (GF) and Goals Against
(GA) is 2 and 1 respectively, and it won 1 game and lost
the other, the only possible combination of scores for
Pakistan in its two matches will be 2:0 and 0:1.
Similarly, Germanys scores in its two matches will be
2:1 and 1:0; while Argentinas scores in its two
matches will be 1:0 and 1:0.
Hence, we have the following table:
(G stands for Germany, A for Argentina, S for Spain, P
for Pakistan, NZ for New Zealand and SA for South
Africa)

Goals For Goals Against
G
1 0
2 1
A
1 0
1 0
S

P
2 0
0 1
NZ

SA

Since Spain lost to Germany in the opening round, one
of Spains score could be either 0:1 or 1:2. Since Spains
total GF = 5 and GA = 2 for the first 2 rounds, we have
the following possible scores for Spain:

Possibilities
for Spain
1
0 1
5 1
2
1 2
4 0

Since the GF for both South Africa and New Zealand is
1, for each of these teams the GF for one match will be
1 while the GF of the second match will be 0. Hence, the
different possibilities are as follows:

Possibilities
for SA
1
1 3
0 1
2
1 2
0 2

Possibilities
for NZ
1
1 2
0 4
2
1 3
0 3
3
1 4
0 2
4
1 5
0 1

CAT 2004

Combining the above possibilities for Spain, SA and NZ
with the table showing the scores of Germany,
Argentina and Pakistan, we see that the 1st possibility
for SA is not possible since no possibility for any other
team has the score 3:1. Similarly, the 2nd and 3rd
possibility for NZ can also be eliminated. Hence, we
have,
Against Goals For Goals Against

G
1 0
wins, SA 2 1

A
1 0
1 0

S
0/1 1/2
5/4 1/0
wins, SA
P
2 0
0 1

NZ
1 2/5
0 4/1
loses, G
SA
1 2
loses, P 0 2

Looking at the GF and GA values, we can guess which
teams played against others, for certain cases. (For
example, SA has a score of 1:2 and Germany is the only
team to have 2:1.) These are filled in the first column of
the above table.

Also, since Germany beats SA with a score of 2:1, it
beats Spain with a score of 1:0. This eliminates the 2nd
possibility for Spain. This implies that Spain beats NZ
with 5:1, eliminating NZs 1st possibility. Hence, we
have,

wins, S
G
1 0
wins, SA 2 1
wins, P
A
1 0
wins, NZ 1 0
loses, G
S
0 1
wins, NZ 5 1
wins, SA
P
2 0
loses, A 0 1
loses, S
NZ
1 5
loses, A 0 1
loses, G
SA
1 2
loses, P 0 2
Compiling the above information, we have the
following:

Country 1 Goals Country 2 Goals
Germany 1 Spain 0
Germany 2 South Africa 1
Argentina 1 Pakistan 0
Argentina 1 New Zealand 0
Spain 5 New Zealand 1
Pakistan 2 South Africa 0
Argentina beat Pakistan by 1 goal to 0.
Hence, option 2.

36. Germany beat SA by 2 goals to 1.
Hence, option 4.

37. The following table gives the distribution of games
within each round:

R1 and R2 R3 R4 R5
G versus A - draw - -
G versus S G wins - - -
G versus P - - P won 1:0 -
G versus NZ - - -
G won
3:0
G versus SA G wins - - -
A versus S - - S won -
A versus P A wins - - -
A versus NZ A wins - - -
A versus SA - - -
A won
3:0
S versus P - draw - -
S versus NZ S wins - - -
S versus SA - - - S won
P versus NZ - - -
P won
1:0
P versus SA P wins - - -
NZ versus SA - draw - -

(Note: There is an inconsistency in the question. In
Round 4, only 4 teams have played while in Round 5,
two teams (NZ and SA) have played 2 matches. This, as
we will see later, causes an inconsistency in the
question as well.)
The points table will be as follows:

Points
R1 and R2 R3 R4 R5 Total
G 6 1 0 3 10
A 6 1 0 3 10
S 3 1 3 3 10
P 3 1 3 3 10
NZ 0 1 0 1
SA 0 1 0 1

Since, 4 teams are tied with the same number of points,
the qualifying teams will be chosen based on their Goal
Difference (GD).
The GFs and GAs for the first two rounds is already
given. In the third round, the match of Germany versus
Argentina was drawn. Hence, both their GFs and GAs
will be equal (say, X). In the fourth round, Spain won
the match against Argentina. Hence, if Spains score is
(say) A:B, where A > B, then Argentinas will be B:A.

