Polytechnic University of the Philippines Taguig Campus Gen. Santos Ave.

, Lower Bicutan, Taguig City

400 Questions from PSME Code

Submitted by: Roldan, Ma. Couline C. BSME V-1

March 7, 2014

1. Absorption refrigeration system that has been factory assembled and tested prior to its installation. a. accessible unit b. absorption unit c. accessible d. absorption 2. Having access to but which first shall be permitted to require the removal of an access panel, door, or similar obstruction covering the item described. a. absorption b. absorption unit c. accessible unit d. accessible 3. Capable of being reached safely and quickly for operation, repair, or inspection without requiring those to whom ready access is requisite to climb over or remove obstacles, or to resort to the use of portable access equipment. a. absorption, readily b. accessible c. accessible, readily d. none of these 4. Air that has been treated to achieve a desired level of temperature, humidity, or cleanliness. a. air, conditioned b. air, exhaust c. air, moist d. all of these

5. Air being removed from any space or piece of equipment and conveyed directly to the atmosphere by means of openings or ducts. a. air, moist b. air, conditioned c. a and b d. air, exhaust 6. A blower of fan used for the purpose of distributing supply air to room, space, or area. a. air-conditioning system b. airhandling unit c. a and b d. none of these

7. It that is provided to replace air being exhausted. a. air-conditioning system b. airhandling unit c. air, makeup d. none of these 8. A system designed to provide heating, cooling, or ventilation in which one or more air handling units are used to supply air to a common space or are drawing air from a common plenum or space. a. airhandling unit b. air-conditioning system c. a and b d. airmoving system 9. Air from outside the building intentionally conveyed by openings or ducts to rooms or to conditioning equipment. a. air, exhaust b. air, conditioned c. air, outside d. all of these

10. Air from the conditioned area that is returned to the conditioning equipment for reconditioning. a. air, return b. air, exhaust c. air, conditioned d. air, intake 11. Air being conveyed to a conveyed to a conditioned area through ducts or plenums from a heat exchanger of a heating, cooling, absorption, or evaporative cooling system. a. air, intake b. air, conditioned c. air, exhaust d. air, supply 12. A device that utilizes fuel or other forms of energy to produce light, heat, power, refrigeration, or air-conditioning. This definition also shall include a vented decorative appliance. a. none of these b. device c. machine d. appliance

13. Acceptable to the authority having jurisdiction. a. rejected b. a and d c. none of these d. approved 14. An organization primarily established for purposes of testing to approve standards and approved by the authority having jurisdiction. a. standard authority b. mechanical standard agency c. approved testing agency d. none of these 15. A building or a portion of a building used for the gathering together of fifty (50) or more persons for such purposes as deliberation, education, instruction, worship, entertainment, amusement, drinking, dining, or awaiting transportation. a. assembly building b. assembly room c. briefing area d. none of these 16. The organization, office, or individual responsible for enforcing the requirements of a code or standard, or for approving equipment, materials, installations, or procedures. a. standard authority b. authority having jurisdiction c. mechanical standard agency d. none of these 17. That which provides a function without the necessity of human intervention. a. automatic b. manual c. a and b d. none of these 18. A refrigerant blend comprising multiple components of different volatiles that, when used in refrigeration cycles, do not change volumetric composition or saturation temperature as they evaporate of condense at constant pressure. a. oxygen b. nitrogen c. azeotrope d. none of these

19. A boiler furnishing steam at pressures in excess of fifteen (15) pounds per square inch (103.4 kPa) or hot water at temperatures in excess of 250F (121 C) or at pressures in excess of one hundred and sixty (160) pounds per square inch (1,103.2 kPa). a. boiler, standard b. boiler, low pressure c. boiler, high pressure d. none of these 20. Any room containing steam or hot water inlet. a. boiler room b. breathing zone c. breathing zone outdoor d. none of these 21. A reliable conductor to ensure the electrical conductivity between metal parts required to be electrically connected. a. copper b. silver c. bronze d. bonding jumper 22. The region within an occupied space between three (3) planes and seventy-two (72) inches (1,800 mm) above the floor and more than (2) two feet (600 mm) from the walls or fixed airconditioning equipment. a. boiler room b. breathing zone c. breathing unit d. none of these 23. The rate of outdoor airflow required in the breathing zone of an occupiable space. a. breathing zone outdoor airflow (Vbz) b. breathing zone c. boiler room d. none of these 24. A metal connector for medium and high heat appliances. a. silver b. breeching c. copper d. none of these

