CLAT JUNCTION

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES 1. Before using the test booklet and OMR answer sheet, check them for any defect like misprint, fudging of print, missing pages/questions/circles etc. and ask for a replacement. 2. There are 200 multiple-choice type questions. Each question carries one mark. Each question has four choices of answer. Select the most appropriate answer and shade the corresponding circle in the OMR sheet with HB Pencil only. If more than one circle is shaded, the answer shall be deemed as wrong. There is no negative marking for wrong answers. 3. Specific instructions are given at the beginning of each question or a set of questions. Read them carefully before answering.

SECTION I: ENGLISH INCLUDING COMPREHENSION

Directions: In each of the following questions out of the given alternatives, choose the one which best expresses the meaning of the given word. 1. DECREPITUDE (a) Disease 2. TRANSITION (a) Position 3. ACCUSED (a) Indicated 4. BECKONED (a) Accused 5. GENUINE (a) Generous (b) Healthy (c) Natural (d) Literal (b) Called (c) Sent (d) Acquitted (b) Indicted (c) Induced (d) Instigated (b) Translation (c) Change (d) Movement (b) Coolness (c) Crowd (d) Feebleness

Directions (6-15): Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words/phrases are given in bold to help you to locate them while answering some of the questions. The Indian Pharma industry is flourishing overseas, touching almost every part of the world. With low cost, speed and high quality advantage India is gearing up to become the hub for contract research and manufacturing. Having a

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competitive edge is one thing and maintaining it is another Canada provides tax benefits up-to 46 per cent for research carried out within the country. Others like Korea and China without a large poll of scientists make up by facilitating foreign research in every conceivable way. India does not do any of this and faces many hardles-diseases that it has been inflicted with since independence like Malaria and TB. While Indian companies have only focused on reverse engineering blockbuster drugs from MNCs, overseas scientists have displayed little interest in researching sub continent specific diseases as there are more profits and public interest in lifestyle drugs such as obesity which in turn fund their research. In the interest of Indian research industry a decision must be taken quickly on the implementation of data protection laws. India is one the few countries where data exclusively provision are not prevalent. Data protection is a contentious issue, hotly debated by the government and the industry. A Pharma company wishing to market a drug is required to submit data to the drug controller to show that the drug is both effective and safe. The first (originator) company that makes the application for marketing approval has to submit it data relating to the clinical trials to the drug controller who once satisfied that the drug is safe and effective will register it. Another drug company wishing to market the same drug only requires to shows a bioequivalence to the drug of the originator company. Thus as per the prevailing laws, the regulator in India can rely on an innovators data to approve the competitors product. While the system is general is responsible for maintaining the necessary secrecy. It is not accountable for the same the competitor gets an unfair advantage over the innovator even when he is clandestinely abusing an innovators intellectual property. Consequently research based Pharma companies are being forced to undertake vital clinical trials abroad. Huge expenditures are incurred overseas, draining precious foreign exchange when this could be done at a fraction of the cost. The product patent law protections required by the TRIPS agreement and brought about by the 2005 amendment to the Patent Act require India to protect undisclosed test data from disclosure and unfair commercial use by competitors. Effective 2005 Indian Companies can no longer copy patent protected foreign drugs. Some negate the necessity to make data exclusivity a law. They argue that, the advocates of making it a law, MNCs want the data to be protected absolutely for a period of 5 years. However in case certain drugs are not available or unaffordable should the government for the common good not be able to exercise powers to get another company to make such drugs? 6. Which of the following is a reason for Indias continuing battle with commonplace diseases? (a) Rigid patent laws mean essential foreign drugs are not easily available in India. (b) Newer more effective treatments and drugs are unaffordable. (c) Government does not adequately subsidise drugs required for treatment of these diseases. (d) Research and development of drugs for such diseases is taken up only by advanced countries. (e) None of these.

7. Which of the following is/are TRUE in the context of the passage? 1. Countries like China prefer to outsource research to avoid exorbitant cost of research at home. 2. Multi-national Pharma companies are pressuring India to have product patent laws. 3. The Indian pharmaceutical industry is booming. (a) Only 1 (c) Both 2 & 3 (b) Only 3 (d) Both 1 and 2 (e) None of these.

8. According to the passage, what is the main purpose of data protection laws?

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(a) To ensure that foreign countries invest in research for drugs to treat diseases like TB. (b) To attract Indian scientists back to the country. (c) To prevent misuse of research to make profit by competing companies. (d) To make clinical trails more acceptable to the public. (e) None of these.

9. Which of the following measures has Korea taken to be competitive in the Pharma industry? (a) It offers blockbuster drugs at highly subsidized rates. (b) It collaborates with foreign research firms. (c) It provides speedy regulatory approvals. (d) It enacts relaxed tax laws. (e) None of these. 10. Which of the following is/are Indias strengths in drug discovery and research? 1. Relaxed patent laws. 2. Reverse engineering of foreign blockbuster drugs. 3. Incentives to foreign companies researching subcontinent diseases. (a) Only 3 (c) Only 1 (b) Both 1 & 3 (d) All of these (e) None of these.

11. According to the author, what is the disadvantage of holding clinical trials abroad? (a) Research facilities in India are far more sophisticated. (b) Authenticity of research methodology cannot be monitored. (c) Delayed processing of test data. (d) Higher cost resulting in the drain of financial resources. (e) The laws abroad are more stringent.

12. The argument against making data exclusively a law is ______________? 1. Specialized knowledge will be shared. 2. It will unfairly favour large western pharma companies. 3. It is not the interest of the general public. (a) Only 1 (c) Only 3 (b) Both 1 & 3 (d) Both 2 & 3 (e) None of these.

13. What is the objective of the TRIPS agreement? (a) To allow the government to determine the focus of drug research conducted. (b) To ensure India meets international legal requirements. (c) To give developed countries an edge in pharma manufacturing. (d) To ensure that competing companies do not benefit commercially from using each others clinical data.

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(e) None of these. 14. Which of the following is NOT TRUE in the context of the passage? (a) Cost of clinical trials and research are relatively lower in India. (b) India has laws to ensure patent protection, but data exclusively provisio are not prevalent. (c) China has a large number of well qualified clinical research personnel which has made it attractive to MNCs. (d) Indian pharma companies can no longer duplicate patent protected foreign drugs. (e) None of these.

15. The Indian pharma industry ________? (a) Is hampered by severe intellectual property rights laws. (b) Trials in research on health threats like obesity. (c) Is the largest growing one in the world. (e) Provides quality research at low cost. (d) Only has the expertise to reverse engine

Directions (16-20): In the following questions, find out which part of the Sentences has an error. It there is no mistake, the answer is No error. 16. He says that (A)/ he has a car (B)/ beside a scooter (C)/ No error (D). 17. Mahatma Gandhi laboured (A)/ to the good (B)/ of humanity (C)/ No error (D). 18. My answer (A)/ is different (B)/ than Yours (C)/ No error (D). 19. I am vexed (A)/ at him about what (B)/ he has done (C)/ No error (D). 20. Children often (A)/ quarrel on (B)/ petty issues (C)/ No error (D).

