MOCK XAT - Paper -I Instructions Before the test: 1.

DO NOT START THE TEST UNTILL THE INVIGILATOR GIVES THE INSTRUCTION TO START THE TEST. 2. DO NOT KEEP with you books, rulers, slide rulers, drawing instruments, calculators (including watch calculators), pagers, cellular phones, stop watches or any other device or loose papers. You are allowed to only keep pencil, pen, eraser and sharpener. 3. Ensure sure that your personal data have been entered correctly on the Answer Sheet. At the start of the test: 1. A soon as the signal to start the test is given, open the test booklet. 2. This test booklet contains 31 pages, including the blank ones. Immediately after opening the Test Booklet, verify that all pages are printed properly and are in order. If there is a problem with your Test Booklet, immediately inform the invigilator. You will be provided with a replacement. How to Answer: 1. This test contain 90 question in Three sections. There are 31 questions in Section A and 29 questions in Section B and 30 questions in Section C. You have two and half hours to complete the test. In demonstrate your competence in all three sections. 2. Questions in each section have been jumbled , and sections are indicated on the right hand side of each question. You are required to answer questions from all sections and expected to maximize scores in each section. 3. Directions for answering the question are given before each group of question. Read R these directly carefully and answer the question by darkening the appropriate circles on the Answer Sheet. Each question has only one correct answer. 4. All questions carry One marks each. Each wrong answer will attract a penalty of one third of allotted mark. 5. Do your rough work only on the Test Booklet and NOT on the Answer Sheet. 6. Follow the instructions of the invigilator. Candidates found violating the instructions will be disqualified. After the Test: 1. At the end of the test, remain seated. the invigila invigilator tor will collect the Answer Sheet from your Seat. Do not leave the hall until the invigilator announces You may leave now. The invigilator will make the announcement only after collecting the Answer Sheet from all the candidates in the room. 2. You may retain in this Test Booklet with you. Candidates giving assistance or seeking / receiving from any source in answering questions or Copying in any manner in the test will forfeit their chances of being considered for admission. Such candidates will forfeit the right to the scorecard. The testing authority reserves the right to exclude any question or question from this Test Booklet for Final examination.

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1. There are many two digit prime numbers in Real Number set such that both digits of the number are prime numbers? A] 3 B] 4 C] 5 D] 15 E] 8 Section (A) 2. There are four face cards Ace Ace, Jack, Queen, and King one of each and places them face down in any order. You point to each card in turn, and guess wh which ich face card is in the bottom. You guess each of Ace, Jack, Queen, and King exactly once and you guessed exactly n of the letters correctly. Which value of n is not a possible value of n? [A] 0 [B] 1

[C] 2

[D] 3

[E] 4 Section (A)

3. If sin cos then sin cos ? [A]

[B]

[C]

[D]

[E]

4. There are how many integral pairs of ( x, y) satisfy 16 [A] 0 [B] 1 [C] 2 [D] 3 5. sin sin sin sin ? [A]

Section (A)

[E] More than 3 Section (A)

[B]

[C] 0

[D]

[E]

Section (A)

6. There 11 toffees in the store store: three cost `0.50 each, four cost ` 1.00 each and four cost ` 2.00 each. Find the total number of ways to purchase 3 toffees from the 11 toffees so that the total cost is more than ` 4.00? (consider all toffees fees are different) [A] 8 [B] 20 [C] 46 [D] 60 [E] 66 Section (A) 7. Sir MATHs is playing a game. in which Sir MATHs picks a natural number between 1 and 100. One after the other, each of three players SINE, COSINE & TAN tries to guess the number Sir MATHs picked. Each player writes his or her guess on a black-board black before the next player guesses. The winner is the player who comes closest to Sir MATHs' number without exceeding it. NOTE: Each guess has to be different from the previous guesses. & It is possible for none of the players to win. Suppose that SINE guesses 24, and that TAN will ll guess a number that gives him the best chance of winning. What number should COSINE guess to maximize his chances of winning? [A] 1 [B] 25 [C] 62 [D] 63 [E] 64 Section (B) 2 www.facebook.com/MathsByAmiya

8. A biased coin has a probability of coming heads and tails are (1/3) ) and (2/3) respectively. respectively On average, how many toss of this coin are needed t to o guarantee both heads and tails appear at least once? [A] 2.25 [B] 2.5 [C] 3 [D] 3.5 [E] 5 Section (A)

9. If in ; ; Where a, b & c are sides of triangle and A,B & C are corresponding angles then lies in which interval [A] 0, [D]
,

[B] 0, [E]

[C]

Section (A)

10. What is the probability of selecting two real number x and y from interval [0,4] which satisfy the relation .

[A]

[B]

[C]

[D]

[E] None of These

Section (A)

11. Let 2 1 for 1 3 and 3 for 3 10. Then quadratic equation whose roots are lim and lim [A] 10 459 0 [B] 10 459 0 [C] 10 459 0 [D] 3 0 [E] None of these [A] 1 3

12. 3

2 1 ); then k=? [B] 1 3 [C]

Section (A)

[D]

[E]

Section (A)

13. If ; where P(x) is a polynomial of degree greater than 2, then 2 ? [A] -P(x)P'''(x) [D] P(x)P''(x) [B] P(x)P'''(x) [E] None of These [C] -P(x)P''(x) Section (A) 14. Consider the following statements : I. If for some positive integers p, q , r (p<q<r) , 2 , 2 2are in G.P. then , will be in H.P. II. If x, y and z are positive integers such that , are in H.P then for any real number 0; , will also in H.P. Which of the following statements is(are) correct? 3 www.facebook.com/MathsByAmiya

[A] I only

[B] II only

[C] I or II

[D] I and II

[E] Neither I nor II

Section (A) 15. What is the range of sin cos if domain is "R" [ R Real & [ ] close interval] [D][0, 1] [A] 1,2 [B] , 1

[E] None of these

[C] , 1

Section (A) 16. T is a function defined as: T (x, y, z) = (x y, y z, z x) Which of the following point does not belong to image set T? [A] (2, 3, 5) [B] B] (1, 1, 2) [C] (3, 7, 10) [D] (1, 4, 3) [E] E] None of these Section (A) DIRECTIONS for questions 17-21 : Refer to the data below and answer the questions that follow. Six people Kiran, Kishan, Samir, Sagar, Tania and Tanya living at six different places viz; Ahmedabad, Patna, Kolkata, Chennai, Delhi and Mumbai own six different cars, of brands Bambassador, Galio, Korpio, Mascent, Suntro and Talto having six different colours. Kiran and Sagar stay in Chennai and Delhi, respectively. Tania owns a Mascent. Samir and Tanya have Grey and White coloured cars, respectively. The person staying in Mumbai owns a Blue Galio. The person staying in Chennai does not own a Talto. The person owning Grey coloured oloured car does not stay in Patna nor does he own a Talto. The car of make Talto is Red coloured. The person staying in Patna owns a Korpio. The person who owns a Mascent make car does not stay in Ahmedabad. The other two cars are Black and Silver in colour. 17. If Kiran owns a silver coloured Suntro, what is the colour of the car that Tania owns? A] Blue B] Grey C] Black D] Red E] Cannot be determined Section (B) 18. What is the brand of the car that Samir owns? A] Suntro B] Bambassador C] Korpio D] Talto E] Cannot be determined Section (B) 19. What is the colour of the Korpio? A] Blue B] White C] Silver D] Grey E] Cannot be determined Section (B) 20. Who stays in Kolkata? A] Tania B] Samir C] Tanya D] Sagar E] Cannot be determined Section (B) 21. Who owns the Talto? A] Tania B] Kishan C] Sagar D] Samir E] Cannot be determined Section (B)

