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Time : 3 hrs. Max. Marks: 360


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Code - P
Answers & Solutions
for for for for for
JEE (MAIN)-2013
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(Physics, Chemistry & Mathematics)
(2)
1. A uniform cylinder of length L and mass M having
cross-sectional area A is suspended, with its length
vertical, from a fixed point by a massless spring,
such that it is half submerged in a liquid of density
at equilibrium position. The extension x
0
of the
spring when it is in equilibrium is
(1)
Mg
k
(2)
o | |

|
\ .
1
Mg LA
k M
(3)
o | |

|
\ .
1
2
Mg LA
k M
(4)
o | |
+
|
\ .
1
Mg LA
k M
(Here k is spring constant)
Answer (3)
Sol. For equilibrium,
= o +
0
2
L
Mg A g kx
o
2
L
A g kx
0
Mg

o | |
=
|
\ .
0
1
2
Mg LA
x
k M
2. A metallic rod of length l is tied to a string of length
2l and made to rotate with angular speed on a
horizontal table with one end of the string fixed. If
there is a vertical magnetic field B in the region, the
e.m.f. induced across the ends of the rod is
(1)
e
2
2
2
B l
(2)
e
2
3
2
B l
(3)
e
2
4
2
B l
(4)
e
2
5
2
B l
Answer (4)
Sol.
e
l
2l
| |
e
c = e = e = |
|
\ .
}
3
2 2 3
2
2
5
( )
2 2
l
l
l
l
x B l
B x dx B
PARTA : PHYSICS
3. This question has Statement-I and Statement-II. Of the
four choices given after the Statements, choose the one that
best describes the two Statements.
Statement-I: A point particle of mass m moving
with speed v collides with stationary point particle
of mass M. If the maximum energy loss possible is
given as
| |
|
\ .
2
1
2
f mv then
| |
=
|
+
\ .
m
f
M m
.
Statement-II: Maximum energy loss occurs when
the particles get stuck together as a result of the
collision.
(1) Statement-I is true, Statement-II is true,
Statement-II is a correct explanation of
Statement-I
(2) Statement-I is true, Statement-II is true,
Statement-II is not a correct explanation of
Statement-I
(3) Statement-I is true, Statement-II is false.
(4) Statement-I is false, Statement-II is true.
Answer (4)
Sol. Maximum energy loss is

+
2
1
( 0)
2
Mm
v
M m
=
| |
|
+
\ .
2
1
2
M
mv
M m
So, Statement-1 is wrong.
4. Let [
0
] denote the dimensional formula of the
permittivity of vacuum. If M = mass, L = length,
T = time and A = electric current, then
(1) [
0
] = M
1
L
3
T
2
A]
(2) [
0
] = M
1
L
3
T
4
A
2
]
(3) [
0
] = M
1
L
2
T
1
A
2
]
(4) [
0
] = M
1
L
2
T
1
A]
Answer (2)
Sol.
0
= 8.85 10
12
C
2
N
1
m
2
[
0
] = L
2
A
2
T
2
(MLT
2
)
1
= L
3
A
+2
M
1
T
4
= [M
1
L
3
T
4
A
2
]
(3)
5. A projectile is given an initial velocity of
+

( 2 )m/s i j where

i
is along the ground and

j is
along the vertical. If g = 10 m/s
2
, the equation of its
trajectory is
(1) y = x 5x
2
(2) y = 2x 5x
2
(3) 4y = 2x 5x
2
(4) 4y = 2x 25x
2
Answer (2)
Sol. = u
u
2
2 2
tan
2 cos
gx
y x
u
Here u = = tan 2
y
x
v
v
also u =
1
cos
5
,
= 5 u

= =

2
2
10
2 2 5
1
2 5
5
x
y x x x
6. The amplitude of a damped oscillator decreases to
0.9 times its original magnitude in 5 s. In another
10 s it will decrease to times its original
magnitude, where equals
(1) 0.7 (2) 0.81
(3) 0.729 (4) 0.6
Answer (3)
Sol. In 10 seconds it will become (0.9)
3
= 0.729 times.
7. Two capacitors C
1
and C
2
are charged to 120 V and
200 V respectively. It is found that by connecting
them together the potential on each one can be made
zero. Then
(1) 5C
1
= 3C
2
(2) 3C
1
= 5C
2
(3) 3C
1
+ 5C
2
= 0 (4) 9C
1
= 4C
2
Answer (2)
Sol. For this, charge must be same Q = C
1
V
1
= C
2
V
2
120C
1
= 200C
2
3C
1
= 5C
2
8. A sonometer wire of length 1.5 m is made of steel.
The tension in it produces an elastic strain of 1%.
What is the fundamental frequency of steel if
density and elasticity of steel are 7.7 10
3
kg/m
3
and 2.2 10
11
N/m
2
respectively?
(1) 188.5 Hz (2) 178.2 Hz
(3) 200.5 Hz (4) 770 Hz
Answer (2)
Sol.

= = =

1 1 Stress 1 strain
2 2 Density 2 Density
T
f
l l l


11
3
1
2.2 10
1
100
2 1.5
7.7 10
f
=
6
1 2
10
3 7
=
~
1000 2
178.2 Hz
3 7
9. A circular loop of radius 0.3 cm lies parallel to a
much bigger circular loop of radius 20 cm. The
centre of the small loop is on the axis of the bigger
loop. The distance between their centres is 15 cm. If
a current of 2.0 A flows through the smaller loop,
then the flux linked with bigger loop is
(1) 9.1 10
11
weber
(2) 6 10
11
weber
(3) 3.3 10
11
weber
(4) 6.6 10
9
weber
Answer (1)
Sol. By the principle of reversibility, we can take the
same current through the bigger coil and calculate
the flux through smaller coil.
t
=
t
+
2
0
2 2 3/2
2
4
( )
i R
B
R x
=


t
+
7 2 2
2 2 2 2 3/2
10 2 2 (20 10 )
[(20 10 ) (15 10 ) ]
=

7 2
2 3
10 2 2 4 10
(25 10 )
= 1.024 10
6
T
= 1.024 10
6
(0.3 10
2
)
2
= 9.1 10
11
weber
(4)
10. Diameter of a plano-convex lens is 6 cm and
thickness at the centre is 3 mm. If speed of light in
material of lens is 2 10
8
m/s, the focal length of
the lens is
(1) 15 cm (2) 20 cm
(3) 30 cm (4) 10 cm
Answer (3)
Sol.
R
6 cm
0.3 cm
R
= = 1.5
c
v
R
2
= 3
2
+ (R 0.3)
2
R
2
= 9 + R
2
+ 0.09 0.6R
0.6R = 9.09
R =
9.09
0.6
15 cm.
Now,
= =