Directions (21-25): In each of the following questions out of the given alternatives, choose the one which best expresses the meaning of the given word. 21. HARSH (a) Disfigure (b) Slit (c) Severe (d) Slash

22. EXCRUCIATE (a) Refine 23. OUTRE (a) Fair 24. TEDIOUS (a) Tiresome (b) Painful (c) Troublesome (d) Lengthy (b) Traditional (c) Real (d) Unusual (b) Torture (c) Extract (d) Imprison

25. ASSIMILATES (a) Absorb (b) Arrange (c) Receive (d) Assemble

Directions (26-30): In each of the following questions, out of the four alternatives, choose the antonym of the given word. 26. DESPONDENCY (a) Humility 27. MISERLY (b) Pleasure (c) Cheerfulness (d) Excitement

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(a) Liberal 28. DISCOUNT (a) Interest

(b) Spendthrift

(c) Charitable

(d) Generous

(b) Premium

(c) Profit

(d) Concession

29. VOLUNTARY (a) Ordered 30. ONEROUS (a) Straight-forward (b) Easy (c) Complex (d) Plain (b) Alternative (c) Compulsory (d) Essential

Directions: Select the correct word or phrase to complete a grammatical and idiomatic sentence. 31. Agriculture in America hasindustrial progress. (a) Kept pace with (c) Kept its pace for (b) Kept paces along (d) Kept pace together with

32. He is if he does not meet this situation boldly. (a) Unworthy of his salt (b) Not worth his salt

(c) Not of worth to his salt (d) Not worth of the salt 33. I know I have a copy of the book you need, but at the moment, I can't it. (a) Lay my hands on (c) Lay my fingers on (b) Lie my hand (d) Lay my hands to

34. Due to industrial recession, retrenchment of jobs is in big and small units alike. (a) Order for the day (c) The order of the day (b) The daily order (d) The order every day

35. It is due to lack of careful advance planning that your scheme has.? (a) Come upon grief (c) Come to grief (b) Come out with grief (d) Come in grief.

36. I wish my brother here to listen to this entertaining lecture. (a) Would be (c) Is (b) Has been (d) Were

37. Did you think you somewhere before? (a) Have seen me (c) Had seen me (b) Saw me (d) Would see me

38. John is a great hand organising meetings.

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(a) For

(b) To (c) At (d) In

39. He has he deals both in books and curios. (a) Two bows to his string (b) Two string to his bow (c) Two arrows to his bow (d) Two bows and strings 40. The way he is currying favour his rich neighbour is sickening. (a) Of (b) With (c) For (d) To

SECTION 2: LEGAL REASONING INCLUDING LEGAL KNOWLEDGE

Q41. Principle: Master is liable for the wrongful acts of the servant, if done within the course of employment. Facts: Hind Oil & Petroleum Co. instructed the driver of a lorry carrying gallons of flammable petrol to drive the vehicle to a nearby petrol pump for the purpose of re-filling the petrol. The owner of the company expressly prohibited the driver from smoking while on duty. However on reaching the petrol pump, he lit a cigarette and the petrol caught fire causing irreparable damage to life and property. Can the owner of Hind Oil & Co. be held liable for the drivers fault? A. Yes, as the driver acted within the course of employment and express prohibition of not smoking, doesnt absolve the owner of his liability. B. C. No, as the owner made every effort to ensure that the driver doesnt smoke while on duty. No, as this is unfair and only the driver should be held liable.

D. Yes, as the owner was negligent.

Q42. Principle: Master is liable for the criminal acts of the servant. Facts: Bahadur is a brave and trusted night watchman at Seth Amirchands mansion. One night Gabbar Singh and his gang decided to break into Amirchands house and steal his gold. When they were trying to break into the house, Bahadur saw them and fired in their direction, instantly killing Gabbar Singh. Can Amirchand be held liable for causing Gabbars death? A. No, Gabbar Singh is a thief. B. C. No, as Gabbar Singh tried to rob Amirchands house and Bahadur only did his duty in defending his masters house. Yes, Seth Amirchand will be liable for criminal act committed by Bahadur

D. Yes, as Amirchand instructed bahadur to shoot at Gabbar Singh.

Q43. Principle 1: Nothing is an offence which is done in the exercise of right of private defense. Principle 2: The right in no case extends to inflicting more harm than necessary for private defense and only applies to proportionate force being used in exercise of the Right. Explanation: Every person has the right to defend his own body, body of another person against any offence affecting the human body. The act done to protect oneself must in proportion to the danger presented.

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Facts: INS Bhargava, one fine morning, had gone for his routinely morning walk when he was taken aback by a mugger who asked him to hand over his gold chain to him, and threatened to stab him if he doesnt. INS Bhargava, in return, took out a pistol from his pocket, seeing which the thief ran away. Bhargava then fired in his direction, severely injuring him. Can Bhargava take the defense of right to private defense, in doing so? A. Yes, as the thief caused an imminent threat to his life B. C. No, as the force used was disproportionate to the threat. No, as the thief had runs away in any case.

D. Yes, such thiefs are a danger to the society and need to be dealt with severely, to teach them a lesson. Q44. Who was responsible for passing of Hindu Widow Remarriage Act? (A) Kesab chandra sen (C) Radha kant deb (B) Raja ram mohan roy (D) Ishwar chandra vidhyasagar

Q45. Principle 1: Master is liable for all the acts of the servant done in the course of employment. Principle 2: course of employment entails an act authorized by the master and also a wrongful and unauthorized way of doing an act authorized. Facts: Dushtnath Khemka, a short tempered bus driver, on finding that a car had blocked the way of his bus, ran into a fit of rage and started abusing the car driver. When things got out of control he punched him hard, making the driver unconscious. A suit was filed against the owner of the bus company, Mr. Verma. Was the act committed in the course of employment? A. B. C. Mr. Verma is not liable. The act is too disconnected with the course of employment. Only Dushtnath Khemka will be liable. The act is within the course of employment and Mr. Verma must pay for the loss suffered.

D. None of the above.

Q46. Principle: A person is guilty of a public nuisance who does not act or is guilty of an illegal omission which causes any common injury, danger or annoyance to the public or to the people in general who dwell or occupy property in the vicinity, or which must necessarily cause injury, obstruction, danger or annoyance to persons who may have occasion to use any public right. Facts: Abhishek decides to throw a party on his friend Oshonishs birthday. At The party, he plays songs at full blast till midnight, annoying neighbours living in North, South and East of his house. Apply the principle and tell if Abhishek can be held liable for public nuisance. A. Abhishek is not liable for public nuisance B. C. Abhishek is liable as he is causing annoyance to his neighbours. Abhishek is liable as playing music till so late is illegal.

D. Oshonish is liable for the party was thrown for him.

Q47. Principle: If a dangerous thing is brought on land for the non natural use of the land and the dangerous thing escapes, then the person who brought it to the land is strictly liable for any damage caused by the dangerous thing.