Following along similar lines, we have the following
table:
CAT 2004


R1 and
R2
R3 R4 R5
GF GA GF GA GF GA GF GA
G 3 1 X X 0 1 3 0
A 2 0 X X
B
(<A)
A 3 0
S 5 2 Y Y A
B
(<A)
C
D
(<C)
P 2 1 Y Y 1 0 1 0

Hence,
GD for Pakistan = (2 + Y + 1 + 1) (1 + Y + 0 + 0) = 3
GD for Germany = (3 + X + 0 + 3) (1 + X + 1 + 0) = 4
GD for Argentina = (2 + X + B + 3) (0 + X + A + 0) = 5 +
(B A)
Since B < A, hence (B A) < 0
GD for Argentina < 5
GD for Spain = (5 + Y + A + C) (2 + Y + B + D)
= 3 + (A B) + (C D)
Since A > B and C > D, hence (A B) 1 and (C D) 1
GD for Spain 5
Hence, Pakistan cannot qualify for the finals! The
closest option that can be marked is 'Cannot be
determined'.
Hence, option 4.

38. From the solution to the above question, it is clear that
Germany, Argentina, Spain and Pakistan are tied after 5
rounds, but only Spains GD 5.
Hence, option 3.

39. Let PA, FB and SC denote the lamp post, the father and
the son respectively and let D denote the point where
the shadows of the fathers and sons heads are
incident.

BFD ~ CSD

FD = 2 SD
Let SD = FS = x m
APD ~ BFD

x = 0.45 m
The son is standing 0.45 m away from the father.
Hence, option 4.

40.
Water Milk Total
Initially 20 80 100
Sold
25
Remaining 15 60 75
Added 25 0 25
Current 40 60 100

The quantity of milk and water is shown in the table.
Current proportion of water and milk is
40 : 60 = 2 : 3
Hence, option 1.

41. In the first race when Karan runs 100 m, Arjun runs
90 m.
Ratio of Karans and Arjuns speed = 10 : 9
In the second race, when Karan runs 110 m,

Karan beats Arjun by 1 m.
Hence, option 4.

42. Total time taken for singing = 28 minutes
Total songs sung = 14
As there are N persons, the total number of songs sung
N
C2 (those sung between adjacent persons) =
N
C2 N

(N 7)(N + 4) = 0
N = 7
Hence, option 2.

6
1.8
0.9
A
B
C
D P F S 2.1
x
x
CAT 2004

43. Let a and d be the first term and the common
difference of the AP.
Sum of the first n terms of this A.P.

The sum of the first 30 terms = 15 (2a + 29d) (i)
By conditions,

11a + 55d = 19a + 171d
8a = 116d

From (i),
The sum of the first 30 terms = 15 (29d + 29d)
The sum of the first 30 terms = 0
Hence, option 1.

Alternatively,
If the sum of the first p terms of an A.P. is equal to the
sum of the first q terms of the A.P. such that p and q are
different, then the sum of the first (p + q) terms of the
A.P. is zero.
As the sum of the first 11 and the sum of the first 19
terms of the A.P. is equal, the sum of the first (11 + 19)
= 30 terms of the A.P. is zero.
Hence, option 1.

44. Let x hrs be the time required to reach the place at
11:00 am
Distance that the man has to cycle = 15x km

15x = 10x + 20
5x = 20
x = 4 hrs
Distance to be travelled = 60 km
To reach the place at noon, the man should cycle for
x + 1 = 5 hrs.
Let the new speed be y.

y = 12 km/hr
Hence, option 2.

45. Members are added on the first day of every month for
6 months before July 2, 2004.
Number of members in S1 on July 2, 2004 = n + 6b
= 64n (as b = 10.5n)
Number of members in S2 on July 2, 2004 = n r
6

By conditions, 64n = n r
6

r = 2
Hence, option 1.

46. x + y = xy

Thus y is the quotient of two consecutive integers. As y
is an integer, x can take only the values 0 and 2. The
corresponding values of y will be 0 and 2.
The only integer pairs satisfying this equation are
(0, 0) and (2, 2).
Hence, option 3.

Alternatively,
The only two pairs of numbers whose sum is equal to
their product are (0, 0) and (2, 2).
Hence, option 3.

47. f(x) = x
3
4x + p
f(0) = p and f(1) = p 3
p 3 < p
As p and p 3 are of opposite signs, p 3 < 0 and p > 0.
p < 3 and p > 0
0 < p < 3
Hence, option 2.

48. 10
10
< n < 10
11

10000000000 < n < 100000000000
As the sum of the digits of n = 2, n can be any one out of
11000000000
10100000000
10010000000
.
.
.
10000000001 (10 such numbers)
or n can be 20000000000
There are 11 such values of n.
Hence, option 1.

By property of equal ratios,

Assuming (a + b + c 0),

CAT 2004

If a + b + c = 0, a = (b + c)

Hence, option 3.

50.

2y
2
+ 7y = 3 + y
2y
2
+ 6y 3 = 0

As all the terms in y are positive, y is positive.

Hence, option 4.

51. f(x) = ax
2
b|x|
x
2
and |x| both are positive. Let x 0.

Consider the following cases:
1. a > 0, b > 0
f(x) > 0, when ax
2
> b|x|
f(x) < 0, when ax
2
< b|x|
f(x) is neither maximised or minimised when x = 0.
2. a > 0, b < 0
f(x) = ax
2
+ |b||x| > 0
Thus f(x) is greater than 0 when x 0.
f(x) is minimised whenever a > 0, b < 0.
Hence, option 4.