25. The listed maximum capacity of any appliance, absorption unit, or burner expressed in British thermal units input per hour, unless otherwise noted. a. BTU/S b. BTU/Min c. BTU/H d. all of these 26. The national Building Code of the Philippines that is adopted by this jurisdiction. a. Philippine standards code b. Philippine mechanical engineering code c. mechanical engineering code d. building code 27. The Chemical Abstract System registry number a. CAS Number b. CAS system c. none of these d. all of these 28. Environmental heating equipment installed and a manner supply heat by means of ducts or pipes to areas other than the room or space in which the equipment is located. a. duct plant b. central heating plant or heating plant c. a and b d. none of these 29. A formally stated recognition and approval of an acceptable level of competency, acceptable to the Authority Having Jurisdiction. a. recognized b. tested c. qualified d. certified 30. A vertical shaft enclosing one or more flues for conveying flue gases to the outside atmosphere. a. chimney b. stock c. a or b d. all of the above 31. A listed chimney a. none of the above b. c or d

c. stock d. factory built chimney 32. A chimney of solid masonry units, bricks, stones, listed masonry units, or reinforced concrete, lined with suitable flue liners. a. masonry stock b. masonry chimney c. metal chimney d. none of these 33. A chimney constructed of metal with a minimum thickness not less than one hundred and twenty-seven one hundredths (0.127) inch (3.23 mm) (No. 10 manufacturers standard gauge steel sheet). a. masonry chimney b. chimney, residential appliance type c. metal chimney d. none of these 34. A factory built or masonry chimney suitable for removing products of combustion from residential type appliances producing combustion gases not in excess of 1,000 F (538 C), measured at the appliance flue outlet. Factory built type HT chimneys have high temperature thermal shock resistance. a. chimney connector b. chimney, medium heat appliance type c. chimney, low heat appliance type d. chimney, residential appliance type 35. A factory built, masonry, or metal chimney suitable for removing the products of combustion from fuel burning low heat appliances producing combustion gases not in excess of 1000 F (538 C) under normal operating conditions, but capable of producing combustion gases of 1,400 F (760 C) during intermittent forced firing for periods up to one hour. All temperatures are measured at the appliance flue outlet. a. chimney, low heat appliance type b. chimney connector c. chimney, medium heat appliance type d. chimney, residential appliance type 36. A factory built, masonry, or metal chimney suitable for removing the products of combustion from fuel burning medium heat appliances producing combustion gases not in excess of 2,000 F (1,093 C), measured at the appliance flue outlet. a. chimney, residential appliance type b. chimney, low heat appliance type

c. chimney, medium heat appliance type d. chimney, high heat appliance type 37. A factory built, masonry, or metal chimney suitable for removing the products of combustion from fuel burning high heat appliances producing combustion gases in excess of 2,000 F (1,903 C), measured at the appliance flue outlet. a. chimney, high heat appliance type b. chimney, low heat appliance type c. chimney, medium heat appliance type d. none of these 38. The pipe that connects a fuel burning appliance to a chimney. a. chimney, low heat appliance type b. chimney, medium heat appliance type c. chimney, high heat appliance type d. chimney connector 39. A heat producing appliance that employs a combustion chamber that has no openings other than the flue collar, fuel charging door, and adjustable openings provided to control the amount of combustion air that enters the combustion chamber. a. open combustion solid fuel burning appliance b. closed combustion liquid fuel burning appliance c. closed combustion solid fuel burning appliance d. open combustion liquid fuel burning appliance 40. An appliance used to dry wet laundry by means of heat derived from the combustion of fuel gases or electric heating elements. a. clothes dryer b. washing machine c. a and b d. none of these 41. Primarily used in family living environment. May or may not be coin operated for public use. a. clothes dyer, type 2 b. clothes dyer, type 1 c. clothes dyer, type 3 d. clothes dyer, type 4 42. Used in business with direct intercourse of the function with the public. May or not be operated by public or hired attendant. May or may not be coin operated. a. clothes dyer, type 4 b. clothes dyer, type 3

c. clothes dyer, type 2 d. clothes dyer, type 1 43. A standard that is an extensive compilation of provisions covering broad subject matter or that is suitable for adoption into law independently of other codes and standards. It also means the Philippine Mechanical Engineering Code. a. rule b. law c. standard d. code 44. The total amount of air provided to the space that contains burning equipment. Includes air for fuel combustion, draft hood dilution, and ventilation of the equipment enclosure. a. combustion air b. air intake c. moist air d. none of these 45. A compressor in which increase in pressure is attained by changing the internal volume of the compression chamber. a. compressor, negative displacement b. compressor, positive displacement c. compressor, infinite displacement d. none of these 46. A machine, with or without accessories, for compressing a refrigerant vapor. a. compressor, negative displacement b. compressor c. compressor, refrigerant d. none of these 47. The part of the system designed to liquefy refrigerant vapor by removal heat. a. all of these b. evaporator c. compressor d. condenser 48. An appliance that condenses part of the water vapor generated by the burning of hydrogen in fuels. a. condensing appliance b. evaporating appliance c. condensing unit

