DAT/OAT

Reading Comprehension Integration Workshop B

DO NOT OPEN THE TEST BOOK UNTIL YOU ARE READY TO BEGIN DIRECTIONS This workshop consists of the following DAT/OAT section: DAT/OAT Section 3: Reading Comprehension 50 minutes

Complete this workshop in the time indicated. On test day, you may work only on a given section in the time allotted for that section. If you finish a section early, you may check your work within that section, but YOU WILL NOT BE ABLE TO GO BACK TO A PREVIOUS SECTION OR AHEAD TO A FORTHCOMING SECTION. Instructions are provided at the beginning of the test. directions before answering the questions. Make sure you understand the

FILLING IN THE ANSWER GRID 1. Place all your answers on the separate Answer Grid provided. Using a #2 PENCIL ONLY, blacken the space corresponding to the letter of the answer choice you have selected. There should be only one answer per question. Do not be concerned if there are more spaces available on the Answer Grid than there are questions in a section. 2. Be sure your answer mark is dark and fills the space completely. Also, be sure all erasures are complete. The computer may misinterpret an incomplete erasure and you will lose credit for that question. 3. Use your test booklet for any scratch work. DO NOT MAKE ANY STRAY MARKS ON THE ANSWER GRID. Erase any such marks.

 1999 KAPLAN EDUCATIONAL CENTERS All rights reserved. No part of this book may be reproduced in any form, by photostat, microfilm, xerography or any other means, or incorporated into any information retrieval system, electronic or mechanical, without the written permission of Kaplan Educational Centers.

Reading Comprehension Workshop B

Time limit: 50 minutes
The mechanisms underlying cell division are remarkably conserved across evolutionarily divergent organisms. All somatic (or body) cells pass through four phases of the cell cycle. The first is called G1, or gap 1, when the cell grows and prepares to undergo DNA synthesis. The second is S phase, or synthesis, when new DNA is copied from the existing chromosomes. The third phase is G2, or gap 2, when errors of DNA replication are repaired and the cell prepares to divide. These first three phases are collectively known as interphase. The last phase is called mitosis, or M phase, when replicated chromosomes are separated and divided into two new daughter cells. Mutations can arise in the genes responsible for the control of entry into and out of each of the phases of the cell cycle. Accumulation of sufficient numbers of mutations in any single cell involving critical cell cycle control pathways can lead to cancer. Cancer is generally defined by two characteristic features: cell growth unregulated by external signals and the capability to invade normal tissues and spread to distant sites. The first feature is characteristic of all tumors, both benign and malignant. However, if the tumor is able to invade other tissues and spread to distant sites, then the tumor is said to be cancer. This latter process is known as metastasis. In order for a tumor to metastasize, it must invade local tissues and promote the growth of new blood vessels. This blood vessel growth, or angiogenesis, provides a doorway for the cancer cells to enter the bloodstream and disperse to other organs. In addition, the cancer cells must be able to migrate back out of the bloodstream and into tissues. Once located in other tissues, these cells must fight off local and systemic immune defenses. Cancer is primarily a genetic disease. Most cancers result from mutations in somatic DNA, although some forms are inherited through the germline DNA from the parents. No matter what their origin, all these mutations are caused by errors in DNA replication either by chance or promoted by exposure to carcinogens. In most cancers, a single mutation is not sufficient to cause a normal cell to turn into a cancer cell, a process called malignant transformation. Other gene products may compensate for the mutation, allowing the cell to continue to grow normally. However, mutation of multiple genes and their protein products potentially removes the checks and balances that normally control cell growth and proliferation. Generally, cells must acquire 5 to 10 mutations in crucial genes in order to become malignant. Three classes of cancer genes are generally recognized: oncogenes, tumor suppressor genes, and DNA repair genes. Oncogenes promote uncontrolled cell division, driving the cell through the cell cycle. Tumor suppressor genes generally function to inhibit the cell's passage through the cell cycle. The loss of their function allows the cell to 1 divide. The third class of genes, DNA repair genes, fixes errors arising from faulty replication of DNA. If DNA repair is faulty, the frequency of mutations in all genes rises dramatically. As a result, many oncogenes and tumor suppressor genes are mutated and the risk of developing cancer increases. Although virtually all cancer is genetic in its origin, only a few cancers are inherited. Some people with cancer may have inherited a germline mutation (a mutation in the sperm or egg from which they arose) which predisposes them to cancer. However, even these individuals do not develop cancer unless additional somatic mutations are acquired. Other individuals have no inherited predisposition to cancer, but still develop malignancies. In these individuals, random mutations in key genes are responsible for the appearance of the disease. The offspring of these individuals do not have any more chance of developing cancer than the offspring of unaffected individuals. Occasionally, malignancies can be transmitted from one organism to another by the mutagenizing effects of viruses. A major category of tumor-promoting viruses in animals is the retrovirus. A retrovirus is a virus whose genetic material is composed of RNA, but is able to transcribe this genetic material into DNA. The retrovirus then inserts this genetic copy into the DNA of its host. If the retrovirus happens to integrate into the host genome within or near an oncogene, then the retrovirus may be able to promote the malignant transformation of the cell. Although many retroviruses cause cancer in animals, very few cancers in people are caused by retroviruses. The only major retrovirus known to cause cancer in humans is the human T cell lymphotropic virus type 1, found primarily in Japan and the Caribbean. A more common type of tumor virus in humans are DNA viruses. These viruses contain genes that promote the transition of cells through the cell cycle, leading to precancerous as well as cancerous states. Examples of these viruses include the human papilloma viruses which cause cervical cancer; the hepatitis B and C viruses which cause hepatocellular carcinoma; and the Epstein-Barr virus which causes Burkitt's lymphoma in Africa, nasopharyngeal carcinoma in the Far East, and lymphomas in immunocompromised patients. Cancer therapies are generally divided into four different modalities: brachytherapy, chemotherapy, hormone therapy, and immunotherapy. Brachytherapy involves the use of ionizing radiation to kill cancer cells, while chemotherapy uses toxic drugs that preferentially kill rapidly dividing cancer cells. Hormone therapy generally targets tumors whose growth