15
1 0.5
R
f
= 30 cm.
11. What is the minimum energy required to launch a
satellite of mass m from the surface of a planet of
mass M and radius R in a circular orbit at an
altitude of 2R?
(1)
5
6
GmM
R
(2)
2
3
GmM
R
(3)
2
GmM
R
(4)
3
GmM
R
Answer (1)
Sol. At surface, =
GMm
E
R
In orbit, = =
2(3 ) 6
GMm GMm
E
R R
Required energy =
5
6
GMm
R
12. A diode detector is used to detect an amplitude
modulated wave of 60% modulation by using a
condenser of capacity 250 pico farad in parallel
with a load resistance 100 kilo ohm. Find the
maximum modulated frequency which could be
detected by it.
(1) 10.62 MHz (2) 10.62 kHz
(3) 5.31 MHz (4) 5.31 kHz
Answer (2)
Sol. =
t
1
2
f
RCm
13. A beam of unpolarized light of intensity I
0
is passed
through a polaroid A and then through another
polaroid B which is oriented so that its principal
plane makes an angle of 45 relative to that of A.
The intensity of the emergent light is
(1) I
0
(2)
0
2
I
(3)
0
4
I
(4)
0
8
I
Answer (3)
Sol. =
0
1
2
I
I , = =
2 0
2 1
cos 45
4
I
I I
14. The supply voltage to a room is 120 V. The
resistance of the lead wires is 6 . A 60 W bulb is
already switched on. What is the decrease of voltage
across the bulb, when a 240 W heater is switched
on in parallel to the bulb?
(1) Zero volt (2) 2.9 volt
(3) 13.3 volt (4) 10.04 volt
Answer (4)
Sol.
6 O
120 V
60 W
Heater
(240 W)
Assuming that both bulb and the heater has a rating
of 120 V

= = O
bulb
120 120
240
60
R
R
heater
= 60
Initial current is = =
+
120 120
240 6 246
i
New current is
' = = =
+ +
120 60 120 1 24
48 6 60 240 54 5 54
i
Decrease in voltage =
| |
=
|
\ .
120 24
240 10.4
246 54
V
Nearest answer is (4)
(5)
15.
2p
0
v
0
p
0
p
2v
0 v
The above p-v diagram represents the
thermodynamic cycle of an engine, operating with
an ideal monoatomic gas. The amount of heat,
extracted from the source in a single cycle is
(1) p
0
v
0
(2)
| |
|
\ .
0 0
13
2
p v
(3)
| |
|
\ .
0 0
11
2
p v
(4) 4p
0
v
0
Answer (2)
Sol.
2p
0
v
0
p
0
p
2v
0 v
A B
D
C
Heat is extracted from source in AB & DA
In AB, Q = nC
P
T
= A
5
( )
2
R
Q n T
= =
0 0 0 0 0 0
5
(4 2 ) 5
2
p v p v p v
In DA, Q = nC
V
T
= A =
0 0
3 3
( ) ( )
2 2
R
n T p v
Total =
0 0
13
2
p v
16. A hoop of radius r and mass m rotating with an
angular velocity
0
is placed on a rough horizontal
surface. The initial velocity of the centre of the hoop
is zero. What will be the velocity of the centre of the
hoop when it ceases to slip?
(1)
e
0
4
r
(2)
e
0
3
r
(3)
e
0
2
r
(4) r
0
Answer (3)
Sol. By conservation of angular momentum about a
point on ground
mr
2

r
= mr
2
w + mvr
mr
2

0
= 2 mvr

e
=
0
2
r
v
17. An ideal gas enclosed in a vertical cylindrical
container supports a freely moving piston of mass
M. The piston and the cylinder have equal cross
sectional area A. When the piston is in equilibrium,
the volume of the gas is V
0
and its pressure is P
0
.
The piston is slightly displaced from the equilibrium
position and released. Assuming that the system is
completely isolated from its surrounding, the piston
executes a simple harmonic motion with frequency
(1)

t
0
0
1
2
A P
V M
(2)
t
0 0
2
1
2
V MP
A
(3)

t
2
0
0
1
2
A P
MV
(4)
t
0
0
1
2
MV
A P
Answer (3)
Sol. PV

= constant
Differentiating after taking log
+ = 0
dP dV
P V

=
P dV
dP
V

=
P Ax
dP
V

=
2
restoring
P A x
F
V
Take P = P
0
, V = V
0

= =
t t
2
0
0
1 1
2 2
P A k
f
M V M
(6)
18. If a piece of metal is heated to temperature and
then allowed to cool in a room which is at
temperature
0
, the graph between the temperature
T of the metal and time t will be closest to :
(1)
T
t
o
(2)
T
t
o
u
0
(3)
T
t
o
u
0
(4)
T
t
o
u
0
Answer (3)
Sol. The temperature will decrease exponentially with
time.
19. This question has Statement I and Statement II. Of the
four choices given after the Statements, choose the one that
best describes the two Statements.
Statement - I : Higher the range, greater is the
resistance of ammeter.
Statement - II : To increase the range of ammeter,
additional shunt needs to be used across it.
(1) Statement - I is true, Statement - II is true,
Statement - II is the correct explanation of
Statement-I.
(2) Statement - I is true, Statement - II is true,
Statement - II is not the correct explanation of
Statement-I.
(3) Statement - I is true, Statement - II is false.
(4) Statement - I is false, Statement - II is true.
Answer (4)
Sol. Statement - I is false as shunt is added in parallel.
20. In an LCR circuit as shown below both switches are
open initially. Now switch S
1
is closed, S
2
kept open
(q is charge on the capacitor and = RC is
Capacitive time constant). Which of the following
statement is correct ?
S
1
S
2
R
V
C
L
(1) Work done by the battery is half of the energy
dissipated in the resistor
(2) At t = , q = CV/2
(3) At t = 2 , q = CV(1 e
2
)
(4) At t =
t
2
, q = CV(1 e
1
)
Answer (3)
Sol. It is a simple RC charging circuit.
q = CV (1 e
t/
)
q = CV (1 e
2
), when t = 2
21. Two coherent point sources S
1
and S
2
are separated
by a small distance 'd' as shown. The fringes
obtained on the screen will be :
D
S
1
S
2
d
Screen
(1) Points
(2) Straight lines
(3) Semi - circles
(4) Concentric Circles
Answer (4)
Sol. On any circle with centre at O, path difference will
remain constant.
S
1
S
2
O
22. The magnetic field in a travelling electromagnetic
wave has a peak value of 20 nT. The peak value of
electric field strength is :
(1) 3 V/m
(2) 6 V/m
(3) 9 V/m
(4) 12 V/m
Answer (2)
Sol. =
E
c
B
E = cB = 3 10
8
20 10
9
= 6 V/m
(7)
23. The anode voltage of a photocell is kept fixed. The
wavelength of the light falling on the cathode is
gradually changed. The plate current I of the
photocell varies as follows :
(1)
I

