Sample Type-Rating Exam PDF

Sample type-rating exam
Boeing 737-300/400/500 Sample Type Rating Exam Paper (UK CAA)

The following questions are typical of those set by the UK CAA for the type rating exam for the Boeing 737-300/400/500. The exam is multi-choice with a pass mark of 75%, time allowed 90mins. 1. The First Officers sliding window can be opened from ? a. The inside only. b. The outside only. c. Inside and outside. 2. If the crew oxygen mask is not stowed, then by: a. Closing both stowage box doors, the oxygen supply at the individual crew member station is shut off when reset/test slide lever is operated. b. Opening both stowage box doors, the oxygen supply at the individual crew member station is shut off. c. Opening both stowage box doors, 100% oxygen under pressure is supplied to the mask. 3. What indications are there that the toilet fire extinguisher has discharged ? a. An alarm will sound in the flight deck. b. The temperature indicator discs will change from black to white and the nozzle tips from silver to black. c. The temperature indicator discs will change from white to black and the nozzle tips from black to silver. 4. The passenger oxygen when activated: a. Will depend on how many passengers are using each unit. b. Flows for approximately 12 minutes.
http://www.b737.org.uk/typeratingexam.htm (1 of 23)14-Aug-05 15:50:17
c. Will shut off automatically when the cabin reaches 8,000 feet. 5. The maximum crosswind component (including gusts) for a take-off or landing on a runway where the braking action is reported as MEDIUM/GOOD is ? a. 30Kts b. 25Kts c. 20Kts 6. The maximum windspeed for taxying is: a. 65Kts b. No limitation c. 45Kts 7. The engine start duty cycle (normal start) is: a. 2 minutes on, 60 seconds off (2 cycles only then 3 minutes cooling). b. 5 minutes on, 60 seconds off (2 cycles only then 3 minutes cooling). c. 2 minutes on, 20 seconds off (2 cycles only then 3 minutes cooling). 8. For all revenue flights, the escape slide retention bar must be installed during: a. Taxy, take-off and landing. b. Take-off and landing c. Taxy and take-off. 9. The GND CALL button on the fwd ovhd panel when pressed: a. Sounds a horn in the nose well and main wheel wells until the ground crew select the GND CALL CANCEL switch on the external power receptacle panel.
b. Sounds a horn in the nose wheel well until released. c. Sounds a horn in the nose wheel well and main wheel wells until released. 10. The aircraft water system is supplied by: a. One main water tank with separate tanks for the toilets. b. A single water tank located behind the aft cargo compartment. c. A single water tank located in front of the aft cargo compartment. 11. The emergency instrument flood lights will automatically come on: a. Whenever the ground service bus loses power. b. Whenever A.C. transfer bus 1 loses power. c. With the loss of all A.C. power. 12. Illumination of the OIL FILTER BYPASS light: a. Indicates an impending bypass of the oil scavenge filter. b. Illuminates the master caution ENG annunciator light. c. Indicates that the oil filter is being bypassed. 13. Rotating the N1 manual set knob (when pulled) will: a. Set the desired N1 RPM in the N1 manual set indicator. b. Set the desired N1 in the upper digital display of the N1 RPM indicator. c. Set the desired N1 in the upper digital display of the N1 RPM indicator with the N1 manual set indicator blank. 14. The START VALVE OPEN light indicates: a. The engine start switch is in GND.
