The University of Sydney

School of Mathematics and Statistics

Solutions to Tutorial 8: Fourier series II
MATH3068 Analysis Semester 1, 2007
Web Page: http://www.maths.usyd.edu.au:8000/u/UG/SM/MATH3068/
Lecturer: Donald Cartwright
1. In the last tutorial, a function f(x) was dened on [0, 2] by the following formula, then extended
by periodicity:
f(x) =
_
x
2
if 0 < x < 2,
0 if x = 0 or x = 2.
We found that its Fourier series is

k=1
sinkx
k
.
What does the Parseval Identity tell us in this case?
Solution: One side of the Parseval Identity is
1
2
_

|f(x)|
2
dx.
Now f(x) is odd, and so |f(x)|
2
= (f(x))
2
is even. So we can integrate over [0, ] and multiply
by 2:
1
2
_

|f(x)|
2
dx =
1

_

0
(f(x))
2
dx =
1

_

0
( x)
2
4
dx =
1

_
( x)
3
12
_

x=
x=0
=

2
12
.
The other side of the Parseval Identity is
1
4
|a
0
|
2
+
1
2

k=1
_
|a
k
|
2
+ |b
k
|
2
_
,
which in this case, when all the a
k
s are 0, and b
k
= 1/k for k = 1, 2, . . ., is
1
2

k=1
|b
k
|
2
=
1
2

k=1
1
k
2
.
So Parsevals Identity tells us the famous formula

k=1
1
k
2
=

2
6
.
2. In the last tutorial, a function f(x) was dened on [0, 2] by the following formula, then extended
by periodicity:
x
2
4

x
2
+

2
6
We found that its Fourier series is

k=1
cos kx
k
2
.
What does the Parseval Identity tell us in this case?
Solution: This time the function f(x) is even. So |f(x)|
2
= (f(x))
2
is even, and
1
2
_

|f(x)|
2
dx =
1

_

0
(f(x))
2
dx =
1

_

0
_
x
2
4

x
2
+

2
6
_
2
dx.
Copyright c 2007 The University of Sydney 1
Some tedious algebra shows us that
_
x
2
4

x
2
+

2
6
_
2
=

4
36


3
6
x +

2
3
x
2

4
x
3
+
1
16
x
4
.
hence
1

_

0
_
x
2
4

x
2
+

2
6
_
2
dx =
1

4
36
x

3
12
x
2
+

2
9
x
3

16
x
4
+
1
80
x
5
_

x=
x=0
=
4
_
1
36

1
12
+
1
9

1
16
+
1
80
_
=

4
180
.
The other side of the Parseval Identity is
1
4
|a
0
|
2
+
1
2

k=1
_
|a
k
|
2
+ |b
k
|
2
_
,
which in this case, when a
0
= 0 and all the b
k
s are 0, and a
k
= 1/k
2
for k = 1, 2, . . ., is
1
2

k=1
|a
k
|
2
=
1
2

k=1
1
k
4
.
So Parsevals Identity tells us the (not quite so famous) formula

k=1
1
k
4
=

4
90
.
3. Let f(x) = | sinx|. Calculate the Fourier coecients of f(x), write down the Fourier series of f(x),
and write down what the Parseval Identity tell us in this case.
Solution: Because f(x) is even, we know that the b
k
s are all 0, and that
a
k
=
1

f(x) cos(kx) dx =
2

_

0
f(x) cos(kx) dx
=
2

_

0
sin(x) cos(kx) dx
=
1

_

0
_
sin((k + 1)x) sin((k 1)x)
_
dx
=
1

_
cos((k + 1)x)
k + 1

cos((k 1)x)
k 1
_

x=
x=0
if k = 1.
=
1

_
cos((k 1)x)
k 1

cos((k + 1)x)
k + 1
_

x=
x=0
=
2

_
1 + (1)
k
k
2
1
_
.
This is 0 if k is odd, and
4
(k
2
1)
if k is even. In particular, a
0
=
4

