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ECE Board Exam:April 2005:Electronics

1. The main purpose of an instrumentation amplifier is _____.


a. To compare input signals.
b. To amplify small signals that are riding on large common mode voltages.
c. To reject unwanted signals.
d. To trim small signals that are riding on large common mode voltages.

2. In a series RLC circuit, what is the condition of the circuit if there is high impedance,
low current, and low reactance voltages?
a. Ideal circuit
b. Percent circuit
c. Resonant
d. Non-resonant

3. The most accurate type of test equipment used for measuring high power is the
_____.
a. Bolometer
b. Wavemeter
c. Calorimeter
d. Wattmeter

4. The effect on the human body of 21-20 mill-amperes, 60 Hz A.C. or 80-?? milli-
amperes D.C is ______.
a. Respiratory failure
b. Mascular inhibition
c. Reflex action
d. Surprise

5. A straight line plot of collector current Ic and Vce for a transistor circuit is called the
_____.
a. Threshold line
b. DC loadline
c. Loading limit
d. Linear level

6. If a transformer has a turns ratio of 1:3, what is the current ratio?


a. 1:3
b. 1:9
c. 3:1
d. 9:1

7. There is a _____ degrees of inversion between gate and drain voltages of an FET.
a. Zero
b. 90
c. 180
d. 270

8. A differential circuit uses a _____.


a. Capacitor in its feedback circuit
b. RLC in its feedback circuit
c. Inductor in its feedback circuit
d. Resistor in its feedback circuit.

9. Which of the following shells contain 2 electrons?


a. L
b. N
c. M
d. K

10. What amplifier is used when power from a convertion servoamplifier is too small to
drive large servomotors (either A.C or D.C.)?
a. Differential amplifier
b. RD amplifier
c. Audio amplifier
d. Operational amplifier

11. An amplifier which is designed to be used with other circuit component to perform
either computing functions or some type of transfer operation?
a. Differential amplifier
b. RD Amplifier
c. Audio amplifier
d. Operational amplifier

12. What type of LC oscillator is sometimes called a “tickler” oscillator in reference to


the transformer secondary or tickler coil that provides the feedback to keep the
oscillator going?
a. Colpitts
b. Clapp
c. Armstrong
d. Hartley

13. The ratio of the DC collector current Ic to the emitter current Ie is called the DC
______.
a. Delta
b. Beta (Bdc)
c. Echo
d. Alpha (Adc)

14. The effect of 60 Hz A.C. over 100 mA or DC over 300 mA on the human body.
a. Mascular inhibition
b. Respiratory failure
c. Surprise
d. Usually fatal

15. The bit storage capacity of a Read Only Memory(ROM) with a 512 x 8 organization
is _____ bits.
a. 1024
b. 8192
c. 4096
d. 2048

16. The device used to produce a gradual chance of impedance at the end of a waveguide
is called a _____.
a. Funnel
b. Load
c. Dummy
d. Horn

17. In a robots, he axis that allows rotation are often referred to as _____ joints
a. Revolving
b. Revolute
c. Resolute
d. Rotary

18. The most widely used combination bias system in basic transistor amplifier
a. Limited type
b. Current divider type
c. Voltage-divider type
d. Base current type

19. The open-loop gain of an op-amp is given at 225,000. Find the gain in dB.
a. 1070
b. 107
c. 214
d. 10.7

20. A _____ is a solid material formed by atoms bonding together in a fixed pattern.
a. Block
b. Crystal
c. Lattice
d. Pyramid

21. Elements with 5 or more valence electrons are called _____.


a. Semi-conductors
b. Conductors
c. Molecule
d. Insulators
22. When the resistance of the load is high with respect to the resistance of the source
_____ in a circuit is achieved.
a. Maximum power
b. High efficiency
c. Maximum transfer
d. High voltage

23. As the input voltage varies within specified limits, the zener diode maintains a nearly
constant output voltage across its terminal. This is called _____.
a. Auto regulation
b. Specific regulation
c. Line regulation
d. Load regulation

24. The method of assigning more sectors to the outer disk tracks is referred to as _____
recording.
a. Random
b. Zone
c. Sector
d. System

25. _____ is the unit of electrical current flow.


a. Volt
b. Ohm
c. Amepere
d. Watt

26. According to Ohm’s Law, what happens to the circuit current if the circuit resistance
increases?
a. Current double
b. Current decreases
c. Current increases
d. Current remains constant

27. Determine the open loop gain of an Op-am whose cur-off frequency is 100 Hz with a
midrange voltage gain of 100,000.
a. 7,071
b. 707.1
c. 70,710
d. 70.71

28. DC biasing is used to establish a steady level of transistor current. This is called the
_____.
a. Operating coordinates
b. Threshold point
c. Range of operation
d. DC operating point