O
(2)
I

O
(3)
I

O
(4)
I

O
Answer (4)
Sol. When wavelength exceeds a certain wavelength,
photoelectric effect ceases to exist.
24. The I - V characteristic of an LED is
(1)
R
e
d
Y
e
l
l
o
w
G
r
e
e
n
B
l
u
e
(Y)(G)(B)
I
O
V
(R)
(2)
Y
G
B
I
O
V
R
(3)
I
O
V
(4)
Y
G
B
I
O
V
R
Answer (1)
Sol. The LED emitting red colour will have a smaller
energy gap between conduction band and valance
band. Accordingly its knee voltage would be less.
25. Assume that a drop of liquid evaporates by decrease
in its surface energy, so that its temperature remains
unchanged. What should be the minimum radius of
the drop for this to be possible? The surface tension
is T, density of liquid is and L is its latent heat of
vaporization.
(1) L/T
(2) / T L
(3) T/L
(4) 2 T/L
Answer (4)
Sol. This could happen if dm L = dA T
4R
2
dR L = 8 RdR T
=

2T
R
L
26. In a hydrogen like atom electron makes transition
from an energy level with quantum number n to
another with quantum number (n 1). If n >> 1, the
frequency of radiation emitted is proportional to
(1)
n
1
(2)
n
2
1
(3)
n
3/2
1
(4)
n
3
1
Answer (4)
Sol.
| |

|
\ .
2 2
1 1
( 1) ( )
f
n n

2 2
2 2
( 1)
( 1)
n n
f
n n
+

2 2
2 2
1 2
( 1)
n n n
f
n n

2 2
2 1
( 1)
n
f
n n
n >> 1

3
1
f
n
(8)
27. The graph between angle of deviation () and angle
of incidence (i) for a triangular prism is represented
by
(1)
O
o
i
(2)
O
o
i
(3)
O
o
i
(4)
O
o
i
Answer (3)
28. Two charges, each equal to q, are kept at x = a and
x = a on the x-axis. A particle of mass m and charge
=
0
2
q
q is placed at the origin. If charge q
0
is given
a small displacement (y << a) along the y-axis, the
net force acting on the particle is proportional to
(1) y (2) y
(3)
1
y
(4)

1
y
Answer (1)
Sol. F
net
= 2F cos
=

+ +
2
2 2 2 2 1/2
2
2( ) ( )
kq y
a y a y
~
2
3
kq y
F
a
F F
q q
o
(
u
y
a a
F y
29. Two short bar magnets of length 1 cm each have
magnetic moments 1.20 Am
2
and 1.00 Am
2
respectively. They are placed on a horizontal table
parallel to each other with their N poles pointing
towards the South. They have a common magnetic
equator and are separated by a distance of 20.0 cm.
The value of the resultant horizontal magnetic
induction at the mid-point O of the line joining
their centres is close to
(Horizontal component of earth's magnetic
induction is 3.6 10
5
Wb/m
2
)
(1) 3.6 10
5
Wb/m
2
(2) 2.56 10
4
Wb/m
2
(3) 3.50 10
4
Wb/m
2
(4) 5.80 10
4
Wb/m
2
Answer (2)
Sol. B
net
= B
1
+ B
2
+ B
H
N S
N S
B B B
1 2 H
+ + South
| |
=
|
t
\ .
0
1
3
4
M
B
r
=

7
3
1.20
10
10
= 1.2 10
4
T
B
2
= 1 10
4
T, B
H
= 3.6 10
5
T
B
net
= 2.56 10
4
T
30. A charge Q is uniformly distributed over a long rod
AB of length L as shown in the figure. The electric
potential at the point O lying at a distance L from
the end A is
O
L L
A B
(1)
tc
0
8
Q
L
(2)
tc
0
3
4
Q
L
(3)
tc
0
4 ln2
Q
L
(4)
tc
0
ln2
4
Q
L
Answer (4)
Sol. =
+
}
kdq
V
L x
=
+
}
L
O
kQ dL
V
L L x
= ln2
kQ
L
=
tc
0
ln2
4
Q
V
L
(9)
31. Which of the following complex species is not
expected to exhibit optical isomerism?
(1) [Co(en)
3
]
3+
(2) [Co(en)
2
Cl
2
]
+
(3) [Co(NH
3
)
3
Cl
3
]
(4) [Co(en)(NH
3
)
2
Cl
2
]
+
Answer (3)
Sol. [Co(NH
3
)
3
Cl
3
) has two geometrical isomers, namely
fac. and mer. Both of them have a plane of
symmetry. So, they are not expected to show optical
isomerism.
Co
Cl
NH
3
Cl
Cl NH
3
NH
3
fac.
Co
NH
3
Cl
Cl Cl
NH
3
mer.
NH
3
32. Which one of the following molecules is expected to
exhibit diamagnetic behaviour?
(1) C
2
(2) N
2
(3) O
2
(4) S
2
Answer (1 & 2)
Sol. The electronic configuration of the given diatomic
molecules is
C
2
:
x y
2 2 2 2 2 2
1s 1s 2s 2s 2p 2p
* * o o o o t t
N
2
:
z
x y
2 2 2 2 2 2 2
1s 1s 2s 2s 2p 2p 2p
* * o o o o t t o
O
2
:
z y
x y x
2 2 2 2 2 2 2 1 1
1s 1s 2s 2s 2p 2p 2p 2p 2p
* * * * o o o o o t t t t
S
2
:
z y
x y x
z z x y x y
2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2
1s 1s 2s 2s 2p 2p 2p 2p 2p
2 2 2 2 2 2 1 1
2p 3s 3s 3p 3p 3p 3p 3p
* * * *
* * * *
o o o o o t t t t
o o o o t t t t
So, C
2
and N
2
are diamagnetic.
33. A solution of () 1 chloro 1 phenylethane in
toluene racemises slowly in the presene of a small
amount of SbCl
5
, due to the formation of
(1) Carbanion (2) Carbene
(3) Carbocation (4) Free radical
Answer (3)
Sol.
CH
3
H C Cl
C H
6 5
()
SbCl
5
C
+
H
CH
3
C H
6 5
+ SbCl
6

