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Online Mock CAT 3 - Unproctored *)

6AIJ 2HAF
OnIine Mock CAT 3 - Unproctored
Answers and ExpIanations
1 5 2 4 3 1 4 2 5 2 6 4 7 1 8 1 9 4 10 3
11 3 12 5 13 2 14 3 15 1 16 4 17 2 18 5 19 1 20 4
21 2 22 1 23 5 24 4 25 5 26 1 27 5 28 1 29 5 30 3
31 4 32 4 33 1 34 3 35 4 36 4 37 5 38 2 39 2 40 1
41 3 42 1 43 4 44 5 45 3 46 3 47 5 48 2 49 1 50 4
51 4 52 1 53 3 54 1 55 3 56 3 57 3 58 1 59 4 60 1
61 4 62 4 63 5 64 3 65 4 66 3 67 3 68 2 69 1 70 3
71 4 72 2 73 2 74 3 75 5 76 1 77 1 78 5 79 1 80 4
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Online Mock CAT 3 - Unproctored *)
6AIJ 2HAF
1. 5 Let N = 13
60
+ 15
60
13
60
= (16 3)
60
60
60
13
(3)
8

60 30
3 (8 1)
8 8
+
Remainder is 1
For
60 60
15 (16 1)
8 8
Remainder is 1
So net remainder when 13
60
+ 15
60
, is divided by 8 is 2.
2. 4 Cost of a tubelight = Rs. t and cost of a bulb = Rs. b
t + b = 52 ...(i)
Cost of bulb drops by 20% and cost of tubelight increases
by 50%
1.5t + 0.8b = 50 ...(ii)
Solving equations in (i) and (ii)
t = Rs.12, b = Rs.40
3. 1 Let the common difference of the arithmetic progression be
d.
Sum of first 30 terms of the arithmetic progression
[ ]
30
2x( 29) (30 1)d
2
+
15( 58 29d) 0 +
d 2
Sum of 28
th
, 29
th
and 30
th
term of this arithmetic progression
= 27 + 28 + 29 = 81
4. 2 Let the bus fare = Rs. x
and buffet lunch per head = Rs. y
x + 200y = 165 200 (i)
x + 150y = 170 150 (ii)
Applying 2 (ii) (i), we have
Then, x + 100y = 2 (ii) (i) = 51000 33000 = 18000
Cost per head = Rs. 180.
5. 2 We have 4 parts from first cut.
From second cut we will have 3 + 4 = 7 parts
Number of parts will always be of the form 3n + 1, where
n is a natural number.
Only, option (2) satisfies the condition.
6. 4 Cigarette T
Hookah H
Cigar C
C 40% H 30%
T 22%
p
3 40% + 30% + 22% < 100%
Minimum value of p can be equal to zero and the maximum
value of p can be 350
0 p 350
7. 1 Here, we have to find most number of residents who smoke
exactly one type. Assume all 50% smokers i.e. 175 residents
smoke cigar. Also, assume that only 30%(105) residents smoke
hookah and only 22%(77) residents smoke cigarette.
Here, if we assume that these 77 residents are also
overlapping with the previous 105 residents smoking hookah,
we will be left with the maximum number of residents who
smoke only cigar. So, at most 175 105 = 70 residents smoke
only one of cigar, cigarette or hookah.
8. 1
A S B
U
C R D
P Q
M
N
T
Let, AB = a units
SB = PQ
2a
units
3

2a a
PM a units
3 3

2a a a
MQ PQ PM units
3 3 3

Also, each of ASMP, MQNT and NURC are squares.
Area of shaded region
2 2 2
2 2
a a 2a
a 3 a
9 3 3
1
1
1
]
Required ratio = 2:3
Alternate method:
If we redraw the figure,
A S B
U
N
M
C
R
D
P
Q
T
We can see 9 identical smaller squares
Required ratio = 6:9 = 2:3
9. 4 For real roots,
2
b 4ac 0 .
Here, maximum possible value of 4ac is 480 which is less
than the minimum value of b
2
that is 22
2
= 484. So, every
combination of values of a, b and c will give real roots. So,
a and c can be chosen at a time in
6
C
2
ways. But a and c
are distinct. Therefore, number of quadratic equations that
can be formed = (
6
C
2
2) 3 = 15 2 3 = 90.
10. 3 If counting happens in base seven there would be 6000
numbers just as in the case of decimal there are 9000 numbers.
6, 9 here are the largest digits in their respective number
systems.
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Online Mock CAT 3 - Unproctored *)
6AIJ 2HAF
11. 3 Let O be the centre of the circle.
Join OF and FC as shown in the figure below.
A O B
E
N
C D
O
F
( ) + FEN 180 EDC ECD 60
From the tangent secant theorem CFN FDC 30
Also, EFN 90 CFN 60
( ) + In FEN: FNE 180 EFN FEN 60
Hence, option (3) is the correct choice.
12. 5 If we observe the equation carefully we can come to the
conclusion that the value of x has to be 1.
The given equation will hold true for any integral value of y
and x = 1.
Hence, option (5) is the correct choice.
13. 2