52. The boats together travel 10 + 5 = 15 km in 60 minutes.

Hence, option 3.

53. Let f be the number of families.
The number of adults 2f, children 3f
Also, adults > boys > girls > families
If f = 2, the minimum possible number of girls and boys
is 3 and 4.
Thus, number of children = 3 + 4 = 7 and number of
adults 4
But as adults > boys, f cannot be 2.
If f = 3, minimum possible number of girls and boys = 4
and 5.
Thus number of children = 9 and number of adults 6
This is possible. Thus the minimum number of families
in the locality = 3.
Hence, option 4.

54. 100 nuts are produced per minute.
Time taken to produce 1000 nuts = 10 minutes.
But the machine needs cleaning for 5 minutes after
producing 1000 nuts. Thus effective time taken to
produce 1000 nuts = 15 minutes.
Effective time taken to produce 9000 nuts =
9 15 time taken for the last cleaning
= 135 5 = 130 minutes.
75 bolts are produced per minute.
Time taken to produce 1500 bolts = 20 minutes.
But the machine needs cleaning for 10 minutes after
producing 1500 bolts. Thus effective time taken to
produce 1500 bolts = 30 minutes.
Effective time taken to produce 9000 bolts = 6 30
time taken for the last cleaning = 180 10 = 170
minutes.
Thus time taken to produce 9000 pairs of nuts and
bolts = 170 minutes.
Hence, option 3.

55. Let the length and breadth of the rectangle be x and y
respectively.
x > y

Hence, option 2.

56.

Let the diameters of I and II be 4x and 3x.
SQO ~ RPO

CAT 2004


42 = 56 7x
x = 2
PQ = 7 cm, OQ = 21 cm
PQ : OQ = 1 : 3
Hence, option 2.

57. Radius of circle II = 1.5 2 = 3 cm.
Hence, option 2.

Alternatively,
We can solve this question and the previous question
together using options as follows:

Consider each of the options in this question.
1. If the radius of circle II is 2, the radius of I is 8/3. PQ
is then 14/3 and OQ is 70/3.
PQ : OQ = 1 : 5, which is not there in the options of
the previous question.
2. If the radius of circle II is 3, the radius of I is 4. PQ is
then 7 and OQ is 21.
PQ : OQ = 1 : 3, which is there in the options of the
previous question. This is possible.

The radius of circle II is 3 and PQ : OQ = 1 : 3
Hence, option 2.

58. SO
2
= OQ
2
SQ
2

Hence, option 3.

59.

mEBC = 65
mEOC = 130 ( angle subtended by an arc at the
centre is twice the angle subtended by the same arc on
the circumference)
As AC || ED, mOCE = mDEC
OEC is an isosceles triangle.
mOCE = mOEC = (180 130)/2 = 25
mDEC = 25
Hence, option 4.

60.

Quadrilateral ABCD is an isosceles trapezium.
Let AM = DN = x
AD = 8, AO = DO = BO = CO = 4
OM = ON = 4 x
BMO and BMA are right triangles.
OB
2
= OM
2
+ MB
2

16 = (4 x)
2
+ h
2
(i)
Also,
AB
2
= MB
2
+ AN
2

4 = x
2
+ h
2
(ii)
From (i) and (ii), x = 0.5
BC = 2(4 x)
BC = 7
Hence, option 2.

61.
0 x 1 x 1 1 x < 0 x 1
f1(x) x 1 0 0
f2(x) = f1(x) 0 0 x 1
f3(x) = f2(
x)
0 0 x 1
f4(x) = f3(x) x 1 0 0

f1(x) = x 0 x 1
= 1 x 1
= 0 1 x < 0
= 0 x 1
The table is written after defining the given function as
above.
From the table, only f1(x) f2(x) and f2(x) f4(x) are
necessarily zero for every x.
Hence, option 3.

62. From the table in the previous question,
f3(x) = f4(x) = f1(x).
Hence, option 2.
CAT 2004

63. Let there be a, b and c questions in groups A, B and C
respectively.
Then, a + b + c =100
Total marks = a + 2b + 3c

b = 23
a + c = 77
a = 77 c

a 0.6a + 27.6 + 1.8c
4a 276 + 18c
a 69 + 4.5c
a 4.5c 69
77 c 4.5c 69
77 69 + 5.5c
c 8/5.5
c = 1
Hence, option 1.

Alternatively,
Evaluating options,
If C has 1 question then B and A have 23 and 76
questions respectively.
The total number of marks = 125
Group A has 60.8% marks.
Option 1 is possible.
If C has 2 questions then B and A have 23 and 75
If C has 3 questions then B and A have 23 and 74
Hence, option 1.

64. c = 8
a + b = 92

2b 23.2 + 0.2b

b 13
Also, as group A carries at least 60% of the total marks,
a 78
b 15
b can be 13 or 14.
Hence, option 3.