29. Arc blow can be avoided in electrical welding by _____


a. Increasing arc length
b. Welding away from the earth ground connection
c. Using bare electrodes
d. Using AC welding machines

30. The distance covered or traveled by a waveform during the time interval of one
complete cycle.
a. Frequency
b. Wavelength
c. Time slot
d. Wave time

31. _____ is the non-linear distortion characterized by the appearance (at the system
output)_ of frequencies equal to the sums or difference of two or more frequencies at
the input.
a. Differential distortion
b. Inter modulation distortion
c. Mutual distortion
d. Modulated distortion

32. Find the phase angle between the voltage across and the current through the circuit
when Xc is 25 ohms, R 100 ohms and Xl is 50 ohms.
a. 76 degrees with the voltage leading the current
b. 14 degrees with the voltage lagging the current
c. 14 degrees with the voltage leading the current
d. 76 degrees with the voltage lagging the current

33. If the resistance of a circuit is doubled and the applied voltage is kept constant, the
current will _____.
a. Be quadrupled
b. Remain the same
c. Be cut in half
d. Be doubled

34. To produce tin film resistors, which of the following materials is the most widely
used?
a. Titanium
b. Tantalum
c. Nichrome
d. Chromium cermets
35. Which of the following are techniques used to eliminate bonding wire and to improve
packaging in IC production?
a. Flip chips
b. Beam lead chips
c. Flat pack
d. DIP
i. A,B, and C only
ii. A and C only
iii. A and B only
iv. A,B,C, and D

36. List the two advantages of a voltage divider in DC biasing


a. Unstable, uses two supply voltages
b. Unstable, uses one supply voltage
c. Stable, uses one supply voltages
d. Stable, uses two supply voltages

37. _____ is a kind of oscilloscope which consist of narrowband if filter and a local
oscillator (receiver) capable of showing transmitter carriers, spacing, harmonics and
sidebands.
a. Polygraph
b. Harmonics analyzer
c. Spectrum analyzer
d. Computerized tomography

38. One cycle is equal to how many degrees of rotation of a conductor in a magnetic
field?
a. 270
b. 360
c. 180
d. 90

39. A measuring device which will result to full scale reading at shorted terminal
condition
a. Voltmeter
b. Ammeter
c. Electrostatic meter
d. Ohmmeter

40. which of the following are the buses for information transfer internally and externally
in a microprocessor
a. address bus
b. data bus
c. control bus
i. A and C only
ii. A and B only
iii. B and C only
iv. A, B, and C only
41. If the voltage gain for each input of a summing amplifier with a 4.8 kilo-ohm
feedback resistor is unity, the input resistors must have a value of _____ kilo-ohm.
a. 4.8 times the number of inputs
b. 48
c. 4.8 divided by the number of inputs
d. 4.8

42. To match the waveguide to the load, _____ devices are placed in the waveguide.
a. Standing wave
b. Resistive
c. Metal plate
d. Impedance changing

43. What is the generic term for utilities and programs needed to operate a computer
system?
a. Hardware
b. Software
c. People water
d. Tupper ware

44. The computer worm that infected computer systems world-wide in 10 minutes,
making it the fastest computer virus ever known is called _____.
a. Claw Hammer
b. Sledge Hammer
c. SQL Hammer
d. SARS Virus

45. The channel of JFET is between the _____.


a. Input and output
b. Drain and source
c. Gate and drain
d. Gate and source

46. What is the common use of a push-pull amplifier?


a. AN OPAM
b. A driver
c. Wideband amplifier
d. A coupler

47. For a bipolar junction transition(eto tlga yung nakalagay) (BJT) to operate properly,
the base-collector junction should be _____ biased.
a. Positive
b. Forward
c. Negative
d. Reverse
48. Large centralized data-processing complexes like multi-national companies,
departments and corporations use which type of general-purpose computer that
operates programs simultaneously?
a. Mini-computer
b. Micro0computer
c. Main-frame computer
d. Super-computer

49. In parallel resonant LC circuit, what is the impedance at resonant frequency?


a. Zero
b. The maximum impedance value
c. Infinity
d. Determined solely by the dc resistance

50. The area in which the axis motion of a robot manipulator can operate without any
obstruction is called the e_____.
a. Work area
b. Range of operation
c. Range of motion
d. Work envelope

51. The BEST choice electronic device to turn a device at a particular voltage is a/an
_____.
a. SCR
b. SCS
c. DIAC
d. PUT

52. What term is used to describe the ability a system to distinguish between targets that
are close together?
a. Radar sensitivity
b. Target designation
c. Radar agility
d. target resolution

53. What do you call a concept which describes the relationship of all functional
components of a computer such as CPU and input./output devices?
a. Engineering development
b. Architecture
c. Prototyping
d. Pre-production modeling