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Explanation: If the damage is caused by the plaintiffs own fault then the person who had brought the dangerous thing onto the property is not liable. Plaintiff is the person who complaints against another in the court. Facts: Shantanu has the habbit of bringing wild and dangerous animals to his land for his entertainment. One fine day he brings a tigress to his garden. His neighbor Vishal, knowing about the tigress in Shantanus garden, by mistake, leaves the gardens door unlocked. The tigress, not missing the opportunity, escapes and mauls Vishal, who suffered grievous injuries and sued Shantanu. Does any liability exist for Shantanu in the given situation? A. Shantanu is strictly liable B. C. Vishal is liable to the extent of the injuries he expected the animal to cause. Shantanu will be strictly liable if negligence on his part is proved.

D. Shantanu is not liable because the escape and attack were all caused by the act of Vishal only. Q48. Principle: A person abets an offence, who abets either the commission of an offence or the commission of an act which would be an offence, if committed by a person capable by law of committing an offence by the same intention or knowledge as that of the abettor. Explanation: To constitute the offence of abetment it is not necessary that the act abetted should be committed or the effect requisite to constitute the offence should be caused. Facts: Raghuvanshi instigates Ravi to murder Devarshi. Ravi who had old enmity with Devarshi, readiy agreed. He went to Devarshis house to shoot him, but missed the shot and ran away. Is in the above example, Raghuvanshi guilty of abetment to murder? A. Yes, as he instigated Ravi to kill Devarshi. B. C. No, as the bullet missed the target and Devarshi was alive. No, as Ravi himself wanted to kill Devarshi.

D. There is no abetment to murder in the above case. Q49. Principle1: For a valid contract, it is essential that the consideration from both sides is lawful. Principle 2: Consideration is unlawful if it is forbidden by law. Principle 3: Consideration is unlawful if it is of such a nature that, if permitted, it would defeat the provisions of any law. Principle 4: Consideration is unlawful if the Court regards it as immoral, or opposed to public policy. Facts: Vyshnav and Byreddy are two people who are involved in shady businesses. They sell pirated CDs of films before the films release date. They want to expand their illegal venture manifold and turn it into a lucrative business. The law of the land specifically puts a ban on piracy and prescribes severe punishments for the same. Surya comes to the duo to demand a pirated C.D. for which he was ready to pay a good amount. He was promised the delivery of the same before the official release of the film. Is such a contract valid? A. It is not valid as it violates principle (iv) above B. C. It is not valid because it violates principle (i) and (iv) above. It is valid.

D. It is not valid because it violates principle (i) and (ii) above.

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Q50. Principle1: The State includes the Government and Parliament of India and the Government and the Legislature of each of the States and all local or other authorities within the territory of India or under the control of the Government of India. Principle 2: The State shall not discriminate against any citizen on grounds only of religion, race, caste, sex, place of birth or any of them. Facts: The state legislature of the state of Chaupatnagri enacted a law whereby only those government servants who have been the domiciles of the state for more than 20 years are eligible for pension. Kranti, who had been disadvantaged by the law as he could not claim pension under the law, filed a petition in the high court of Chaupatnagri praying for the law to be struck down. Is the law liable to b struck down? (A) Yes, as the law discriminates on the basis of place of birth. (B) No, as only the inhabitants of Chaupatnagri have rights over the government jobs there. (C) No, as the law seeks to protect t e interest of locals. (D) None of the above

Q51. Principle: The occupier of a premise owes a duty of care to all his invitees and visitors. Facts: Aatmin was constructing an underground water tank within his premises. Since the construction work was not complete, the open surface of the tank was covered with gunny bags. Aatmins house was located in a very posh colony and was a very beautiful one too. A postman came to deliver a registered letter. Aatmin had put a post box at the gate so that all the mails to him could be deposited there. The postman fell into the tank and hurt himself. A. Aatmin is not liable as the postman was not an invitee. B. C. Aatmin is not liable as the postman did not take care. Aatmin is not liable as it was the postmans fault that he did not notice the post box outside the house which was the place where letters were meant to be deposited. D. Aatmin is liable as the postman entered his house in performance of his duty to deliver the mail.

Q52. Principle: (1) Whoever is under a duty of care to another shall be liable for any injury to the latter directly resulting from the breach of the duty. (2) A master is liable for all the wrongs committed by his servant during the course of employment. Facts: Thomas Stores sent certain items on a horse carriage to a customers house that was by the side of the main road and near a university zone. The driver of the carriage had been serving long at the store. The driver of the horse carriage was carrying the goods into the house leaving the carriage unattended on the road. In the meantime, there was a certain amount of confusion and chaos in the university due to the elections running there. Suddenly, riot broke loose in the university campus and students came running out in a mob. They hit against the horse which ran in confusion and when it was about to run over a girl, her boyfriend at great risk to his life, managed to seize the horse and stop the carriage. In the process, the boy suffered serious personal injuries. A. The Dean of the university is responsible to compensate the boy. B. C. D. Thomas Stores is liable to the boy. The carriage-driver is liable to compensate the boy. The boy cannot claim any relief from any of the parties in this case.

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Q53. Principle: When any person dishonestly takes any movable property out of the possession of any other person without his/her consent, he/she is guilty of theft. Facts: Harshit comes to Poppys house and takes away a book with the intention to return it. A. Harshit commits theft because the book has been taken without Poppys consent. B. C. Harshit commits theft because he has taken a book which is a movable property. Harshit commits theft because he has moved the book from Poppys house.

D. Harshit does not commit theft because he intends to return the book.

Q54. Principle: When any person dishonestly takes any movable property out of the possession of any other person without his/her consent, he/she is guilty of theft. Facts: Gunee finds a purse and keeps it. A. B. C. D. Gunee does not commit theft because the purse was not taken from anybodys possession. Gunee commits theft because the purse does not belong to him. Gunee commits theft because he does not try to find the owner. Gunee commits theft because he does not report to the police.

Q55. Principle: When any person dishonestly takes any movable property out of the possession of any other person without his/her consent, he/she is guilty of theft. Facts: Bablu finds a diamond ring lying on Prithvis table. Bablu picks up the ring and places it under the sofa in Prithvis living room with the intention of retrieving it for himself at a later time. A. Bablu commits theft because he has moved the ring from Prithvis table without his consent. B. C. Bablu does not commit theft because he has still not left Prithvis house. Bablu does not commit theft because Prithvi is careless with his valuables.