Alternatively,
Consider options.
For c = 8 and b = 11, a = 81. The total marks = 127.
Group B has 17.32% marks, which is not possible.
Group B has 18.75% marks, which is not possible.
Group B has 20.15% marks and group A 61.24%
marks, which is possible.
Group B has 21.53% marks and group A has 60%
marks, which is possible.
Group B has 22.9% marks and group A has 58.77
marks, which is not possible.
Hence, option 3.

65. Let r = x.
The circumference of the circular path = 2x.
The sprinter covers 2x metres in one round. The time
taken to complete each round is as under:

Average
Speed
Time
Distance
Covered
Round
x 0.5 x/2
1
st
Round Time
Required
= 7.5 minutes
x/2 1 x/2
x/4 2 x/2
x/8 4 x/2
x/16 8 x/2
2
st
Round Time
Required
= 120 minutes
x/32 16 x/2
x/64 32 x/2
x/128 64 x/2
x/256 128 x/2
3
st
Round Time
Required
= 1920 minutes
x/512 256 x/2
x/1024 512 x/2
x/2048 1024 x/2

Thus, we see that the ratio of time taken for the second
round to that for the 1
st
round = 16.
Similarly, ratio of time taken for the third round to that
for the 2
nd
round = 16 and so on.
Hence, option 3.

66. a1 = 81.33
a2 = 19
a3 = 100.33
a4 = 81.33
a5 = 19
a6 = 100.33
a7 = 81.33
a8 = 19
We can see that the sequence repeats itself after every
6 terms.
Sum of the first 6 terms of the sequence = 0
CAT 2004

Thus, the sum of the first 6000 terms of this sequence
= 0
The sum of the 6001
st
and 6002
nd
terms = 81.33 19
= 62.33
Hence, option 3.

67. (15
23
+ 23
23
) is divisible by (15 + 23) ie, 38.
15
23
+ 23
23
= 38x, which is divisible by 19.
Remainder when (15
23
+ 23
23
) is divided by 19 is 0.
Hence, option 3.

68. To reach point B from A, the car has to take a
northward route thrice and a westward route five
times. Thus we can visualise a set of 8 routes out of
which 3 will be northward and 5 westward.
The number of ways in which the car can reach point B
from A is a permutation of 8 routes, 5 (W) and 3 (N) of
which are repeated.

Hence, option 2.

69.

Let the radius of C be r.

and so on.
Thus the areas of circles with diameters P0P1, P1P2,
P2P3, are

Required ratio = 11 : 12
Hence, option 4.

70. u = (log2 x)
2
6 log2 x + 12 (i)
x
u
= 256
Taking log on both sides,
u log2 x = log2 256 = 8
Let log2 x = m
u m = 8
Substituting in (i),

m
3
6m
2
+ 12m 8 = 0
(m 2)
3
= 0
m = 2
log2 x = 2
x = 4
The given equation has exactly one solution for x.
Hence, option 2.

71. The first stripe can be coloured in 4 ways. Then the
second can be coloured in 3 ways. The third, fourth,
fifth and sixth can be coloured thereafter in 3 ways
each.
The total number of ways in which the flag can be
coloured
= 4 3 3 3 3 3
= 12 81 ways.
Hence, option 1.

72. Let the side of the cube be a units.
DF, AG and CE are body diagonals each of length a
units.
The triangle is an equilateral triangle of side a
units.
Circumradius of this equilateral triangle

Circumradius = side of cube.
Hence, option 1.

73.

A D
C B
K
O
CAT 2004


AB = AK = 2
Quadrilateral ABCD is a square.

Let the centre of the smaller circle be O and let its
radius be x.

Hence, option 4.

Alternatively,
By visual inspection, we can see that the radius of the
smaller circle is less than half the radius of the larger
circle. After finding the approximate values of the four
options, we can eliminate options 2 and 3.
Now, the approximate values of options 1and 4 are
0.17 and 0.343 respectively. Also AC = 2.82
The distance between the smaller circle and point C is
less than the radius of the small circle. This distance is
given by
AC AK 2(KO) = 2.82 2 2(KO)
Considering option 1,
2.82 2 2(0.17) = 0.48, which is more than 0.17.
Option 1 is eliminated.
Considering option 4,
2.82 2 2(0.343) = 0.134, which is less than 0.343.
Option 4 is the answer.
Hence, option 4.

74. In an out-of-season resort hotel, there should be less
people. Similarly if the white house resembled this
serene hotel, it should have empty (option 3) corridors.
Hollow is incorrect, as it does not blend with the
context very well.
The corridors could be white but then again, we need a
word which goes with the idea of an out-of-season
hotel.
Striking too goes out of context.
Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

75. If people were speaking in low-pitched voices, they
would not be loud (option 3) or stentorian (marked by
loud voice, option 4).
Quiet goes more with the idea of low-pitched voices,
therefore, we can eliminate faded (option 2) as well.

76. The only colour or choler (anger, irritability) was
provided by the president; therefore, his temper
(option 4) would easily set off. Since the author
indicates anger, humour and laughter can be ruled out.
Curiously does not go with the idea of anger.