is propelled by the body's natural hormones. Immunotherapy is the most experimental modality, involving bone marrow transplants and tumor vaccines. The major challenge for oncology in the future is to apply the insights into the molecular genetic causes of cancer to the treatment of patients. Currently, certain types of cancers, such as breast cancers, are routinely assessed for mutations in genes and changes in the expression of proteins to guide treatment options. In the future, the entire genome of every cancer will be screened to predict future tumor behavior and likely response to treatment. 1. According to the author, the least traditional method of cancer treatment is A. B. C. D. E. 2. chemotherapy. immunotherapy. brachytherapy. hormone therapy. None of the above

6.

According to the passage, which of the following is correct in relation to nasopharyngeal cancer? A. B. C. D. E. It is primarily found in Africa. It arises from a retrovirus. It is caused by the Epstein-Barr virus. It is particularly indolent. None of the above

7.

People who carry mutations in their germline DNA have children with A. a greater risk of developing cancer than the general population B. a lesser risk of developing cancer than the general population C. the same risk of developing cancer as the general population D. more birth defects E. Two of the above

8.

According to the passage, most cancers arise from A. B. C. D. E. germline mutations. somatic mutations. viruses. radiation. drugs. 9.

According to the passage, the only retrovirus currently known to cause cancer in humans is A. B. C. D. E. the adenovirus. the Hepatitis B and C viruses. the human T cell lymphotropic virus. the human papilloma virus. the influenza virus.

3.

Mutations are A. B. C. D. E. changes in the DNA sequence. exclusively found in oncogenes. changes in the expression of proteins. mediated only through viruses. common in normal healthy cells.

Oncogenes function in which of the following ways? A. B. C. D. E. They promote cell growth and replication. They cause cells to die prematurely. They inhibit cell growth and replication. They are found only in the germline. They turn on other genes.

4.

According to the passage, which of the following correctly describes the G1 phase of the cell cycle? A. The phase is characterized by separation of the chromatids. B. The phase represents growth of the cell and preparation for DNA synthesis. C. The phase follows S phase. D. It is the phase during which most mutations occur. E. It is the phase where DNA replication occurs.

10. Metastasis is defined as the ability of a cancer cell to A. B. C. D. E. enter the S phase. divide uncontrollably. respond to hormone therapy. spread to distant sites. cause metabolic abnormalities.