d. evaporating unit 49. A mechanical refrigeration system, consisting of one or more power driven compressors, condensers, liquid receivers if provided, and the regularly furnished accessories that have been assembled and tested prior to its installation. a. condensing appliance b. condensing unit c. evaporating unit d. condensing appliance 50. An area, room, or space normally occupied and being heated or cooled for human habitation by any equipment. a. conditioned room b. conditioned unit c. conditioned space d. none of these 51. A room or space having a volume less than fifty (50) cubic feet (1.42 ) per 1000 Btu/h (293 W) of the aggregate input rating of all fuel burning appliances installed in that space. a. conditioned unit b. confined unit c. conditioned space d. confined space 52. Air cooling to provide a room or space temperature of 68 F (20 C) or above. a. cooling b. heating c. tempering d. none of these 53. All of that equipment, including associated refrigeration, intended or installed for the purpose of cooling air by mechanical means and discharging such air into any room or space. This definition shall not include any evaporative cooler. a. heating system b. cooling system c. confining system d. none of these 54. A self-contained refrigeration system that has been factory assembled, tested, and installed with or without conditioned air and ducts, without connecting any refrigerant containing parts. This definition shall not include a portable cooling unit or an absorption unit. a. heating unit

b. cooling unit c. confining unit d. none of these 55. In a building, an area accessible by crawling, having a clearance less than human height, for access to plumbing or wiring, storage, etc. a. plumbing space b. wiring space c. crawl space d. none of these 56. An acronym for corrugated stainless steel tubing. a. CSSTu b. CrSST c. CSST d. none of these

57. An automatic closing metal assembly consisting of one or more louvers, blades, slats or vanes that closes upon detection of heat so as to restrict the passage of flame and is listed to the applicable recognized standards. a. fire damper b. smoke damper c. volume damper d. none of these 58. A damper arranged to seal off airflow automatically through a part of an air duct system so as to restrict the passage of smoke and is listed to the applicable recognized standard. a. volume damper b. smoke damper c. fire damper d. none of these 59. Any device that, when installed, will restrict, retard, or direct the flow of air in any duct, or the products of combustion in any heat producing equipment, is vent connector, vent, or chimney. a. fire damper b. smoke damper c. volume damper d. none of these 60. The elevation of the design flood, including wave height, relative to the datum specified on the communitys legally designated flood hazard map. a. flood elevation

b. flood hazard elevation c. designated elevation d. design flood elevation 61. A heater in which all the products of combustion generated by the gas burning device are released into the outside airstream being heated. a. direct gas fired makeup air heater b. indirect gas fired makeup air heater c. gas fired heater d. none of these 62. An appliance that is constructed and installed so that all air for combustion is derived from the outside atmosphere and all flue gases are discharge to the outside atmosphere. a. indirect vent appliance b. direct vent appliance c. vent appliance d. none of these 63. A power boiler plant designed to distribute hot water or stream to users located off premises. a. area heating plant b. location heating plant c. district heating plant d. none of these 64. A warm air furnace usually normally installed in an air distribution duct to supply warm air for heating. This definition shall apply only to a warm air heating appliance that depends for air circulation on a blower not furnished as part of the furnace. a. air system b. duct system c. air furnace d. duct furnace 65. Includes all ducts, ducts fittings, plenums, and fans assembled to form a continues passageway for the distribution of air. a. duct system b. dwelling c. dwelling unit d. none of these 66. A building or portion thereof that contains not more than two dwelling units. a. dwelling unit b. dwelling

c. dwelling system d. none of these 67. A building or portion thereof that contains living facilities including provisions for sleeping, eating, cooking, and sanitation, as required by this code, for not more than one family. a. dwelling system b. dwelling c. dwelling unit d. none of these 68. A device that produces heat energy to create a warm environment by the application of electric power to resistance elements refrigerant compressors, or dissimilar material conjunctions. a. electric device b. electric appliance c. electric heating unit d. electric heating appliance 69. The National Electrical Code promulgated by the National Fire Protection Association, as adopted by this jurisdiction. a. electrical code b. electrical national code c. national electric code d. none of these 70. A general term including materials, fittings, devices, appliances, and apparatus used as part of or in connection with installations regulated by this code. a. machine b. equipment c. unit d. none of these 71. A device used for reducing the sensible heat of air for cooling by the process of evaporation of water into an airstream. a. evaporative cooling unit b. evaporative cooling system c. evaporative cooler d. none of these 72. All of the equipment intended or installed for the purpose of environmental cooling by an evaporative cooler from which the conditioned air is distributed through ducts or plenums to the conditioned area. a. evaporative system