A 5 1813
113.3125 113
B 16 16
Remainder when 1813 is divided by 16 is 5.
A 1813n
B 16n

, where n is an integer.
So, the remainder when A is divided by B will always be a
multiple of 5.
Hence, option (2) is the correct choice.
14. 3
A
30
60
2
E
D C
B
45
90
45
1
Area of ABE AB BE sin 60
2

1
Area of BEC BE BC sin 30
2

Area of ABE sin60
3
Area of BEC sin30




2
1
But area of ABC 4 2 cm
2
( )
2
1
Area of EBC 2 3 1 cm
1 3

+
15. 1 The maximum value of f(x) must be 0 and this maximum value
occurs for x = 2.
Let, f(x) = a(x 2)
2
, f(x = 0) = 10,
5
a
2

Hence
5 5
f(x) (x 2) f(x 2) (2 2) 40.
2 2
2 2

Hence (1) is the correct answer.
16. 4 1 wicketkeeper out of 2 in
2
C
1
ways.
5 bowlers out of 5 in
5
C
5
ways.
Remaining 5 players have to be batsmen only.
So, total number of ways
=
2
C
1

5
C
5

9
C
5
= 2 1 126 = 252
17. 2 Let a and b be the length of sides of the rectangle.
Given, 2a + b = 100 and Area = ab
( )( )
1
Area 2a b
2
If sum of 2 positive quantities is constant, then the product is
maximum when the two positive quantities are equal.
b = 50 units and a = 25 units
Maximum Area = 50 25 = 1250 sq. units
18. 5 No information is provided about the year X, if it is a leap year
or not. Hence option (5) is the correct choice.
19. 1 Using statement A:
1 1 1
1
x y xy
+ +
y + x + 1 = xy ...(i)
Now since x and y are prime number, the only prime
numbers which satisfy the above equation are x = 2, y = 3
or x = 3, y = 2 xy = 6
Applying AM GM inequality
21x 14y
7 6xy
2
+
21x + 14y 84
Therefore, the least value of 21x + 14y is 84
Alternate solution:
Since(x, y) = (2, 3) or (3, 2) only, the minimum value of
21x + 14y is obtained when x = 2 and y = 3 which is 84.
Using statement B:
Let 21x + 14y = z or 21x +
84
z ( xy 6)
x
3
21x
2
zx + 84 = 0
For x to be real, we have z
2
4 21 84 0