11. Retroviruses promote malignant transformation of a cell by A. integrating into the host genome within or near an oncogene. B. transcribing its RNA into protein. C. arresting the cell in S phase. D. causing the cell to migrate into the bloodstream. E. preventing the cell from fighting immune defenses.

5.

Malignant cells are generally characterized by A. slow growth and lack of invasive capabilities. B. the ability to be regulated by external growth factors. C. the ability to form a functioning organ in a laboratory. D. diploid nuclear content. E. the ability to invade tissues.

12. Interphase includes which of the following stages of the cell cycle? I. II. III. IV. A. B. C. D. E. G1 G2 S M

17. A cell usually becomes malignant A. B. C. D. E. after 5 to 10 mutations. after a single mutation. after DNA replication. after cell division. None of the above

I and II III and IV II and IV I, II and III I, II, III and IV

13. The process by which a normal cell becomes a cancer cell is known as A. B. C. D. E. promotion. metastasis. transfection. causation. transformation.

14. The Epstein-Barr virus causes which of the following diseases? I. II. III. IV. A. B. C. D. E. Hepatitis B Cervical cancer Burkitt's lymphoma Nasopharyngeal carcinoma

I and III only II only II and IV only III and IV only None of the above

15. According to the passage, tumor suppressor genes generally cause cancer by A. B. C. D. E. gaining new functions. compensating for carcinogens. DNA repair. loss of function. preventing immune function.

16. Which of the following is correct about the cell cycle regulation? A. It is controlled primarily at S phase. B. It is crucial to the maintenance of normal cell division. C. It is also known as angiogenesis. D. It fixes errors in DNA replication. E. It causes cancer.

Despite significant achievements in the scientific study of sleep in the past thirty-five years, the basic phenomenon of sleep remains elusive to sleep researchers. Close monitoring of sleeping subjects with the use of electroencephalography (EEG) has been the mainstay of investigation of the basic mechanisms and physiology of sleep. EEG, developed by Hans Berger in 1929, utilizes electrodes placed on the scalp to measure the electrical activity of the brain during sleep. The electrical activity of the neurons in the uppermost cortical layers of the brain is the major determinant of the EEG. The recordings from each electrode are placed in different arrangements, called montages, on recording paper. Visual inspection of the EEG involves the assessment of the frequency, amplitude, and distribution of the wave forms. The typical electroencephalogram for an awake individual is characterized by alpha waves of 8 to 12 cycles a second and low-voltage activity of mixed frequency. As the person falls asleep, her brain waves go through four characteristic stages. In the first stage, stage 1, alpha activity begins to disappear. Stage 1 is considered the lightest stage of sleep and is characterized by low-voltage, regular activity at 3 to 7 cycles a second. After a few seconds or minutes, stage 1 gives way to stage 2, with an EEG pattern showing frequent spindle-shaped tracings at 12 to 14 cycles a second (sleep spindles) and slow, triphasic waves known as K complexes. Stage 3 follows with delta waves: high-voltage activity at 0.5 to 2.5 cycles per second. Stages 3 and 4 are commonly described as delta sleep or slow-wave sleep (SWS) because of their characteristic appearance on the EEG record. Collectively, stages 1-4 are known as nonrapid eye movement (NREM) sleep. Most physiological functions are markedly reduced during NREM sleep in comparison to wakefulness. Rapid eye movement (REM) sleep is a qualitatively different kind of sleep characterized by high brain activity similar to wakefulness. About 90 minutes after sleep onset, NREM characteristically yields to the first REM episode of the night. (A shortening of REM latency frequently occurs with disorders such as depression and narcolepsy.) The EEG pattern of REM sleep, consisting of low-voltage, random fast activity with sawtooth waves, records the rapid eye movements that are the identifying feature of this stage of sleep. (There are no or few rapid eye movement in NREM sleep.) In normal individuals, NREM sleep is a "peaceful" state relative to waking. The pulse rate is typically 5 to 10 beats per minute slower than the level of restful waking. Respiration and blood pressure are also measurably depressed in NREM sleep. Blood flow through most tissues, including cerebral blood flow, is also slightly reduced, although episodic involuntary body movement is present.