b. evaporative unit c. evaporative cooling unit d. evaporative cooling system 73. That part of refrigeration system in which liquid refrigerant is vaporized to produce refrigeration. a. evaporator b. condenser c. a and b d. none of these 74. A valve designed to activate when the fuel gas passing through it exceeds the prescribed flow rate. a. gas flow valve (GFV) b. excess flow valve (EFV) c. flow valve (FV) d. none of these 75. The fire code adopted by this jurisdiction. a. fire regulation b. fire law c. fire code d. none of these 76. A chimney connected, solid fuel burning stove (appliance) having part of its fuel chamber open to the room. a. none of these b. fire place c. fire resistive construction d. fire place stove 77. Construction complying with the requirements of the Building Code for the time period specified. a. fire resistive construction b. fire place c. fire place stove d. none of these 78. Area within the flood hazard area that is subject to high velocity wave action, as shown in Philippine Government flood hazard map. a. flood hazard area subject to medium velocity wave action b. flood hazard area subject to high velocity wave action

c. flood hazard area subject to low velocity wave action d. none of these 79. A completely self-contained furnace suspended from the floor of the space being heated, taking air for combustion from outside such space and with means for observing flames and lighting the appliance from such space. a. ceiling furnace b. wall furnace c. floor furnace d. none of these 80. A central furnace equipped with a fan or blower that provides the primarily means for circulation of air. a. forced airtype central furnace b. up-flow type furnace c. horizontal type central furnace d. none of these 81. A furnace designed for low headroom installations with airflow through the appliance in a horizontal path. a. horizontal type central furnace b. forced airtype central furnace c. up-flow type furnace d. none of these 82. A furnace designed with airflow essentially in a vertical path, discharging air at or near the top of the furnace. a. horizontal type central furnace b. up-flow type central furnace c. forced airtype central furnace d. none of these 83. A furnace designed with airflow essentially in a vertical path, discharging air at or near the bottom of the furnace. a. forced airtype central furnace b. vertical-flow type central furnace c. down-flow type central furnace d. none of these 84. A specific heating or heating and ventilating furnace incorporating an integral total enclosure and using only outside air for combustion. a. enclosed furnace

b. fusible furnace c. fractionation furnace d. none of these 85. A change in composition of a blend by preferential evaporation of the more volatile component or condensation of the less volatile component. a. fractionation b. blending c. volatizing d. none of these 86. A device arranged to relieve pressure by operation of a fusible member at a predetermined temperature. a. pressure plug b. fusible plug c. relieve plug d. none of these 87. Any steel conforming to the requirements of the American Society for Testing and Material (ASTM) A653/A653M-03 Standard Specification for Steel Sheet, Zinc-Iron Alloy-Coat (Galvanized) by the Hot Dip Process. a. aluminium b. carbon steel c. galvanized steel d. none of these 88. A device equipped with a means of heating used in an absorption system to drive refrigerant out of solution. a. generator b. aircondition c. machine d. none of these 89. Any heating system consisting of a gravity type warm air furnace, together with all air ducts or pipes and accessory apparatus installed in connection therewith. a. gravity heating system b. gravity type warm-air furnace c. gravity heating furnace d. none of these

90. A warm air furnace depending primarily on circulation of air through the furnace by gravity. This definition also shall include any furnace approved with a booster type fan that does not materially restrict free circulation of air through the furnace when the fan is not in operation. a. gravity heating system b. gravity type warm-air furnace c. gravity heating furnace d. none of these 91. A conducting object through which a direct connection to earth is established. a. conducting electrode b. connector electrode c. grounding electrode d. none of these 92. Any area or space where combustible dust, ignitable fibers or flammable, volatile liquids, gases, vapors or mixtures are or may be present in the air in quantities sufficient to produce explosive or ignitable mixtures. a. heat (energy) recovery ventilator b. hazardous location c. danger zone d. none of these 93. A device intended to remove air from buildings, replace it with outside air, and in the process transfer heat from the warmer to the colder airstreams. a. heat (energy) recovery ventilator b. heating degree day c. heating equipment d. none of these 94. A unit, based upon temperature difference and time, used in estimating fuel consumption and specifying nominal annual heating load of a building. For any one day when the mean temperature is less than 65 F (18 C), there exist as many degree days as there are Fahrenheit degrees difference in temperature between mean temperature for the day and 65 F (18 C). a. heating degree day b. heating equipment c. heat (energy) recovery ventilator d. none of these 95. Includes all warm air furnaces, warm air heaters, combustion products vents, heating air distribution ducts and fans, and all steam and hot water piping, together with all control devices and accessories installed as part of, or in connection with, any environmental heating system or appliance regulated by this code.