77. The president was not prowling the corridors as there
is no mention of the president wanting to catch hold of
someone (no predatory instinct that is). A stroll is a
leisurely walk and in his angry mood, the president
cannot be taking a leisurely walk! Stormed will not fit
where usage is concerned. A person may storm in or
out of a corridor. Paced is the correct word. Pace is a
manner of walking in which a person may stride or
walk back and forth.

78. The statement that the person himself did not file
returns is a straightforward or a blunt statement, with
no deceitfulness (treachery) or tact (diplomacy) or
pretension (to give a false appearance). Therefore,
blunt is the best adjective here.

79. The principal tax has already been mentioned, so we
can eliminate option 3. Ramesh has mentioned that he
has not filed his returns; hence the answer is not
option 4 either. If the 20,000 became 60, 000 it could
be because of interest levied. Therefore, interest is a
more suitable option than taxes.

80. If Ramesh has not paid income tax for the years
mentioned, most likely, the IT department will levy
charges. The charges could take the form of interests
and fines. One of the options (the precious question)
was interest. It follows that the second could be fines.
Working with the options also gives us the same
answer. Ramesh will not get a refund (option 2) unless
he files his returns. IT department does not charge fees
(option 3). There are no sanctions (option 1) involved
in income tax.

81. In legal terms, attach means to seize persons or
property by legal writ. Impound also has a similar
meaning to seize and retain in legal custody. The
word is generally used in terms of confiscating illegal
possessions. But royalties and trust funds, when seized
by the use of a legal writ, are said to be attached.
Detached being the opposite, does not apply. Nor does
the word closed.

82. The income tax department is a not violent mob which
would destroy (smash) or dismantle (take apart)
automobiles. Nor will it freeze an automobile. The
CAT 2004

correct word is seized. It can seize or get hold of
automobiles.

83. The person who does not file his or her IT returns
becomes an offender. He is neither an investor (option
3) in Income tax nor is he a purchaser (option 1).
Since it is Rameshs fault (by not filing his IT returns),
he does not become a victim (option 2).

84. We have preposition errors here. One does not plead
guilty of but guilty to a crime. With B incorrect, we
are left with options 2 and 4.
In sentence D, it should be sentenced to instead of
sentenced for.
Sentences A and C are correct.

85. In sentence B, the preposition of need not follow
thinking. It should be thinking what to do.
Sentence C is incorrect as well. It requires the article a
before shower ( took a shower). The article a
represents one and is required here.

86. Efforts bear fruit and not give fruit. Therefore,
sentence B is incorrect. That itself would give us the
answer.
Sentence C is incorrect as the homophonic equivalent
compliment is to be used instead of complement.
Complement is related to completion, to make whole or
complete. Compliment is to praise or admire.

87. It is easier to tackle this question by eliminating the
incorrect options.
Option 2 has a tense error. Instead of have had, use of
have is sufficient to remove the tense inconsistency.
Option 1 is inappropriate as the first that is redundant,
it is not required.
Option 4 has a pronoun error. With the use of
antecedent things, pronoun should be plural,
i.e. - they should be used in place of it.

88. Option 1 can be eliminated because the usage should
be estimated to be 3400 years old.
Similarly, option 3 is also incorrect. With reasonable
certainty modifies estimated and should be placed
close to it.
Option 2 is awkward. We can rephrase the sentence to
begin with estimated. Also, pottery is singular (plural
is potteries) and therefore, are estimated cannot
apply to singular pottery. Plus, the sentence looks
grammatically inconsistent. One is not sure whether
are estimated applies to archaeologists or the pottery.
89. In option 1, it should be incidents in place of
incidence. There is need for reduction in the number
of incidents of music piracy, therefore, the plural,
incidents is required.
Option 2 has an error of parallelism. Verb suggest is
not consistent in usage with verb advocating in the
same sentence. Both should take the same form.
Option 4 can also be eliminated as prices to be ...
should be replaced by should be.
Option 3 is grammatically correct.

90. Bolt in the 1st option means a large roll of cloth of a
definite length, especially as it comes from the loom
and the word has been used correctly.
Bolt in option 3 is similar to a latch or a fastener to
secure doors and the word has been used correctly as
well.
In option 2, bolt means to move or spring suddenly
and has been used incorrectly. The correct version
could be, he bolted for the gate and not made a bolt
In option 4, bolt shares a similar meaning, to start
suddenly and run away and the word has been used
appropriately (bolt from).

91. Passing marks in option 1 is easily understood to mean
favourable marks or sufficient marks in an exam.
Option 2 is incorrect as, here the word needs to be
followed by a preposition (by). It should be,
everybody passing by her on the road or simply,
passing on the road.
Option 3 is correct. Passing the parcel is the name of a
game.
In option 4, passing car is correctly used to mean, a
car going past or moving by.