2 2
z 84
or z 84 or z 84
Now, from the above inequality, the minimum value of
z cannot be obtained. Therefore, statement B is not sufficient
to answer the question.
Hence, option (1) is the correct choice.
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Online Mock CAT 3 - Unproctored *)
6AIJ 2HAF
20. 4 Using statement A:
Unique values of a, b or c cannot be determined.
Using statement B:
As nothing has said about the nature of a and b, an unique
answer cannot be determined.
Few values of (a, b) in any order will be ( ) ( )
3 3
1, 2 , 9, 9 etc.
Using statements A and B:
Since a, b and c are integers and a
3
+ b
3
is equal to 9.
The only possible set of value satisfying a + b + c = 6 and
a
3
+ b
3
= 9 is (1, 2, 3).
Or a = 1, b = 2 and c = 3.
(a
2
+ b
2
+ c
2
) will take a unique value, hence the maximum
and the minimum value of the expression will be same.
The difference of the maximum and the minimum value of
the given expression a
2
+ b
2
+ c
2
= 0.
Hence, option (4) is the correct choice.
For questions 21 to 23:
Manufacturer
Selling
Price
(in Rs.)
per PC
Cost
Price
(in Rs.)
per PC
Sales
tax
(in Rs.)
per PC
PC's
sold
Profit
(in Rs.)
Per PC
Revenue
from PC
sales
(in Rs.)
Compaq-HP 60000 30000 6000 100000 24000 6 10
9
HCL 50000 20000 7500 75000 22500 375 10
7
Acer 40000 25000 8000 35000 7000 14 10
8
Zenith 30000 20000 3000 200000 7000 6 10
9
Sony 100000 40000 25000 15000 35000 15 10
8
21. 2 Profit per PC is same for Acer and Zenith, i.e. Rs. 7000.
22. 1 Revenue from PC sales is highest for both Compaq-HP and
Zenith, i.e. Rs. 6 10
9
.
23. 5
Manufacturers Aggregate sales Tax (in Rs.)
Compaq-HP 6 10
8
HCL 5.625 10
8
Acer 2.8 10
8
Zenith 6 10
8
Sony 3.75 10
8
Zenith and Compaq-HP contribute the highest amount of
Aggregate sales tax.
For questions 24 to 27:
If Mr. B would have taught each of the given ten classes on exactly
three different days of the week W, then the total number of students
he would have taught in week W would be
(1 + 2 + 3 +.....+ 9 + 10) 3 = 165.
Total number of students taught by Mr. B on the six days of the week
W = 18 + 12 + 23 + 19 + 32 + 25 = 129.
Difference = 165 129 = 36.
Therefore, the total number of students in the two classes that were
not taught by him is
36
12.
3
_

,
So, the two classes that were not taught by him could be (B and J);
(C and I); (D and H) and (E and G)
On Tuesday the total number of students taught by him is 12.
This is possible in two cases:
Case I: He taught the classes A, B, C and F
Case II: He taught the classes A, B, D and E
From the two cases stated above, we can definitely conclude that he
taught the classes A and B.
On Friday the total number of students taught by him is 32.
This is possible in two cases:
Case III: He taught the classes E, H, I and J.
Case IV: He taught the classes F, G, I and J.
From the two cases stated above, we can definitely conclude that he
taught the classes I and J.
Also, he taught either class E or G.
Therefore, the two classes that Mr. Mathew did not teach are D and H.
24. 4
25. 5 The classes taught by him on Friday is F, G, I and J.
Hence, option (5) is the correct choice.
For questions 26 and 27:
Given that on Saturday of week W, Mr. Mathew did not teach class C
but taught class J.
Since, he did not teach class J, which means that he definitely taught
class I as on saturday Mr. Mathew taught 25 students an only
combination possible is (C, F, G, I).
Hence, he definitely taught class E on each of the three days namely
Monday, Wednesday and Thursday as he has not taught class E on
Friday, Saturday and Tuesday.
The possible combinations of the classes taught by him on Thursday
is (E, I, C and B) or (E, A, C and J).
Therefore, he definitely taught the class C on Thursday.
The only possible combination of the classes taught by him on Monday
is A, B, E and J.
Monday Tuesday Wednesday Thursday Friday Saturday
A, B, E
and J
A, B, C
and F
F, G, I
and J
C, I, F
and G
(E, G, J and
A) or (E, G, I
and B)
(E, C, A
and J) or
(E, C, I
and B)
26. 1 Class C is not taught by him on two consecutive days of the
week W.
27. 5 It cannot be uniquely determined which class was taught by
him on three consecutive days of the week.
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Online Mock CAT 3 - Unproctored *)
6AIJ 2HAF
For questions 28 to 31:
From statement 1 C received 0 chocolates. From statement 3, [C and
A], and [B and D] can have [(0,1)(2,3)] or [(0,2)(1,3)] or [(0,3)(1,4)]
choclates respectively.
Using statements 2 and 4 we can conclude that only possible case is
[(0,3)(1,4)]. So E must have got 2 chocolates.
Using statement 1 and statement 7 we can say that D and E like
wrestling shows, as C likes a sports show and there are only two
sports shows. From statement 5, B likes Smackdown and C likes
Sports Center. So A likes Hitz.
From statement 6 D likes KRC.
From statement 8 E likes HNS or GDY. C likes GDY or BON. B likes HNS
or BON or GDY.