D. Bablu commits the theft the moment he picks up the ring whether or not he dishonestly intended to keep it.

Q56. Which is the High Court which has the maximum number of pending cases? A. Allahabad High Court B. Bombay High Court C. Madras High Court D. Calcutta High Court

Q57. What is the duration of the Jammu and Kashmir Assembly? A. Three years C. Five years B. Four years D. Six years

Q58. How many judges are there in the International Court of Justice A. 10 B. 12 C. 15 D. 20

Q59. What is 'Bill of Rights'? A. The instrument that abolished monarchy in France

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B. A written document consolidating all important rights and liberties of the English people C. It lays down the rights of the members of the European Union D. The is the document that lays down the powers of the Queen of England Q60. What statue established the International Criminal Court? A. Rome Statue C. Paris Statue B. Treaty of Varsallies D. Hague Statue

Q61. The Fundamental Right to reside and settle in any part of the country is provided under which article of the Constitution? A. 19(1)(a) C. 19(1)(e) B. 19(1)(c) D. 19(1)b)

Q62. What is the seat of the International Criminal Court? A. All of them C. London B. Hague D. New York

Q63. In which case was declaration of assets by candidates for the post of legislative assemblies held mandatory? A. Keshavanda Bharti v. Union of India B. Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India C. People's Union of Civil Liberties (PUCL) v. Union of India D. T. M. A. Pai v. State of Karnataka

Q64. Which of these Acts do not deal with protection of women? A. Indian Penal Code C. Companies Act B. Domestic Violence Act D. Code of Criminal Procedure

Q65. Some Fundamental Rights are available to all persons whether or not they are the citizens of India while other rights are enjoyed by citizens only (A) True (B) False (C) Partially true (D) None of these

Q66. Reservation in services is intended to. (A) Democratise government (C) Correct imbalance in administration (B) Ensure equality (D) Promote efficiency

Q67. If a witness makes a statement in court, knowing it to be false, he commits the offence of. (A) Peremptory Evidence (B) Perils (C) False Evidence (D) Perjury

Q68. Who is the former Speaker of the Lok Sabha who has also become a member of Constitution Review Committee? A. Shivraj Patil (B) Rabi Ray (C) G.M.C. Balayogi (D) P.A. Sangma

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Q69. __________ is a process of steadily rising prices resulting in diminishing purchasing power of a given nominal sum of money. (A) Devaluation (B) Depression (C) Inflation (D) De-industrialization

Q70. The Supreme Court of India by majority? (A) Disallowed reservation in super speciality medical and engineering courses (B) Allowed reservation in super speciality medical and engineering courses (C) Allowed lower qualifying marks in super speciality courses for SC/STs and OBC (D) Disallowed lower qualifying marks in undergraduate medical courses

Q71. Which of the following was associated with the rule of Lord Cornwallis in India ? (A) Doctrine of Lapse (C) First War of Independence (B) Permanent Settlement of Bengal (D) Prohibition of Sati

Q72. Which of the following statements is not true about the National Commission for Women? A. The Commission was set up by an act of Parliament and started working in 1992 B. The Commission has decided to setup Maha Mahila Adalats across the country very soon C. The Commission has recommended to amend the dowry Act, Hindu Marriage Act, and Special Marriage Act and the Govt. has accepted the same D. The Commission has powers to investigate and review functions of various law making agencies in India

Q73. The Legislative Council in a state may be created or abolished by the A. President, on the recommendation of the Governor B. Parliament C. Parliament after the State Legislative Assembly passes a resolution to that effect D. Governor on a recommendation by the State cabinet

Q74. In which case did the Supreme Court concede the right of Parliament to amend the Constitution, but denied it the right to amend the basic structure of the Constitution? A. Keshavananda Bharati Case B. Golak Nath Case C. Minerva Mills Case D. None of these

Q75. On what ground, the Supreme Court of India can accept the appeal against any High Court Judgement? A. It is the apex court of the country B. There is sufficient legal jurisdiction in it

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C. That is the Fundamental Right of the person who appeals D. Law Minister has recommended in the regard

Q76. When can a bill be referred to the Parliamentary Committee? A. Just after being placed in the Parliament B. After general debate/discussion in the second reading C. After partial debate/discussion D. After difference between two houses

Q77. In what way the Finance Commission can recommend to the centre for transfer of resources to States? A. Debt, subside and tax share B. Debt and subsidy C. Debt and tax share D. Subsidy and tax share

Q78. To uphold and protect the sovereignty, unity and integrity of India, a provision has been made in the A. Directive Principles of State Policy B. Preamble to the Constitution C. Fundamental Duties D. Fundamental Rights

Q79. Which of the following are Financial Committee of Parliament in India? I. Public Accounts Committee II. Union Ministry of Finance III. Committee of Public Undertakings Choose the correct answer from the codes given below: Codes: A. I and II B. I and III C. II and III D. I, II and III

Q80. Communal representation presupposes the existence of A. a joint electorate C. reservation of seats B. separate electorates D. there can be both joint as well as separate electorates

Q81. How do Directive Principles of State Policy differ from Fundamental Rights? A. The former are meant for Central Government, whereas the latter are for the States B. The former are not a part of the Constitution, whereas the latter are the part of the Constitution

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C. The Directive Principles are not enforceable, whereas the Fundamental Rights are enforceable D. None of these

Q82. The date of 26th January when India became a Rapublic with a new Constitution was adopted, because A. on that day in 1885, the Indian National Congress was founded B. on that day in 1919, the Jallianwala Bagh tragedy took place C. on the day in 1930, the Congress observed the Independence Day in the country D. on that day in 1941, the Quit India Movement was started by Mahatma Gandhi

Q83. A federal system A. must have a written Constitution B. must have an unwritten constitution C. may have either written or unwritten constitution D. may not have any constitution

Q84. Which Fundamental Right is concerned with abolition of social distinctions? A. Right to equality B. Right against exploitation C. Right to life and liberty D. Cultural and educational rights

Q85. Which part of the Constitution directs the State to establish Panchayati Raj Institution in the country? A. The Preamble B. The Directive Principles of State Policy C. The Fundamental Rights D. None of these

Q86. The Supreme Court of India consists of a Chief Justice and A. 7 judges B. 9 judges C. 11 judges D. 25 judges Q87. The phrase procedure established by law A. gives immense powers in the hands of the courts regarding judicial review B. limits the authority of the Indian Courts in the matter of judicial review and the courts cannot go into the question as to whether a law is just or not C. gives the authority to the courts to go into the question as to whether a law is just or not D. None of these

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Q88. What is the minimum duration of a stay necessary, before a person can apply for Indian Citizenship? A. 5 years B. 3 years C. 7 years D. 10 years

Q89. Under the Indian Constitution, concentration of wealth violates A. the concept of Welfare State B. Right to Equality C. a Directive Principle D. the Right to Freedom

Q90. The 81st Constitutional Amendment Bill deals with A. setting up of a Separate State of Uttarakhand B. reservation for women in Parliament and State Legislatures C. grant of greater attonomy for Jammu and Kashmir D. relates to carrying forwards backlog vacancies of Scheduled castes and Scheduled tribes

SECTION 3: MATHEMATICS (NUMERIC ABILITY)

91. Along a straight fence, if poles are erected 2 meters apart, then 25 poles are needed. How many poles would suffice if they are erected 3 meters apart? Assume poles are necessarily planted at the two end points of the fence. A. 15 B. 16 C. 17 D. 18

92. The cost price of an article is Rs. 50. If the selling price is an integral amount, which of the following can be the profit percentage earned? A. 15% B. 25% C. 33.33% D. 30%

