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This document contains the first 4 pages of a test for a Paediatric Medicine exam consisting of 40 multiple choice questions. It provides the questions, possible answers and identified correct answers for questions 1 through 20. The questions cover topics in paediatrics including common causes of anemia, acute rheumatic fever criteria, features of tetanus, causes of mental retardation, pathogens of acute diarrhea and more.
This document contains the first 4 pages of a test for a Paediatric Medicine exam consisting of 40 multiple choice questions. It provides the questions, possible answers and identified correct answers for questions 1 through 20. The questions cover topics in paediatrics including common causes of anemia, acute rheumatic fever criteria, features of tetanus, causes of mental retardation, pathogens of acute diarrhea and more.
Copyright:
Attribution Non-Commercial (BY-NC)
Verfügbare Formate
Als PDF, TXT herunterladen oder online auf Scribd lesen
This document contains the first 4 pages of a test for a Paediatric Medicine exam consisting of 40 multiple choice questions. It provides the questions, possible answers and identified correct answers for questions 1 through 20. The questions cover topics in paediatrics including common causes of anemia, acute rheumatic fever criteria, features of tetanus, causes of mental retardation, pathogens of acute diarrhea and more.
Copyright:
Attribution Non-Commercial (BY-NC)
Verfügbare Formate
Als PDF, TXT herunterladen oder online auf Scribd lesen
01. A 10-month old girl is brought for a routine health evaluation. Her diet consists of undiluted fresh milk and table food. Her weight and length are at the 50 th percentile. Her physical examination is notable for pallor; otherwise there are no abnormalities. Her hemoglobin is 7.5 gm/dl and the peripheral blood smear reveals microcytic hypochromic red cells. Which of the following is the MOST likely etiology of the anemia? a. Thalassemia. b. Sickle cell anemia. c. Transient viral suppression of her bone marrow. d. Anemia of chronic disease. e. Iron deficiency anemia. Key: e
02. For diagnosis of Acute Rheumatic Fever, which one of the following is manifestation of minor criteria? a. Carditis. b. Arthralgia. c. Polyarthritis. d. Chorea. e. Subcutaneous nodules. Key: b
03. Which of the following is a feature of tetanus? a. Carpopedal spasm. b. Patient presents in unconscious state. c. Vesicular rash. d. Lymphadenopathy. e. Lock jaw. Key: e
04. In children with severe mental retardation, the most common cause is: a. Congenital infection. b. Familial retardation. c. Perinatal causes. d. Chromosomal disorders. e. Brain anomalies. Key: d
05. The most common pathogen of acute diarrhea in infants is: a. E. Coli. b. Shigella. c. Rotavirus. d. Entamoeba Histolytica. e. Salmonella. Key: c
Page 2 of 8 MBBS FINAL PROFESSIONAL EXAMINATION 2007 PAEDIATRIC MEDICINE (MCQs)
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06. Which of the following viruses is DNA virus? a. Hepatitis A virus. b. Hepatitis B virus. c. Hepatitis C virus. d. Hepatitis D virus. e. Hepatitis E virus. Key: b
07. A 3 year old child presented with high grade fever, red eyes and a macula popular rash the most likely diagnoses: a. Scarlet fever. b. Kawasaki disease. c. Drug reaction. d. Measles. e. Rubella. Key: d
08. A 1 year old boy presented with history of flue and low grade fever for 2 days and noisy breathing (stridor) for last 6 hours, most likely diagnosis is: a. Acute laryngotracheobronchitis. b. Acute Epiglotitis. c. Laryngomalacia. d. Laryngeal web. e. Foreign body. Key: a
09. Which of the following may be a cause of polyurea? a. Hypothyroidism. b. Acute watery diarrhea. c. Cardiac failure. d. Chronic renal failure. e. Acute glumerulonephritis. Key: d
10. A 14 year old previously healthy girl presented with involuntary jerky stereotyped movement involving proximal parts which disappear during sleep. The most likely diagnosis is: a. Rheumatic fever. b. SLE. c. Wilsons disease. d. Huntington chorea. e. Rheumatoid arthritis. Key: a Page 3 of 8 MBBS FINAL PROFESSIONAL EXAMINATION 2007 PAEDIATRIC MEDICINE (MCQs)
