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Spin Algebra

Spin is the intrinsic angular momentum associated with fundamental particles. To understand spin, we must understand the quantum mechanical properties of angular momentum. The spin is denoted by S. In the last lecture, we established that:

S = Sx x + Sy y + Sz z

2 2 2 S2 = Sx + Sy + Sz

[Sx , Sy ] = i Sz [Sy , Sz ] = i Sx [Sz , Sx ] = i Sy [S2 , Si ] = 0 for i = x, y, z Because S2 commutes with Sz , there must exist an orthonormal basis consisting entirely of simultaneous eigenstates of S2 and Sz . (We proved that rule in a previous lecture.) Since each of these basis states is an eigenvector of both S2 and Sz , they can be written with the notation a, b , where a denotes the eigenvalue of S2 and b denotes the eigenvalue of Sz . Now, it will turn out that a and b cant be just any numbers. The word quantum in quantum mechanics refers to the fact that many operators have quantized eigenvalues eigenvalues that can only take on a limited, discrete set of values. (In the example of the position and momentum, from previous lectures, the position and momentum eigenvalues were not discrete or quantized in this sense; they were continuous. However, the energy of the particle on a ring was quantized.) Question: What values a and b can have? Well give away the answer rst, and most of the lecture will be spent proving this answer: Answer: a can equal 2 n(n + 1), where n is an integer or half of an integer Given that a = (n), (n + 1), . . . (n 2), (n 1), n. Now, lets prove it. First, dene the raising and lowering operators S+ and S : S+ Sx + iSy , S Sx iSy Lets nd the commutators of these operators: [Sz , S+ ] = [Sz , Sx ] + i[Sz , Sy ] = i Sy + i(i Sx ) = (Sx + iSy ) = S+ Therefore [Sz , S+ ] = S+ . Similarly, [Sz , S ] = S .

C/CS/Phys 191, Fall 2003, Lecture 10 1

2 n(n + 1), b

can equal

Now act S+ on a, b . Is the resulting state still an eigenvector of S2 ? If so, does it have the same eigenvalues a and b, or does it have new ones? First, consider S2 : What is S2 (S+ a, b )? Since [S2 , S+ ] = 0, the S2 eigenvalue is unchanged: S2 (S+ a, b ) = S+ (S2 a, b ) = S+ (a s, m ) = a(S+ a, b ). The new state is also an eigenstate of S2 with eigenvalue a. Now, consider Sz : What is Sz (S+ a, b )? Here, [Sz , S+ ] = S+ (= 0). That is, Sz S+ S+ Sz = S+ . So Sz S+ = S+ Sz + S+ , and:

Sz (S+ a, b ) = (S+ Sz + S+ ) a, b = (S+ b + S+ ) a, b Sz (S+ a, b ) = (b + )S+ a, b Therefore S+ a, b is an eigenstate of Sz . But S+ raises the Sz eigenvalue of a, b by state a, b to a, b + . but S+ raises the Sz eigenvalue of s, m by ! ! S+ changes the