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DIRECTIONS for questions 22-24: The following set of questions is based on a decisiondecision making situation that is described. Attempt the questions and select the correct option. Toyz is an Indian company that m makes akes toys for children only in the age group of 1-8 1 years. The company had, in a firstof-its-kind move for the Indian toy industry, signed a deal for a promotional campaign with UTV films to market a soft toys range, Cuddles, based on characters in the childrens hildrens movie Antariksh and Pehelwan. Kidz Quotient, a range of educational toys for children in the age group of 3 3-8 8 years met with the same brilliant success as the Cuddles range. Thus, the companys pioneering efforts in the toy industry had earned it the top slot in the Indian toy field. Over the last few months however, the companys sales growth had slowed, though cost cutting measures were not required as yet, as the company had been making decent profits. Toyz had to do a rethink on several of its latest policies as the companys competitors were growing. Crabtree, a toy chain, was steadily growing in the educational games format and looked poised to take over the mantle of such games from Toyz. Furthermore, with the growing power of the Internet, toys for children had changed by becoming more learning based and more interactive. Tinkle Bells, a major rival of Toyz, had collaborated with a computer firm and had come up with a successful range of computer computer-based based products, while Toyz were still strategizing about the changing toy environment. Moreover, the management felt that the companys marketing strategies needed to go through a change as the poor marketing of their latest board game Shipping Tycoon showed. After much deliberation, , the management realized that apart from the growing competition, the companys dismal performance was also due to organizational issues. For example, since the company followed a centralized system of management, the top management was burdened with a heavy avy workload, leaving them with little time for focusing on major issues. Also, communication and decision making in the company was slow and complicated due to the many layers of middle management - many of whom were being underutilized due to the fewer number umber of subordinates working under them - as compared to fewer middle managers in rival companies. Thus, the additional levels of management meant increased administrative overhead. Employees, the majority of whom were under 35, on the other hand had started sta feeling that the formal and strictly workrelated environment of the company was stifling growth. Frustration, lack of motivation and a feeling of inequity was settling in as many a times, the management would not accept their ideas. The employees also felt that innovation had come to a standstill because ideas took a long time to filter through the many management layers. Thus, employee morale had hit an all all-time time low, leading to insecurity about their jobs and futures. The management had scheduled a h high-powered powered meeting of the top brass to decide on a course of action to resolve these issues. While there were many debates regarding the ideal course of action that the company should take, all were agreed on the point that Toyz had to

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take new steps, both h within and outside the company to regain the top slot as pioneers in the toy industry. 22. What course of action should the management take to handle the growing competition? Arrange the following in descending order of importance. 1. Diversify into computer-based based games, educational CDs and DVDs 2. Restructure to expedite the decision decision-making processes 3. Expand its product line by catering to a market of 8 years and above and as yet unexplored niche. 4. Revamp the marketing strategies of the company. A] 2, 3, 1, 4 B] 1+2, 3, 4 C] 3+4, 2, 1 D] 2, 4, 1+3 E] 1+3, 4, 2 Section (B) 23. What should be the course of action of the management regarding restructuring? Arrange the following in ascending order of importance. 1. Adopt decentralization techniques that will lighten the load of the top management and help them in focusing on innovation and strategies. 2. Increase the span of control so that increasing the number of subordinates per manager will reduce the need for a number of managerial posts. 3. Shift a number of middle managers to hands hands-on on work and offer retirement with perks to some others. 4. Encourage the delegation of responsibilities so that no level of employees is over-worked, over which only leads to stagnation and monotony. 5. Hire 30% new workers as contract employees so that the company's commitment to lifetime employment reduces. A] 3+5, 4, 1+2 D] 5, 2, 4, 1+3 B] 5, 3, 2, 1+4 E] 2+5, 3, 4, 1 C] 1+3, 5, 2+4 Section (B) 24. How should the management boost employee morale? Arrange the following in ascending cending order of importance. 1] Recognize and reward employees for exemplary actions in support of the company's vision and strategies. 2] Encourage employee participation in the decision decision-making process. 3] Provide employees with extra payments into supple supplemental mental retirement plans based on the company's return on investment (ROI). 4] Expedite the decision-making making process by restructuring the managerial levels in order to encourage innovation. 5] In addition to monetary benefits, offer non non-monetary rewards like holding picnics, travelling awards, etc., to boost employee morale. A] 5, 1+2, 3+4 B] 4, 1+5, 2, 3 C] 3+5, 1+2, 4 D] 2, 4+5, 1, 3 E] 1+3, 2, 4+5 Section (B) 6 www.facebook.com/MathsByAmiya

DIRECTIONS for questions 25-27: Each group of questions is based on a decision making situation that is described. Attempt the questions that follow and mark the correct answer. Gallons, a Mexican restaurant, is one of the main attractions of the nightlife of the city. Situated in a posh sh neighbourhood, it counts the whos who of the city among its clientele. It boasts of being the first restaurant in the city to employ women waiters. In a recent business move, the restaurant management came up with theme theme-based based events for every alternate nightof-the-week. The combined business strategy of the restaurant spelt great success. Recently, some customers got drunk and started a brawl. But the security managed to control the situation. Drug addicts and petty thieves frequent the roads around the restaurant. After a few stray incidents, the management decided to take a call on the safety of its employees. The management decided to disallow its women staff from working in night shifts, after 8 p.m. Medha is a veteran with 10 years experience and was selected the Best Waitress, 2005 and 2006. She is currently employed in two places, one at the town library and the other at the restaurant. Due to the new time restrictions imposed by the management, she has been unable to meet her financial expenses expenses. Medha discussed the issue with the management. The management offered to transfer her to another branch of their restaurant where the timings would be suitable. Medha objected to the idea since she would not be able to continue both her jobs on account of the longer travelling hours to reach the restaurant branch. The management then felt that it could not change its policies to accommodate her views. Recently, a lawyer representing Medha has informed the restaurant that Medha intends to file a case against her employers on grounds of discrimination. The management agrees that more customers visit the restaurant in the night and tend to give larger tips. Medha says that because of the recent decision of the management, she is being deprived of these fringe fri benefits. The management does not even want to lose face. It has to now decide on a course of action. 25. Choose the viable options that would be beneficial for the management in the given situation and arrange them in the descending order of importance. A] Go for an out-of-court court settlement. B] Arrange for transport for its staff who work the night shifts. C] Fire Medha and hire someone new. D] Compensate Medha, and step up the security measures. E] Stick with their decision of banning women waiters from working night shifts. F] Fight the court case as the management has access to better lawyers and winning is more likely. G] Come up with a clause in the letter of offer that allows women to work only day shifts, which will prevent any further legal hassles.