. We need to also calculate a

1
.
This is
a
1
=
2

_

0
sin(x) cos(x) dx =
1

_

0
sin(2x) dx =
1

_
cos(2x)
2
_

x=
x=0
= 0.
So the Fourier series of f(x) is
2

j=1
cos(2jx)
4j
2
1
.
This converges to f(x) at each point x because f(x) is dierentiable at all points except for the
multiples of , and at those points it has at least got left and right derivatives.
2
One side of Parsevals Identity (using the evenness of f(x)) is
1
2
_

| sin(x)|
2
dx =
1

_

0
sin
2
(x) dx =
1

_

0
1 cos 2x
2
dx =
1
2
.
The other side of the Parseval Identity (using the fact that b
k
= 0 for all k 1) is
1
4
|a
0
|
2
+
1
2

k=1
_
|a
k
|
2
+|b
k
|
2
_
=
1
4
|a
0
|
2
+
1
2

k=1
a
2
k
which in this case is
1
4
_
4

_
2
+
1
2

j=1
_

4
(4j
2
1)
_
2
So Parsevals Identity tells us the formula

k=1
1
(4j
2
1)
2
=

2
16

1
2
.
4. For n = 0, 1, 2, . . ., we dene the Dirichlet kernel D
n
(x) by setting D
0
(x) = 1 and
D
n
(x) = 1 + 2
n

k=1
cos(kx) for n = 1, 2, . . . .
(a) Derive the formula
D
n
(x) =
sin
_
(n +
1
2
)x
_
sin
_
1
2
x
_ (if x is not a multiple of 2)
using one of the following methods:
(a) By induction.
(b) By using the formula 2 cos(A) sin(B) = sin(A + B) sin(A B).
(c) By rst showing that
D
n
(x) =
n

k=n
e
ikx
and then summing a nite geometric series.
Solution: (a) To prove the formula by induction, notice rst that the formula holds for
n = 0. Now suppose that we have proved the formula for n = m 1, where m 1. We
must prove it for n = m. To do this, write
D
m
(x) = 1 + 2
m

k=1
cos(kx) = D
m1
(x) + 2 cos(mx)
=
sin
_
(m
1
2
_
x
_
sin
_
1
2
x
_ + 2 cos(mx) by the induction hypothesis
=
sin
_
(m
1
2
_
x
_
+ 2 cos(mx) sin
_
1
2
x
_
sin
_
1
2
x
_
=
sin(mx) cos
_
1
2
_
x
_
cos(mx) sin
_
1
2
x
_
+ 2 cos(mx) sin
_
1
2
x
_
sin
_
1
2
x
_
=
sin(mx) cos
_
1
2
_
x
_
+ cos(mx) sin
_
1
2
x
_
sin
_
1
2
x
_
=
sin
_
(m +
1
2
_
x
_
sin
_
1
2
x
_ .
This completes the induction step.
3
(b) The formula we need to prove may be written
_
1 + 2
n

k=1
cos(kx)
_
sin
_
1
2
x
_
= sin
__
n +
1
2
_
x
_
. ()
Using 2 cos(kx) sin
_
1
2
x
_
= sin
__
k +
1
2
_
x
_
sin
__
k
1
2
_
x
_
, the left hand side becomes
sin
_
1
2
x
_
+
n

k=1
_
sin
__
k +
1
2
_
x
_
sin
__
k
1
2
_
x
_
_
.
This is a collapsing sum
a
0
+ (a
1
a
0
) + (a
2
a
1
) + + (a
n
a
n1
)
for a
k
= sin
__
k +
1
2
_
x
_
. So it equals a
n
= sin
__
n +
1
2
_
x
_
, and this is the right hand side of
the formula () we wanted to show.
(c) Using cos = (e
i
+ e
i
)/2, we have 2 cos(kx) = e
ikx
+ e
ikx
, and so
D
n
(x) =
n