93. The ratio of the number of boys and girls in a class is 3 : 2. If 5 boys leave the class and are replaced with 5 girls, the ratio becomes 2 : 3. Find the total strength of the class. A. 25 B. 30 C. 40 D. 50

94. A printing press has n printing machines, each of which can produce m copies of book in t minutes. Which of the following expression represents the total number of books produced in x minutes if all the machines are working for the entire duration? A. MNT/X B. MN/TX C. MNX/T D. TX/MN

95. A cylinder P has its height twice that of cylinder Q and a radius half that of cylinder Q. Find the ratio of volume of cylinder Q to that of cylinder P. A. 1 : 2 B. 2 : 1 C. 1 : 1 D. 4 : 1

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96. The length of rectangle is increased by 10% and the breadth of the rectangle remains the same. What is the percentage change in the area of the rectangle? A. 9.09% B. 10% C. 11.11% D. 0%

97. A vessel has a mixture of milk and water. If sufficient water is added to this mixture to double its original volume, then the percentage of milk in the solution _______________? A. gets halved b C. becomes three-fourth of earlier B. becomes two-third of earlier D. becomes four-fifth of earlier

98. The speed of the slowest and the fastest ball of Dale Steyn in a particular cricket match was 40 yards/sec and 70 yard/sec. What was the difference in the reaction time available for the batsman if the ball has to ravel 22.4 yards to reach the batsman? A. 7.46 SECS B. 2.4 SECS C. 0.746 SECS D. 1.6 SECS

99. A man purchased equal number of oranges in three lots one lot being priced at 5 oranges for a Re, other lot being priced at 4 oranges for a Re and third lot being priced at 3 oranges for a Re. If he sells all the oranges at the rate of 4 oranges for a Re, find his profit/loss percentage. A. 0% B. 4.25% LOSS C. 4.25% PROFIT D. 4.44% PROFIT

100. If the ratio of (a + b) : (b + c) : (c + a) is 7 : 11 : 6, find the ratio of a : b : c A. 5 : 1 : 6 B. 17 : 15 : 18 C. 1 : 6 : 5 D. 15 : 18 : 17

101. 12.5% of 72 x% of 18 = 27.2727% of 22. Find x. A. 8.33% B. 33.33% C. 11.11% D. 16.66%

102. Which is the smallest two digit number that on dividing 75, 125 and 150 leaves a remainder of 3, 5 and 6 respectively? A. 12 B. 24 C. 36 D. 48

103. If the number 7538x59y is divisible by 24, find the maximum value of x + y. A. 2 B. 5 C. 8 D. 11

104. What fraction has the same ratio with 3/4 as that 5/3 has with 4/5? A. 25/16 B. 1 C. 25/9 D. 16/9

105. Amit scores 80% marks in a test. Had he scored 50% less marks he would have got exactly the passing marks. Find the passing percentage in the paper. A. 60% B. 50% C. 40% D. 35%

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106. Two dice are rolled. What is the probability of getting two different numbers on the two dice? A. 5/6 B. 2/3 C. 1/2 D. 1/3

107. In a group of 50 people, 10 do not drink either of tea or coffee, 15 drink both tea and coffee. Find the number of people who drink atleast one of tea or coffee. A. 10 B. 15 C. 25 D. 40

108. By which of the following options is the sum of a two digit number and the number formed by interchanging the digits, always divisible by? A. 9 B. 10 C. 11 D. 12

109. Each of two articles is sold at Rs. 96. If one of them is sold at 20% profit and other at 20% loss, find the profit/loss amount. A. Rs. 3.84 loss B. Rs. 8 loss C. Rs. 4 loss D. Rs. 3.84 profit

110. Water is flowing in a drum in the shape of a cylinder at the rate of 5 m3/min. If the entire cylinder gets filled in 9 mins and the height of the cylinder is 5 meters, find the radius of the cylinder. A. 9 meters B. 6 meters C. 3 meters D. 2 meters

SECTION 4: GENERAL KNOWLEDGE/CURRENT AFFAIRS

111) Who took over as Vice-Chief of Indian Air Force? A) S.K. Sinha B) D.C. Kumaria C) Rajiv Thakur D) K.S. Sinha

112) Who won her first World Cup individual recurve gold medal in Archery? A) Dimpal Achariya B) Anita Chouhan C) Deepika Kumari D) Sunita Chouddhari

113) First Governor of RBI was ? A) Hilton Young B) Paul Samuelson C) C.D.Deskmukh D) O.A Smith

114) Who is crowned Miss India World 2012? A) Veenita Singh B) Ankita Sinha C) Harjit Kour D) Vanya Mishra

115) The Arab League Summit was held in ......... on 27-29 March 2012? A) Tikrit B) Karma C) Tehran D) Baghdad

116) Industry Leader __________ Nominated to Competition Commission of India? A) Deenesh Mishra B) Ajit Singh C) Abhinav Mishra D) Deepak Parekh

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117) Guru Gobind Singh was? A) The 10th and the last guru of the Sikhs B) Founder of Khalsa, the inner council of the Sikhs in 1699 C) Author of Dasam Granth D) All the above

118) Frederick Sanger is a twice recipient of the Nobel Prize for? A) Chemistry in 1958 and 1980 C) Chemistry in 1954 and peace in 1962 B) Physics in 1956 and 1972 D) Physics in 1903 and chemistry in 1911

119) No Mobile Connection to any Foreign Tourist for more than _________ Months? A) Three Month B) Five Month C) Six Month D) Four Month

120) The World Hemophilia day is observed on.........? A) 7th April B) 17th April C) 17th May D) 7th May

121) Which Indian scientist won the prestigious Norman Borlaug Award in Field Research? A) Aditi Mukherjee B) Deeviya Nayr C) Sunita Kelkar D) None of these

122) Who former chief economist of International Monetary Fund (IMF) took over as the Chief Economic Advisor? A) C. Raghuram B) Raghuram Rajan C) Rajan Singh D) R.M. Malla

123) Who is took over as the new Indian Navy chief? A) C.P. Joshi B) R.S. Bansal C) D.K, Joshi D) S.K. Singh

124) The Bhilai Steel Plant won the Prime Ministers Trophy for the _____ Time? A) 5th Time B) 7th Time C) 8th Time D) 10th Time

125) Which country topped in the Medal Tally of London Olympics 2012? A) India B) China C) US D) Jamaica

126) Who was appointed as the New CEO of Deutsche Bank India? A) J.P. Dua B) K.R. Kamath C) Ajay Kumar D) Ravneet Gill

127) India and .......... decided to expand Trade and Economic Cooperation? A) Iraq B) Iran C) Cuba D) Kenya

128) P Chidambaram appointed as the Union Minister of.........? A) Agriculture & food processing industries C) Finance B) Defence D) Law, minority affairs

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129) World Bank approved ......... Crore Rupees Loan for Himachal Pradesh. A) 1200crore B) 1300crore C) 1400crore D) 1100crore

130) Famous Bhakra Nangal Dam is built on which of the following rivers? A) Ganga B) Narmada C) Godavari D) Satluj