H C Cl + Cl C H
CH
3
CH
3
C H
6 5
C H
6 5
(Racemic mix.)
34. Given
3+ 2+
4
0 0
Cr /Cr MnO /Mn
E = 0.74 V; E = 1.51 V
2 3
2 7
+
0 0
Cr O /Cr Cl /Cl
E = 1.33 V; E = 1.36 V
Based on the data given above, strongest oxidising
agent will be
(1) Cl

(2) Cr
3+
(3) Mn
2+
(4)

4
MnO
Answer (4)
Sol. Of the given values of standard reduction potential,
the value of 2
4
MnO /Mn
E
+

is highest. Therefore,
4
MnO

is the strongest reducing agent.


35. A piston filled with 0.04 mol of an ideal gas
expands reversibly from 50.0 mL to 375 mL at a
constant temperature of 37.0C. As it does so, it
absorbs 208 J of heat. The values of q and w for the
process will be
(R = 8.314 J/mol K) (ln 7.5 = 2.01)
(1) q = + 208 J, w = 208 J
(2) q = 208 J, w = 208 J
(3) q = 208 J, w = + 208 J
(4) q = + 208 J, w = + 208 J
Answer (1)
Sol. For isothermal reversible expansion of an ideal gas,
the work done is given by
rev
375
W 0.04 8.314 310 ln
50
=
207.22 208 J =
rev
q W 208 J = = +
PARTB : CHEMISTRY
(10)
36. The molarity of a solution obtained by mixing
750 mL of 0.5 (M) HCl with 250 mL of 2 (M) HCl
will be
(1) 0.875 M
(2) 1.00 M
(3) 1.75 M
(4) 0.975 M
Answer (1)
Sol. The molarity of a solution obtained by mixing
750 mL of 0.5 M HCl with 250 mL of 2 M HCl is
given by
750 0.5 250 2
Molarity 0.875 M
1000
+
= =
37. Arrange the following compounds in order of
decreasing acidity
OH
Cl
(I)
OH
CH
3
(II)
OH
NO
2
(III)
; ; ;
OH
OCH
3
(IV)
(1) II > IV > I > III
(2) I > II > III > IV
(3) III > I > II > IV
(4) IV > III > I > II
Answer (3)
Sol. The acidic strength of the given derivatives of
phenol is decided by the stability of their conjugate
bases. p-nitrophenol is most acidic as I and R
effects of NO
2
group stabilises its conjugate base
most effectively. This is followed by p-chlorophenol
due to I effect of Cl group, p-cresol due to +I and
+H effects of CH
3
group which destabilises its
conjugate base. p-methoxphenol is least acidic due
to +R effect of OCH
3
group.
38. For gaseous state, if most probable speed is denoted
by C
*
, average speed by
C
and mean square speed
by C, then for a large number of molecules the ratios
of these speeds are
(1) =
*
C : C: C 1.225 : 1.128 : 1
(2) =
*
C : C: C 1.128 : 1.225 : 1
(3) =
*
C : C: C 1 : 1.128 : 1.225
(4) =
*
C : C: C 1 : 1.225 : 1.128
Answer (3)*
Sol. The ratio of most probable speed (C*), average speed
(C) and root mean square speed (C) is given by
=
t
*
8
C : C : C 2 : : 3
= 1 : 1.128 : 1.225
*(Note: root mean square speed has been wrongly
written in the question as mean square speed).
39. The rate of a reaction doubles when its temperature
changes from 300 K to 310 K. Activation energy of
such a reaction will be
(R = 8.314 JK
1
mol
1
and log2 = 0.301)
(1) 53.6 kJ mol
1
(2) 48.6 kJ mol
1
(3) 58.5 kJ mol
1
(4) 60.5 kJ mol
1
Answer (1)
Sol.
(
=
(

a 2
1 1 2
E k 1 1
log
k 2.303R T T
(
=
(


a
E 1 1
log 2
2.303 8.314 300 310

=
a
0.301 2.303 8.314 300 310
E
10

1 1
53600 J mol or 53.6 kJ mol
40. A compound with molecular mass 180 is acylated
with CH
3
COCl to get a compound with molecular
mass 390. The number of amino groups present per
molecule of the former compound is
(1) 2 (2) 5
(3) 4 (4) 6
Answer (2)
Sol.
+
+ +
2 3 3
M M 42
R NH CH COCl RNHCOCH HCl
If the increase in molecular mass is 42, the reactant
has one NH
2
group.
Actual increase in molecular mass = 390 180 = 210
Number of NH
2
groups = =
210
5
42
(11)
41. Which of the following arrangements does not
represent the correct order of the property stated
against it?
(1) V
2+
< Cr
2+
< Mn
2+
< Fe
2+
: paramagnetic
behaviour
(2) Ni
2+
< Co
2+
< Fe
2+
< Mn
2+
: ionic size
(3) Co
3+
< Fe
3+
< Cr
3+
< Sc
3+
: stability in aqueous
solution
(4) Sc < Ti < Cr < Mn : number of oxidation states
Answer (1)
Sol. Number of unpaired electrons of V
2+
, Cr
2+
, Mn
2+
and
Fe
2+
are 3, 4, 5 and 4 respectively. Hence the given
order of paramagnetic behaviour is incorrect.
42. The order of stability of the following carbocations
CH = CH CH; CH CH CH;
2 2 3 2 2
I II
CH
2

III

is
(1) III > II > I (2) II > III > I
(3) I > II > III (4) III > I > II
Answer (4)
Sol. Benzyl carbocation (III) is more stable than allyl
carbocation (I) as it has more number of resonating
structures. n-propyl carbocation (II) is least stable as
it is stabilised by +I and +H effects of ethyl group.
43. Consider the following reaction:
+
+ +
2
4 2 4
xMnO yC O zH
+
+ +
2
2 2
z
xMn 2yCO H O
2
The values of x, y and z in the reaction are,
respectively
(1) 5, 2 and 16 (2) 2, 5 and 8
(3) 2, 5 and 16 (4) 5, 2 and 8
Answer (3)
Sol.
+ +
+ + +
2 2
4 2 4 2 2
2MnO 5C O 16H 2Mn 10CO 8H O
44. Which of the following is the wrong statement ?
(1) ONCl and ONO

are not isoelectronic.