The deepest portions of NREM sleepstages 3 and 4are often associated with unusual arousal characteristics. When individuals are aroused a half hour to one hour after sleep onsetusually in SWSthey are disoriented, and their thinking is disorganized. Brief arousals from SWS are also associated with amnesia for events that occur during the arousal. EEG measured during REM sleep show irregular patterns often close to waking patterns. In fact, it can be difficult to determine whether a subject is awake or in REM sleep from the EEG alone. Hence, REM sleep has been termed paradoxical sleep. Pulse, respiration, and blood pressure in humans are all high during REM sleep, and brain oxygen use increases. Additionally, thermoregulation is altered during REM sleep. In contrast to the homeothermic condition of temperature regulation that is present during the alert state or NREM sleep, a poikilothermic condition is present during REM sleep. (Poikilothermic condition is a state in which animal temperature varies with the changes in the temperature of the surrounding environment.) Characteristic of reptiles, poikilothermia results in a failure to respond to changes in ambient temperature with shivering or sweating, whichever is appropriate to maintain body temperature. Another physiological change that occurs during REM sleep is the near total paralysis of skeletal muscles. Because of this motor inhibition, body movement is absent during REM sleep. Yet, the most distinctive feature of REM sleep is dreaming. The cyclical nature of sleep is quite regular and reliable; a REM period occurs about every 90 to 100 minutes during the night. The first REM period tends to be the shortest, typically lasting less than 10 minuets. The later REM periods can last anywhere form 15 to 40 minutes each. Most REM time occurs in the last third of the night, whereas most stage 4 sleep occurs in the first third of the night. Recent studies on sleep have demonstrated that sleep patterns change over the life span. In the neonatal period, REM sleep represents more than 50 percent of total sleep time. In addition, newborns pass form wakefulness directly to REM sleep. By about four months of age, the pattern shifts so that the total percentage of REM sleep drops to less than 40 percent and entry into sleep occurs with an initial period of NREM sleep. By young adulthood, the distribution of sleep stages is as follows: seventy-five percent of sleep time in NREM sleep (stage 1: 5 percent; stage 2: 45 percent; stage 3: 12 percent; stage 4: 13 percent) and the rest of the time in REM sleep. This distribution remains relatively constant into old age, although a reduction occurs in both SWS and REM sleep in the elderly. Sleep appears to be necessary to the normal functioning of humans, and especially crucial for normal thermoregulation and energy conservation. Prolonged periods 4

of sleep deprivation can lead to pathological symptoms such as ego disorganization, hallucinations and delusions. Depriving individuals of REM sleep by awakening them at the beginning of REM cycles produces an increase in the number of REM periods and in the amount of REM sleep when they are allowed to sleep without interruption; this phenomenon is known as REM rebound. In studies with rats, sleep deprivation has been shown to produce a syndrome that includes debilitated appearance, skin lesions, increased food uptake, weight loss, increased energy expenditure, decreased body temperature, and death. Neuroendocrine changes can include increased plasma norepinephrine and decreased plasma thyroxine. Although all humans require sleep, the amount of sleep varies from individual to individual. Some people (short sleepers) normally require less than six hours each night and function adequately. Long sleepers typically sleep more than nine hours each night in order to function adequately. They have more REM periods and more rapid eye movement with each period (known as REM density) than do short sleepers. Short sleepers are generally efficient, ambitious, socially adept, and content. Long sleepers tend to be mildly depressed, anxious, and socially withdrawn. The need for increased sleep results from physical work, exercise, illness, pregnancy, general mental stress, and increased mental activity. 18. An EEG measures I. brain activity II. body temperature III. heart rate A. B. C. D. E. I only I and II only I, II and III I and III only II and III only

21. According to the passage, approximately how often does REM sleep occur in normal individuals each night? A. B. C. D. E. Every 15-40 minutes Every 50 minutes Every 90-100 minutes Every 40-50 minutes Depends on how long the individual has been asleep

22. According to the passage, newborns sleep differently from adults in that they A. B. C. D. sleep less than normal adults. sleep more than normal adults. spend more time in NREM sleep than adults. spend a greater percentage of time in delta wave sleep. E. pass directly from wakefulness to REM sleep. 23. What percent of adult sleep is REM sleep? A. B. C. D. E. 45 percent 50 percent 12 percent 40 percent 25 percent