54. The use of feedback to achieve the desired response of a dynamic system in the
presence of uncertainties, disturbance or constraints is called _____.
a. Synchronization
b. Response
c. Control
d. Servomechanism

55. The primary purpose of a voltage regulator is to provide an output voltage with little
or no _____.
a. Figure of merit
b. Value
c. Regulation
d. Variation

56. Displays files in specified directory and all subdirectories


a. Solid
b. Doped
c. Intrinsic
d. Extrinsic

57. In waveguide theory, what causes the current-carrying area at the center conductor of
the coaxial line to be restricted to a small layer at the surface?
a. Dielectric losses
b. Standing wave
c. Skin effect
d. Copper losses

58. This peak current specified for a given number of cycles or portion of a cycle.
a. Surge current
b. Maximum current
c. Peak surge current
d. High current

59. An electron moves into the electrostatic field between a positive charge and a
negative charge. Toward which charge will the electron move?
a. Outwards
b. The negative charge
c. The center
d. The positive charge

60. _____ is the definite discrete amount of energy required to move an electron from a
lower shell to a higher shell
a. Quantum
b. Positive energy
c. The center
d. The positive charge

61. Which of the following are the basic measurements?


a. Voltage
b. Current
c. Resistance
d. Capacitance and conductance
i. Neither (a and b) nor (c, d, and e)
ii. A, b, c, d , and e
iii. C, d, and e only
iv. A and b only

62. Monolithic integrated circuits are usually referred to as _____.


a. Selenium rectifiers
b. ?? (ndi ko na mabasa)
c. Silicon chips
d. Hybrids

63. _____ is an intermodulation condition that occurs when a carrier modulates by an


undesired signal.
a. Short modulation
b. Cross modulation
c. Under modulation
d. Over modulation

64. In microwave tubes, what is the basic principle of operations of a klystron?


a. Strong electrostatic field
b. Energy transfer and amplification
c. Oscillation
d. Velocity modulation

65. An English scientist who drew up plans for the first programmable computer in 1830
a. Vannevar bush
b. William oughtred
c. Charles Babbage
d. Herman hollerith

66. In an optical coupler, this parameter is the ratio of the output current to the input
current through the LED, expressed in percentage. What is this ratio?
a. DC current coupling ratio
b. AC current transfer ratio
c. AC current coupling ratio
d. DC current transfer ratio

67. _____ refers to the difference between the carrier frequencies of an FM signal and the
instantaneous frequency of its modulated wave.
a. Differential frequency
b. Frequency deviation
c. Modulated frequency
d. Frequency band
68. The most widely used abrasive is _____.
a. Tungsten
b. Graphite
c. Silicon carbide
d. Alumina

69. The most common bias circuit providing Q-point stability with a single polarity
supply voltage is what type bias circuit
a. Collector feedback
b. Voltage divider
c. Emitter
d. Base

70. What happens to the portion of the wave front that do not satisfy the boundary
conditions, when a wavefront is radiated into a waveguide?
a. It collapses
b. It decreases to zero
c. It is reflected back
d. It increases to maximum

71. The schokeydiode(eto tlga yungnakalagay. Schokey diode) is a thyristor that conducts
when the voltage across its terminal exceed the _____ potential.
a. Trigger
b. Breakover
c. Operating
d. Maximum

72. The value of the drain-to-source voltage of a GFET at which the drain current
becomes constant when the gate-to-source voltage is zero is called _____ voltage.
a. Breakdown
b. Cut off
c. Threshold
d. Pinch off

73. Insulators are characterized by a _____ energy gap between its conduction bands an
valence band.
a. Very narrow
b. Wide
c. Very wide
d. Narrow

74. _____ is an electrical current that flows in one direction only.


a. Normal current
b. Alternating current
c. Direct current
d. Eddy current

75. The input resistance at the gate of an FET is _____.


a. Relatively low
b. Zero
c. Extremely high
d. Average

76. It is the generated in a D.C. motor as armature coils out the field flux opposes the
applied voltage, and limits the flow of armature current.
a. Electromotive force
b. Field excitation
c. Counter-electromotive force
d. Armature excitation

77. The person responsible for the researend(as is) design and development of a complete
information system.
a. PROGRAMMER
b. PEOPLE WARE
c. SYSTEM ANALYST
d. COMPUTER OPERATOR

78. In a robotic system, how many degrees of freedom can be given to a manipulator by
adding a wrist?
a. Four
b. Six
c. Three
d. Two

79. Term for energy that is stored in electromagnetic or electrostatic field.


a. Amperes-joules
b. Joules-coulombs
c. Potential energy
d. Kinetic energy

80. What do you call the “Filter” between a corporate network and the internet that keeps
the corporate network secure from intruders while giving corporate users unhibited
access to the internet?
a. Bandstep (as is)
b. Bandpass
c. Firewall
d. Firestorm

