Homework 10 Solutions, Electromagnetic Theory I

Dr. Christopher S. Baird, Fall 2012

University of Massachusetts Lowell

Problem 1:
A non-conducting sphere of radius a is centered at the origin. A total charge Q is fixed permanently on
the upper hemisphere's surface and a total charge -Q is fixed permanently on the lower hemisphere's
surface such that the surface charge density is uniform in the azimuthal direction and varies in the polar
direction as the cosine of the polar angle. The entire sphere is spun about the z axis at the constant
angular speed ω in the positive azimuthal angle direction. A circular ring of current I with radius b > a
is placed parallel to the x-y plane and centered on the point z = b/tan α. The ring current I is traveling in
the positive azimuthal angle direction. We desire to find the total force that the ring experiences. Note
that the ring has no net charge and the sphere spins slow enough that all electric fields are negligible.

(a) Write down an expression for the current density J of the entire sphere.
(b) Find the magnetic vector potential outside the sphere created by the sphere using the Biot-Savart
law. Expand in spherical harmonics to solve the integrals.
(c) Find the magnetic field B outside the sphere created by the sphere.
(d) Find the total force that the ring experiences.
(e) If the ring is constrained to be centered on the z axis, but is otherwise free to move in response to
the force, at what angle α would it be in stable equilibrium?

SOLUTION:
(a) The sphere's surface charge density has the form:

σ=A cos θ

We integrate over the upper hemisphere and set it equal to Q to find the constant A:
π/ 2
Q=2 π ∫ A cos θ a2 sin θ d θ
0

Q
A=
π a2

Q
σ= cos θ
π a2

The tangential speed of a patch on the sphere is

v =ω r axis =ω a sin θ

and J =σ v δ (r −a) so that:

 Qω
J= cos θ sin θ δ( r −a) ϕ̂
πa

(b) We use the Biot-Savart law to find the magnetic vector potential outside the sphere created by the
sphere.

0 J x '
A= ∫
4  ∣x−x '∣
d x'

μ 0 Q ω cos θ ' sin θ ' δ'(r '−a) ϕ̂ '

A=
4π πa
∫ ∣x−x '∣
d x'

We must be careful and realize that ϕ̂ '≠ ϕ̂ because the primed variables are being integrated over. The
best way to handle this is to use the expansion: ϕ̂ '=−sin ϕ ' ̂i+cos ϕ ' ̂j

μ 0 Q ω 2 π π ∞ cos θ 'sin θ 'δ '( r '−a)(−sin ϕ' ̂i+cos ϕ' ̂j) 2

A= ∫∫∫
4π πa 0 0 0 ∣x−x '∣
r ' sin θ ' dr ' d θ ' d ϕ'

Expand the denominator in spherical harmonics.

μ0 Q ω 2 π π ∞
A= ∫∫∫ cos θ ' sin θ ' δ '(r '−a)(−sin ϕ ' ̂i+cos ϕ ' ̂j)
4π πa 0 0 0
∞ l
1 r l< *
× 4 π∑ ∑ Y (θ ' , ϕ')Y lm(θ , ϕ) r '2 sin θ ' dr ' d θ ' d ϕ'
l +1 l m
l =0 m=−l 2 l+1 r >

All observation points r external to the sphere are farther away than the source points r' on the sphere,
so that r> = r, and r< = r'.

μ0 Q ω 2 π π ∞
A= ∫∫∫ cos θ ' sin θ ' δ '(r '−a)(−sin ϕ ' ̂i+cos ϕ ' ̂j)
4π πa 0 0 0
l
∞
1 r 'l *
× 4 π∑ ∑ l +1
Y l m (θ ' , ϕ')Y lm( θ ,ϕ) r '2 sin θ ' dr ' d θ ' d ϕ'
l =0 m=−l 2 l+1 r

Evaluate the deltas, rearrange, and make the substitution x=cos θ ' , dx=−sin θ ' d θ ' :
2π 1
μ0 Q ω ∞ l 1 a l+1
A= ∑∑ Y
π l=0 m =−l 2 l+1 r l +1 lm
(θ , ϕ)∫ (−sin ϕ' ̂
i+cos ϕ' ̂
j) ∫ x √1− x 2 Y *l m (x , ϕ ')dx d ϕ '
0 −1