Similarly, Sz (S s, m ) = (b )(S a, b ) (Homework.) So S lowers the eigenvalue of Sz by . Now, remember that S is like an angular momentum. S2 represents the square of the magnitude of the angular momentum; and Sz represents the z-component. But suppose you keep hitting s, m with S+ . The eigenvalue of S2 will not change, but the eigenvalue of Sz keeps increasing. If we keep doing this enough, the eigenvalue of Sz will grow larger than the square root of the eigenvalue of S2 . That is, the z-component of the angular momentum vector will in some sense be larger than the magnitude of the angular momentum vector. That doesnt make a lot of sense . . . perhaps we made a mistake somewhere? Or a fault assumption? What unwarranted assumption did we make? Heres our mistake: we forgot about the ket 0, which acts like an eigenvector of any operator, with any eigenvalue. I dont mean the ket 0 ; I mean the ket 0. For instance, if we were dealing with qubits, any ket could be represented as the 0 + 1 . What ket do you get if you set both and to 0? You get the ket 0. Which is not the same as 0 . Remember in our proof above when we concluded that Sz (S+ a, b ) = (b + )S+ a, b ? Well, if S+ a, b = 0, then this would be true in a trivial way. That is, Sz 0 = (b + ) 0 = 0. But that doesnt mean that we have succesfully used S+ to increase the eigenvalue of Sz by . All weve done is annihilate our ket. So the resolution to our dilemma must be that if you keep hitting a, b with S+ , you must eventually get 0. Let a, btop (a) be the last ket we get before we reach 0. (btop (a) is the top value of b that we can reach, for this value of a.) We expect that btop (a) is no bigger than the square root of a. Then Sz a, btop (a) = btop (a) a, btop (a) . Similarly, there must exist a bottom state a, bbot (a) , such that S a, bbot (a) = 0. And Sz a, bbot (a) = bbot (a) a, bbot (a) . Now consider the operator S+ S = (Sx + iSy )(Sx iSy ). Multiplying out the terms and using the commutation relations, we get

C/CS/Phys 191, Fall 2003, Lecture 10 2

2 + S2 i(S S S S ) = S2 S2 + S S+ S = Sx x y y x z y z

Hence

2 S2 = S+ S + Sz Sz

(1)

Similarly

2 S2 = S S+ + Sz + Sz

(2)

= (0 + btop (a)2 + btop (a)) a, btop (a) = btop (a)(btop (a) + ) a, btop (a)

= (0 + bbot (a)2 bbot (a)) a, bbot (a) = bbot (a)(bbot (a) ) a, bbot (a)

So the rst ket has S2 eigenvalue a = btop (a)(btop (a) + ), and the second ket has S2 eigenvalue a = 2 b (a)(b (a) ). bot bot But we know that the action of S+ and S on a, b leaves the eigenvalue of S2 unchanged. An we got from a, btop (a) to a, bbot (a) by applying the lowering operator many times. So the value of a is the same for the two kets. Therefore btop (a)(btop (a) + ) = bbot (a)(bbot (a) ). This equation has two solutions: bbot (a) = btop (a) + , and bbot (a) = btop (a). But bbot (a) must be smaller than btop (a), so only the second solution works. Therefore bbot (a) = btop (a). Hence b, which is the eigenvalue of Sz , ranges from btop (a) to btop (a). Furthermore, since S lowers this value by each time it is applied, these two values must differ by an integer multiple of . Therefore btop (a) (btop (a)) = N for some N . So btop (a) = N 2 . Hence btop (a) is an integer or half integer multiple of . Now well dene two variables called s and m, which will be very important in our notation later on. Lets dene s

btop (a)

3 2

And lets dene m b . Then m ranges from s to s. For instance, if btop (a) = f rac32 , then s = 1 1 3 can equal 3 2 , 2 , 2 , or 2 .

C/CS/Phys 191, Fall 2003, Lecture 10

and m

Then:

a=

s(s + 1)b = m

Since a is completely determined by s, and b is completely determined by m, we can label our kets as s, m (instead of a, b ) without any ambiguity. For instance, the ket s, m = 2, 1 is the same as the ket a, b = 6 2 , . In fact, all physicists label spin kets with s and m, not with a and b. (The letters s and m are standard notation, but a and b are not.) We will use the standard s, m notation from now on. For each value of s, there is a family of allowed values of m, as we proved. Here they are: (table omitted for now) Fact of Nature: Every fundamental particle has its own special value of s and can have no other. m can change, but s does not. If s is an integer, than the particle is a boson. (Like photons; s = 1)

1 If s is a half-integer, then the particle is a fermion. (like electrons, s = 2 )

So, which spin s is best for qubits? Spin 1 . m= 2 The two possible spin states s, m are then

1 2

1 The rest of this lecture will only concern spin- 1 2 particles. (That is, particles for which s = 2 ). 1 1 2, 2

and

1 1 2,2

1 Since the s quantum number doesnt change, we only care about m = 2 . 1 ): Possible labels for the two states (m = 2

1 1 2, 2

+ 0

1 1 2,2

All of these labels are frequently used, but lets stick with 0 , 1 , since thats the convention in this class.