(2) O
3
molecule is bent.
(3) Ozone is violet-black in solid state.
(4) Ozone is diamagnetic gas.
Answer (No correct answer)
Sol. All the four given options are correct.
45. A gaseous hydrocarbon gives upon combustion
0.72 g of water and 3.08 g of CO
2
. The empirical
formula of the hydrocarbon is
(1) C
2
H
4
(2) C
3
H
4
(3) C
6
H
5
(4) C
7
H
8
Answer (4)
Sol.
| |
+ + +
|
\ .
x y 2 2 2
y y
C H x O xCO H O
4 2
Number of moles of = = =
2
3.08
CO 0.07; x 0.07
44
Number of moles of
= = =
2
0.72
H O 0.04; y 0.08
18
x : y = 7 : 8.
Therefore, empirical formula of hydrocarbon is C
7
H
8
46. In which of the following pairs of molecules/ions,
both the species are not likely to exist ?
(1)
+ 2
2 2
H , He (2)
2
2 2
H , He
(3)
+ 2
2 2
H , He (4)
+ 2
2 2
H , He
Answer (3)
Sol. Bond order of each of
+ 2
2
H and He
2
is zero.
47. Which of the following exists as covalent crystals in
the solid state ?
(1) Iodine (2) Silicon
(3) Sulphur (4) Phosphorus
Answer (2)
Sol. Silicon is a covalent crystal in which silicon atoms
are covalently bonded to give three dimensional
network.
48. Synthesis of each molecule of glucose in
photosynthesis involves
(1) 18 molecules of ATP
(2) 10 molecules of ATP
(3) 8 molecules of ATP
(4) 6 molecules of ATP
Answer (1)
Sol. 3 ATP molecules are needed per molecule of CO
2
.
Since one molecule of glucose has 6 C-atoms, the
number of ATP molecules required is 18.
(12)
49. The coagulating power of electrolytes having ions
Na
+
, Al
3+
and Ba
2+
for arsenic sulphide sol increases
in the order
(1) Al
3+
< Ba
2+
< Na
+
(2) Na
+
< Ba
2+
< Al
3+
(3) Ba
2+
< Na
+
< Al
3+
(4) Al
3+
< Na
+
< Ba
2+
Answer (2)
Sol. The coagulating power of cation to cause
coagulation of arsenic sulphide sol increases with
the increase of valency of the cation.
50. Which of the following represents the correct order
of increasing first ionization enthalpy for Ca, Ba, S,
Se and Ar?
(1) Ca < S < Ba < Se < Ar
(2) S < Se < Ca < Ba < Ar
(3) Ba < Ca < Se < S < Ar
(4) Ca < Ba < S < Se < Ar
Answer (3)
Sol. The increasing order of first ionisation enthalphy of
the given elements is Ba < Ca < Se < S < Ar .
51. Energy of an electron is given by

| |
=
|
\ .
2
18
2
Z
E 2.178 10 J .
n
Wavelength of light
required to excite an electron in an hydrogen atom
form level n = 1 to n = 2 will be
(h = 6.62 10
34
Js and c = 3.0 10
8
ms
1
)
(1) 1.214 10
7
m
(2) 2.816 10
7
m
(3) 6.500 10
7
m
(4) 8.500 10
7
m
Answer (1)
Sol.

=
18
1
E 2.178 10 J

| |
=
|
\ .
18
2
1
E 2.178 10 J
4

= =

18
2 1
hc 3
E E 2.178 10
4


= =

34 8
7
18
6.62 10 3 10 4
1.214 10 m
2.178 3 10
52. Compound (A), C
8
H
9
Br, gives a white precipitate
when warmed with alcoholic AgNO
3
. Oxidation of
(A) gives an acid (B), C
8
H
6
O
4
. (B) easily forms
anhydride on heating. Identify the compound (A).
(1)
CH Br
2
CH
3
(2)
C H
2 5
Br
(3)
CH
3
CH Br
2
(4)
CH Br
2
CH
3
Answer (4)
Sol.
CHBr
2
CH
3
alc. AgNO
3
CHNO
2 3
CH
3

+ AgBr
(Light yellow ppt.)
(A)
Oxidation
COOH
COOH
A
CO
CO
O + HO
2
(B)
Note: Compound (A) reacts with alc. AgNO
3
to give
light yellow ppt. of AgBr and not white ppt. as
given in the question.
53. Four successive members of the first row transition
elements are listed below with atomic numbers.
Which one of them is expected to have the highest
+ + 3 2
0
M /M
E
value?
(1) Cr (Z = 24)
(2) Mn (Z = 25)
(3) Fe (Z = 26)
(4) Co (Z = 27)
Answer (4)
Sol. Cobalt has the highest value of
+ +
= +
3 2
Co /Co
E 1.97 V.
Other values of standard reduction potential are
+ +
= +
3 2
Mn /Mn
E 1.57 V,
+ +

= +
3 2
Fe /Fe
E 0 0.77 V and
+ +

=
3 2
Cr /Cr
E 0.41 V
.
(13)
54. How many litres of water must be added to 1 litre
of an aqueous solution of HCl with a pH of 1 to
create an aqueous solution with pH of 2?
(1) 0.1 L (2) 0.9 L
(3) 2.0 L (4) 9.0 L
Answer (4)
Sol. [H
+
] of the given HCl solution = 0.1 M
Let x litre of water be added to 1 litre of the given
HCl solution to get pH = 2 or [H
+
] = 10
2
M
= =
+
0.1
0.01 x 9 litre
1 x
55. The first ionisation potential of Na is 5.1 eV. The
value of electron gain enthalpy of Na
+
will be
(1) 2.55 eV (2) 5.1 eV
(3) 10.2 eV (4) +2.55 eV
Answer (2)
Sol.
IE
Na(g) Na (g) e, H 5.1 eV
+
+ A = +
eg
Na (g) e Na(g), H 5.1 eV
+
+ A =
56. An organic compound A upon reacting with NH
3
gives B. On heating, B gives C. C in presence of
KOH reacts with Br
2
to give CH
3
CH
2
NH
2
. A is
(1) CH
3
COOH
(2) CH
3
CH
2
CH
2
COOH
(3) CH
3
CH COOH
CH
3
(4) CH
3
CH
2
COOH
Answer (4)
Sol.
CH CH COOH + NH
3 2 3
CH CH CO NH
3 2 2 4
CH CH CONH
3 2 2 2
+ H O CH CH NH
3 2 2
(A) (B)
(C)
KOH + Br
2
A
57. Stability of the species Li
2
, Li
2