24. According to the passage, short sleepers tend to be all of the following EXCEPT A. B. C. D. E. Efficient Ambitious Socially adept Congenial Content

19. Sleep spindles first show up at which stage of sleep? A. B. C. D. E. Stage 1 Stage 2 Stage 3 Stage 4 Stage 5

25. According to the passage, which of the following sequences represent the correct order of brain waves as an adult goes from stage 1 sleep to stage 4? A. Alpha waves sleep spindles and K complexes, delta waves B. Alpha waves, K complexes, sawtooth waves, delta waves C. Alpha waves, K complexes, sleep spindles, delta waves D. Alpha waves, sleep spindles, sawtooth waves and K complexes and delta waves E. Alpha waves, delta waves, sleep spindles and K complexes

20. Which of the following is the characteristic EEG wave of REM sleep? A. B. C. D. E. Triphasic waves Delta waves K complexes Sawtooth waves Slow waves

26. As the night progresses, individuals typically spend A. B. C. D. E. greater time in REM sleep. less time in REM sleep. 90-100 minutes in REM sleep. 10 minutes in REM sleep. None of the above

32. According to the passage, which of the following is typically true of long sleepers? A. B. C. D. E. They are content individuals. They have more REM periods. They spend more time in stage 1 than state 2 sleep. They exhibit symptoms of ego disorganization. They are subject to REM rebound.

27. According to the passage, a shortening of REM latency frequency occurs with which of the following disorders? A. B. C. D. E. Schizophrenia Depression Paranoia Pregnancy Exercise

33. The distribution of sleep stages remains relatively constant into old age except for which of the following stages? A. B. C. D. E. Stage 1 Stage 2 Stage 3 Two of the above All of the above

28. According to EEG, which of the following stages of sleep is most similar to the wakeful state? A. B. C. D. E. REM stage 1 NREM stage 1 REM stage 3 NREM stage 4 REM

34. According to the passage, prolonged periods of sleep deprivation can lead of all of the following symptoms EXCEPT A. B. C. D. E. Depression Anxiousness Hallucinations Delusions All of the above

29. The deepest portions of NREM sleep are A. B. C. D. E. stage 1. stage 1 & 2. stage 3. stage 4. stage 3 & 4.

30. According to the passage, which of the following is NOT characteristic of an individual's EEG pattern in REM sleep? A. B. C. D. E. Spikes Low-voltage waves Fast activity Sawtooth waves All of the above are characteristic of REM sleep

31. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of REM sleep? A. B. C. D. E. Dreaming Poikilothermia Paralysis of skeletal muscle Sweating High pulse rate

Fingerprinting has traditionally been one of the most accurate methods for placing an individual at the scene of a crime. Recently, a new identification technique has become available that utilizes methodology developed for recombinant DNA technology. This new technique is known as DNA fingerprinting, DNA typing, or DNA profiling. The technique of DNA fingerprinting is based on sequence polymorphisms that occur in the human genome. Sequence polymorphisms are slight sequence differences in DNA that occur from individual to individual, typically once every few hundred base pairs. Although every individuals DNA has sequence polymorphisms, each specific difference from the consensus human genome sequence is generally present in only a fraction of the human population. Sequence polymorphisms can occur virtually anywhere on the human genome. One possible location is the recognition site of restriction enzymes. Restriction enzymes are biological molecules that cleave DNA at specific sequences to generate DNA fragments. These enzymes were originally identified in bacteria and function to recognize and cleave (digest) foreign DNA, such as that of an infecting virus. The bacterial cells own DNA is not cleaved because the sequences recognized by the restriction enzymes in the particular bacteria are methylated, and thus protected, by a specific DNA methylase. Over eight hundred restriction enzymes have been discovered in different bacterial species, and over one hundred different specific sequences are recognized by one or more of these enzymes. The recognition sequences are typically short sequences from four to six base pairs. Restriction enzymes can either cleave both strands of the DNA so as to leave no unpaired bases on either end (blunt ends) or they can make staggered cuts on the two DNA strands, leaving two to four nucleotides of one strand unpaired at each resulting end (sticky ends). Undoubtedly, some of the sequence polymorphisms in the human genome occur at the recognition sites of restriction enzymes. The result is a variation from individual to individual in the size of certain DNA fragments produced by digestion with a particular restriction enzyme. These size differences are referred to as restriction fragment length polymorphisms, or RFLPs. The detection of RFLPs relies on a specialized hybridization procedure called Southern blotting. In this procedure, DNA fragments from the digestion of genomic DNA by restriction enzymes are first separated according to size by electrophoresis in an agarose gel. (Electrophoresis refers to the movement of charged solutes, such as DNA and proteins, in response to an electric field. Since DNA is negatively charged because of the phosphate groups on the molecule, DNA fragments will migrate towards the positive electrode at a speed dependent on the size of the fragment.) Next, the gel is soaked in an alkali solution which disrupts the 7