81. Which of the following circuit conditions requires circuit protection?


a. Direct short/shot circuit
b. Excessive heat
c. Excessive current
i. A and C only
ii. A, B and C only
iii. B and C only
iv. A and B only

82. Two basic categories of voltage regulators are


a. Differential, integral
b. Capacitive, inductive
c. Linear switching
d. Centrifugal, centripetal

83. A measure of the energy absorbed from radiation by tissue or other biological
material and is a equal to the transfer of 1 x 10-2 Joules energy per kilogram of
material is called a _____.
a. Radical
b. Rad
c. Radian
d. Radius

84. The type of feedback used to increase amplitude of output signal.


a. Negative feedback
b. Unwanted feedback
c. Positive feedback
d. Fidelity feedback

85. A transistor constructed with three-doped semiconductor region separated by two pn


junction is called a _____.
a. Metal oxide semiconductor FET
b. Field effect transistor
c. Junction field effect transistor
d. Bipolar junction transistor

86. A type of filter that passes a narrow band of frequencies though a current and
attenuates the desired band of frequencies that are high or lower than the desired band
of frequencies.
a. Low-pass filter
b. Band-reject filter
c. Band-pass filter
d. High-pass filter

87. Which of the following are circuit control devices?


a. Switches
b. Solenoid
c. Relays
i. B and C only
ii. A and NB only
iii. A, B, and C
iv. A and C only

88. What is an electric measuring equipment used in navigation which uses time
measurement concept for a wave to travel from a place receiving station and back?
a. Tacan
b. OODR
c. ILS
d. DME

89. In a stand alone supply of power the rationale of cells making in series is to _____.
a. Increase current capacity
b. Increase voltage output
c. Decrease voltage output
d. Decrease internal resistance

90. _____ is the total number of magnetic lines of force in a magnetic field.
a. Magnetic potential
b. Magnetic flux
c. Magnet flux intensity
d. Flux density

91. An electronic device that can be turned on and turned off by a gate pulse is called a
_____.
a. Bipolar junction transistor
b. Silicon-controlled switch
c. Silicon-controlledrectirifer
d. Shockley diode

92. Which of the following are categories of computer system software?


a. Operating system (OS)
b. Utility programs
c. Languages translator
i. A and B only
ii. B and C only
iii. A and C only
iv. A, B, and C

93. A hot-carrier diode is a diode that ____.


a. Emits light when forward biased
b. Switches very fast
c. Varies resistance with temperature
d. Changes its capacitance with voltage

94. Which of the following are UJT terminals?


a. Emitter
b. Base
c. Base2
d. Gate
i. B, C and D only
ii. A, B, and C only
iii. A, B and D only
iv. All of the above

95. An amplifier exhibits three critical frequencies in its low-frequency response


a. None of these
b. 167hertz
c. 130 hertz
d. 75 hertz

96. The value of anode current below which the SCR switches from the forward-
conduction region to the forward blocking region is called _____ current.
a. Switching, Is
b. Operation, Io
c. Holding, Ih
d. Forward blocking, Ibl (f)

97. In a transformer, the principle of electromagnetic induction is also known as _____.


a. Coupling action
b. Transformation
c. Matching action
d. Transformer action

98. The symbols 1, 2 and 3 through 9 are what type of numerals?


a. Boolean
b. Roman
c. Binary
d. Arabic

99. Type of semiconductor diode varies its internal capacitance as the voltage applied to
its terminals varies.
a. A zener diode
b. A varactor diode
c. A silicon-controlled rectifier
d. A tunnel diode

100.Which of the following are means of achieving tin films in IC manufacturing?


a. Thermal growth
b. Chemical vapor deposition
c. Evaporation
i. A and C only
ii. B and C only
iii. A, B, and C
iv. A and B only
Answer key: (yung iba wla talagang sagot..)

1. B 41. D 81. B
2. D 42. D 82. C
3. C 43. B 83. B
4. B 44. C 84. C
5. B 45. B 85. D
6. C 46. B 86. C
7. C 47. D 87. C
8. D 48. C 88. B
9. D 49. B 89. B
10. B 50. D 90. B
11. D 51. C 91. B
12. C 52. D 92. A
13. D 53. B 93. B
14. D 54. C 94. B
15. C 55. D 95. D
16. D 56. ? 96. ?
17. A 57. C 97. D
18. C 58. C 98. D
19. B 59. D 99. B
20. B 60. A 100.?
21. D 61. D
22. D 62. C
23. C 63. B
24. C 64. D
25. C 65. C
26. B 66. A
27. C 67. B
28. D 68. D
29. D 69. B
30. B 70. B
31. B 71. B
32. C 72. D
33. C 73. C
34. C 74. C
35. C 75. C
36. C 76. C
37. C 77. A
38. B 78. C
39. D 79. C
40. D 80. C