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A] F, G, E, C D] A, F, G, B

B] A, C, E, F E] D, A, B, F

C] D, B, G, A Section (B)

26. If the management has to avoid this incident from recurring, then it will have to take certain steps. Arrange the following in the descending order of import importance. A. Do not hire women as increasing security measures will be additional expenditure that can be avoided. B. Women should be hired only if they agree to certain conditions mentioned in the appointment letter. C. Arrange for transport for employees who work in night shifts. D. Screen customers and impose heavy fines on those creating trouble on the premises. E. State in the job advertisement itself that the working conditions are subject to change at the discretion of the management. A] A, B, E, D, C B] D, C, E, B, A C] A, E, B, C, D D] E, B, C, D, A E] D, E, B, C, A Section (B) 27. Choose the course of action in the ascending order of importance that would be best for Medha? A. Approach the media and garner the support of the public as the media has played an important role in getting justice for people in recent times. B. Wait for the management to take a decision since her case is very strong and the management has to capitulate. C. Enlist the support of her colleagues by starting a signature campa campaign ign to influence the decision of the management. D. Agree to an out-of-court court settlement and accept a higher and more lucrative position in the sister concern of the restaurant. A] D, A, C B] A, D, B C] C, A, D D] C, D, A E] B, C, D Section (B) DIRECTIONS for questions 28-30: The following set of questions is based on a decisiondecision making situation that is described. Attempt the questions and select the correct option. Meera Guinness took over the reins of the family family-run run wine business, Grapevine Has Ha It, from her father. She had a Masters degree and a doctorate in business management from Wharton, University of Pennsylvania. She had also trained under the tutelage of one of the most respected espected names in the wine business in France, where she had learnt all about wines from scratch from growing, harvesting and processing grapes to the fermentation, cellaring and storing of wines. The company was, at one time consider considered ed to be one of the finest wine makers of the country. But with wine drinking becoming popular, the business of wine making aking had become more competitive. Grapevine Has It had lost its lead in the wine race. Meera wanted to restore her company to its former glory. Her father had not concentrated on the marketing front of the company, focusing on only improving the quality standards of the 8 www.facebook.com/MathsByAmiya

products. Meera realized that they were losing important ground because they had stopped experimenting and were playing safe. The areas that needed immediate attention were the white wine segment and the cell cellaring aring process. She felt that though the white wine segment was doing good business, it lacked the buttery flavour that could be obtained by a second fermentation. Also, their process of cellaring could be further refined, as their wines seemed to develop a slightly bitter taste after the cellaring process. Meera wanted to expand their business by starting a rose wine section. Meanwhile, the latest news was that a four four-star star hotel was going to come up in the next six months and they were looking for wine suppliers in the area. Meera did not want to lose out to their competitors, Wine Rise. She decided to take up the challenge. She felt that some aggressive and innovative thinking was required to retain the top slot in the wine industry. Meera believed in top-down down management, contrary to the way her father ran the business. Meera felt that the business had suffered recent losses because the managers had made some faulty decisions. On the other hand, resentment was building up among the managers, some of whom had been working with the company since its inception twenty years ago. They felt that their experience and expertise would not be valued and had become unsure of their place in the business. While they understood that Meeras plans were for the betterment bettermen of the company, they also felt that some of her ideas were not practical. The company was facing an impasse. Meanwhile, time was running out. 28. The main conclusion (s) about Meera that emerge (s) from this situation is / are: A. She had the potential to expand her business and was doing the right thing by being aggressive about innovations. B. She was new in the field and had to first establish her hold over the existing business. C. She was unsuccessful in winning over the support of her managers without whom it would be difficult to manage her business successfully. D. The situation called for some strong measures and she should not waste her time and energy in convincing the managers. A] A and D D] A and C B] A, B, and C E] A, C and D C] Only B

Section (B) 29. What should be Meeras course of action, keeping in mind that the company has only six months to bring positive changes? Arrange the following in the descending order of importance. A. Work out a system to improve the quality of white wines B. Reorganize eorganize the Research Wing C. Appoint a team to correct the flaws in the cellaring of wines D. Come up with a strong strategy for developing the rose wine business E. Hone the skills of the marketing professionals of the company A] B+C, A, D+E D] B, C+E, A+D B] E+A, C, D+B E] C+A, B, D+E C] C, E+A, B, D Section (B) 9 www.facebook.com/MathsByAmiya

30. This decision-making making situation best highlights: A. Meeras inexperience in handling her staff. B. Meeras short-sightedness sightedness in making business related decisions. C. Meeras underestimation of experience of the senior managers. D. Meeras aggressive approach to expand her business. A] A, B and C D] Only B B] A and B E] A, B, C and D C] C and D

Section (B) DIRECTIONS for questions31 31-36: Go through the following passage and answer the questions that follow each. In the mid-1980s, 1980s, Indias middle class comprised just 10 percent of the population. Today, its larger than the entire population of the United States and is predicted to grow to 445 million by the end of this decade. For 70 ye years, Mohandas Gandhis myopic vision of backward-looking looking socialism as a template for national advancement was accepted as revealed wisdom by a string of Indian prime ministers, starting with his acolyte, Nehru. Despite a plenitude of cotton, Gandhi didnt think India should create a cotton industry, believing instead that every family should own a spinning wheel and spin its own. He didnt believe India should develop a manufacturing base, which not only caused the dead hand of import substitution to smother her native initiative, but the failure to develop factories meant there was also a failure to develop infrastructure like roads and ports to take goods to market. Now at last, riding on a new surge of confidence at home and overseas, Indians have ditched austerity, the spinning wheel and the Mahatma and are spending it up like maharajas. In a recent survey, 90 percent of them cheerfully admitted that they spend their disposable income on non-essentials. Twenty-five five years ago, they had a choice of one car and one colour: the Ambassador (top speed 35 mph); it was black and you had to order it years in advance. Today, the consumer chooses from among 40 models produced by 13 companies. When Gandhis thinking still prevailed, Indians expected poor quality consumer cons goods (Gandhis beloved import substitution) and expected a dismissive attitude to complaints. Thus the more prudent held off buying. Today, reliability and competitive after-sales after service are taken for granted. The worlds top designers have disco discovered vered that the appetite for designer products, especially handbags and shoes, is as ravenous in India as it is in the West, and theyve flooded in. An Indian lady no longer has to go overseas to buy a pair of Jimmy Choos. Vuitton, Chanel, shopping malls ... . all with customers with money and credit cards. Retail therapy trumps yoga for relaxing tired nerves.