k=n
e
ikx
This equals e
inx
+ e
(n1)ix
+ + e
i(n1)x
+ e
inx
, and so equals
e
inx
_
1 + e
ix
+ e
2ix
+ + e
2nix
_
= e
inx
_
e
i(2n+1)x
1
e
ix
1
_
(sum of a geometric progression)
=
e
i(n+1)x
e
inx
e
ix
1
=
e
i(n+
1
2
)x
e
i(n+
1
2
)x
e
i
x
2
e
i
x
2
multiplying top and bottom by e
ix/2
=
2i sin
__
n +
1
2
_
x
_
2i sin
_
1
2
x
_
=
sin
__
n +
1
2
_
x
_
sin
_
1
2
x
_ .
(b) Check that D
n
(x) = 2n + 1 if x is a multiple of 2. Also, check that
1
2
_

D
n
(t) dt = 1.
Solution: Just observe that cos(kx) equals 1 when x = 2m, m an integer, to see that
D
n
(2m) = 2n + 1. Also,
1
2
_

D
n
(t) dt =
1
2
_

1 dt +
1

k=1
_

cos(kt) dt = 1 +
1

k=1
sin(kx)
k

x=
x=
= 1.
5. Let f(x) be a 2-periodic piecewise continuous function.
(a) Show that if f(x) is odd (i.e., f(x) f(x)), then all the Fourier cosine coecients a
k
of
f(x) are zero.
Solution: If f(x) is odd, then so is f(x) cos(kx) for k = 0, 1, 2, . . .. Hence
a
k
=
1
2
_

f(x) cos(kx) dx = 0.
(b) Show that if f(x) is even (i.e., f(x) f(x)), then all the Fourier sine coecients b
k
of
f(x) are zero.
Solution: If f(x) is even, then f(x) sin(kx) is odd for k = 1, 2, . . .. Hence
b
k
=
1
2
_

f(x) sin(kx) dx = 0.
4
(c) Show that if f(x) is real-valued, then all the Fourier cosine and sine coecients a
k
and b
k
of f(x) are real.
Solution: If f(x) is real-valued, then f(x) cos(kx) and f(x) sin(kx) is real-valued for all k,
and so k = 1, 2, . . .. Hence
a
k
=
1
2
_

f(x) sin(kx) dx and b

k
=
1
2
_

f(x) sin(kx) dx are real numbers.

(d) Find corresponding conditions, expressed in terms of the complex Fourier coecients c
k
of
f(x), which must hold f(x) is even, odd and real-valued, respectively.
Solution: If f(x) is odd, then
c
k
=
1
2
_

f(x)e
ikx
dx =
1
2
_

(f(x))e
ikx
dx =
1
2
_

f(u)e
iku
du = c
k
.
If f(x) is even, then
c
k
=
1
2
_

f(x)e
ikx
dx =
1
2
_

f(x)e
ikx
dx =
1
2
_

f(u)e
iku
du = c
k
.
If f(x) is real-valued, then
c
k
=
1
2
_

f(x)e
ikx
dx =
1
2
_

f(x)e
ikx
dx =
1
2
_

f(x)e
ikx
dx = c
k
.
(e) Show that if
1
2
a
0
+

k=1
_
a
k
cos(kx) + b
k
sin(kx)
_
is the Fourier series of f(x), then
1
2
a
0
+

k=1
a
k
cos(kx)
is the Fourier series of the even function g(x) =
f(x)+f(x)
2
, and that

k=1
b
k
sin(kx)
is the Fourier series of the odd function h(x) =
f(x)f(x)
2
.
Solution: Let A
k
, k = 0, 1, . . ., and B
k
, k = 1, 2, . . ., be the Fourier coecients of g(x).
Then B
k
= 0 for all k, because g(x) is even. On the other hand,
A
k
=
1