131) Who is the chief minister of Kerala? A) Okram Ibobi singh B) J. Jayalallitha C) Oomen chandi D) Raman singh

132) Who won the Wimbledon Open Title 2012? A) Andy Murray B) Roger Federer C) Novak djokovic D) Refea Nadal

133) Rajiv Gandhi National Quality Award was instituted by the Bureau of Indian standards in the year...... A) 1990 B) 1991 C) 1992 D) 1993

134) Eritrea, which became the 182nd member of the UN in 1993, is in the continent of A) Asia B) Africa C) Europe D) Australia

135) Hockey was introduced in the Asian Games in A) 1958 in Tokyo B) 1962 in Jakarta C) 1966 in Bangkok D) 1970 in Bangkok

136) The winner of Australian Grand prix is? A) Lewis Hamilton B) Sebastian Vettel C) Fernando Alonso D) Jenson button

137) Santosh Trophy Football winner the services football team beat Tamil-Nadu lift the _____ the Santosh trophy? A) 61th B) 65th C) 66th D) 64th

138) Brussels Open Tennis winner Sonia Nehwal her _____WTP double title? A) 11th B) 10th C) 15th D) 14th

139) World Chess Championship winner Indian V. Anand beat Boris Gelfand of........? A) US B) China C) Isreal D) Iraq

140) India's rank in Global Peace Index 2012? A) 137th B) 142th C) 149th D) 160th

141) National Highway Authority of India, chairman is? A) V.P. Sehgal B) Anirudh Singh C) R.P. Singh D) C.P. Joshi

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142) Who is the chief of NATO? A) Pascal lamy B) Juan Somvia C) Lamine Diack D) Rasumulln

143) National Commission for Backword Class? A) Wajahat Habibullah B) PL Poonia C) Dr. Rameshwar Urrav B) Makani Narayan Rao

144) Who is the CMD of Canara Bank? A) Ajay Kumar B) Nupur Mitra C) D.P. Singh D) S. Raman

145) The film actress who has been selected as tha Brand Ambasador of Nirmal Bharat Abhiyan. A) RANI Mukharjee B) Priynka Chopra C) Vidhy Balan D) Sushmita Sain

146) IPL 2012 Golden Player of the year tournament was.......? A) Mandeep singh B) Manvinder Bisla C) Chris Gayle D) Sunil Norine

147) South Sudan becomes IMF's ......member at ceremony in Washington D.C.? A) 182th B) 185th C) 188th D) 176th

148) Inida stands in Power Generation Capacity in world? A) 3th B) 5th C) 8th D) 2th

149) Who is named as India VP of CA Technologies? A) Ajay Manglore B) Sunil Manglore C) Sunil Yadav D) Ajit Singh

150) Star Alliance is an association of leading ............ of the world. A) Bank B) Airlines C) IT companies D) Media companies

151) Heglig oil-field is in: A) Asia B) Africa C) North America D) Australia

152) Jim Youg Kim of the US was selected as the president of World Bank for a...........Term beginning in July 2012. A) 6 year B) 4 year C) 10 year D) 5 year

153) Which High Court observed 150th anniversary of its establishment in April 2012? A) Delhi HC B) Bombay HC C) Allahabad HC D) Calcutta HC

154) Which of the following launched its sports car TT in India in March 2012? A) Audi B) Honda C) Nissan D) Ferrari

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155) United Democratic Madhesi Front (UDMF) is a political party in which neighboring country? A) Bhutan B) Nepal C) Sri Lanka D) Myanmar

156) Which country will be hosting 2013 Fortune Global Forum, a world business summit in June 2013? A) China B) Tunisia C) Tanzania D) Taiwan

157) Which of the following state is to have the first spice park, which is the second such park in the counrty? A) Mizoram B) Nagaland C) Rajasthan D) West Bengal

158) Which of the following state ranks third in per capita deposits? A) Goa B) Delhi C) West Bengal D) Chandigarh

159) Who is Malawi's first female president? A) Hastings Banda B) Joyce Banda C) Seri Rafidah Aziz D) None of these

160) A nuclear power plant is situated in which of the following places? A) Lucknow B) Jodhpur C) Kota D) Shimla

SECTION 5: LOGICAL REASONING

Directions (Q.161-165): Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions given below. 416584751329252912536828731624549 161. How many 2s are there in the above arrangement, each of which is immediately preceded by a digit which has a numerical value of less than two? A) None B) One C) Two D) Three E) More than three

162. How many such 4s are there in the above arrangement, each of which is immediately followed by a perfect square? (1 is also a perfect square.) A) None B) One C) Two D) Three E) More than three

163. If all the even digits are deleted from the above arrangement, which of the following will be eighth from the right end of the arrangement? A) 5 B) 3 C) 1 D) 9 E) 7

164. Which of the following is sixth to the left of the eighteenth digit from the left end of the above arrangement? A) 9 B) 8 C) 2 D) 6 E) None of these

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165. How many such 5s are there in the above arrangement each of which is immediately preceded by an odd digit and also immediately followed by an odd digit? A) None B) One C) Two D) Three E) More than three

166. (i) P Q means Q is mother of P. (ii) P Q means P is brother of Q. (iii) P Q means P is sister of Q. (iv) P Q means Q is father of P. Which of the following definitely means R is grandson of K? A) R T K B) M + R T K C) M R T K D) None of these

167. How many such pairs of digits are there in the number 95137248 each of which has as many digits between them in the number as when they are arranged in ascending order? A) None B) One C) Two D) Three

168. In a certain code PATHOLOGIST is written as PIUBQKSRHFN. How is CONTROVERSY written in that code? A) SUOPDNXRQDU B) SUOPDNZTSFW C) QSMNBPXRQDU D) QSMNBPZTSFW

169. In a certain code PATHOLOGIST is written as PIUBQKSRHFN. How is CONTROVERSY written in that code? A) SUOPDNXRQDU B) SUOPDNZTSFW C) QSMNBPXRQDU D) QSMNBPZTSFW

170. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group? A) Food : Hunger B) Water : Thirst C) Air : Suffocation D) Talent : Education

171. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group? A) Crow B) Vulture C) Bat D) Ostrich

172. Which of the following has the same relationship as that of Money: wealth? A) Pity: Kindness B) Cruel: Anger C) Wise: Education D) Pride: Humility

173. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group which is the one that does not belong to that group? A) 29 B) 85 C) 147 D) 125

174. Ravi cycles 3 km towards the east and takes the first right turn and cycles for another 5 km to point A. From point A he takes a left turn and cycles 7 km to point 8, after covering another 4 km 'he rests for a while. How much distance has Ravi covered from point A till the time he stops.