Name No. of chocolates TV show Type of Biscuit
C 0 Sports Center GDY/BON
B 1 Smackdown HNS/BON/GDY
E 2 Raw/Wrestlemania HNS/GDY
A 3 Hitz CHM
D 4 Wrestlemania/Raw KRC
28. 1 D likes KRC.
29. 5 E likes either HNS or GDY.
Hence, cannot be determined.
30. 3 If C likes GDY then E likes HNS and then B likes BON.
31. 4 A likes Hitz.
For questions 32 to 35: The following table can be drawn.
B-school
Number of
companies
Number
of
students
Number
of
of f ers
Of f ers
per
company
Of f ers
per
student
FMS 60 100 125 2.08 1.25
IMT 90 150 225 2.5 1.5
IMI 50 120 150 3 1.25
K.J.Somaiya 70 150 150 2.14 1
Narsee
Monjee
80 150 200 2.5 1.33
32. 4 The ratio of number of students to the number of companies
visiting the campus is lowest for both FMS and IMT, i.e. 1.67.
33. 1 IMT has the highest number of offers per student.
34. 3 IMI has the highest ratio.
35. 4 Total salary of the students of FMS = 100 7 = Rs. 700 lakh
PPO salary = 25% of 100 10 = Rs. 250 lakh
Average annual salary of students not getting the PPOs
700 250 450
Rs. 6 lakh
100 25 75

Hence option (4) is the correct choice.