hydrogen bonds between the nitrogenous bases and disrupts the hydrophobic interactions between the stacked bases. This procedure denatures the double-stranded DNA and separates the strands. The DNA fragments are then transferred to nitrocellulose paper in such a way as to reproduce on paper the distribution of fragments in the gel. The paper is then immersed in a solution containing a radioactively labeled DNA probea short segment of single-stranded DNA with a sequence complementary to a particular genomic sequence. The genomic DNA fragments to which the probe hybridizes are revealed by autoradiography. The genomic DNA sequences used in these tests are generally regions containing repetitive DNA, which are common in the genomes of higher eukaryotes. The number of repeated units in such DNA varies from individual to individual. If a suitable probe is chosen, the pattern of bands in such an experiment can be distinctive for each individual tested. If several probes are used, the test can be made selective enough to positively identify a single individual in the human population. However, the Southern blot procedure requires relatively fresh DNA samples and larger amounts of DNA than are generally present at a crime scene. In response to this limitation, RFLP analysis is now being augmented by a revolutionary DNA technique known as the Polymerase Chain Reaction, or PCR. PCR, invented by Kary Mullis in 1984, is a repetitive procedure that results in a geometric amplification of a specific DNA sequence. The first step of the procedure is to synthesize two oligonucleotides, each complementary to a short sequence in one strand of the desired DNA segment. Next, isolated DNA containing the segment to be amplified is heated briefly to denature it. The denatured DNA is then cooled in the presence of a large excess of the synthetic oligonucleotide primers. A heat-stable DNA polymerase (Taq I) and the four deoxynucleoside triphosphates are added to the DNA/primer mixture, and the primed DNA segment is selectively replicated. After about twenty-five cycles, the desired DNA segment is amplified approximately 106 fold. The PCR method is sensitive enough to detect as little as one DNA molecule. Through the use of PCR, DNA fingerprints can be obtained from a single hair, a small semen sample, or from samples that might be months or even years old. Imagine the following (oversimplified) scenario: a burglar accidentally cuts his hand during the course of a crime, leaving a small quantity of blood and tissue on the door handle at the crime scene. Forensic scientists collect the sample and isolate and purify the tiny amount of DNA in the sample. The DNA is then amplified using PCR technology. Meanwhile, DNA samples are taken from the crime suspects. Each of the DNA samples are cleaved into fragments using specifically chosen restriction enzymes. The fragments are then separated by gel electrophoresis, denatured, and transferred to nitrocellulose paper. Radioactive DNA probes are then used to

identify a small subset of these fragments that contain sequences complementary to the probe. The sizes of the fragments identified vary from one individual to the next. If the actual perpetrator is among the suspects, his DNA will exhibit a banding pattern identical to that of the DNA taken from the crime scene sample. Three or more probes can be used in this procedure to maximize the accuracy of the identification. In the past decade, recombinant DNA technology has developed to the point where it can determine the outcome of court cases. The results from DNA fingerprinting have been used to help both convict and acquit suspects. The procedure can also be used to establish paternity with an extraordinary degree of certainty. Granted, the results of DNA fingerprinting have been successfully challenged in some court cases because of irregularities in the collection of DNA samples and a lack of controls in many early tests. Yet, the far-reaching impact of this technology on court cases will nevertheless continue to grow as standards are established and the methods become widely established in forensic laboratories. 35. All of the following techniques are described in the passage EXCEPT A. B. C. D. E. DNA profiling Polymerase Chain Reaction Southern blotting Autoradiography Electrophoresis

38. If the sequence polymorphisms are not recognized by any restriction enzyme, we can conclude that A. the technique of DNA fingerprinting would fail. B. the sequence polymorphisms must occur at methylated sites. C. the technique of PCR will need to be used. D. the DNA came from bacterial cells. E. the DNA came from viruses. 39. Restriction enzymes were originally discovered in A. B. C. D. E. viruses. eukaryotic cells. red blood cells. bacteria. fungus.