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A) 16 km

B) 11 km

C) 19 km

D) 15 km

175. The position of how many digits will remain the same if the digits in the number 2567394 are rearranged in ascending order from left to rig ht? A) None B) One C) Two D) Three

The logic problems in this set present you with three true statements: Fact 1, Fact 2, and Fact 3. Then, you are given three more statements (labeled I, II, and III), and you must determine which of these, if any, is also a fact. One or two of the statements could be true; all of the statements could be true; or none of the statements could be true. Choose your answer based solely on the information given in the first three facts. 176. Fact 1: Jessica has four children. Fact 2: Two of the children have blue eyes and two of the children have brown eyes. Fact 3: Half of the children are girls. If the first three statements are facts, which of the following statements must also be a fact? I. At least one girl has blue eyes. II. Two of the children are boys. III. The boys have brown eyes. A. II only B. I and III only

C. II and III only D. None of the statements is a known fact.

177. Fact 1: All hats have brims. Fact 2: There are black hats and blue hats. Fact 3: Baseball caps are hats. If the first three statements are facts, which of the following statements must also be a fact? I. All caps have brims. II. Some baseball caps are blue. III. Baseball caps have no brims. A. I only C. I, II, and III B. II only D. None of the statements is a known fact.

178. Fact 1: All chickens are birds. Fact 2: Some chickens are hens. Fact 3: Female birds lay eggs. If the first three statements are facts, which of the following statements must also be a fact? I. All birds lay eggs. II. Hens are birds. III. Some chickens are not hens. A. II only C. I, II, and III B. II and III only D. None of the statements is a known fact.

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179. Fact 1: Most stuffed toys are stuffed with beans. Fact 2: There are stuffed bears and stuffed tigers. Fact 3: Some chairs are stuffed with beans. If the first three statements are facts, which of the following statements must also be a fact? I. Only childrens chairs are stuffed with beans. II. All stuffed tigers are stuffed with beans. III. Stuffed monkeys are not stuffed with beans. A. I only B. II only

C. II and III only D. None of the statements is a known fact. 66 180. Fact 1: Pictures can tell a story. Fact 2: All storybooks have pictures. Fact 3: Some storybooks have words. If the first three statements are facts, which of the following statements must also be a fact? I. Pictures can tell a story better than words can. II. The stories in storybooks are very simple. III. Some storybooks have both words and pictures. A. I only C. III only B. II only D. None of the statements is a known fact.

181. Fact 1: Robert has four vehicles. Fact 2: Two of the vehicles are red. Fact 3: One of the vehicles is a minivan. If the first three statements are facts, which of the following statements must also be a fact? I. Robert has a red minivan. II. Robert has three cars. III. Roberts favorite color is red. A. I only B. II only

C. II and III only D. None of the statements is a known fact.

182. Fact 1: Islands are surrounded by water. Fact 2: Maui is an island. Fact 3: Maui was formed by a volcano. If the first three statements are facts, which of the following statements must also be a fact? I. Maui is surrounded by water. II. All islands are formed by volcanoes. III. All volcanoes are on islands. A. I only B. III only

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C. I and II only D. None of the statements is a known fact.

183. Fact 1: All drink mixes are beverages. Fact 2: All beverages are drinkable. Fact 3: Some beverages are red. If the first three statements are facts, which of the following statements must also be a fact? I. Some drink mixes are red. II. All beverages are drink mixes. III. All red drink mixes are drinkable. A. I only C. I and III B. II only D. None of the statements is a known fact.

184. Fact 1: Eyeglass frames cost between $35 and $350. Fact 2: Some eyeglass frames are made of titanium. Fact 3: Some eyeglass frames are made of plastic. If the first three statements are facts, which of the following statements must also be a fact? I. Titanium eyeglass frames cost more than plastic frames. II. Expensive eyeglass frames last longer than cheap frames. III. Only a few eyeglass frames cost less than $35. A. II only B. I and II only

C. II and III only D. None of the statements is a known fact. 67 185. Fact 1: Some pens dont write. Fact 2: All blue pens write. Fact 3: Some writing utensils are pens. If the first three statements are facts, which of the following statements must also be a fact? I. Some writing utensils dont write. II. Some writing utensils are blue. III. Some blue writing utensils dont write. A. II only B. I and II only

C. II and III only D. None of the statements is a known fact.

186. A mail order company recently had a big jump in clothing sales after hiring a copywriter and a graphic artist to give its clothing catalog a magazine like format designed to appeal to a more upscale clientele. The company is now planning to launch a house wares catalog using the same concept. The companys plan assumes that A) Other house wares catalogs with magazine like formats do not already exist B) An upscale clientele would be interested in a house wares catalogs C) The same copywriter and graphic artist could be employed for both the clothing and house wares catalogs

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D) A magazine like format requires a copywriter and a graphic artist E) Customers to whom the old clothing catalog appealed would continue to make purchases from catalogs with the new format

187. Civic Leader: The high cancer rate among our citizens is the result of hazardous material produced at your plant. Board of Directors: Our statistics show that rates of cancer are high throughout the valley in which the plant is situated because local wells that supply drinking water are polluted, not because of the plant. Which of the following, if true, most seriously weakens the boards claims? A) The statistics do not differentiate between types of cancer. B) Nearby communities have not changed the sources of their drinking water. C) Cancer-causing chemicals used at the plant are discharged into a nearby river and find their way into local wells. D) The plant both uses and produces chemicals that have been shown to cause cancer. E) Some of the pollutants cited by the board as contaminating the local wells have been present in the wells for decades.

188. Economies in which a high percentage of resources are invested in research and development show greater growth in the long run than do those in which resources are channelled into consumption. Japanese workers spend a higher percentage of their income investing in research and development than do American workers. To grow as fast as Japan has in the past three decades, the United States must change the tax code in order to encourage savings and investment and discourage debt. Which of the following, if true, tends to weaken the argument? A) Japanese research is more focused on consumers than is research by American firms. B) Class mobility, highly valued in American culture, is encouraged by a growing rather than a stagnant economy. C) Studies have shown that countries with high consumption rates prosper in the short run. D) Proposed changes to the tax code could involve strict limits on the deduct ability of interest, and increased allowance for research. E) Because a decreasing percentage of the United States is under 40, an age when savings are traditionally low, the savings rate will increase without changes to the tax code.

189. Television programming experts maintain that with each 1% increase in the prime-time ratings of a television station there is a 3.5% increase in the number of people who watch its evening news program. However, in the last ten years at Channel NTR, there was only one year of extremely high prime-time ratings and during that year, fewer people than ever watched Channel NTRs evening news program. Which of the following conclusions can properly be drawn from the statements above? A) When a news program has good ratings, the channel as a whole will have good ratings. B) The programming experts neglected to consider daytime news programs. C) The year of high ratings at NTR was a result of two hit shows which were subsequently canceled because of contractual problems. D) The ten-year period in question is not representative of normal viewing patterns.

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E) Prime-time ratings are not the only factor affecting how many people watch an evening news program.