a. heat (energy) recovery ventilator b. heating degree ray c. heating equipment d. none of these 96. A warm air heating plant consisting of a heat exchanger enclosed in a casing, from which the heated air is distributed through ducts to various rooms and areas. A heating system includes the outside air, return air and the supply air system, and all accessory apparatus and equipment installed in connection therewith. a. heat pump b. heat (energy) recovery ventilator c. heating degree ray d. heating system 97. A refrigeration system that extracts heat from one substance and transfers it to another portion of the same substance or to a second substance at a higher temperature for beneficial purpose. a. heat pump b. heat (energy) recovery ventilator c. heat degree ray d. none of these 98. The parts of a refrigeration system subjected to approximately condenser pressure. a. low side b. high side c. downside d. upside 99. An air intake device connected to a mechanical exhaust system for collecting vapors, fumes, smoke, dust, steam, heat or odors from, at, or near the equipment, place, or area where generated, produced, or released. a. air exhaust b. air intake c. hood d. none of these 100. Includes appliances, devices, or equipment used, or intended to be used, in an industrial, manufacturing or commercial occupancy for applying heat to any material being processed, but shall not include water heaters, boilers, or portable equipment used by artisans in pursuit of a trade. a. industrial heating equipment b. commercial heating system c. residential heating equipment

d. none of these 101. An area, space, or room where the air is unfit or undesirable for circulation to occupied parts of a building. a. insanitary location b. sanitary location c. hazardous location d. none of these 102. Any joint obtained by joining of metal parts with alloys that melt at temperatures higher than 840 F (449 C) but lower than the melting temperature of the parts being jointed. a. joint, compression b. joint, brazed c. joint, flanged d. none of these 103. Any multipiece joint with cup shaped threaded nuts that, when tightened, compress tapered sleeves so that they form a tight joint on the periphery of the tubing they connect. a. joint, flanged b. joint, brazed c. joint, compression d. none of these 104. One made by bolting together a pair of flanged ends. a. joint, compression b. joint, brazed c. joint, flared d. joint, flanged 105. Any metal to metal compression joint in which a conical spread is made on the end of a tube that is compressed by a flare nut against a mating flare. a. joint, flared b. joint, flanged c. joint, brazed d. none of these 106. General form for gastight joints obtained by the joining of the metal parts through a positive holding mechanical construction (such as flanged joint, screwed joint, or flared joint). a. joint, flanged b. joint, mechanical c. joint, flared d. joint, brazed

107. A joint made by the joining of metal parts with metallic mixtures or alloys that melt at temperature up to and including 840 F (449 C). a. joint, flanged b. joint, flared c. joint, soldered d. joint, mechanical 108. An installation in which a furnace is installed so that building joists, studs, or framing are contacted by the furnace jacket upon the lines formed by the intersection of the jacket sides with the top surface. a. building contact installation b. jacket contact installation c. furnace contact installation d. line contact installation 109. A boiler furnishing hot water at pressures not exceeding 160 pounds per square inch (1,102.4 kPa) and at temperatures not exceeding 250 F (121 C). a. low pressure hot water heating boiler b. low pressure cold water heating boiler c. high pressure hot water heating boiler d. high pressure cold water heating boiler 110. A boiler furnishing steam at pressures not exceeding fifteen (15) pounds per square inch (103.4 kPa). a. low pressure hot water heating boiler b. low pressure steam heating boiler c. high pressure hot water heating boiler d. high pressure steam heating boiler 111. Refers to the parts of a refrigeration system subjected to approximate evaporator pressure. a. downside b. high side c. low side d. upside 112. The refrigeration equipment forming a part of the refrigeration system, including, but not limited to, the following: compressors, condensers, liquid receivers, evaporators, and connecting piping. a. equipment b. unit c. machinery d. none of these

113. The company or organization that evidences its responsibility by affixing its name, trademark, or trade name to equipment or devices. a. manufacturer b. company c. organization d. all of these 114. Printed instructions included with equipment or devices for the purpose of providing information regarding safe and proper installation and use whether or not as part of the conditions of listing. a. manufacturers manual b. manufacturers installation instructions c. manufacturers safety instruction d. none of these 115. The purpose for which a building or part thereof is used or intended to be used. a. rented b. occupied space c. occupancy d. none of these 116. An enclosed space intended for human activities excluding those spaces intended primarily for other purposes such as storage rooms and equipment rooms that are only occupied occationally and for short periods of time. a. rented b. occupancy c. occupied space d. none of these 117. The pipes or tube mains for interconnecting the various parts of a system. a. plenum b. duct c. piping d. none of these 118. An air compartment or chamber including uninhabited crawl spaces areas above a ceiling or below a floor, including air spaces below raised floors of computer/data processing centers or attic spaces, to that one or more ducts are connected and that form parts of either the supply air, return air or exhaust air system, other than the occupied space being conditioned. a. duct b. piping c. plenum