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Forbes Magazines Rich List last year placed India eighth in terms of the number of billionaires. The number of millionaires trebles every three years. Today, street peddlers pack cellphones. The Times of Indias Washington Washington-based based foreign editor, Chitanand Rajghatta, in a piece on the Indian diaspora, notes that there are around 20 to 30 million Indian nationals living in some 180 countries, give or take a million or two who are in various transit lounges. frills airlines are having the same effect on travel as they have in Europe and the US No-frills more discretionary flying. The four economy airlines had captured 30 percent of the domestic market in February ebruary of this year, which represented a 3 percent growth over January. Among the four big no-frills frills carriers is Kingfisher, owned by flamboyant billionaire and MP Vijay Mallya. Mallya also owns a popular Indian beer Kingfisher. Irked because India doesnt does allow advertising of alcohol on its territory, he decided to start Kingfisher Air at a cost of 1.5 billion rupees ($23 million) so his logo could be seen overhead. How does one account for this massive swell of confidence? According to Indias Business Line, only 54 percent of Indians now think a rupee saved is a rupee earned. Part of the reason for the spendathon on mutual funds, consumer goods, property, clothes and foreign travel, thinks Business Lines Amit Mitra, is, Indian consumers are also so the most optimistic in the world in terms of their expectations for employment opportunities and the health of their personal finances. They top AC Nielsens Global Consumer onsumer Confidence index with a score of 127. The global average was 92. India has an estimated growth rate of 8 percent. Surprisingly, losing out on all this trade is Britain, the former colonial administrator and major commercial partner for almost 300 years. It is that other developing giant, China, that does the lions share of trade w with India, accounting for 6 percent of the whole. Next up, America and tiny Switzerland, with 5 percent each. Even Belgium and Germany, with 4 percent each beat out Britains Lilliputian 3 percent. As for imports, again, Britain has been inexplicably slow off the mark, taking just four percent of Indias exports, whereas the United States imports a whacking 18 percent. (China buys 6 percent, which is exactly what it exports.) Commenting on this rush to the head, Sarang Panchal, AC Nielsen executive director directo for South outh Asia said, Socially and economically, India is developing at a galloping pace when compared to the rest of the world. In India, the assessment of economic performance over the last 6 months has moved up smartly when compared to the previous six months. Seventy-nine nine percent of Indians felt that the economy had improved. The follow follow-through of this positive evaluation has obviously carried forward aggressively.

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He predicts: For the coming 12 month period, India is clearly the most optimistic country in the world. With 88 percent of Indians bullish about the countrys economic performance going forward, we are even more positive than China. In the context of the global economy, this forms an important inflection point in our perception even am amongst ongst the international investment community. 31. The author believes that Indians are justified in being highly optimistic about their economic future. A] Definitely true as inferred from the passage B] Partially true as inferred from the passage C] Cannot be determined, as she only quotes others who say so D] Probably not, though she is aware that Indians are very confident E] Not necessarily, as she adopts a cautionary tone later in the passage Section (C) 32. What does the author mean by the statement 'Retail therapy trumps yoga for relaxing tired nerves'? A] Indians no longer consider traditions like yoga relaxing. B] Indians now go in for cosmopolitan hobbies instead of their traditional ones. C] Indians are spurning their spiritual heritage and becom becoming ing more materialistic. D] Indian preferences are changing drastically because of the new economic climate. E] Indians now spend so much time shopping that they have no time for traditions like yoga. Section (C) 33. Mahatma Gandhi supported an economic policy that encouraged Indians not to rely on imports, and instead develop consumer goods indigenously. A] True only in certain circumstances and false in others B] Partially true as the goods thus produced were of poor quality C] Could be true, though not fully inferable from the passage D] Completely false as Mahatma Gandhi encouraged imports E] Completely false as Mahatma Gandhi did not encourage industry at all Section (C) 34. The following can be inferred from the passage: I. The majority of Indians no longer t think that saving is necessary. II. The current population of the United States is less than 445 million. III. The growing number of Indian nationals living abroad is a cause for some concern in India. IV. According to Chitanand Rajghatta, more than a milli million on Indians are travelling abroad at present. V. Britain does not trade as much with India as it should because it does not realize that its former colony has progressed so much. A] I and III B] I and IV C] II and IV D] I, II and V E] III, IV and V Section (C) 12 www.facebook.com/MathsByAmiya

35. From which of the following countries does India import the most? A] China B] Switzerland C] The United States D] Both [1] and [2] E] Both [2] and [3] Section (C) 36. Starting an airline in order to advertise his brand of beer would have definitely proved counterproductive for Vijay Mallya if : A] setting up the airline had been a very costly venture. B] the income generated by the airline had not been enough to cover its costs. C] the profits generated by this form of advertising had not been enough to offset the cost of setting up an airline. D] the unprofitable airline had not generated enough publicity for the beer to offset the cost of setting it up in the first place. E] the publicity generated by this venture resulted in the brand n name ame Kingfisher being linked more to the airline industry than to the beer industry. Section (C) 37-40: Go through the following passage and answer the DIRECTIONS for questions37 questions that follow each. Bayes Theorem is a mathematical engine for combini combining ng many estimated likelihoods and coming up with a final verdict, which bears its own quantitative estimate of likelihood. But of course that final estimate can only be as good as the original numbers fed in. These are usually subjectively judged, with all the doubts that inevitably flow from that. The GIGO principle (Garbage In, Garbage Out) is applicable here and, in the case of Unwins God example, applicable is too mild a word. Unwin is a risk management consultant who carries a torch for Bayesian inference, as against rival statistical methods. He illustrates Bayes Theorem by taking on the biggest test case of all, the existence of God. The plan is to start with complete uncertainty, which he chooses to quantify by assigning the existence and nonnon existence of God a 50 per cent starting likelihood each. Then he lists six facts that might bear on the matter, puts a numerical weighting on each, feeds the six numbers into the engine of Bayes Theorem and sees what number pops out. The trouble is that t the he six weightings are not measured quantities but simply Stephen Unwins own personal judgements, turned into numbers for the sake of the exercise. For what it is worth (nothing, in my opinion), at the end of a ding-dong dong Bayesian race in which God surges a ahead head in the betting, then drops way back, then claws his way up to the 50 per cent mark from which he started, he finally ends up enjoying, in Unwins estimation, a 67 per cent likelihood of existing. Unwin then decides that his Bayesian verdict of 67 per cent isnt high enough, so he takes the bizarre step of boosting it to 95 per cent by an emergency injection of faith. It sounds like a joke, but that really is how he proceeds. I wish I could say how he justifies it, but there really is nothing to say. 37. From the given passage, we can say that the authors attitude towards Bayes Theorem is: A] neutral he has no opinion for or against it. B] mildly positive he thinks that it is a useful mathematical engine. C] highly positive he considers it an ind indispensable ispensable mathematical tool.