b. The engine starter valve is open irrespective of air being supplied to the air driven starter. c. The engine starter valve is open and air is being supplied to the air driven starter. 15. The APU low oil pressure light is: a. Inhibited during engine start. b. Disarmed when the APU switch is in the OFF position. c. Always illuminated when the APU switch is in the OFF position. 16. The fuel flow transmitter is located: a. Inside the MEC. b. Downstream of the MEC fuel shut-off valve. c. Between the first and second stage of the engine driven fuel pump. 17. The high idle RPM in flight is approximately: a. 45% N1 b. 32% N1 c. 22% N1 18. The underspeed symbol in the MCP speed window is a: a. Flashing "8" b. Steady "A" c. Flashing "A" 19. When approaching a selected altitude in CWS pitch with the auto pilot engage paddle/button in CMD: a. The autopilot paddle/button automatically moves to the CWS position on reaching the selected
altitude. b. The CWS P annunciation changes to ALT ACQ and when at the selected altitude, ALT HOLD engages. c. The CWS P annunciation is unaffected. 20. During an auto pilot go-around, the autopilot disengage light illuminates steady red. This indicates: a. One or more autopilots have reverted to CWS mode. b. The altitude acquire mode is inhibited (stabilizer not trimmed for single autopilot operation). c. A normal condition. 21. During a dual channel approach the second autopilot must be engaged in CMD by: a. 800ft RA. b. 1500ft RA. c. 2000ft RA. 22. What is the meaning of the message LOC CAP ACTIVE on the CDU scratchpad? a. The localizer has been fully captured and VOR/LOC must now be selected on the MCP. b. The airplane is approaching its turn onto the localizer and will maintain the VNAV path. If a track error exists between the final approach path and the localizer then HDG SEL should be used to capture the localizer. c. The airplane is approaching its turn onto the localizer and will maintain an intercept heading. 23. The Bendix weather radar WX/TURB mode displays detected turbulence within: a. 160nm. b. 80nm. c. 40nm.
24.
During alternate nav system operation an IRS fails. The IRS transfer switch: a. Can transfer navigation inputs from the No 2 IRS to the Captains AN/CDU only. b. Can transfer navigation inputs from the other IRS. c. Cannot transfer navigation inputs from the other IRS.
25.
The EADI speed tape trend arrow tip depicts: a. The autothrottle demanded airspeed based on economic power settings. b. Predicted airspeed with the next 10 seconds based on present airspeed and acceleration. c. The FMC demanded airspeed.
26. When the generator drive temperature switch is selected to rise, a higher than normal generator drive oil temperature indicates: a. An excessive generator load or inadequate cooling of the engine oil. b. An excessive generator load or poor condition of the generator drive. c. Inadequate cooling of the generator drive oil. 27. Failure of the No1 generator bus will: a. Have no effect on either electric hydraulic pump. b. Will cause failure of the system A electric hydraulic pump. c. Will cause failure of the system B electric hydraulic pump. 28. The battery switch is on and the GRD PWR is connected to the aircrafts busses. If the battery switch is selected off then: a. The GRD PWR AVAILABLE light will extinguish. b. The GRD PWR switch will not automatically disconnect.
c. The GRD PWR switch will automatically disconnect. 29. The auxiliary 28V DC power receptacle is situated: a. At the AC power receptacle. b. Near the battery in the electronic compartment. c. Externally, forward of the E & E bay door. 30. The engine fire extinguisher system contains: a. Three freon bottles which may be discharged into both engines and the APU. b. Two freon bottles which may be discharged into either engine. c. Three freon bottles which may be discharged into both engines. 31. The power source for the APU fire detection is the: a. Battery bus (28V DC). b. No 1 transfer bus (115V AC). c. Hot battery bus (28V DC). 32. Holding the TEST switch to the FAULT/INOP position will illuminate: a. Master caution, Fault annunciator and APU DET INOP lights. b. Master caution, OVHT/DET annunciator, FAULT, WHEEL WELL and APU DET INOP lights. c. Master caution, OVHT/DET annunciator, FAULT, and APU DET INOP lights. 33. Yaw damper operation results in: a. No rudder pedal movement provided the autopilot is engaged. b. Rudder pedal movement.
c. No rudder pedal movement. 34. FLT CONTROL LOW PRESSURE amber lights indicate: a. Low hydraulic system pressure to ailerons, elevators and rudder and the lights are deactivated when the corresponding FLT CONTROL switch is positioned to STBY RUD. b. Low hydraulic system pressure to rudder only and the lights are deactivated when the corresponding FLT CONTROL switch is positioned to STBY RUD. c. Low hydraulic system pressure to corresponding ailerons, elevators and rudder. 35. The SPEED BRAKE ARMED light: a. Is amber and should be illuminated when the speed brake is moved to the armed position indicating valid automatic speed brake system inputs. b. Is deactivated when the speed brake lever is in the UP position. c. Is green and should be illuminated when the speed brake is moved to the armed position indicating valid automatic speed brake system inputs. 36. The standby altimeter indicator uses the: a. No1 ADC and the alternate static source. b. Normal static source. c. Alternate static source. 37. The airspeed cursor control on the Captains mach/airspeed indicator must be pushed in to allow: a. The airspeed cursor to be automatically positioned by the AFDS FCC. b. The Vmo pointer to be automatically positioned by the AFDS FCC. c. The airspeed cursor to be manually positioned. 38. On the ground, the TAT indication is approximately the OAT: a. Provided the pitot heat is OFF.