40. Based on conclusions that can be drawn from the passage, DNA fingerprinting can be used as a reliable means of identifying an individual based on comparing collected samples because A. Southern blotting accurate identifies people that live in the South. B. methylated DNA sequences can accurately be assayed using Southern blot analysis. C. the genomic complement of each individual has no similarities. D. sequence polymorphisms do not exist in each individual in the population. E. the probability of two individuals possessing the same restriction length polymorphisms is near impossible. 41. If the anode is positive and the cathode is negative, to which electrode will DNA migrate under the influence of an electric field? A. B. C. D. E. The anode The cathode First the anode, then the cathode First the cathode, then the anode The DNA will not migrate

36. According to the passage, which of the following does NOT occur during DNA fingerprinting? A. B. C. D. E. Denature genomic DNA Radiolabel the agarose gel Digest genomic DNA Amplify genomic DNA All of the above occur during DNA fingerprinting

37. Which of the following can be inferred about restriction enzymes? A. They are protected by DNA methylase. B. Different restriction enzymes may cleave at the same sequence. C. They are complementary to the DNA fragments they cleave. D. They function correctly only on large amounts of fresh DNA samples. E. They function correctly only on sequence polymorphisms.

42. Which of the following is the correct sequence of events for the forensic utilization of genetic material in a criminal investigation? A. Sample collection; DNA amplification; electrophoresis; restriction enzyme digestion; DNA labeling; RFLP analysis B. Sample collection; DNA amplification; DNA labeling; restriction enzyme digestion; electrophoresis; RFLP analysis C. Sample collection; restriction enzyme digestion; DNA amplification; electrophoresis; DNA labeling; RFLP analysis D. Sample collection; DNA amplification; restriction enzyme digestion; electrophoresis; DNA labeling; RFLP analysis E. Sample collection; DNA amplification; DNA labeling; electrophoresis; restriction enzyme digestion; RFLP analysis 43. Restriction enzymes typically recognize DNA sequences of what length? A. B. C. D. E. 2-4 amino acids 4-6 amino acids 2-4 nucleotides 4-6 base pairs 6-8 base pairs

46. Given the information in the passage, the function of Taq I in PCR is A. to connect the primer to the DNA segment. B. to connect the oligonucleotides together. C. to connect the deoxynucleoside triphosphates together. D. to denature the double-stranded DNA. E. cannot be determined given the information in the passage. 47. The accuracy of DNA fingerprinting is compromised if A. B. C. D. E. it is used to acquit rather than convict criminals. sequence polymorphisms occur. the cleaved DNA fragments are of different sizes. one probe is used. the DNA banding pattern of the perpetrator is not identical to that of any of the suspects.

48. Which of the following is mentioned in the passage as a means of denaturing DNA? A. B. C. D. E. Methylation of specific sequences of the DNA Soaking in alkali solution Hybridization with radioactive probes Addition of deoxynucleoside triphosphates Addition of synthetic oligonucleotide primers

49. Another name for DNA fingerprinting is 44. According to the passage, the reason why DNA is denatured during the Southern Blot procedure is to A. B. C. D. E. transfer the DNA to the nitrocellulose paper. radioactively label the DNA. cleave the DNA into shorter fragments. create a probe for the PCR procedure. Cannot be determined given the information in the passage A. B. C. D. E. DNA digestion. DNA investigation. DNA amplification. DNA identification. DNA profiling.

50. According to the passage, electrophoresis separates DNA based on A. B. C. D. E. size. charge. polarity. All of the above None of the above

45. Prior to 1984 DNA fingerprinting was not a useful forensic technique because A. it did not provide accurate results. B. the use of restriction enzymes to digest DNA was not understood yet. C. crime scenes rarely yield enough genetic material for the procedure. D. it was too expensive. E. the polymerase chain reaction could be used with large samples of DNA.

STOP! END OF SECTION.