g(x) cos(kx) dx =
1

f(x) + f(x)
2
cos(kx) dx
=
1
2
_

f(x) cos(kx) dx +
1
2
_

f(x) cos(kx) dx
=
1
2
_

f(x) cos(kx) dx +
1
2
_

f(u) cos(ku) du
=
1

f(x) cos(kx) dx
= a
k
.
So
1
2
a
0
+

k=1
a
k
cos(kx)
is the Fourier series of g(x).
5
Let C
k
, k = 0, 1, . . ., and D
k
, k = 1, 2, . . ., be the Fourier coecients of h(x). Then C
k
= 0
for all k, because h(x) is odd. On the other hand,
D
k
=
1

g(x) sin(kx) dx =
1

f(x) + f(x)
2
sin(kx) dx
=
1
2
_

f(x) sin(kx) dx +
1
2
_

f(x) sin(kx) dx
=
1
2
_

f(x) sin(kx) dx +
1
2
_

f(u) sin(ku) du
=
1

f(x) sin(kx) dx
= b
k
.
So

k=1
b
k
sin(kx)
is the Fourier series of h(x).
(f) (harder) Show that the converses of each of the assertions (a), (b) and (c) hold if f(x)
is continuous. Do these converses still hold if f(x) is merely assumed to be piecewise
continuous? [Hint: You cannot assume that the Fourier series of f(x) converges to f(x) at
each point x. Instead, in (a), for example, consider g(x) = (f(x) + f(x))/2 and apply the
uniqueness theorem.]
Solution: (i) Suppose that the cosine coecients of a function f(x) are all 0. If we knew
that the Fourier series of f(x) converged to f(x) at each point x, then we would know that
f(x) =

k=1
b
k
sin(kx) for all x.
This implies that f(x) is odd, because
f(x) =

k=1
b
k
sin(kx) =

k=1
b
k
sin(kx) = f(x) for all x.
The trouble is, we dont know that the Fourier series of f(x) converges to f(x) at each
point x, because we are not assuming that f(x) is dierentiable. To avoid assuming dier-
entiability, consider the function g(x) = (f(x) +f(x))/2. Its Fourier series is just the zero
series, by the rst half of part (e). By the Parseval identity, applied to g(x), we see that
1
2
_

|g(x)|
2
dx = 0.
When f(x) is continuous at every point, so that g(x) is continuous everywhere too, this
implies that g(x) = 0 for all x, and so f(x) = f(x) for all x. When f(x) is merely
assumed to be piecewise continuous, all we can say is that g(x) = 0 at each point where
g(x) is continuous. Therefore, we can only say that f(x) = f(x) at each point x
0
for
which f(x) is continuous at both x
0
and x
0
.
(ii) Suppose that the sine coecients of a function f(x) are all 0. If we knew that the Fourier
series of f(x) converged to f(x) at each point x, then we would know that
f(x) =
1
2
a
0
+

k=1
a
k
cos(kx) for all x.
This implies that f(x) is even, because
f(x) =

k=1
b
k
cos(kx) =

k=1
b
k
cos(kx) = f(x) for all x.
6
The trouble is, we dont know that the Fourier series of f(x) converges to f(x) at each
point x, because we are not assuming that f(x) is dierentiable. To avoid assuming dier-
entiability, consider the function h(x) = (f(x) f(x))/2. Its Fourier series is just the zero
series, by the second half of part (e). By the Parseval identity, applied to h(x), we see that
1
2
_

|h(x)|
2
dx = 0.
When f(x) is continuous at every point, so that h(x) is continuous everywhere too, this
implies that h(x) = 0 for all x, and so f(x) = f(x) for all x. When f(x) is merely assumed
to be piecewise continuous, all we can say is that h(x) = 0 at each point where h(x) is
continuous. Therefore, we can only say that f(x) = f(x) at each point x
0
for which f(x)
is continuous at both x
0
and x
0
.
(iii) Suppose that the cosine and sine coecients of a function f(x) are all real. If we knew
that the Fourier series of f(x) converged to f(x) at each point x, then we would know that
f(x) =
1
2
a
0
+