b. Provided the pitot heat is ON. c. Irrespective of the pitot heat being ON or OFF. 39. The fuel temperature indicator indicates the temperature of the fuel in: a. The No2 tank. b. All fuel tanks depending on fuel pump selection. c. The No1 tank. 40. To defuel No1 tank: a. Select the No1 main tank fuel pumps ON, the crossfeed valve CLOSED and the manual defueling valve OPEN. b. Select the No1 main tank fuel pumps ON, the crossfeed valve OPEN and the manual defueling valve OPEN. c. Select the No1 and No2 main tank fuel pumps ON, the crossfeed valve OPEN and the manual defueling valve OPEN. 41. The standby hydraulic pump is automatically activated on the loss of system A or B hydraulic pressure. a. During the take-off or landing with a wheel speed greater than 60kts irrespective of the wing flaps position. b. During the take-off or landing with a wheel speed greater than 90kts and the wing flaps extended. c. During the take-off or landing with a wheel speed greater than 60kts and the wing flaps extended. 42. Complete loss of system B pressure will deactivate: a. The inboard flight spoilers. b. The ground spoilers.
c. The outboard flight spoilers. 43. A leak in the hydraulic system A EDP or its associated lines would be indicated by: a. System A contents falling to 22%. b. System A contents falling to 40%. c. System A contents falling to 64%. 44. The right No2 window heat is supplied from: a. Generator bus No1. b. Generator bus No2. c. Standby AC bus. 45. During a flight in icing conditions with wing anti-icing selected to ON. a. The associated wing anti-ice valve will automatically close if the pressure in the wing leading edge is too high. b. There is no direct control over the amount of heat supplied other than variation of engine power. c. The system will automatically select the wing anti-ice valves to closed if the temperature in the leading edge is too high. 46. Should a No 1 window outer pane crack: a. Cabin differential pressure must be reduced to a maximum of 2psi. b. Cabin differential pressure must be reduced to a maximum of 5psi. c. Turn window heat OFF and limit IAS to 250kts below 10,000ft. 47. On an aborted take-off with autobrake RTO mode selected: a. Braking, equivalent to full manual braking, will be applied if the groundspeed is more than 90kts.
b. Braking, equivalent to MAX autobrake, will be applied if the groundspeed is more than 90kts. c. Braking, equivalent to full manual braking, will be applied if the groundspeed is less than 90kts but more than 60kts. 48. The alternate brake source selector valve: a. Prevents hydraulic system A from powering the alternate brake system when hydraulic system B is operating normally. b. Isolates accumulator pressure. c. Prevents hydraulic system B from powering the alternate brake system when hydraulic system A is operating normally. 49. The hydraulic brake pressure indicator with loss of the accumulator pre-charge will indicate: a. 3000psi. b. 1000psi. c. Zero. 50. The TRIP RESET switch on the B737-400 air conditioning panel will reset the a. BLEED TRIP OFF, PACK and ZONE TEMP lights provided the fault condition has been corrected. b. BLEED TRIP OFF, PACK TRIP OFF and ZONE TEMP lights provided the fault condition has been corrected. c. DUCT OVERHEAT, PACK and ZONE TEMP lights provided the fault condition has been corrected. 51. The two batteries on the 737-500 are: a. Connected in parallel when SBY PWR is selected, or the battery switch is on with TR3 not powered. b. Connected in parallel at all times.