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D] mildly negative he thinks it is only as good as the subjective estimates fed into it. E] highly negative he thinks that it is far too subjective in nature to ever be of any practical use. Section (C) 38. Which of the following wing is most likely to be a summary of the GIGO principle, based on the passage? A] If the basic premises used to arrive at a conclusion are not explicitly stated, then the conclusion will be worthless. B] If the basic premises used to arrive at a conclusi conclusion on are themselves flawed, then the conclusion will be worthless. C] If the basic premises used to arrive at a conclusion are not the only relevant premises, then the conclusion will be worthless. D] If the likelihood of the basic premises used to arrive at a conclusion is unknown, then a conclusion cannot be derived from them. E] None of these. Section (C) 39. Which of the following lines of thinking shows the same logical flaws as Unwin's God example? A] XYZ calculates the amount of damage done to the environ environment ment based on reports by environmental scientists and the oil industry, and then dismisses the former findings. B] XYZ calculates the possibility that ghosts exist based on anecdotes by people who claim to have seen them, and concludes that they do not because ause he himself does not believe in ghosts. C] XYZ calculates the possibility that extraterrestrial life exists based on the subjective likelihood of the arguments for and against it, and then concludes that it must exist, based on a gut feeling. D] XYZ calculates lculates the possibility that the Earth will be hit by a large meteorite in the near future based on statistics of past such occurrences and scientific predictions, and then concludes that it is highly unlikely. E] None of these. Section (C) 40. Which of the following steps, had it been adopted by Stephen Unwin, would have made his God example more acceptable to the author? A] If Unwin's subjective weighting of the facts bearing on God's existence had been more than six in number. B] If Unwin's subjective weig weighting hting of the facts bearing on God's existence had been more objective. C] If Unwin had not assigned numerical weightings on the facts bearing on God's existence. D] If Unwin had not taken the additional step of injecting 'faith' into his equations. E] None of these. Section (C) 14 www.facebook.com/MathsByAmiya

41-45: : Go through the following passage and answer the DIRECTIONS for questions41 questions that follow each. In order to achieve their ends, the socialist economic planners must create powerpower power over men wielded by other men men of a magnitude never before known. Their success will depend on the extent to which they achieve such power. Democracy is an obstacle to this suppression of freedom, which the centralized direction of economic activity requires. Hence arises the clash between planning lanning and democracy. Many socialists have the tragic illusion that by depriving private individuals of the power they possess in an individualist system, and transferring this power to society, they thereby extinguish power. By uniting in the hands of some single body power formerly exercised independently by many, an amount of power is created infinitely greater than any that existed before, so much more far-reaching reaching as almost to be different in kind. It is entirely fallacious to argue that the great power ower exercised by a central planning board would be no greater than the power collectively exercised by private boards of directors. There is, in a competitive society, nobody who can exercise even a fraction of the power, which a socialist planning board would possess. To decentralize power is to reduce the absolute amount of power, and the competitive system is the only system designed to minimize the power exercised by man over man. Who can seriously doubt that the power, which a millionaire, who may be my employer, has over me, is very much less than that which the smallest bureaucrat possesses who wields the coercive power of the state and on whose discretion it depends how I am allowed to live and work? In every real sense a badly paid unskille unskilled d workman in this country has more freedom to shape his life than many an employer in Germany or a much better paid engineer or manager in Russia. If he wants to change his job or the place where he lives, if he wants to profess certain views or spend his leisure in a particular way, he faces no absolute impediments. There are no dangers to bodily security and freedom that confine him by brute force to the task and environment to which a superior has assigned him. Our generation has forgotten that the system m of private property is the most important guarantee of freedom. When all the means of production are vested in a single hand, whether it be nominally that of society as a whole or that of a dictator, whoever exercises this control has complete power over ov us. In the hands of private individuals, what is called economic power can be an instrument of coercion, but it is never control over the whole life of a person. But when economic power is centralized as an instrument of political power it creates a deg degree ree of dependence scarcely distinguishable from slavery. It has been well said that, in a country where the sole employer is the state, opposition means death by slow starvation. Individualism, in contrast to socialism and all other forms of totalitariani totalitarianism, sm, is based on the respect of Christianity for the individual man and the belief that it is desirable that men should be free to develop their own individual gifts and bents. This philosophy, first fully developed during the Renaissance, grew and spread i into nto what we know as Western

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civilization. The general direction of social development was one of freeing the individual from the ties which bound him in feudal society. Perhaps the greatest result of this unchaining of individual energies was the marvellous marvello growth of science. Only since industrial freedom opened the path to the free use of new knowledge, only since everything could be tried if somebody could be found to back it at his own risk has science made the great strides which in the last 150 ye years ars have changed the face of the world. The result of this growth surpassed all expectations. Wherever the barriers to the free exercise of human ingenuity were removed, man became rapidly able to satisfy ever-widening widening ranges of desire. By the beginning of the 20th century the working man in the Western World had reached a degree of material comfort, security and personal independence which 100 years before had hardly seemed possible. 41. Amongst the given options, the one most opposite to the ideology being advocated a by the author is: B] Capitalism. C] Socialism. A] Collectivism. D] Marxism. E] Fascism. Section (C) 42. Among the options given below, the one that best captures the ideology advocated by the author is: A] Collectivism. B] Capitalism. C] Socialism. D] Marxism. E] Fascism. Section (C) 43. When the author says that 'the system of private property is the most important guarantee of freedom', he probably implies that: A] because the control of the means of production is divided among many people acting independently, we as individuals can decide what to do with ourselves. B] in the hands of private individuals the control of the means of production can be an instrument of manipulation of resources that results in uneven distribution of wealth. C] because there are too many people who wield control over the means of production, it becomes very difficult to determine the contribution of each and divide the produce evenly. D] because the control of the means of production is not centralized and the private players are independent of state control, they are free to amass as much wealth as possible. E] with the control of the means of production centralized in a few hands, it becomes imperative that the state should interfere in order to uphold d the freedom of the individuals. Section (C) 44. According to the author, in a socialist set set-up up why would the smallest bureaucrat wield more power over an individual than a millionaire who employs many people in his organization?

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A] Because in a socialist set-up, up, individuals relinquish their power so that it can be used in the interest of the entire nation. B] Because in a socialist set-up, up, power is centralized for use in the service of a single plan which infinitely increases the power of the state. C] Because a socialist set-up up condemns concentration of wealth in few hands and favours decentralization of power. up government officials wield enormous power over individuals. D] Because in a socialist set-up E] Because a millionaire, if allowed to function indep independently, endently, would try to seize bureaucratic power and use it for his own selfish interests. Section (C) 45. On the basis of your reading of the passage, which of the following do you think is NOT a measure representing the socialist ideology? A] Introduction of a political party that embraces all activities of the individual from the cradle to the grave B] Using economic power as a tool for gaining compliance of people towards a particular type of economic structure C] Devising ways for permane permanent supervision of private lives D] Paying people on the basis of the degree of skills they possess E] None of the above Section (C) 46. Choose the option that correctly unscrambles the paragraph below. 1. This takes energy and commitment, as few people will immediately buy into a radical vision, and some will join the show much more slowly than others. 2. The important factor is the leader buys into it, hook, line and sinker. 3. This vision may be developed by the leader, by the senior team or may emerge from fro a broad series of discussions. 4. Transformational Leadership starts with the development of a vision, a view of the future that will excite and convert potential followers. 5. The next step, which in fact never stops, is to constantly sell the vision. 6. . The Transformational Leader thus takes every opportunity and will use whatever works to convince others to climb on board the bandwagon. A] 4-5-1-3-2-6 D] 4-1-3-2-5-6 B] 4-2-3-1-5-6 E] 4-3-6-2-1-5 C] 4-3-2-5-1-6 6 Section (C) 47. Thompson's biographical method is not organization but evocation; rather than order the material into a chronological narrative, she wants us to know what the subject feels and offers novelistic insights into her state of mind. Which of the following choices most ac accurately curately captures the meaning of 'evocation' as used in the above sentence? 17 www.facebook.com/MathsByAmiya

A] unique philosophy D] imaginative recreation

!