92. Fallout is the descent of particulate matter which is a
resultant of a nuclear explosion or it is an incidental
result (consequence) or side effect.
Option 1 has been used in the sense of the first
meaning (nuclear fallout).
Options 2 and 3 have been used in the second sense of
consequence (political and environmental fallouts).
Option 4 is incorrect, as the word has been used in the
sentence to mean failure or dropping out (fallout of his
good students). Fallout does not mean failure.

93. The they in sentence C refers to the two neighbours in
sentence A. Therefore, AC is a pair. Therefore options 3
and 4 can be eliminated.
Sentence D introduces the concept of a resident joined
by a neighbour fighting an intruder. Thus, D precedes
CAT 2004

AC making DAC a mandatory sequence. That leaves us
with option 1.

94. Bush was not just fighting the democrats but also the
entire congress, at times and therefore, he felt justified
in bypassing congress altogether at times. This
connectivity of ideas makes DBA a mandatory
sequence which would get all other options eliminated
except the answer.
To check, sentence E introduces the CEO of white
house having a problem with second guessers and time
wasters.
Sentence C continues the idea of the consequence of
the problem or a solution to it. EC is followed by DBA.

95. Sentence B is the introductory statement, as it inserts
the idea of declining position of Germany in World War
II. The rest of the sentences further this idea.
Therefore, options 1 and 4 can be eliminated (they do
not begin with B).
Sentence B is followed by sentence E, as the discussion
begins with hopelessness for Germany at both ends,
eastern as well as western. Red Army, Russia would be
east and hence D follows E. although, once we have
figured out BE, we already have our answer.
Sentence A discusses matters of the west and therefore
the sequence is BEDAC.

96. Option 1 suggests that one should complain only when
one finds others prejudiced against one, an idea which
is not explicitly or implicitly given in the paragraph.
Option 2 completely presents the points discussed in
the paragraph and is the answer.
Option 3 has missed a main point of avoiding the faults
one sees in others.
Option 4 implies that one should make enemies if they
behave badly with oneself, which has not been talked
about in the passage.

97. A summary does not go out-of-scope. Therefore, option
4 can be eliminated. It talks about the likes of people
which has not been discussed in the passage.
Options 2 and 3 are incomplete. Option 2 speaks only
about the requirements and 3 talks more about the
produce.
Option 1 is correct as it takes care of both of these and
takes into account the important points of the passage
like variance of food eaten etc.

98. The author has not criticized executives of automobile
companies and hence option 1 can be eliminated.
Option 2 is correct. The car that Ford made did 18
miles an hour. Today, in London, cars still manage an
average speed of 17+ miles per hour.
Option 3 goes against the idea expressed in the
passage. Anthropological factors have tried to dampen
the speed of change and not fostered innovation.
According to the author, innovation in jet engines has
been more cosmetic and hence cannot be more than
incremental (option 4).

99. The author takes the example of jet planes and
automobiles to emphasize that structural change has
been incremental (paragraph 6). That takes us to
option 4.
Option 1 is not entirely supported by the passage. The
author states that statements like nothing is
permanent as change (paragraph 2) are no more than
clichs.
Again, with the example of tribalism and other
examples, the author refutes the argument that change
is always rapid. This eliminates option 2.
With the example of Ford motors, the author points out
that with a lot of money invested by automobile
companies, there has been hardly any rapid major
change. That eliminates option 3.

100. To quote from the first paragraph, tribalism protects
from fear of change. In another example, the author
quotes the IBM CEO to put forth the idea that we scare
ourselves constantly with the idea of change. Therefore
we can do away with option 1 (Rapid change is usually
welcomed in the society).
The author gives examples from the automobile
industry to stress that more innovation does not lead
to rapid change; it may just lead to cosmetic
alterations. Option 3 can also, thus, be eliminated.
Although competition may spur change but there is no
mention of radical innovation (option 4).
Option 2 correctly points out the gist of the passage
Industry is not as innovative as it is made out to be. Jet
planes, automobiles have not changed much in a
hundred years.

101. The last sentence of the passage answers this question,
Because auto executives understood pistons and
carburettors, and would be loath to cannibalize their
expertise, along with most of their factories. Because
auto executives (option 1) did not want change, they
did not adapt.
Alternative fuels were discovered and implemented
(option 2 can be eliminated).
CAT 2004

Change in technology also took place in Germany,
Japan and France. Therefore, options 3 and 4 can also
be eliminated.

102. In an insecure culture, the painter himself has to
choose for the society (last two paragraphs). That
renders option 1 false.
Option 2 When a culture is in a state of disintegration
or transition the freedom of the artist increases- but
the question of subject matter becomes problematic for
him: he, himself, has to choose for society. emphasises
the idea of a painter having the freedom to choose a
subject for his painting (its meaningfulness to the
painter).
Option 3 cannot be substantiated from the passage.
According to the passage, either the painter identified
himself with the people or he has to find his subjects
within himself.
There is no mention of the painter using his past
experience or memory to choose his subject. This
eliminates option 4.