c. Connected in series at all times. 52. The alternate flap limit speed on the 737-400 is a. 230kts. b. 210kts. c. 250kts. 53. The isolation valve is: a. DC operated. b. AC operated. c. AC controlled and pneumatically operated. 54. The amount of fan air that is ducted through the pre-cooler is controlled by the: a. Thermostatic pre-cooler valve. b. Modulating and shut-off valve. c. Ram air controller. 55. With a ground pneumatic source connected and the isolation valve switch selected to CLOSE: a. The pneumatic pressure would be indicated by the right hand pointer on the pneumatic duct pressure indicator. b. The pneumatic pressure would be indicated by the left hand pointer on the pneumatic duct pressure indicator. c. The pneumatic pressure would be indicated by both the left and right hand pointers on the pneumatic duct pressure indicator. 56. When operating in auto mode (DCPCS), when taxying in after landing, the main outflow valve drives slowly to full open when:
a. The FLT/GRD switch is positioned to GRD. b. Flaps are retracted. c. N1 is less than 50% 57. The minimum width of cleared runway for landing is: a. 15m b. 30m c. 45m 58. The maximum depth of dry snow allowed for landing on a contaminated runway is: a. 3mm b. 13mm c. 60mm 59. When performing a flap 30 landing on a dry runway with auto-spoilers inoperative, the landing distance required must be increased by: a. 230ft b. 700ft c. 1060ft 60. When landing on an icy runway with 3kts tailwind component: a. Tailwind landings are not permitted on icy runways. b. Use of reverse thrust is not allowed in calculations. c. Landing distance required must be increased by 345ft.
Answers
1. c. The First Officers sliding window can be opened from ? Inside and outside.
2.
If the crew oxygen mask is not stowed, then by:
a. Closing both stowage box doors, the oxygen supply at the individual crew member station is shut off when reset/test slide lever is operated.
3.
What indications are there that the toilet fire extinguisher has discharged ?
c. The temperature indicator discs will change from white to black and the nozzle tips from black to silver.
4. b.
The passenger oxygen when activated: Flows for approximately 12 minutes.
5. The maximum crosswind component (including gusts) for a take-off or landing on a runway where the braking action is reported as MEDIUM/GOOD is ? a. 30Kts
6. a.
The maximum windspeed for taxying is: 65Kts
7. c.
The engine start duty cycle (normal start) is: 2 minutes on, 20 seconds off (2 cycles only then 3 minutes cooling).
8. a.
For all revenue flights, the escape slide retention bar must be installed during: Taxy, take-off and landing.
9. b.
The GND CALL button on the fwd ovhd panel when pressed: Sounds a horn in the nose wheel well until released.
10. b.
The aircraft water system is supplied by: A single water tank located behind the aft cargo compartment.
11. c.
The emergency instrument flood lights will automatically come on: With the loss of all A.C. power.
12. a.
Illumination of the OIL FILTER BYPASS light: Indicates an impending bypass of the oil scavenge filter.
13. a.
Rotating the N1 manual set knob (when pulled) will: Set the desired N1 RPM in the N1 manual set indicator.
14. c.
The START VALVE OPEN light indicates: The engine starter valve is open and air is being supplied to the air driven starter.
15. b.
The APU low oil pressure light is: Disarmed when the APU switch is in the OFF position.
16. b.
The fuel flow transmitter is located: Downstream of the MEC fuel shut-off valve.
17. b.
The high idle RPM in flight is approximately: 32% N1
18. c.
The underspeed symbol in the MCP speed window is a: Flashing "A"
19. When approaching a selected altitude in CWS pitch with the auto pilot engage paddle/button in CMD: b. The CWS P annunciation changes to ALT ACQ and when at the selected altitude, ALT HOLD engages.
20. During an auto pilot go-around, the autopilot disengage light illuminates steady red. This indicates: b. The altitude acquire mode is inhibited (stabilizer not trimmed for single autopilot operation).
21. a.
During a dual channel approach the second autopilot must be engaged in CMD by: 800ft RA.
22. c.
What is the meaning of the message LOC CAP ACTIVE on the CDU scratchpad? The airplane is approaching its turn onto the localizer and will maintain an intercept heading.
23. c.
The Bendix weather radar WX/TURB mode displays detected turbulence within: 40nm.
24. c.
During alternate nav system operation an IRS fails. The IRS transfer switch: Cannot transfer navigation inputs from the other IRS.
25. b.
The EADI speed tape trend arrow tip depicts: Predicted airspeed with the next 10 seconds based on present airspeed and acceleration.
26. When the generator drive temperature switch is selected to rise, a higher than normal generator drive oil temperature indicates:
b.
An excessive generator load or poor condition of the generator drive.