B] abstract discussion E] long-winded anecdote

C] haphazard narration Section (C)

48.

. ?
[C] 3e [D] 5e [E] 4.5 e Section (A)

[A] e

[B] 2e

49. 31 41 51 61 . ? [A] 14 [B]15

[C] 330

[D]20

[E] None of These Section (A)

51 : The following questions consist of a capitalized word that is Directions for question 50-51 followed by four words or phrases. Choose the lettered word or phrase whose meaning is most nearly opposite to the meaning of the capitalized word. Because some questions require you to distinguish nguish fine shades of meaning, it is advisable to consider all the choices before deciding on the best choice. 50. MODISH: [A] eliciting admiration and joy [C] lacking style and fashionableness [E] None of these

[B] avoiding harm and danger [D] providing vitality and fortitude Section (C)

51. SPINY: [A] heavy

[B] placid

[C] smooth

[D] terse

[E] soft Section (C)

Directions for questions 52-54 54 : Four alternative summaries are given below each piece of text. Choose the option that best captures the essence of the text. If none of them are best summarization of given text choose option [E] 52. In n practice the government will have the last word on what an individuals rights are, because its police will do what its officials and courts say. But that does not mean that the governments view is necessarily the correct view; anyone who thinks it is must believe that persons have only such moral rights as the government chooses to grant, which means that they have no moral rights at all. [A] Individuals have no rights at all unless the government says that they do. [B] What government officials and courts say an individuals rights are may not be correct. 18 www.facebook.com/MathsByAmiya

[C] Individuals have rights unless the government says that they do not. [D]The The police always agree with government officials and the courts about what an individuals rights are. Section (C) 53. The obsession of economists with consumption as a measure of economic well-being well has prevented us from understanding the true nature of economic well well-being. being. We get very little satisfaction out of the fact that our clothing wears out, our automobiles depreciate, depreciat and the gasoline in our thanks burns up and must be replaced. being cannot be defined solely in terms of consumption [A] economic well-being [B] satisfaction is possible without consumption [C] valid measures of consumption cannot be devised [D] satisfaction can provide an adequate quantitative measure of economic well-being well Section (C) he current theory about earthquake holds that they are caused by adjoining plates of rock 54. The sliding past each other; the plates are pressed together until powerful forces overcome the resistance. As plausible as this may sound, at least one thing remains mysterious on this theory. The overcoming of such resistance should create enormous amounts of heat. But so far no increases in temperature unrelated to weather have bee been n detected following earthquakes. [A] No increases in temperature have been detected following earthquakes. [B] The current theory does not fully explain earthquake data. [C]No No one will ever be sure that the true cause of earthquakes is. [D] Contrary to the he current theory, earthquakes are not caused b adjoining plates of rock sliding past one another. Section (C) Directions for next three questions: A 3 dimensional grid a placed in a 3 dimensional co-ordinate ordinate system as shown:

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Each cell (small cube let) is identified by its co co-ordinates ordinates (x, y, z) where x, y, z is the cell number along the X, Y and Z axis respectively. E.g. the lightly shaded cube let is identified as (6, 2, 1) because it is the 6th cube along the X-axis, 2nd along the X-axis X and st 1 along the Z-axis The right-most, back-most most and top top-most most cube let (as shown in the figure by the black cell) has its co-ordinates ordinates (A, B, C) 55. An even number is placed in a cell that has all of x, y and z odd. An odd number is placed in a cell that has all of x x, , y and z even. All other cells are vacant. Which of the following are true? I. If A is odd, B is even and C is odd, even numbers in the grid are more than odd numbers. II. If A, B and C are even, even numbers in the grid are more than odd numbers. III. If A, B and C are odd, odd numbers in the grid are more than even numbers. [A] I only [D] I and II only [B] II only [E] All [C] III only Section (A) 56. If (A, B, C) is (4, 4, 4) and in each cell denoted by (x, y, z), a number equal to x + y + z is placed, ced, what is the sum of the numbers placed in all the cells? [A] 480 [B] 640 [C] 720 [D] 780 [E] None of these Section (A) 57. Which of the relation is true about m and n? I. All cells where no two of x, y, z are same are filled with 1 and all other cells are filled with 0. If A = B = c = 5, m refers to the number of 1s that are placed? II. If A = 8, B = 9 and C = 10 and every cell (x, y, z) that satisfies the condition that 2 < x < 7, 3 < y < 8 and 4 < z < 9 is filled with a 1. Rest all the cells are f filled illed with a 0. n refers to the sum of the numbers placed in all the cells. [A] m > n [D] Cannot be determined [B] n > m [E] None of these [C] m = n Section (A) Directions for questions58 58-60: A 20 over match was played between Magical MP and Awesome AP. The line graphs below refer to the current run rate for the team that batted first and the required run rate for the team that batted second. However it is not known which is line is the current curr runrate and which is the required run rate. But it is known that the top line refers to that of team Magical MP and the lower line refers to awesome AP. Hence we do not know who batted first and who batted second. The current run rate and required r run rate is defined as:

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Current Run Rate =

Required Run Rate =

. .

Score required to win is atleast 1 more than the score that the team batted first made. Y-axis axis represents the run rate at the end of every 2 overs e.g. run rate for Magical MP at the end of 2 overs was 10, at the end of 4 overs was 8.5 and so on. rate is not defined at the end of the 20th over, hence neither is the Since the required run-rate required run-rate rate nor the current rate given in the two line graphs at the end of 20th over. Instead it is know that the team that batted first made 7 runs in the last two over and the team that at batted second made 12 runs in the last two overs. Also since the current runrun rate at start of the game is not significant, hence the first value of the required run-rate run is also only after two overs and not at start of the innings.

58. Which of the following questions can be answered using the above data? I. Which team batted first? II. Which team won the match? [A] Only I [B] Only II [C] Neither I nor II [D] Both I and II [E] Can't be determined Section (A) 59. What were the total runs scored in the match i.e. total of the runs scored by both the teams? [A] 161 [B] 321 [C] 319 [D] 317 [E] None of These Section (A) 60. In which two overs did Awesome AP make minimum runs? [A] 3-4 [B] 7-8 [C] 11-12 [D] 17-18 [E] None of These Section (A) Directions for questions61 61-63: 21 www.facebook.com/MathsByAmiya

A law firm has 5 lawyers, A, B, C, D and E working for it. Each case handled by the firm is represented by only 1 lawyer. However, each case may have to be represented in any of the three courts Assault, Cheating or Product Liabil Liability. ity. Each case is represented in atleast one of these three courts. Representing a case in a particular court is called as court representation. Thus each case can have any of 1 or 2 or 3 court representation. The bar graph below gives the total number of cases that a lawyer is representing and the line graph gives the total number of court representations made by a lawyer. The bar graph is read on the left Y-axis axis whereas the lien graph is read on the right Y-axis. Y