36. 4 Epistemology appropriately fits the context here. This makes
option (1) correct. All the other options do not fit the context
as they have varied meanings-Axiology means the study of
nature, types and criteria of values and of value judgements
in ethics. Cosmology deals with the study of the origin, nature,
structure and space time relationships of the universe.
Cosmology also refers to a branch of metaphysics that deals
with the universe. Ontology is a branch of metaphysics
concerned with nature and relations of being. Metaphysics
is a division of philosophy that is concerned with the
fundamental nature of reality and being that often includes
ontology, cosmology and epistemology.
37. 5 Analects is correct. It fits in the context. Anthology might
appear to be correct but it is not a collection of excerpts,
which makes it incorrect; anthology refers to a published
collection of poems, songs, reproductions of paintings etc.
Edition refers to a particular form in which a text is published.
Panegyric is a laudatory discourse. Eulogy refers to speech
or writing in praise of a person.
38. 2 Prose is correct-it aptly fits the context. Verse refers to a
stanza of a poem or song. Script refers to an alphabet or a
system of writing. Meter refers to forming nouns in poetry.
Cadence refers to intonation or rhythm.
39. 2 Tactile is correct and fits the context. Parse is to analyze a
sentence in terms of grammatical constituents. Feeble means
weak. Quick and Active would not fit the context.
40. 1 Pedantic is correct. It fits the context. Laconic is a person
who uses very few words to express something. Bucolic
refers to someone who is rustic. Philosophy and Semantics
would not fit in here as the question is looking for an adjective
to fill the blank.
41. 3 D necessarily follows A as it talks about taking it forward, B
discusses the problem which was pertaining to the carriage,
E elaborates the plan of action and C concludes the chain of
thought.
42. 1 E stems out from the opening generalized statement about
Vedic hymns, EC form a mandatory pair taking a cue from the
phrase on the other hand, D talks about the praises being
showered on various deities, B is the logical conclusion.
43. 4 D necessarily follows A as it is in continuation of the exposition
of Takashi Murakami the artist, E takes it forward forming a
pair with B as it defines the divide and C is the concluding
statement on Takashi.
44. 5 D essentially follows A as it explains how managers manage
by walking about, C takes it forward, E & B further explain
the scenario of the 1950s.
45. 3 The discussion in Para 4 makes it clear that the perceptual
field is generally organized in a way which maximizes percepts
relevant to current needs and expectations and to minimize
percepts inimical to such needs and expectations. So
perception is generally wishful or autistic. The meaning of
autistic is derived out of autism which is a deficit or impairment
in functions in children. So here we can infer that the
perception becomes limited according to ones needs or
expectations. Focussed also is close but is encompassed
within the meaning of autistic. It does not convey the limitation
of the perceptual field.
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Online Mock CAT 3 - Unproctored *)
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46. 3 It is clear from Para 2, 3 and 4 that the author is mainly studying
that part of perception which deals with the influence of
directive factors on it. Incongruity is also a part of it.
47. 5 Regarding statement A, the author does not assert that the
theories of perception are confusing. Even if they are, the
main reason for this cannot be attributed to the students. Yes,
they could have challenged the existing theories which may
have led to greater clarity. Regarding Statement B, it is incorrect
as the passage nowhere says that the old theories were
based on the assumption of an indifferent organism. The
author clearly states at the start of Para 2 that stimuli do not
act upon an indifferent organism. Statement C also cannot be
inferred as incongruity has not been sufficiently dealt with
but can be understood as the events which occur on
non-confirmation of an expectancy. Even if the organism
decided to give up the expectancy there would be certain
events which would follow it and may need to be examined.
48. 2 Please refer to the opening sentence of the first paragraph
which states that, Aghast at the atrocities committed by
US forces invading the Philippines, and the rhetorical flights
about liberation and noble intent that routinely accompany
crimes of state. This indicates the hypocrisy inherent in
the US foreign policy. Hence hypocritical is the right word to
describe the US policy of military intervention in the Philippines.
49. 1 Refer to paragraph 8 which mentions Clinton was breaking
no new ground, of course. His doctrine derives from standard
principles formulated by high-level planners during World War
II, which offered the prospect of global dominance. Hence it
is clear that the Clinton doctrine did not owe its origin to 19
th
century diplomacy. Refer to Para 2 and the last two paras of
the passage from where options (2) and (4) can be inferred.
Option (3) is not given but can be again inferred from para 2
the para mentions the people who are talking against Russia.
it is governmental figures and institutions that act in line with
the Governments doctrine.
50. 4 Please refer to the second paragraph of the passage which
states that george bush, condoleezza rica and other dignitaries
solemnly invoked the sanctity of the united nations, warning
that russia could be excluded from international institutions
by taking actions in georgia that are inconsistent with their
principles. The sovereignty and territorial integrity of all nations
must be rigorously honoured, they intoned all nations, that
is, apart from those that the us chooses to attack: iraq, serbia,
perhaps iran, and a list of others too long and familiar to
mention. this illustrates the theme of the passage, namely, the
double standards applied by the us and its allies when it
comes to dealing with incidents like the russia-georgia-ossetia
crisis. This also indicates that the author is not indifferent or
neutral. Option 3 is far fetched. Option 5 is off the main purpose
of the author which is represented in option 4.
51. 4 Regime refers to a government in power and esurient means
hungry or greedy. The clue here comes from the second
blank. The word even leads us to an adjective that shall
describe Shumiatsky, in all probabilities the word should have
a contrast with had left. Esurient does the trick. The other
options are out of context.
52. 1 Tenebrous means dark or gloomy or obscure and reality
refers to a fact or state of being. The other options fall out of
context.
53. 3 Putative means commonly regarded as such; to emanate is
to produce. The other words are out of context.
54. 1 Peroration refers to a long speech characterized by lofty
and often pompous language and to emulate is to imitate with