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11. Which of the following is a cyanotic heart disease? a. VSD. b. ASD. c. PS. d. PDA. e. Tricuspid Atresia. Key: e
12. A 8 year old boy presented with joint pain, colicky abdominal pain, hematuria and a purpuric rash which is raised above surface of skin over buttock, the most likely diagnoses: a. JRA. b. SLE. c. Henoch schnolein purpura. d. Acute glomerulonphritis. e. Renal vein thrombosis. Key: c
13. The common organism causing acute bacterial meningitis in a 7 year old child is: a. H influence B. b. Pneumococcous. c. Meningococcous. d. Staphylcoccous aureus. e. Mycobacterium tuberculosis. Key: b
14. The most common cause of short stature in children is: a. Achondroplasia. b. Rickets. c. Constitutional short stature. d. Hypothyroidism. e. Growth hormone deficiency. Key: c
15. The most common presentation of Hepatitis A virus infection is: a. Jaundice. b. Diarrhea. c. Anicteric Hepatitis. d. Fulminant Hepatic failure. e. Chronic Hepatitis. Key: c Page 4 of 8 MBBS FINAL PROFESSIONAL EXAMINATION 2007 PAEDIATRIC MEDICINE (MCQs)
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16. Which one of the following is associated with uncongugated hyperbilirubinemia? a. Sepsis. b. Hepatitis. c. Criglar Najjar syndrome. d. Dubin Johnsons syndrome. e. Rotar syndrome. Key: c
17. The most consistent feature of prehepatic portal hypertension is: a. Splenomegaly. b. Ascities. c. PT prolonged. d. Low serum albumin. e. Hepatic Encephalopathy. Key: a
18. The most common metabolic derangement in hypertrophic pyloric stenosis: a. Hyperglycemia. b. High serum potassium. c. High chloride level. d. Metabolic alkalosis. e. Metabolic acidosis. Key: d
19. In submersion injury (drowning), the most serious acute medical condition is: a. Pulmonary edema. b. Acute renal failure. c. Hypoxic brain injury. d. Blood loss. e. Cardiac arrhythmia. Key: c
20. A 4-month old infant has a diaper rash that is characterized by bright rd erosions involving the deep skin folds and satellite lesions. The most likely diagnosis is: a. Candidal diaper dermatitis. b. Generic diaper dermatitis. c. Noduloulcerative dermatitis. d. Seborheic dermatitis. e. Intertrigo. Key: a Page 5 of 8 MBBS FINAL PROFESSIONAL EXAMINATION 2007 PAEDIATRIC MEDICINE (MCQs)
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21. While examining a 2-days old infant, small vesicles on an erythematous base are noted on the infants face and chest. Weights stain of the lesions reveals sheets of eosinophils. The diagnosis of this rash is: a. Miliaria rubra. b. Milia. c. Neonatal acne. d. Erythema toxicum. e. Neonatal pustular melanosis. Key: d
22. Which one of the following is example of primary immunodeficiency? a. HIV. b. Malignancies. c. Thymic dysplasia (DiGeorges syndrome). d. Diabetes Mellitus. e. Malnutrition. Key: c
23. Complications seen in the new born of a diabetic mother include: a. Anemia. b. Hypoglycemia. c. Hypercalcemia. d. Hypermagnesemia. e. Hypernatremia. Key: b
24. A premature infant is born with patent ducts arteriosus. Its closure can be stimulated by administration of: a. Prostaglandin analogue. b. Estrogen. c. Anti-estrogen compounds. d. Prostaglandin inhibitors. e. Digoxin. Key: d Page 6 of 8 MBBS FINAL PROFESSIONAL EXAMINATION 2007 PAEDIATRIC MEDICINE (MCQs)
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25. A 6-year old boy presented with one month history of fever and one day history of bleeding gums, subconjunctival bleed and purpuric rash. Investigations revealed the following results: Hb-6.4 gm/dl; Platelet-35,000/mm3; prothrombin time-20 sec with a control of 13 sec; partial thromboplastin time-50 sec; and peripheral smear and bone marrow were suggestive of acute lymphoblastic leukemia. Which of the following is the most important poor prognostic factor: a. Male sex. b. TLC-78,500/mm3. c. Fibrinogen 10 mg/dL. d. Subconjunctival bleed. e. Liver size > 6 cm below costal margin. Key: b