and Li
2
+
increases in
the order of
(1) Li
2
< Li
2
+
< Li
2

(2) Li
2

< Li
2
+
< Li
2
(3) Li
2
< Li
2

< Li
2
+
(4) Li
2

< Li
2
< Li
2
+
Answer (2)
Sol.
2 2 2
*
2 1s 1s 1s
Li : o o o Bond order = 1
2 2 1
*
2 1s 1s 2s
Li :
+
o o o Bond order = 0.5
2 2 2 1
* *
2 1s 1s 2s 2s
Li :

o o o o Bond order = 0.5


2
Li

is less stable than


2
Li
+
because the incoming
electron goes to antibonding molecular orbital.
58. An unknown alcohol is treated with the "Lucas
reagent" to determine whether the alcohol is
primary, secondary or tertiary. Which alcohol reacts
fastest and by what mechanism?
(1) Secondary alcohol by S
N
1
(2) Tertiary alcohol by S
N
1
(3) Secondary alcohol by S
N
2
(4) Tertiary alcohol by S
N
2
Answer (2)
Sol. Tertiary alcohol gives instant turbidity with Lucas
reagent and the reaction follows S
N
1 mechanism
due to stability of tertiary carbocation.
59. The gas leaked from a storage tank of the Union
Carbide plant in Bhopal gas tragedy was
(1) Methylisocyanate (2) Methylamine
(3) Ammonia (4) Phosgene
Answer (1)
Sol. Methylisocynate (CH
3
NCO) a deadly poisonous gas
leaked from a storage tank of the Union Carbide
Plant in Bhopal gas tragedy.
60. Experimentally it was found that a metal oxide has
formula M
0.98
O. Metal M, is present as M
2+
and M
3+
in its oxide. Fraction of the metal which exists as
M
3+
would be
(1) 7.01% (2) 4.08%
(3) 6.05% (4) 5.08%
Answer (2)
Sol. Let the number of moles of M
3+
be x and that of M
2+
is (0.98 x)
Number of moles of oxide ions =
3x
0.98 x 1
2
+ =
or, x = 0.04
Percentage of M
3+
= 4.08%
(14)
61. Distance between two parallel planes 2x + y + 2z = 8
and 4x + 2y + 4z + 5 = 0 is
(1)
3
2
(2)
5
2
(3)
7
2
(4)
9
2
Answer (3)
Sol. Distance between the planes
+
= =
5
8
7
2
units
3 2
62. At present, a firm is manufacturing 2000 items. It is
estimated that the rate of change of production P
w.r.t. additional number of workers x is given by
= 100 12
dP
x
dx
. If the firm employs 25 more
workers, then the new level of production of items
is
(1) 2500 (2) 3000
(3) 3500 (4) 45000
Answer (3)
Sol.
( )
=
} }
25
2000 0
100 12
P
dp x dx
P 2000 = 2500
2
12 125
3
= 1500
P = 3500
63. Let A and B be two sets containing 2 elements and
4 elements respectively. The number of subsets of
A B having 3 or more elements is
(1) 256 (2) 220
(3) 219 (4) 211
Answer (3)
Sol. n(A B) = 2 4 = 8
The number of subsets of A B having 3 or more
elements.
=
8
C
3
+
8
C
4
+ ... +
8
C
8
= 2
8

8
C
0

8
C
1

8
C
2
= 256 1 8 28
= 219
64. If the lines

= =

3 2 4
1 1
y x z
k
and

= =
4 1 5
2 1
y x z
k
are coplanar, then k can have
(1) Any value (2) Exactly one value
(3) Exactly two values (4) Exactly three values
Answer (3)
Sol. Given lines are coplanar if
1 1
2 1
1 1 1
k
k = 0
1 ( 2 + 1) 1 ( k 1) k ( k 2) = 0
1 + k + 1 + k
2
+ 2k = 0
k = 0 or 3
Exactly two values of k.
65. If the vectors = +


3 4 AB i k and = +


5 2 4 AC i j k are
the sides of a triangle ABC, then the length of the
median through A is
(1)
18
(2)
72
(3)
33
(4)
45
Answer (3)
Sol.

AD =

2
AB + AC
A B
D
C
5


2

+

4
i
j
k
3 + 4 i k
=
( ) ( )

2 j + + 3 + 4 5 4
2
i k i k
=

j + 4 4 i k


| | AD = 16 + 1 + 16 =
33
PARTC : MATHEMATICS
(15)
66. The real number k for which the equation
+ + =
3
2 3 0 x x k
has two distinct real roots in [0, 1]
(1) Lies between 1 and 2
(2) Lies between 2 and 3
(3) Lies between 1 and 0
(4) Does not exist
Answer (4)
Sol. Let f(x) = 2x
3
+ 3x + k
f (x) = 6x
2
+ 3 > 0,

x R
f(x) is strictly increasing function for all real
values of k.
No real k exists such that equation has two
distinct roots in [0, 1].
67. The sum of first 20 terms of the sequence
0.7, 0.77, 0.777, ......, is
(1)

20
7
(179 10 )
81
(2)

20
7
(99 10 )
9
(3)

+
20
7
(179 10 )
81
(4)

+
20
7
(99 10 )
9
Answer (3)
Sol. S = 0.7 + 0.77 + 0.777 + ... upto 20 terms
= | | .9 .99 .999 .... + + +
7
9
=
7
9
( ) ( ) ( ) (
(
(

1 0.1 + 1 0.01 + 1 0.001
+ ...upto 20 terms
=
( | |
| (
\ .
2 3 20
7 1 1 1 1
20 + + + ... +
9 10 10 10 10
=
20
1 1
1
10 10
1
1
10
| | | |
| |
\ .
|
| | |
| |
\ . \ .
7
20
9
=
( | |
| (
\ .
20
7 1 1
20 1
9 9 10
= 20
1
10
(
(

7
179 +
81
(
= +

20
7
179 10
81
68. A ray of light along + = 3 3 x y gets reflected
upon reaching x-axis, the equation of the reflected
ray is
(1) = + 3 y x (2) = 3 3 y x
(3) = 3 3 y x (4) = 3 1 y x
Answer (2)
Sol.
30
0
( 3, 0) \
y
x
Reflected ray
o
Slope of incident ray =