61. Of the cases being handled by the f firm, irm, what can be the maximum number of cases that have to be represented in all the 3 courts? [A] 10 [B] 11 [C] 12 [D] 13 [E] None of these Section (A) 62. Of the cases being handled by the firm, what can be the minimum number of cases that have to be represented in all the 3 courts? [A] 0 [B] 1 [C] 2 [D] 3 [E] None of these Section (A) 63. Of the cases being handled by the firm, what can be the maximum number of cases that have to be represented in exactly 1 court? [A] 25 [B] 27 [C] 32 [D] 42 [E] None of these Section (A) Directions for questions 64-68 68: Ram took four tests, A, B, C, and D, each having different maximum marks. And the scores, that Ram scored in the four tests, in no particular order, are 36, 48, 60 and 72. The maximum marks of the tests, again in no particular order, are 80, 100, 120 and 150. In each of the question below, two statements labeled I and II are given. Choose your answer as: [A] If statement I is necessarily true and statement II is necessarily false [B] If statement II is necessarily true and statement I is necessarily false 22 www.facebook.com/MathsByAmiya

[C] If both statements, I and II are necessarily true [D] If both statements, I and II, are necessarily false. [E] Can't say 64. I. The total percentage scored by Ram in all the 4 tests in 48% II. If the pass percentage in each of the test is 40%, then the maximum tests that Ram can fail is just 1 test. Section (A) 65. I. If Ram scored 60% in two subjects considered together, then the marks in the two subjects have to be 36 and 72 II. If Ram scored 60% in two subjects considered together, then the marks in the two subjects have to be 48 and 60 Section (A) 66. I. There is exactly 1 test in which it is not possible for Ram to score 60% II. If Ram has scored 60% in three tests, then percent scored in the fourth test is 24% Section (A) 67. The two tests of 80 marks and 120 marks is considered as Group A and the two tests of marks 100 marks and 150 marks is considered as group B I. Ram could have scored equal percentages in the two groups A and B. II. If f percentage scored in Group B is greater than that scored in Group A, then percent scored in Group A is 42%. Section (A) 68. Triangle ABC is isosceles with the unequal side being AC. Point P and Q are respectively in CB and AB such that AC = AP = PQ = QB. Measure of angel B in degrees is

Section (A) Directions for questions 69-71 71: Each question has a set of four sequentially ordered statements. Each statement can be classified as one of the following: -Facts, which deal with pieces of information that one has heard, seen or read, and which are open to discovery or verification (the answer option indicates such a statement with an F). -Inferences, which are conclusions drawn about the unknown, on the basis b of the known (the answer option indicates such a statement with an I). 23 www.facebook.com/MathsByAmiya

[A] 25

[B 26

[C] 30

[D] 40

[E] None of these

-Judgments, which are opinions that imply approval or disapproval of persons, objects, situations and occurrences in the past, the present or the future (the answer option indicates tes such a statement with a J). 69. 1. Something must be done to stop spam. 2. In early days, people seldom received unsolicited email advertisement; but now numerous bulk email software and email address finders are developed to collect email address all around round the world. 3. Advertisers use email addresses to market their products and even sell such email lists to other advertisers. 4. As a result, almost everyone gets junk email, and sometimes several and even tens of annoying emails a day. So, relevant anti-spam spam regulations should be framed to stop unsolicited advertising. [A] IFFI [B] JFFI [C] JIFI [D] FFFI [E] FFFF Section (C) 70. 1. Editors need encouragement, freedom. 2. They must be allowed to make mistakes. 3. The business of books like the theater and films is an unholy mix of art and commerce. 4. Like oil and water they dont naturally go together. [A] FFFF [B] IIII [C] JJJJ [D] JJIF [E] FFJJ Section (C)

71.

1. Neville Chamberlain was nothing if not a diligent correspondent. 2. Every week he wrote to his sisters Ida and Hilda letters that were in effect a diary of all that he was doing politically. 3. They have long been invaluable for historians in achieve form, but now they have finally been published in extensor, along with a scholarly fifty-page page introduction and helpful footnotes by their very diligent editor, Robert Self. 4. Unfortunately the huge price of this book will mean that few will be able to buy a copy. [A] FFFF [B] FFII [C] JFFJ [D] JFFI [E] IIII Section (C)

Directions for questions 72-7 73: The following questions are based on the reasoning contained in the following brief passages. Choose the best answer that most accurately and completely answers the question. Rahul: Some scientists explain the dance of honeybees as the means by which honeybees communicate the location of whatever food source they have just visited to other members of the hive. But honeybees do not need so complicated a mechanism to communicate that information. Forager honeybees returning to their hive simply leave a 24 www.facebook.com/MathsByAmiya

scent trail from the food source they have just visited. There must therefore be some other explanation for the honeybees dance. Simran: Not necessarily. Most animals have several ways of accomplishing critical tasks. Bees of some species can navigate using either the position of the Sun or the memory of landmarks. Similarly, for honeybees, scent trails are a supplementary not an exclusive means of communicating. t at issue Rahul and Simran is whether 72. The point [A] theories of animal behavior can be established on the basis of evidence about only one species of animal [B] there is more than one valid explanation for the dance of honeybees [C] honeybees communicate the locat location ion of food sources through their dance [D] the honeybees is the only species of that is capable of communicating navigational information to other hive members [E] None of these Section (C) 73. In Simrans response to Rahul, the statement about how bees of s some ome species navigate plays which one of the following roles? [A] It addresses an ambiguity in Rahuls use of the expression communicate the location. [B] It provides evidence in support of a general claim. [C] It calls into question the accuracy of key evidence cited by Rahul. [D] It points out that Rahuls conclusion directly contradicts one of his premises. [E] None of these Section (C) Direction for question 74-75 : Read the paragraph and solve stated questions One way or another, the historiography of science has been greatly broadened, not to say transformed, in recent decades. And the impulse for this came, in part at least, from the coordinate transformation in the philosophy of science that was going on at the same time. One consequence of this s shift, hift, of course, has been that philosophers who are concerned with the theories and theorists of the past in terms of the traditional concerns with evidence, explanation and justification, find rather less of interest in many, but I should emphasize, not all, ll, of the history history-of-science science journals today than they would have done of yore. On the other hand, philosophers who aim to explore the implications of the new socialization have no trouble in finding grist for their mill in recent work in the history of science. ience. From the side of the working historian of science, however, it would seem hazardous to claim that philosophic issues or explicit references to work in the philosophy of science play a larger role today in their work than they did forty years ago. 74. Which hich of the following best summarizes the above paragraph? 25 www.facebook.com/MathsByAmiya