Remember:

0 = 1 =

= state representing ang. mom. w/ z-comp. up = state representing ang. mom. w/ z-comp. down

1 So we have derived the eigenvectors and eigenvalues of the spin for a spin- 2 system, like an electron or proton:

S2 0 S2 1 Sz 0 Sz 1

= = = =

2 2

s(s + 1) 0 = s(s + 1) 1 =

21

1 3 ( + 1) 0 = 2 2 4

2

3 4

m0 =

1 0 2 1 m 1 = 0 2

Results of measurements: S2

3 2 4 , Sz

+ 2, 2

1 space, Since Sz is a Hamiltonian operator, 0 and 1 from an orthonormal basis that spans the spin- 2 which is isomorphic to C .

1 2

state is = 0 + 1 =

Question: How do we represent the spin operators (S2 , Sx , Sy , Sz ) in the 2-d basis of the Sz eigenstates 0 and 1 ? Answer: They are matrices. Since they act on a two-dimensional vectors space, they must be 2-d matrices. We must calculate their matrix elements:

S2 =

2 s2 11 s12 , S = sz11 sz12 , S = sx11 sx12 , etc. (S ) z y 2 sz21 sz22 x sx21 sx22 s21 s2 22

Calculate S2 matrix: We must sandwich S2 between all possible combinations of basis vector. (This is the usual way to construct a matrix!)

s2 11 = s2 12 = s2 21 = s2 22 =

0 S2 0 = 0

3 4 3 2 0 S 1 = 0 4 3 1 S2 0 = 1 4 3 1 S2 1 = 1 4

2 2 2 2

0 =

3 4

1 =0 0 =0 1 = 3 4

2

So S2 =

3 2 4

1 0 0 1

2 2 2 2

1 =0 0 =0 1 = 2

So Sz =

1 0 0 1

Find Sx matrix: This is more difcult What is Sx11 = 0 Sx 0 ? 0 is not an eigenstate of Sz , so its not trivial. Use raising and lowering operators: S = Sx iSy

1 (S+ + S ), Sy = Sx = 2 1 2i (S+ S )

Sx11 = 0

1 2 (S+ + S )

But what is S 0 ? Since S is the lowering operator, we know that S 0 1 . That is S 0 = A 1 for some complex number A which we have yet to determine. Similarly, S+ 1 = A+ 0 . Question: What is A ? (This is a homework problem.) Answer: A+ = A = So s(s + 1) m(m + 1) S+ s, m = A+ s, m + 1 s(s + 1) m(m 1) S s, m = A s, m 1

S+ 0 S+ 1 S 0 S 1 Sx11 =

1 2

= 0 = = = 0 0 (S+ + S ) 0 =

1 2

1 1 1 1 ( + 1) ( )( + 1) 0 = 2 2 2 2 1 1 1 1 ( + 1) ( )( 1) 1 = 1 2 2 2 2

0 [S+ 0 + S 0 ]

1 0 [ 0 + 0] = 2 2 1 1 [0 + 1 ] = 2 2 1 1 [ 0 + 0] = 0 2

So Sx =

0 1 1 0

1 2i (S+ S )

Homework: nd the Sy11 , Sy12 , Sy21 , Sy22 matrix elements. Answer: Sy = Dene

2

0 i i 0

0 =

S2 =

3 2 4 0 , Sx

1 0 0 1

1 =

0 1 1 0

2 =

0 i i 0

3 =

1 0 0 1

= 2 1 , Sy = 2 2 , Sz = 2 3

0 , 1 , 2 , 3 are called the Pauli Spin Matrices. They are very important for understanding the behavior of two-level systems.

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