1
3
= 150
Slope of reflected ray = tan30
=
1
3
Reflected ray is y =
1
( 3)
3
x
= 3 3 y x
69. The number of values of k, for which the system of
equations
(k + 1)x + 8y = 4k
kx + (k + 3)y = 3k 1
has no solution, is
(1) Infinite (2) 1
(3) 2 (4) 3
Answer (2)
Sol.
+
=
+
1 8
0
3
k
k k
k
2
+ 4k + 3 8k = 0
k = 1, 3
When k = 1, equation change to
2x + 8y = 4 x + 4y = 2
and x + 4y = 2 x + 4y = 2
Infinitely many solutions
When k = 3
4x + 8y = 12 k + 2y = 3
and 3x + 6y = 8 and x + 2y =
8
3
No solution
One value of k exists for which system of
equation has no solution.
(16)
70. If the equations x
2
+ 2x + 3 = 0 and ax
2
+ bx + c = 0,
a, b, c R, have a common root, then a : b : c is
(1) 1 : 2 : 3 (2) 3 : 2 : 1
(3) 1 : 3 : 2 (4) 3 : 1 : 2
Answer (1)
Sol. The equation x
2
+ 2x + 3 = 0 has complex roots
and coefficients of both equations are real.
Both roots are common.

= =
1 2 3
a b c
71. The circle passing through (1, 2) and touching the
axis of x at (3, 0) also passes through the point
(1) (5, 2) (2) (2, 5)
(3) (5, 2) (4) (2, 5)
Answer (3)
Sol. Let the circle be (x 3)
2
+ (y + k)
2
= k
2
(3, ) k
It passes through (1, 2)
4 + (4 + k
2
4k) = k
2
k = 2
The circle is (x 3)
2
+ (y + 2)
2
= 4
Clearly the point (5, 2) lies on it.
72. If x, y, z are in A.P. and tan
1
x, tan
1
y and tan
1
z are
also in A.P., then
(1) x = y = z (2) 2x = 3y = 6z
(3) 6x = 3y = 2z (4) 6x = 4y = 3z
Answer (1)
Sol. 2y = x + z and 2tan
1
y =
+ | |
|

\ .
1
tan
1
x z
xz

+
=

2
2
1 1
y x z
xy y
=
2
y xz
x, y, z are in GP
x = y = z
73. Consider :
Statement - I : (p q) ( p q) is a fallacy.
Statement - II : (p q) ( q p) is a
tautology.
(1) Statement - I is true; Statement-II is true;
Statement - II is a correct explanation for
Statement - I.
(2) Statement - I is true; Statement - II is true;
Statement-II is not a correct explanation for
Statement-I.
(3) Statement-I is true; Statement - II is false.
(4) Statement - I is false; Statement - II is true.
Answer (2)
Sol.
= = ( ) (~ ~ )
T T F F T T
T F F T F F
F T T F T T
F F T T T T
p q a p q b q p ~ p ~ q
. . . ( ~ ) (~ )
T F
T F
T F
T F
a b p q p q
74. If =
}
( ) ( ), f x dx x then
}
5 3
( ) x f x dx is equal to
(1)
(
+

}
3 3 2 3
1
( ) ( )
3
x x x x dx C
(2) ( )
+
}
3 3 3 3
1
3 ( )
3
x x x x dx C
(3) ( )
+
}
3 3 2 3
1
( )
3
x x x x dx C
(4) ( )
(
+

}
3 3 3 3
1
( )
3
x x x x dx C
Answer (3)
Sol.
}
5 3
( ) x f x dx
=
}
3 3 2
1
( ) 3
3
x f x x dx
( )
=
} } }
3 3 2 2 3 2
1 1
( ) 3 3 ( ) 3
3 3
x f x x dx x f x x dx dx
= +
}
3 3 2 3
1
( ) ( )
3
x x x x dx C
(17)
75.

+
0
(1 cos 2 )(3 cos )
tan 4 x
x x
lim
x x
is equal to
(1)
1
4
(2)
1
2
(3) 1 (4) 2
Answer (4)
Sol.

2
0
2
2sin (3 cos )
lim
tan 4
4
4
x
x x
x
x
x

= =
2 4
2
4
76. Statement - I :
The value of the integral
t
t
+
}
3
6
1 tan
dx
x
is equal to
t
6
Statement - II :
= +
} }
( ) ( ) .
b b
a a
f x dx f a b x dx
(1) Statement - I is true; Statement - II is true;
Statement - II is a correct explanation for
Statement - I.
(2) Statement - I is true; Statement - II is true;
Statement - II is not a correct explanation for
Statement - I.
(3) Statement - I is true; Statement - II is false.
(4) Statement - I is false; Statement - II is true.
Answer (4)
Sol. Statement (1)
3
6
1 tan
t
t
=
+
}
dx
I
x

3
6
1 cot
t
t
=
+
}
dx
I
x

3
6
2
t
t
=
}
I dx
2
6
t
= I
12
t
= I
Statement (1) is false, Statement (2) is true.
77. The equation of the circle passing through the foci
of the ellipse + =
2 2
1
16 9
y x
, and having centre at
(0, 3) is
(1) x
2
+ y
2
6y 7 = 0
(2) x
2
+ y
2
6y + 7 = 0
(3) x
2
+ y
2
6y 5 = 0
(4) x
2
+ y
2
6y + 5 = 0
Answer (1)
Sol.
2 2
1
16 9
+ =
y x
9 = 16 (1 e
2
)
2
7
16
= e
7
4
= e
( 7, 0) foci
Equation of required circle is
(x 0)
2
+ (y 3)
2
= 7 + 9
x
2
+ y
2
6y 7 = 0
78. A multiple choice examination has 5 questions.
Each question has three alternative answers of
which exactly one is correct. The probability that a
student will get 4 or more correct answers just by
guessing is
(1)
5
17
3
(2)
5
13
3
(3)
5
11
3
(4)
5
10
3
Answer (3)
Sol. Required probability
| | | | | |
= +
| | |
\ . \ . \ .
4 5
5 5
4 5
1 2 1
3 3 3
C C
= +
5
1 2 1
5
81 3 3
5 5 5
10 1 11
3 3 3
= + =
(18)
79. The x-coordinate of the incentre of the triangle that
has the coordinates of mid points of its sides as
(0, 1), (1, 1) and (1, 0) is
(1) + 2 2 (2) 2 2
(3) + 1 2 (4) 1 2
Answer (2)
Sol.
(1, 1)
(2, 0) (1, 0)
(0, 2)
(0, 1)
A
B
O (0, 0)
Required triangle is OAB
So, x co-ordinate of incentre
2 0 2 2 2 2 0
2 2 2 2
+ +
=
+ +
4
4 2 2
=
+
2
2 2
=
+
2 2 =
80. The term independent of x in expansion of
| |
+
|
|
+ \ .
10
2 1 1
3 3 2
1 1
1
x x
x x x x
is
(1) 4 (2) 120
(3) 210 (4) 310
Answer (3)
Sol. Given expression can be written as
( ) { }
10
1/2
10
1/3 1/3 1/2
1/2
1
1

| | +
+ =
`
|
\ .