27. c.
Failure of the No1 generator bus will: Will cause failure of the system B electric hydraulic pump.
28. The battery switch is on and the GRD PWR is connected to the aircrafts busses. If the battery switch is selected off then: c. The GRD PWR switch will automatically disconnect.
29. b.
The auxiliary 28V DC power receptacle is situated: Near the battery in the electronic compartment.
30. b.
The engine fire extinguisher system contains: Two freon bottles which may be discharged into either engine.
31. a.
The power source for the APU fire detection is the: Battery bus (28V DC).
32. c.
Holding the TEST switch to the FAULT/INOP position will illuminate: Master caution, OVHT/DET annunciator, FAULT, and APU DET INOP lights.
33. c.
Yaw damper operation results in: No rudder pedal movement.
34. c.
FLT CONTROL LOW PRESSURE amber lights indicate: Low hydraulic system pressure to corresponding ailerons, elevators and rudder.
35.
The SPEED BRAKE ARMED light:
c. Is green and should be illuminated when the speed brake is moved to the armed position indicating valid automatic speed brake system inputs.
36. c.
The standby altimeter indicator uses the: Alternate static source.
37. a.
The airspeed cursor control on the Captains mach/airspeed indicator must be pushed in to allow: The airspeed cursor to be automatically positioned by the AFDS FCC.
38. a.
On the ground, the TAT indication is approximately the OAT: Provided the pitot heat is OFF.
39. c.
The fuel temperature indicator indicates the temperature of the fuel in: The No1 tank.
40.
To defuel No1 tank:
b. Select the No1 main tank fuel pumps ON, the crossfeed valve OPEN and the manual defueling valve OPEN.
41. The standby hydraulic pump is automatically activated on the loss of system A or B hydraulic pressure. c. During the take-off or landing with a wheel speed greater than 60kts and the wing flaps extended.
42. c.
Complete loss of system B pressure will deactivate: The outboard flight spoilers.
43. a.
A leak in the hydraulic system A EDP or its associated lines would be indicated by: System A contents falling to 22%.
44. a.
The right No2 window heat is supplied from: Generator bus No1.
45.
During a flight in icing conditions with wing anti-icing selected to ON.
c. The system will automatically select the wing anti-ice valves to closed if the temperature in the leading edge is too high.
46. c.
Should a No 1 window outer pane crack: Turn window heat OFF and limit IAS to 250kts below 10,000ft.
47. a.
On an aborted take-off with autobrake RTO mode selected: Braking, equivalent to full manual braking, will be applied if the groundspeed is more than 90kts.
48.
The alternate brake source selector valve:
a. Prevents hydraulic system A from powering the alternate brake system when hydraulic system B is operating normally.
49. a.
The hydraulic brake pressure indicator with loss of the accumulator pre-charge will indicate: 3000psi.
50.
The TRIP RESET switch on the B737-400 air conditioning panel will reset the
a. BLEED TRIP OFF, PACK and ZONE TEMP lights provided the fault condition has been corrected.
51.
The two batteries on the 737-500 are:
a. Connected in parallel when SBY PWR is selected, or the battery switch is on with TR3 not powered.
52.
The alternate flap limit speed on the 737-400 is
a.
230kts.
53. b.
The isolation valve is: AC operated.
54. a.
The amount of fan air that is ducted through the pre-cooler is controlled by the: Thermostatic pre-cooler valve.
55.
With a ground pneumatic source connected and the isolation valve switch selected to CLOSE:
a. The pneumatic pressure would be indicated by the right hand pointer on the pneumatic duct pressure indicator.
56. When operating in auto mode (DCPCS), when taxying in after landing, the main outflow valve drives slowly to full open when: c. N1 is less than 50%
57. b.
The minimum width of cleared runway for landing is: 30m
58. c.
The maximum depth of dry snow allowed for landing on a contaminated runway is: 60mm
59. When performing a flap 30 landing on a dry runway with auto-spoilers inoperative, the landing distance required must be increased by: b. 700ft
60. a.
When landing on an icy runway with 3kts tailwind component: Tailwind landings are not permitted on icy runways.
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Sample type-rating exam

Boeing 737-300/400/500 Sample Type Rating Exam Paper (UK CAA)