103. The author begins the passage by illustrating the
freedom which painters today enjoy in choosing their
subject for painting. He further says in the first
paragraph that with freedom to choose any subject for
painting, the painters have abandoned other subjects
and have begun to paint abstract pictures. He
questions the connection between these two
developments increase in freedom to choose and
abandonment of other subjects to go in favour of
abstract art.
Other two options (1 and 4) can be clearly eliminated
in the light of this information.
The success of artists has not been talked about
(option 2).

104. From the fifth paragraph, for a painting to succeed, it
is essential that the painter and his public agree about
what is significant (option 1 can be eliminated).
According to the passage, When the subject has been
selected, the function of the painting itself is to
communicate and justify the significance of that
selection. Thus option 2 is a necessary attribute for
the painter to succeed, and can be eliminated.
In paragraph 5, the author gives an example of
renaissance art and states that it is appreciated
because of its historic significance. That eliminates
option 4.
The subject may have a personal meaning for the
painter or individual spectator; but there must also be
a possibility of their agreement on its general
meaning. This implies that although it is important for
the subject to be meaningful to the painter it loses
significance if the spectator or public do not agree with
the authors concept of meaningful. Thus option 3 by
itself is not necessarily an attribute for a painter to
succeed.

105. The second last paragraph substantiates option 3. It is
too often forgotten how many of the art scandals of
that time (19th century) were provoked by the choice
of subject (Gericault, Courbet, Daumier, Degas, Lautrec,
Van Gogh, etc.).
Option 2 can be confirmed to be true from paragraph 6
The general agreement about what is significant is
so well established that the significance of a particular
subject accrues and becomes traditional. This is true,
for instance, of reeds and water in China. The author
takes the instance of renaissance art (paragraph 5) to
point out that the agreement on the general meaning of
a painting is influenced by culture and historical
context.
Option 1 is not true. To quote from paragraph 3, A
subject does not start with what is put in front of the
easel or with something which the painter happens to
remember.

106. In paragraph 7, the author says that when a culture is
in a state of disintegration (insecure), the freedom of
the artist increases. That proves that option 1 is true
and that option 2 (whose idea is opposite to that of
option 1) is contradictory to the passage.
In paragraph 6, the author puts forth this idea that in
secure cultures the artist is unlikely to be a free agent
and that he will be employed for the sake of particular
subjects. That negates option 3.
Option 4 cannot be substantiated from the passage.

107. The author quotes, The New Mercantilism faces
similar problems of internal and external division
(paragraph 3). That similar problem refers to
problems faced by New Imperialism. The third
paragraph states the irregular effects of New
Mercantilism. And, on this context the author draws
parallels between the two systems.
Options 1 and 2 are incorrect as origins and other
similarities have not been explicitly mentioned in this
regard.
Option 3 may be considered as it showcases the
consequences of both systems, but in light of what the
author directly says option 4 is a better answer.

108. Option 1 has been clearly stated in the fifth line of the
passage.
CAT 2004

Option 3 can be eliminated as the author explicitly
mentions that the empire did not work towards
developing its vast hinterland (end of first paragraph).
Option 4 is only partially true, as the empire wanted to
stop the development of a native capitalist class.
Option 2 goes beyond the scope of the passage.

109. The centre here refers to the new mercantilism,
multinational corporate system of special alliances and
privileges, aid and tariff concessions.
In any case since the entire passage deals with
multinational corporate system, it does not refer to a
specific national government (option 1).
Nor does it refer to native capitalists (option 2) or new
capitalists (option 3) as they would not be responsible
for overall functioning of the centre.

110. Option 1 is about native capitalists (who bargain with
multinational corporations) and not about middle
class.
Option 2 is not completely correct, as their (middle
classs) power comes from the metropolis and they
cannot easily afford to challenge the international
system (not that they are dependent on it).
Option 4 can be eliminated as the author does not
speak about this in terms of popular support.
Option 3 is the correct answer, as statements in the
fourth paragraph support this point. Firstly, the fervent
nationalism asks only for promotion with the
corporate structure and not for a break with that
structure (maintaining status quo). Secondly, they
cannot easily afford to challenge the international
system (again they are not in a position to challenge
the status quo).

111. There is now considerable evidence that Type B
malnutrition is a major cause of chronic degenerative
diseases (paragraph 4, first sentence).
Option 2 is the correct reason for why Type B
malnutrition is a major contributor to illness (chronic
degenerative diseases) and subsequent death. If
developing countries suffer from one type of
malnutrition, it does not apply that developed
countries would suffer from another type (option 1).
Option 3 is not correct. It has been explicitly stated in
paragraph 4 that therapeutic medicines have been
developed by the pharmaceutical companies.
Whether national surveys include the newer nutrient
groups or not has not been stated in the passage
(option 4).

112. From the first paragraph, a majority of apparently
healthy people are pre-ill. That is because of chronic
degenerative diseases which strike silently. According
to the author, there would be a latency period before
the symptoms appear and a diagnosis is made. But till
that time that apparently healthy person is still ill.
We can easily eliminate options 2 and 3, as they do not
come close to this idea.
Option 4 is a lift from the passage and looks attractive
enough. But the option explains about the latency
period.
The option that answers the question why is option 1.
Because so-seemingly healthy people may have
chronic degenerative diseases, therefore they are
deemed pre-ill.