)
x
x x x
x
General term =
( ) ( )
10
10 1/3 1/2



r r
r
C x x
From question,
10
0
3 3 2
=
r r
r = 4
i.e., constant term
10
4
210 = = C
81. The area (in square units) bounded by the curves
y = + = , 2 3 0 x y x , x-axis, and lying in the first
quadrant is
(1) 9 (2) 36
(3) 18 (4)
27
4
Answer (1)
Sol.
(3, 0)
(9, 3)
Required area
9
0
1
6 3
2
=
}
x dx
= 18 9 = 9
82. Let T
n
be the number of all possible triangles formed
by joining vertices of an n-sided regular polygon. If
T
n+1
T
n
= 10, then the value of n is :
(1) 7 (2) 5
(3) 10 (4) 8
Answer (2)
Sol.
1
3 3
10
+
=
n n
C C

2
10 =
n
C
n = 5
83. If z is a complex number of unit modulus and
argument , then arg
+ | |
|
\ . +
1
1
z
z
equals
(1) (2)
t
u
2
(3) (4)
Answer (3)
Sol.
1
arg
1
+ | |
|
\ . +
z
z
arg
1
+ | |
=
|
\ . +
zz z
z
= arg (z)
=
(19)
84. ABCD is a trapezium such that AB and CD are
parallel and BC CD. If ADB = , BC = p and
CD = q, then AB is equal to
(1)
+ u
u + u
2 2
( )sin
cos sin
p q
p q
(2)
+ u
u + u
2 2
cos
cos sin
p q
p q
(3)
+
u + u
2 2
2 2
cos sin
p q
p q
(4)
+ u
u + u
2 2
2
( )sin
( cos sin )
p q
p q
Answer (1)
Sol.
u
q
C
p
B A
D
o
o
p
q
2
2

+

=
u u+ o sin sin( )
AB BD

+ u
=
u o+ u o
2 2
sin
sin cos cos sin
p q
AB
+ u
=
u + u
+ +
2 2
2 2 2 2
sin
sin cos
p q
q p
p q p q
2
+ u
=
u + u
2
( )sin
cos sin
p q
p q
85. If
o (
(
=
(
(

1 3
1 3 3
2 4 4
P is the adjoint of a 3 3 matrix A
and |A| = 4, then is equal to
(1) 4 (2) 11
(3) 5 (4) 0
Answer (2)
Sol.
o (
(
(

1 3
1 3 3
2 4 4
|P| = 1(12 12) (4 6) + 3(4 6)
= 2 6
Also, |P| = |A|
2
= 16
2 = 22
= 11
86. The intercepts on x-axis made by tangents to the
curve, = e
}
0
| | ,
x
y t dt x R , which are parallel to the
line y = 2x, are equal to
(1) 1 (2) 2
(3) 3 (4) 4
Answer (1)
Sol. =
}
0
x
y t dt
= = | | 2
dy
x
dx
x = 2
Case-1, x = 2
= =
}
2
0
2 y t dt
Equation of tangent is y 2 = 2(x 2)
+ =

1
2 1
y x
x-intercept = 1
When x = 2

(
= =
(

}
2
2 2
0 0
2
t
y t dt
= 2
y + 2 = 2(x + y)
y = 2x + 2
Hence, here x-intercept is 1
x-intercepts = 1
(20)
87. Given : A circle, 2x
2
+ 2y
2
= 5 and a parabola,
=
2
4 5 y x
Statement-I : An equation of a common tangent to
these curves is = + 5 y x .
Statement-II : If the line, = +
5
y mx
m
(m 0) is their
common tangent, then m satisfies m
4
3m
2
+ 2 = 0.
(1) Statement-I is true; statement-II is true;
statement-II is a correct explanation for
statement-I
(2) Statement-I is true; statement-II is true;
statement-II is not a correct explanation for
statement-I
(3) Statement-I is true; statement-II is false
(4) Statement-I is false; statement-II, is true
Answer (2)
Sol.
+ =
2 2
5
2
x y
=
2
4 5 y x
Equation of tangent to parabola is
= +
5
y mx
m
(i)
For circle,
= +
2
5
1
2
y mx m
(ii)
(i) and (ii) are identical,
= +
2
2
5 5
(1 )
2
m
m
2 = m
4
+ m
2
m
4
+ m
2
2 = 0
m = 1
which satisfy given equation
Statement (1) is true and statement (2) is true.
88. If

=
1
sec(tan ), y x then
dy
dx
at x = 1 is equal to
(1)
1
2
(2)
1
2
(3) 1 (4) 2
Answer (1)
Sol.
( )
= + = +
1 2 2
secsec 1 1 y x x
=
+
2
1
dy x
dx
x
=
| |
=
|
\ .
1
1
2
x
dy
dx
89. The expression
+

tan cot
1 cot 1 tan
A A
A A
can be written
as
(1) sinA cosA + 1 (2) secA cosecA + 1
(3) tanA + cotA (4) secA + cosecA
Answer (2)
Sol.
+

tan cot
1 cot 1 tan
A A
A A
= +

2
tan cot
tan 1 1 tan
A A
A A

2
tan cot
tan 1
A A
A

3
tan 1
tan (tan 1)
A
A A
+ +
=
2
tan tan 1
tan
A A
A
= tanA + 1 + cotA
= + +
sin cos
1
cos sin
A A
A A
+
=
1 sin cos
sin cos
A A
A A
= 1 + secA cosecA
90. All the students of a class performed poorly in
Mathematics. The teacher decided to give grace
marks of 10 to each of the students. Which of the
following statistical measures will not change even
after the grace marks were given?
(1) Mean (2) Median
(3) Mode (4) Variance
Answer (4)
Sol. With increase in data, mean will also increase by
the same, hence variance will remain unchanged.