Expand the definition of the spherical harmonics to solve the integrals

A=
μ0 Q ω ∞ l
∑ ∑ 1 a l+1
π l=0 m =−l 2 l+1 r
2π
l +1
Y lm(θ , ϕ)
√ √
2 l+1 (l−m)!
4 π (l+m)!
1
× ∫ (−sin ϕ ' ̂i+cos ϕ ' ̂j)e −i m ϕ' d ϕ' ∫ x √ 1− x 2 Plm (x )dx
0 −1
Due to the orthogonality in the first integral, all terms vanish except m = 1 and m = -1. They can then
be easily calculated to yield:
1
A=μ0 Q ω
√ 1 ∞
∑ [ Y
4 π l =0 l ,1
(θ , ϕ)( ̂
j+i ̂
i)−Y l ,−1 (θ , ϕ)( ̂
j−i ̂
i )]
1
√ 2 l+1 r √
a l +1 (l−1) !
l +1
(l+1) !
∫
−1
x √ 1−x 2 P1l ( x) dx

1 1
We now recognize that x √1−x =−
2
P (x )
3 2
1
1
A=− μ 0 Q ω
3
1 ∞
∑ √
4 π l =0
[ Y l ,1 (θ , ϕ)( ̂j+i ̂i )−Y l ,−1 (θ , ϕ)( ̂j−i ̂i) ]
1
√ 2 l+1 r l +1
√
a l +1 (l−1) !
∫
(l+1) ! −1
P 12 (x )P 1l ( x)dx

We now see that due to orthogonality, all terms vanish except when l = 2. The solution simplifies to:

3
1 a
A=μ0 Q ω sin θ cos θ ϕ̂
5 π r3

(c) The magnetic field B can now be found:

B=∇ ×A

Expand in spherical coordinates, keeping only terms that are non-zero for this case:

1 ∂ sin  A − 1 ∂ r A 
B=r  
r sin  ∂ r ∂r

μ 0 Q ω a3
B= 4
[ r̂ (2−3 sin2 θ)+2 θ̂ sin θ cos θ ]
5π r

(d) The total force that the ring experiences is:

F=∫ J (x)×B(x)d x

2π π ∞
I sin α b
F=∫ ∫ ∫ ( ϕ̂ δ(θ−α) δ(r − ))×B( x) r 2 sin θ dr d θ d ϕ
0 0 0 b sin ϕ

2π
b
F=I b ∫ ϕ×B(
̂ , α , ϕ) d ϕ
0 sin α

[ ]
2π 2π
μ0 Q ω a 3 4 ̂
sin α ( 2−3 sin α) ∫ θ d ϕ−2sin α cosα ∫ r̂ d ϕ
2
F=I
5π b3 0 0

2 I μ0 Q ω a3 5
F=ẑ 3
sin α [ 5sin 2 α−4 ]
5 b
(e) If the ring is constrained to move along the z axis, but is otherwise unchanged, then its radius b must
be held constant while its position z can change:

F=ẑ
2 I μ0 Q ω a3 5
5 b3
sin α
[5
b2
b2 + z 2
−4
]
b2
0=5 −4
b 2+z 2

b
z=
2

α=tan −1(2)≈63.4 °

Problem 2
Jackson 5.6

A cylindrical conductor of radius a has a hole of radius b bored parallel to, and centered a distance d
from, the cylinder axis (d + b < a). The current density is uniform throughout the remaining metal of
the cylinder and is parallel to the axis. Use Ampere's law and principle of linear superposition to find
the magnitude and direction of the magnetic-flux density in the hole.

SOLUTION:

a a
d b d b
= +

Define the direction in which the hole is displaced from the cylinder axis as the positive x direction,
and the direction coming out of the page as the positive z direction. If a uniform current density J0
flows in the positive z direction everywhere colored blue in the leftmost image, this is equivalent to a
uniform current density J0 flowing in the positive z direction everywhere in the cylinder plus a uniform
current density J0 flowing in the negative z direction in the hole region.

Ampere's Law in integral form states:

∮C B⋅d l=0 ∫S J⋅n da

Draw a circular Amperian at some radius r in side the cylinder with no hole and take the line integral
over this loop. Because of the symmetry, the magnetic field will be constant along this integral and can
come out of the integral.

B∮C d l= 0 J 0∫S da

2
B 2  r= 0 J 0  r

1 
B=  0 J 0 r 
2

1
B=  0 J 0 − y i x j
2

Using the same method, place the hole-shaped region with current flowing into the page at the origin
and it produces the magnetic field:

1
B=−  0 J 0 −y ix j
2

Now shift this region to its proper place, x → x - d

1
B=−  0 J 0 −y i x−d  j
2

And add together the two field to get the final answer:

1 1
B=  0 J 0 − y i x j−  0 J 0 − y i x−d  j
2 2

d
B=  0 J 0 j
2