d. none of these 119. The Uniform Plumbing Code promulgated by the International Association of Plumbing and Mechanical Officials (IAPMO), as adopted by this jurisdiction. a. Philippine mechanical engineering code b. mechanical engineering code c. uniform plumbing code d. plumbing code 120. A self-contained refrigerating system, not over 3 horsepower rating, that has been factory assembled and tested, installed without supply air ducts and without connecting any refrigerant containing parts. This definition shall not include an absorption unit. a. portable cooling unit b. portable evaporative cooler c. cooling unit d. evaporative cooler 121. An evaporative cooler that discharges the conditioned air directly into the conditioned area without the use of ducts and can be readily transported from place to place without dismantling any portion thereof. a. evaporative cooler b. portable evaporative cooler c. portable cooling unit d. none of these 122. A heating appliance designed for environmental heating that may have a self-contained fuel supply and is not secured or attached to a building by any means other than by a factory installed power supply cord. a. portable cooling unit b. portable evaporative unit c. portable heating appliance d. none of these 123. Ventilating equipment that can be readily transported from place to place without dismantling a portion thereof and that is not connected to a duct. a. portable cooling unit b. portable evaporative unit c. portable hating appliance d. portable ventilating equipment 124. A compressor in which increase in pressure is attained by change. a. positive displacement compressor

b. negative displacement compressor c. negative displacement evaporator d. positive displacement evaporator 125. One or more power steam boilers or power hot power boilers and connecting piping and vesels within the same premises. a. power steam boiler b. power boiler plant c. power steam plant d. all of these 126. The maximum working pressure for which a specific part of a refrigeration system is designed. a. minimum pressure design b. maximum pressure design c. pressure design d. none of these 127. A test performed in the field to prove system tightness. a. pressure, stress test b. pressure, hardness test c. pressure, tightness test d. pressure, field test 128. A device or portion of the equipment used for the purpose of increasing the pressure of the refrigerant vapor. a. pressure imposing element b. pressure limiting device c. pressure relief device d. none of these 129. A pressure responsive mechanism designed to automatically stop the operation of the pressure imposing element at a predetermined pressure. a. pressure relief device b. pressure limiting device c. pressure imposing element d. none of these 130. A pressure actuated valve or rupture member or fusible plug designed to automatically relieve excessive pressure. a. pressure imposing element b. pressure limiting device c. pressure relief device

d. none of these 131. The minimum gauge pressure to which a specific system component is subjected under test condition. a. pressure, tightness test b. pressure, field test c. pressure, stress test d. pressure test 132. A refrigerant containing receptacle that is a portion of a refrigeration system, but shall not include evaporators, headers, or piping of certain limited size and capacity. a. pressure vessel- refrigerant b. pressure duct- refrigerant c. pressure pipe- refrigerant d. none of these 133. A competent and capable person or company that has met the requirements and training for a given field acceptable to the Authority having jurisdiction. [NFPA 96:3.3.38] a. certified b. qualified c. acceptable d. none of these 134. A heater designed to transfer heat primarily by direct radiation. a. low heater b. high heater c. radiant heater d. none of these 135. A vessel permanently connected to a refrigeration system by inlet and outlet pipes for storage of liquid. a. receiver, liquid b. receiver, steam c. receiver, vapor d. none of these 136. A space designed to safety house compressors and pressure vessels. a. refrigeration room or space b. refrigeration system, mechanical c. refrigeration machinery room d. none of these

137. A room or space in which an evaporator or brine coil is located for the purpose of reducing or controlling the temperature within the room or space to below 68 F (20 C). a. refrigeration system, mechanical b. refrigeration unit c. refrigeration machinery room d. refrigeration room or space 138. A heat operated closed refrigeration cycle in which a secondary fluid, the absorbent, absorbs a primary fluid, the refrigerant that has been vaporized in the evaporator. a. refrigeration system, absorption b. refrigeration system, mechanical c. refrigeration system, selfcontained d. none of these 139. A combination of interconnected refrigerant containing parts constituting one closed refrigerant circuit in which a refrigerant is circulated for the purpose of extracting heat and in which a compressor is used for compressing the refrigerant vapor. a. refrigeration system, selfcontained b. refrigeration system, mechanical c. refrigeration system, absorption d. none of these 140. A complete factory assembled and tested system that is shipped in one or more sections and has no refrigerant containing parts that are joined in the field by other than companion or block valves. a. refrigeration system, absorption b. refrigeration system, mechanical c. refrigeration system, selfcontained d. none of these 141. A building or portion thereof designed or used for human habitation. a. residential building b. industrial building c. commercial building d. none of these 142. A duct that extends at an angle of more than forty-five (45) degrees (0.79 rad) from the horizontal. His definition shall not include any boot connection. a. riser heat pipe b. vertical heat pipe c. horizontal heat pipe d. diagonal heat pipe