190. The people who are least likely to be audited by the Internal Revenue Service (IRS) this year are those who have been audited since 1985 and who were found to have made no mistakes in filing their returns during that audit. Of the following people, who is MOST likely to be audited by the IRS? A) A person who was audited in 1986 but was not found to have made any mistakes in filing his return. B) A person who was audited in 1986 and whose lawyer corrected several mistakes in the tax return prior to the filing deadline. C) A person whose spouse was convicted of tax fraud in 1987, who was then audited and found to have made no mistakes. D) A person who was last audited in 1984, and had no mistakes uncovered by the IRS during that audit. E) A person who was audited in each of the past five years, but was found to have made no mistakes in any of the filings. 191. Jamess grade point average puts him in the top third of the graduating class of college A. Nestor is in the top tenth of the same class. Elizabeth had the same grade point average as Nestor. Nancy has a lower grade point average than Elizabeth. If the information above is true, which of the following must also be true? A) James has a higher grade point average than Elizabeth. B) James has a higher grade point average than Nancy. C) Nestor has a higher grade point average than Nancy. D) Elizabeth and Nancy both have a higher grade point average than James. E) Nestor and James both have a higher grade point average than Nancy.

192. Whenever a major airplane accident occurs, there is a dramatic increase in the number of airplane mishaps reported, a phenomenon that may last for as long as a few months after the accident. Airline officials assert that the publicity given the gruesomeness of major airplane accidents focuses media attention on the airline industry and the increase in the number of reported accidents is caused by an increase in the number of news sources covering airline accident, not by an increase in the number of accidents. Which of the following, if true, would seriously weaken the assertions of the airline officials? A) The publicity surrounding airline accidents is largely limited to the country in which the crash occurred. B) Airline accidents tend to occur far more often during certain peak travel months. C) News organizations do not have any guidelines to help them decide how severe or how close an accident must be for it to receive coverage. D) Airplane accidents receive coverage by news sources only when the news sources find it advantageous to do so. E) Studies by government regulations show that the number of airplane flight miles remains relatively constant from month to month.

Questions 193-194 are based on the following.

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Investing in real estate would be a profitable venture at this time. A survey in House magazine revealed that 85% of the magazines readers are planning to buy a second home over the next few years. A study o f the real estate industry, however, revealed that the current supply of homes could only provide for 65% of that demand each year. 193. Which of the following, if true, reveals a weakness in the evidence cited above? A) Real estate is a highly labor-intensive business. B) Home builders are not evenly distributed across the country. C) The number of people who want second homes has been increasing each year for the past ten years. D) Readers of House magazine are more likely than most people to want second homes. E) House magazine includes articles about owning a second home as well as articles about building a second home.

194. Which of the following, if true, would undermine the validity of the investment advice in the paragraph above? A) Some home owners are satisfied with only one home. B) About half of the people who buy homes are investing in their first home. C) About half of the people who buy homes have to take out a mortgage to do so. D) Only a quarter of the homes that are built are sold within the first two weeks. E) Only a quarter of those who claim that they want a second home actually end up purchasing one.

195. Traffic safety experts predict that the installation of newly designed air bags in all cars in the United States would reduce the average number of fatalities per traffic accident by 30 percent. In order to save lives, the Department of Transportation (DOT) is considering requiring automobile manufacturers to install air bags of this design in all cars produced after 1998. Which of the following, if true, represents the strongest challenge to the DOTs proposal? A) Air bags of the new design are more given to being inadvertently triggered, an occurrence that can sometimes result in fatal traffic accidents. B) The DOT is planning to require automobile manufacturers to produce these air bags according to very strict specifications. C) After installing air bags in new cars, automobile manufacturers will experience an increase in sales. D) The proposed air bag installation program will adversely affect the resale of cars manufactured prior to 1998. E) As production costs increase, the profits of many domestic automobile dealers show a marked decrease.

196. A private bus company gained greater profits and provided bus service to the area at lower fares by running buses more frequently and stimulating greater ridership. Hoping to continue these financial trends, the company plans to replace all older buses with new, larger buses, including some double-decker buses,. The plan of the bus company as described above assumes all of the following EXCEPT A) The demand for bus service in the companys area of service will increase in the future B) Increased efficiency and revenues will compensate for any new expenses the company incurs C) The new buses will be sufficiently reliable to ensure the company a net financial gain once they are in place D) Driving the new buses will be no more difficult than driving the buses they are to replace

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E) The larger, double-decker buses will not face obstacles such as height and weight restrictions in the bus companys area of service

197. A newly discovered disease is thought to be caused by a certain bacterium. However, recently released data notes that the bacterium thrives in the presence of a certain virus, implying that it is actually the virus that causes the new disease. Which of the following pieces of evidence would most support the datas implication? A) In the absence of the virus, the disease has been observed to follow infection by the bacterium. B) The virus has been shown to aid the growth of bacterium, a process which often leads to the onset of the disease. C) The virus alone has been observed in many cases of the disease. D) In cases where the disease does not develop, infection by the bacterium is usually preceded by infection by the virus. E) Onset of the disease usually follows infection by both the virus and the bacterium.

198. A sociologist recently studied two sets of teenagers. The members of one set spent 10 or more hours per week watching violent television programs, and the members of the other set spent 2 hours or less per week watching violent television programs. A significantly greater proportion of the teenagers in the former group exhibited aggressive behavior during the period of the study. The sociologists reasoned that the prolonged exposure to television violence caused the aggressive behavior. Which of the following, if true, of the teenagers in the study, provides the strongest challenge to the sociologists conclusion? A) Some teenagers who watched more than 10 hours of violent television programming per week behaved less aggressively than others in the same group of teenagers. B) Some teenagers who watched 2 hours of violent television programming per week did not behave aggressively. C) Some teenagers voluntarily stopped watching violent television programs after being victims of violence. D) Some teenagers watched violent television programs alone, while others did so in groups. E) Many of the teenagers in the first group exhibited aggressive behavior before the study began.

Questions 199-200 are based on the following. Local phone companies have monopolies on phone service within their areas. Cable television can be transmitted via the wires that are already in place and owned by the phone companies. Cable television companies argue that if the telephone companies were to offer cable service, these telephone companies would have an unfair advantage, because their cable transmissions could be subsidized by the profits of their monopolies on phone service. 199. Which of the following, if true, would ease the cable companies fear of unfair competition? A) In order to use existing telephone wire, telephone companies would need to modernize their operations, a process so expensive it would virtually wipe out all profit from their monopoly for the foreseeable future. B) If a phone company were to offer cable service within a particular area, it would have a monopoly within that area. C) The cost of television service, whether provided by cable or telephone companies, scales; that is, the total cost of transmission rises only marginally as more homes are added to the network.

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D) Cable programming that offers more channels is already available through satellite dish, but the initial cost of the dish is extremely high. E) Cable television will never be able to compete with the burgeoning video rental industry, especially as more homes now have video cassette recorders than ever did before.

200. On the basis of the information provided in the passage above, which of the following questions can be answered? A) Are phone companies as efficient as cable companies in providing reliable and inexpensive service? B) If phone companies were allowed to provide cable service, would they want to do so? C) Do the cable companies believe that the local phone companies make a profit on phone service? D) Are local phone companies forbidden to offer cable service? E) Is it expected that phone companies will have a monopoly on cable service?

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