26. In thalassemia major chelation therapy with desferrioxamine is started when there is: a. Massive Splenomegaly. b. Transfusion requirement > 250 ml/kg/year. c. Leukopenia. d. Serum ferritin > 1000 mg/ml. e. Serum iron 100 microgram/dl. Key: d
27. Which of the following conditions in immunodeficiency patients is due to cell-mediated deficiency? a. X-linked agammoglobulinemia. b. Common variable immunodeficiency. c. Hyper-IgM syndrome. d. Defective cytokine production. e. Chromic granulomatous disease. Key: d
28. The laboratory findings indicative of the syndrome of inappropriate ADH secretion (SIADH) is: a. Serum sodium = 148 mEq/L. b. Serum osmolarity = 250 mOsm/kg. c. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) = 28 mg/dl. d. Serum potassium = 5.1 mEq/L. e. Serum calcium = 7.2 mg/dl. Key: b
29. Which blood gas analysis results are most suggestive of respiratory acidosis? a. pH = 7.22, PCO2 = 55 mm Hg, HCO3 = 30 mEq/L. b. pH = 7.28, PCO2 = 45 mm Hg, HCO3 = 15 mEq/L. c. pH = 7.34, PCO2 = 35 mm Hg, HCO3 = 25 mEq/L. d. pH = 7.40, PCO2 = 25 mm Hg, HCO3 = 40 mEq/L. e. pH = 7.35, PCO2 = 39 mm Hg, HCO3 = 26 mEq/L. Key: a Page 7 of 8 MBBS FINAL PROFESSIONAL EXAMINATION 2007 PAEDIATRIC MEDICINE (MCQs)
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30. Early sign of ventricular shunt malfunction in an infant who has been treated for hydrocephalus are: a. A high-pitched cry, colic, and papillary changes. b. Anorexia and changes in pulse and respiration. c. Headaches, lethargy, and loss of appetite. d. Vomiting, tense fontanelle, and irritability. e. Fever and seizures. Key: d
31. Prodromal signs of Measles include: a. A maculopapular rash on the face and trunk. b. Crops of pustular lesions on the face and scalp. c. Kopliks spots in the mouth. d. Posterior cervical lymphadenopathy. e. Red cracked lips. Key: c
32. Conjugated hyperbilirubinemia is seen in: a. Gilberts syndrome. b. Criggler Najjar syndrome. c. Breast milk jaundice. d. Dublin Johnson syndrome. e. Physiological jaundice. Key: d
33. 15-year old female presented to the emergency department with history of recurrent epistaxis, hematuria and hematochezia. There was a history of profuse bleeding from the umbilicus stump at birth. Previous investigations revealed normal prothrombin time, activated partial thromboplastin time, thrombin time and fibrinogen levels. Her platelet counts as well as platelet function tests were normal but 5 molar urea dissolution tests were positive. Which one of the following clotting factor is most likely to be deficient? a. Factor X. b. Factor XI. c. Factor XII. d. Factor XIII. e. Fibrinogen. Key: d
34. Which of the following hemoglobin (Hb) estimation will be diagnostically helpful in a case of beta thalassemia trait? a. Hb-F. b. Hb1C. c. Hb-A2. d. Hb-H. e. Hb-A. Key: c
Page 8 of 8 MBBS FINAL PROFESSIONAL EXAMINATION 2007 PAEDIATRIC MEDICINE (MCQs)
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35. In a malnourished child, the most reliable sign of dehydration is: a. Depressed Ant. Fontanellae. b. Loss of skin turgor. c. Sunken eyes. d. Decreased urine output. e. Rapid & good volume pulse. Key: d
36. Ulcerative Colitis is characterized by: a. Involvement of any part of intestine. b. Fistulas & strictures. c. Perianal pathology. d. Proctitis with proximal extension. e. Terminal ileum is most common site of involvement. Key: d
37. Dysentery is caused by: a. E. toxigenic E. coli. b. Amoebiasis. c. Giardiasis. d. Rotavirus. e. Vibreo-cholera. Key: b
38. Which of the following is a constant feature of Downs syndrome: a. Hypotonia. b. Acute leukemia. c. Atlanto-axial dislocation. d. Congenital heart defects. e. Brachycephaly. Key: a
39. Cherry red spot is a feature of: a. Niemann-Pick disease. b. Glycogen storage disease. c. Hurler syndrome. d. Hunter syndrome. e. Gaucher disease. Key: a
40. Which of the following is a common feature of infant of diabetic mother? a. VSD. b. Gut atresias. c. Hypoglycemia. d. Hypocalcemia. e. Birth trauma. Key: c