143. A freestanding, non-recessed, environmental heating appliance installed in the space being heated and not connected to ducts. a. portable heater b. room heater c. room heater, unvented d. none of these 144. An unvented, self-contained, freestanding, non-recessed, fuel gas burning appliance for furnishing warm air by gravity of fan circulation to the space in which installed, directly from the heater without duct connection. a. portable heater b. room heater c. room heater, unvented d. none of these 145. A pressure relief device that operates by the rupture of a diaphragm within the device on a rise to a predetermined pressure. a. rupture device b. rupture detector c. rupture pressure d. rupture member 146. Having all essential working parts, except energy and control connections, so contained in a case or framework that they do not depend on appliances or fastenings outside of the machine. a. selfcontained b. rupture member c. room heater, unvented d. none of these 147. An interior space enclosed by walls or construction extending through one or more stories or basements that connects openings in successive floors, or floors and roof, to accommodate elevators, dumbwaiters, mechanical equipment, or similar devices to transmit light or ventilation air. a. axle b. shaft c. rotor d. none of these 148. The walls or construction forming the boundaries of a shaft. a. enclosure b. shaft c. shaft enclosure

d. none of these 149. An approved device that senses visible or invisible particles of combustion. a. light detector b. smoke detector c. fire detector d. none of these 150. A self-contained package or factory matched packages that constitute an automatically operated assembly of integrated systems for generating useful electrical energy and recoverable energy that is permanently connected and fixed in place. a. stationary fuel cell power plant b. self-contained fuel cell power plant c. stationary fuel cell generator d. self-contained fuel cell generator 151. The highest stress level that the component can tolerate without rupture. a. strength, endurance b. strength, ultimate c. strength, yield d. none of these 152. The rate of outdoor airflow required at the ventilation system outdoor air intake. a. system contained airflow b. system indoor airflow c. system outdoor airflow (Vot) d. none of these 153. A heating appliance designed for non-residential space heating and equipped with an integral means for circulation of air. a. portable heater b. room heater c. radiant heater d. unit heater 154. A pressure actuated valve held closed by a spring or other means ad designed to automatically relieve pressure in excess of its setting; also called safety valve. a. valve, pressure relief b. valve, three-way-type stop c. valve, pressure relief d. none of these

155.

A device in a piping system to shut off the flow of the fluid. a. valve, pressure relief b. valve, stop c. valve, three-way-type stop d. valves, companion or block

156. A manually operated valve with one inlet that alternately can stop flow to either of two outlets. a. valve, pressure relief b. valves, companion or block c. valve, three-way-type stop d. valve, stop 157. Pairs of mating stop valves valving off sections of refrigeration systems and arranged so that these sections maybe joined before opening these valves or separated after closing them. a. valve, three-way-type stop b. valve, pressure relief c. valve, stop d. valves, companion or block 158. A listed factory made vent pipe and vent fittings for conveying flue gases to the outside atmosphere. a. vent b. type BW gas vent c. type B gas vent d. vent connector, gas 159. A factory made gas vent listed by a nationally recognized testing agency for venting listed or approved appliances equipped to burn only gas. a. vent connector, gas b. type B gas vent c. type BW gas vent d. none of these 160. A factory made gas vent listed by a nationally recognized testing agency for venting listed or approved gas fired vented wall furnaces. a. vent connector, gas b. type B gas vent c. type BW gas vent d. none of these 161. That portion of a gas venting system that connects a listed gas appliance to a gas vent and is installed within the space or area in which the appliance is located.

a. vent b. vent connector, gas c. vented decorative appliance d. none of these 162. A vented appliance whose only function is providing anaesthetic effect of flames. a. vent b. vented decorative appliance c. vent connector, gas d. none of these 163. A vented environmental heating appliance designed for incorporation in, or permanent attachment to, a wall, floor, ceiling, or partition and arranged to furnished heated air by gravity or by a fan. This definition shall not include floor furnaces, unit heaters, and room heaters. a. vented wall furnace b. ventilating wall c. ventilating floor d. ventilating ceiling 164. A suspended ceiling containing many small apertures through which air, at low pressure, is forced downward from an over-head plenum dimensioned by the concealed space between the suspended ceiling and the floor or roof above. a. ventilation unit b. ventilating wall c. ventilating floor d. ventilating ceiling 165. All of that equipment intended or installed for the purpose of supplying air to, or removing air from, any room or space by mechanical means other than equipment that is a portion of an environmental heating, cooling, absorption, or evaporative cooling system. a. venting system- gravity type b. ventilating system c. venting system- power type d. none of these 166. A system that depends entirely on the heat from the fuel being used to provide the energy required to vent an appliance. a. ventilating system b. venting system- gravity type c. venting system- power type d. none of these

167. A system that depends on a mechanical device to provide a positive draft within the venting system. a. ventilating system b. venting system- power type c. venting system- gravity type d. none of these 168. The volume as determined from internal dimensions of the container, with no allowance for the volume of the internal parts. a. volume, external gross b. volume, internal gross c. warm air furnace d. none of these 169. An environmental heating appliance designed or arranged to discharge heated air through any duct or ducts this definition shall not include a unit heater. a. volume, external gross b. volume, internal gross c. warm air furnace d. none of these 170. A blend comprising multiple components of different volatiles that when used in refrigeration cycles change volumetric composition and saturation temperatures as they evaporate or condense at constant pressure. a. zeotrope b. warm air furnace c. internal gross d. none of these 171. Is a hoisting and lowering mechanism with a platform that at some elevation is a stage or a part of a stage, such as an orchestra pit. a. stage lift b. zeotrope c. warm air furnace d. none of these 172. Switching of circuits by means of solid state devices. a. warm air furnace b. zeotrope c. stage lift d. static switching