A] Recent work in the history of science has been influenced by philosophy from that point in time. B] Historical accounts of science in today's journals are better than those in the past. C] Even though philosophers who want to research new socialization find sufficient matter in the recently published work on the history of science, it doesn't carry much about the traditional concerns that others might be interested in. D] The historian currently seeking theories of science finds it difficult to locate philosophical issues and well well-defined references to works in the philosophy of science in the publications of the philosophy of science from forty years ago. E] All of the above. Section (C) f the following statements is the author most likely to agree with? 75. Which of A] The philosopher of yesteryears was more dedicated to bringing the true story of science to the reader. B] The historiography of science has altered with time, as with most things, and has h explored newer horizons. C] History of science plays a key role in contributing to newer philosophies emerging from old ones. D] Not many of the history history-of-science science journals of recent times truly explore the theories and theorists of the past. E] A chronology ology of scientific achievements is the only thing that can be found in current historiography. Section (C) 76. Ecologists apply the term biome to the major divisions of ecosystem types, largely based on the structure of their most prevalent vegetation. Th The e tundra biome, for example, found in the Arctic and high in the mountains of all latitudes, is characterized by low growing perennial plants that can survive in soil that remains frozen for most of the year. The temperate grassland biome, on the other hand, is found in those areas of the world that remain relatively dry throughout the year and is distinguished by structurally simple grasses and scrub brush dominating the landscape. In the last sentence of the passage, the author implies that grasses and scrub brush [A] only live in the temperate grassland biome [B]can can only thrive in dry climates [C] require relatively little water to survive [D] are, by definition, structurally simple [E] None of these Section (C) Directions for questions 77 77-78: Six objects, each of a different color are placed equally spaced apart in a circular arrangement. Three friends, Aakash, Mohan and Gautam see the arrangement and make the following observation: 26 www.facebook.com/MathsByAmiya

Aakash: The ball is opposite the vase and to the immediate r right ight of the cup Mohan: The green object is opposite the blue object and has the black object to its immediate right. Gautam: Two objects are an orange cap and a red bell. And neither of them are adjacent nor opposite. 77. If the sixth color is white, which ob object is white in color? [A] Cup [D] The sixth unnamed object [B] Vase [E] None of these Section (B) 78. If the sixth object is a pen, it is of which color? [A] Blue [D] Red [B] Black [C] White [C] Ball

[E] cannot be determined Section (B)

Directions for questions79-82 82: In a game of Musical Chair, the number of chairs is always atleast 1 less than the number of players in that round. All those who get a chair to sit in, once the music stops, succeed to the next round and those who do not get any chair to sit in are eliminated. Thus atleast one player is eliminated in each round. Further, the chairs are reduced in each successive round till at last there is just one winner and all the other participants are eliminated. About a particular game, we hav have e the following data: A. The number of chairs removed in each round is a different number. The number of chairs in the fifth round was two less than the number of chairs in the fourth round. B. The winner was decided in 5 rounds C. To start with, i.e. in round 1, there were 11 chairs D. The ratio of the number of participants in round 3 and round 4 is 2 : 1. 79. The number of chairs in round 3 were how many less than the number of chairs in round 2? [A] 1 [B] 2 [C] 3 [D] 4 [E] Can't be determined Section (B) 80. How many participants were eliminated in the last round? [A] 1 [B] 2 [C] 3 [D] 4 [E] None of these Section (B) 81. Find the number of participants in round 4. [A] 1 [C] 2 [C] 3 [D] 4 [E] None of these Section (B)

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82. Which of the following represents the number of chairs removed between the rounds in the correct order? [A] 3, 4, 1, 2 [D] 3, 2, 4, 1 [B] 1, 4, 3, 2 [E] None of these Section (B) Directions for questions 83-85 85: At a fabrication shop, three products A, B and C have to be produced and there are three machines , and. Further to produce A, three processes have to be completed, , , strictly in the same order. Similarly to produce B, four processes, . , have to be completely, strictly in the same order. However to produce C, only two processes, have to be completed, again in the same order. Any of the successive process cannot be started until the prev previous ious process is complete for the particular product. Also not all the processes can be done on any of the machines. The table below gives the time taken by each of the machines to complete any of the processes. A in a cell implies that the specific p process cannot be done on that machine.
B 6 - 6 5 ---

[C] 3, 1, 4, 2

--

--

--

7 5 4

9 3 --

-3 --

83. What is the minimum time in which all the three products, A, B and C can be produced? [A] 21 mins [D] 25 mins [B] 23 mins [E] None of these Section (B) [C] 24 mins

84. On which machine is the process done? [A] [D] On or , does not make a difference to total time. [B] [C]

[E] None of these Section (B) 28

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85. Reducing which of the following process times would decrease the minimum time taken to produce all of A, B and C II. By 3 minute [A] I only I. by 1 minute

III. by 1 minute

[B] I and II

[C] III only

[D] II and III

[E] Can't be determined. Section (B)

Directions for questions 86-88 88: Each of the questions is followed by two statements, A and B. Answer each question using the following instructions. Choose [A] if question can be answered by using either statement A or B alone but cannot be answered by using the other statement alone Choose [B] if the question can be answered by using A alone and can also be answered by using B alone, independently Choose [C] if the question can be answered by using both the statements together but not by either statement alone Choose [D] if the question cannot be answered on the basis of the two statements Choose [E] if the question is wrongly stated.

86. In a race between Amol, Bhagat, Chetan and Dhruv, there were no ties in any spot. Who finished last? A. No two of them, having their fir first st letters of their name as neighbors in the alphabetical listing, were neighbors in the ranking. B. A did not finish first, B did not finish second, C did not finish third and D did not finish last. Section (B) 87. Three people predicted the outcome of a race among A, B and C as: ABC (i.e. A is first, B is second and C is third), BAC and CBA. What was the actual outcome of the race? A. Exactly two of the predictions were entirely wrong i.e. they did not get even a single position correct in their predictions predictions. B. Two predictions correctly predicted exactly one position and one prediction was wrong in predicting all positions. Section (B) 88. There are five friends, A, B, C, D and E, standing in a row. B is to the immediate right of A. Who is standing in the middle? 29 www.facebook.com/MathsByAmiya

A: C is somewhere between D and E B: E is somewhere between B and C Section (B) Directions for questions 89-90 90: Each of Akash, Sid, Raj and Sameer played against exactly on one e of Priety, Yasmeen, Christine and Shilpa and each pair competed in o one sport out of Chess, s, Badminton, Carrom are indoor games and Badminton and Tennis are outdoor games. None of the pairs, Akash & Sid, Sameer & Raj, Priety & Shi Shilpa, lpa, Christine & Yasmeen played the same kind of game i.e. both players in a pair did not pl play indoor games or both did not play outdoor games. Akash did not against Priety, Sid did not play against Ya Yasmeen, smeen, Raj did not play against Christine and Sameer did not play against Shilpa. Akash did not play Chess, Sid did not play Badminton, Priety did not ot play Carrom and Yasmeen did not play Tennis. In each of the questions that follow, you are given additio additional nal data. The data given for a question can be used only for that question. You have to f find ind who played against whom and which game. And your answer er would be according to the rules: Choose [A] if the question can be answered by using statement A alone but cannot be answered by using B alone Choose [B] if the question can be answered by using statement B alone but cannot be answered by using A alone Choose [C] if the question can be answered by using both the statements together but not by either statement alone Choose [D] if the question cannot be answered on the basis of the two statements Choose [E] if all are wrong. 89. A. Akash played Carrom B. Yasmeen played Badminton Section (B) 90. A. Raj played Carrom B. Shilpa played Badminton. Section (B)

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ROUGH-WORK

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