k=1
_
a
k
cos(kx) + b
k
sin(kx)
_
for all x.
This implies that f(x) is real-valued.
The trouble is, we dont know that the Fourier series of f(x) converges to f(x) at each
point x, because we are not assuming that f(x) is dierentiable. To avoid assuming dier-
entiability, write f(x) = u(x) + iv(x), where u(x) and v(x) are real-valued. consider the
function v(x). Its Fourier series is just the zero series, because
1

v(x) cos(kx) dx = Im
_
1

f(x) cos(kx) dx
_
= Im(a
k
) = 0
and
1

v(x) sin(kx) dx = Im
_
1

f(x) sin(kx) dx
_
= Im(b
k
) = 0.
By the Parseval identity, applied to v(x), we see that
1
2
_

|v(x)|
2
dx = 0.
When f(x) is continuous at every point, so that v(x) is continuous everywhere too, this
implies that v(x) = 0 for all x, and so f(x) = u(x) for all x, so that f(x) is real-valued.
When f(x) is merely assumed to be piecewise continuous, all we can say is that v(x) = 0
at each point where v(x) is continuous. Therefore, we can only say that f(x) R at each
point x
0
for which f(x) is continuous at both x
0
and x
0
.
6. The important integral
_

0
sin(x)
x
dx may be evaluated using the Riemann-Lebesgue Lemma and
the fact that
_

0
D
n
(x) dx = : Check that

2

_
(n+
1
2
)
0
sin(x)
x
dx =
1
2
_

0
_
1
sin(
1
2
x)

1
1
2
x
_
sin
_
(n +
1
2
)x
_
dx
Now dene
g(x) =
_
1
sin(
1
2
x)

1
1
2
x
if 0 < x ,
0 if x = 0.
Check that g(x) is continuous at 0 (e.g., using LHopitals rule) and thus on [0, ], so that the
Riemann-Lebesgue Lemma is applicable. Deduce that
_

0
sin(x)
x
dx =

2
.
Solution: The function D
n
(x) = 1 + 2

n
k=1
cos(kx) is clearly even, and as we saw in an earlier
question, it satises
1
2
_

D
n
(x) dx = 1. Hence
_

0
D
n
(x) dx = . Therefore

2
=
1
2
_

0
1
sin(
1
2
x)
sin
_
(n +
1
2
)x
_
dx.
7
because D
n
(x) = sin
_
(n +
1
2
)x
_
/ sin
_
1
2
x
_
. Also, the change of variable x =
_
n +
1
2
_
u shows that
_
(n+
1
2
)
0
sin(x)
x
dx =
1
2
_

0
1
1
2
u
sin
_
(n +
1
2
)u
_
du
Subtracting the last two displayed equations, and we get

2

_
(n+
1
2
)
0
sin(x)
x
dx =
1
2
_

0
_
1
sin(
1
2
x)

1
1
2
x
_
sin
_
(n +
1
2
)x
_
dx
It remains to show that the function g(x) of the question is well-behaved as x 0. The clearest
way to see this is to write
sin x = x
x
3
6
+
x
5
120
,
so that
sin x x = x
3
_

1
6
+
x
2
120

_
= x
3
h(x), say,
where h(x)
1
6
as x 0. Therefore
g(x) =
1
sin(
1
2
x)

1
1
2
x
=
sin(
1
2
x)
1
2
x
1
2
xsin(
1
2
x)
=
x
3
8
h(
1
2
x)
1
2
xsin(
1
2
x)
=
x
2
4
h(
1
2
x)
sin(
1
2
x)
=
x
2
sin(
1
2
x)
h(
1
2
x)
1
2
x
1
_

1
6
_
0 = 0 as x 0.
8