effort to equal or surpass. The other options do not fit the
context.
55. 3 (1) has-error of parallelism should be a passion, (4) should
be spent instead of spend as we are talking in the past
tense.
56. 3 (1) should be a lot of philosophy, (3) should be make up my
mind.
57. 3 (1) should be symbolize, (3) should be bestowed on or
upon, (4) should be either the participant or participants.
58. 1 (1) Should be the end of the iconic age, as it is talking about
a specific age. Also the tense in the latter half is inappropriate,
(3) should be that instead of who as it is talking about an
inanimate object.
59. 4 (1) should be ourselves, the pronoun preceding it is we, (4)
should be emotions, the before emotions is redundant as
we are talking about some thing in general.
60. 1 Choices (2), (3), (4) and (5) represents fear of amphibians,
insects, reptiles and termites respectively. But (1) is fear of
pain hence the odd one out.
61. 4 Choices (1), (2), (3) and (5) are tombs whereas Sacellum is
a Monument within a church a small chapel.
62. 4 Options (1), (2), (3) and (5) are synonymous. They refer to
cheaters and ways of deception. Apparition is the odd word
which means ghost or a ghostlike form.
63. 5 Ogre is a man eating animal. Collie is a type of dog. Busker
is a street entertainer; buffon is a fool. But Seraph, the best
choice is a member of the order of angels.
64. 3 Considering that something sad had transpired with the master
during the past week, sally a witty remark would be surprising.
So (3) is correct. Euphemism means to express something
harsh in a milder manner by choosing appropriate words.
Sarcasm, which includes bitterness, is possible after a loss.
So the disciple would not be surprised at a sarcastic remark.
Insularity which means narrow-mindedness is inappropriate
here. Cogitation which means pondering does not make sense
here. Hence choice (3) is the appropriate choice.
65. 4 Option (4) is most appropriate as bookish goes with scholars
habits
66. 3 The author mentions the psychology of how successful book
writers are looked at. There are those who also criticize as
shown in the instance described at the end of the fifth
paragraph about the snickering. This makes him the victim of
mild paranoia and option (3) the correct answer choice.
67. 3 The author mentions this in the sixth paragraph and in the
seventh mentions the myth he was seeking to break. Splitting
the word into two, its obvious that option (3) is a better
description of psychopharmacology. The sentence drugs
might influence personality traits in people with no mental
illness also points to option (3). Options a and b talk about
only patients. Options (4) and (5) go beyond the scope of the
passage and are also far-fetched.
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68. 2 The author mentions this in the tenth paragraph when he talks
about how popular Sren as a name was. The phrase means
that Sren is the next best to Hamlet as a melancholic; but
Hamlet is fictitious so he is not counted. This makes option (2)
correct.
69. 1 The author mentions this in the twelfth paragraph. Primitive
melancholy refers to the inherited depression and the word
dowry is used in the same way as a gift that is passed on.
This makes option (1) correct.
70. 3 The author talks about different types of bipolar disparities in
economic endowments. In the first paragraph, he talks about
the abundance of goods and services in the private sector
and the relative lack of the same in the public sector. He
extends the argument to discuss the disparity between the
rich and poor and then goes on to discuss the disparity between
rich and poor nations. This makes (3) is the correct option.
71. 4 Please refer to the second paragraph, which mentions that
Social services, health care, education - especially education
- public housing for the needful, even food, along with action
to protect life and the environment, are all in short supply. It
goes on to mention Damage to the environment is the most
visible result of this abundant production of goods and
services. Therefore a disregard for public good is one of the
hallmarks of the affluent society mentioned in option (4) is
correct. Options (1), (3) and (4) can be validly inferred. Option
(5) needs more data and has not been sufficiently discussed
in the passage.
72. 2 Please refer to the first paragraph which says Privately
produced goods and services for use and consumption are
abundantly available. The last sentence says Consumer
sovereignty, once governed by the need for food and shelter,
is now the highly contrived consumption of an infinite variety
of goods and services. This implies that there is a consumerist
culture pervading society, which is mentioned in The Affluent
Society, making (2) as the correct option.
73. 2 The author mentions this in the second paragraph and talks
about Cave temples typically represent the architecture of
Ancient Times. Naturally there must have been castles, palaces
and houses during that time, but none of those remain, because
buildings constructed of wood, rotted or burned easily. This
makes option (2) correct.
74. 3 The author mentions this in the third paragraph and then talks
about the details. Construction of stone temples commenced
in the 5th century, during the Gupta dynasty, but was
standardized only during the 8th century. Many stone temples
were built between the 7th and 9th centuries, but the temples
carved out of rocks were constructed up till the 12th century.
This shows that there was no break in the development of
rock temples and the beginning of stone temples and this
makes option (3) correct.
75. 5 The author makes this point in the fourth paragraph and
mentions Turkish and Afghan dynasties continued to rule
Delhi during a period referred to as the Delhi Sultanate.
Western styles of architecture, including techniques like domes
were brought to India during this age This makes option (5)
correct.
76. 1 The author mentions in the last paragraph The 600-odd
buildings in the book, are grouped together according to their
similarities. This makes option (1) correct as the book contains
information relevant to a traveler. The other options can be
eliminated as they do not include tourists.
77. 1 (1) is correct because it demonstrates that despite of new
sanctions Pyongyang has gone ahead, so the argument is not
viable enough. The other options do not weaken the argument.
78. 5 (5) is justifiable ground to criticise the argument. (1), (2) are
not relevant and (4) is incorrect as per the given information.
(3) is far-fetched.
79. 1 (2) is incorrect according to the first sentence. (3) says
..consistent whereas it should be ..inconsistent ... (4) is
factually incorrect. (5) is again incorrect because author
provides an alternative solution.
80. 4 (4) is the appropriate answer. Options (1) and (2) assume too
much and make a definitive conclusion from a specific example,
hence it can be eliminated. (3) is irrelevant to the argument.
(5) again is a generic statement that goes beyond the scope
of the specific case being discussed here.