113. According to the author, multiple micronutrient
depletion is a common kind of malnutrition in
developed countries (paragraphs 1 to 4).
This gives rise to chronic degenerative diseases which
can be managed by repletion of these nutrients. That
straightaway gives us our answer (option 2).
Option 1, 3 and 4 are weak arguments or are irrelevant
for the question in hand.

114. In the last paragraph, it is mentioned that although
tailoring micronutrient-based treatment plans to suit
individual efficiency is not suitable, the micronutrients
are safe to use and most people consume suboptimal
levels of these nutrients. Both these ideas are summed
up in option 3.
Option 1 can be ruled out because it goes out-of-scope.
Option 2 does not make much sense in light of the
passage.
Option 4 is true but that is not the reason the author
quotes.

115. In paragraph 3, the author mentions how the ferocity
of Tsavo lions (which are not different from lions
elsewhere) annoys certain scientists as it is a myth and
not a fact. According to the passage: "People don't want
to give up on mythology ... Tsavo's lions are no more
likely to turn man-eater than lions from elsewhere."
The only option which illustrates this idea is option 3
that the bestselling book perpetuated a bad name for
the lions in that area.
Their ferocity being same as other lions (option 1) is
not a problem. The scientists or others are not really
jealous about the money made by Patterson (option 2).
Only the narration is not a reason for the annoyance
(option 4).

CAT 2004

116. The lions attacking vehicles and humans (option 4) or
they being more aggressive living in a tough area
(option 2) - are statements definitely contributing to
their image of being savage or ferocious. Therefore
options 4 and 2 are eliminated.
Option 1 too favours this sentiment - Tsavo lions have
been observed to bring down one of the strongest and
most aggressive animals.
Only option 3 is a neutral statement and does not
contribute to the popular image of Tsavo lions as being
savage creatures.

117. As per the first paragraph, Craig and West had thought
that mane less lions seen by the amateur observers
were adolescents. But once the scientists saw these
lions and saw the colour of their noses, the scientists
understood that these were actually adults and that
they were mistaken. This eliminates options 1, 2 and 4.

118. Gnoske and Peterhans hypothesis is that Tsavo lions
may be similar to unmanned cave lions of the
Pleistocene.
Option 2 strengths this and hence can be eliminated.
Tsavo lions are known to be ferocious.
Option 1 may weaken the statement slightly but both
option 1 and 4 are not strong arguments. Craigs and
Peytons doubts have not been proved and the
morphological variations if insignificant contribute to
the similarities between the two.
If the Pleistocene lions were less ferocious (option 3),
then that weakens the comparison between the two.

119. Between sentences A and C, sentence C is a more
appropriate introductory sentence. In A, only such a
full-hearted leap will allow is more of a conclusion
than introduction.
Sentence E follows C, as C introduces the idea of fuel
cell economy, and E continues that idea by putting
across that the current efficiency is 30 percent.
Sentence D follows E, the sentence (D) furthers the
idea in E by referring to its efficiency with keyword
that that is twice as good.
Sentence B justifies further improvement and A
concludes the paragraph.

120. CB is a mandatory pair. C introduces the idea of
sources of information like pyramids and tombs. B
furthers it by adding even from pyramid temples.
That leaves us with only one option, option 3.
Sentence E begins the paragraph whereas sentence A
ends it, as it sums up the ideas of the rest of the
sentences (talk about pyramids, tombs and graves) by
saying that death was not the only preoccupation for
the Egyptians.
Sentence D follows the introductory sentence E, as it
reasons the idea in E we know more about the rich
because the monuments were made for the rich (E),
whereas we do not know about the poor as their
houses have not been preserved and they were buried
in simple graves (D).

121. The passage does not state that research will help in
finding out a definitive answer (option 1).
Option 3 too is ruled out, as, we do not (from the data
in the passage) whether research in Germany would
help in finding a definitive answer.
Option 4 goes out of scope and discusses that research
and not debates can get an answer. This has not been
mentioned in the passage.
Option 2 is the most appropriate one out of the four
options.

122. Nowhere does the author mention that Nietzsche
urged the decadent and enfeebled modern society
(option 1), although there may be undertones of the
same.
Option 2 is factually incorrect. Nietzsche does not urge
to smother the will with excessive intellectualizing.
Option 3 can be eliminated as well, as Nietzsche does
not criticize intellectuals.
Between options 1 and 4, option 4 is suitable as it
captures the essence of the passage.

123. Option 1 does not highlight that this kind of conflict is a
direct action.
Option 2 again fails to mention that it is a new kind of
class conflict.
Option 4 goes in a bit of detail about subsidization.
Option 3 highlights all the major points (preferential
treatment, exacerbation of injustice, direct protests
from the local communities, and results in a new type
of class conflict) and therefore is a more suitable
option than the rest.

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