173. The automatic device used to actuate the control to slow and stop an elevator or dumpwaiter car at any landing. a. stopping device, elevator landing b. stopping devices, normal c. static switching d. none of these 174. A button or other device located at an elevator landing which when activated causes the elevator car to stop at that floor. a. stage lift b. static switching c. stopping devices, normal d. stopping device, elevator landing 175. The piping for a hydraulic elevator between the control valves and the driving member of the driving machine. a. hydraulic piping b. supply piping c. control piping d. none of these 176. A device which automatically reduces the speed as a car approaches a terminal landing, independently of the functioning of the operating device, and the normal terminal stopping device, if the latter fails to slow down the car is intended. a. terminal stopping device, final b. terminal stopping device, normal c. terminal speed limiting device, emergency d. terminal stopping device, emergency 177. A final terminal stopping device operated directly by the driving machine. a. terminal stopping device, emergency b. terminal stopping device, machine final c. terminal stopping device, normal d. terminal stopping device, final 178. The toothed portion of a threshold plate designed to mesh with a grooved treadway surface. a. threshold comb, moving walk b. threshold plate, moving walk c. threshold comb, stationary d. threshold plate, stationary

179. That portion of the landing adjacent to the treadway consisting of one or more stationary or slightly movable plates. a. threshold comb, moving walk b. threshold plate, moving walk c. threshold comb, stationary d. threshold plate, stationary 180. A panel or panels used to close a hoistway enclosure opening above a hoistway entrance. a. traveling cable b. travel or rise c. transom d. threshold plate, stationary 181. The vertical distance between the bottom terminal landing and the top terminal landing of an elevator, dumbwaiter, escalator and inclined lift. a. traveling cable b. travel or rise c. transom d. threshold plate, stationary 182. A cable made up of electric conductors which provide electrical connection between an elevator or dumbwaiter car and fixed connection in the hoistway. a. traveling cable b. travel or rise c. transom d. threshold plate, stationary 183. The passenger-carrying member of a moving walk. a. treadway, moving walk b. truck-zoning device, elevator c. truck zone, elevator d. unlocking zone 184. A device which will permit the operator in the car to move a freight elevator within the truck zone with the car door or gate and a hoistway door or gate open. a. treadway, moving walk b. truck-zoning device, elevator c. truck zone, elevator d. unlocking zone 185. The limited distance above an elevator landing within which the truck zoning devicepermits movement of the elevator car.

a. treadway, moving walk b. truck-zoning device, elevator c. truck zone, elevator d. unlocking zone 186. A zone extending from the landing floor level to a point not less than 3 in. (457 mm) above or a below the landing. a. treadway, moving walk b. truck-zoning device, elevator c. truck zone, elevator d. unlocking zone 187. A shape of groove used on the drive sheave of a double wrap traction machine, approximately a semicircle, with a radius approximately equal to the diameter of the hoist rope. a. v-groove b. u-groove c. c-groove d. w-groove 188. A process of removing, by sawing or scrapping, part of the mica until it is under the surface of the copper of a commutator. a. grooving b. undercutting c. annealing d. tempering 189. A modified v-groove which has the lower sides cut in the shape of u. a. undercut u-groove b. u-groove c. annealing u-groove d. tempering u-groove 190. Memory lost when operating power is removed. a. operating memory b. power memory c. volatile memory d. lost memory

191. One form of traction sheave groove which is contoured in the shape of a straight-sided, flat bottom v. a. v-groove b. sheave v-groove

c. contoured v-groove d. traction v-groove 192. A small glass panel located in the entrance doors to permit the passengers or attendant to see when the car has reached the landing. a. entrance panel b. landing panel c. door panel d. vision panel 193. An indicator which shows at which landings and for which direction elevator hall stop-or-signal calls have been registered and are unanswered. a. direction indicator b. landing indicator c. waiting-passenger indicator d. stop-or-signal indicator 194. So constructed or protected that exposure to the weather will not interfere with its successful operation. a. fire proof b. weather proof c. climate proof d. interfere proof 195. An assembly consisting of a surrounding frame and one or more sashes, ventilators, or fixed lights, or a combination of these, designed to be installed in a wall opening for the purpose of admitting light or air or both. a. door b. window c. ceiling d. floor 196. The pressure measured at the cylinder of a hydraulic elevator when lifting car and its rated load at rated speed, or with Class C-2 loading when levelling up with maximum static load. a. working pressure b. yield strength c. ultimate pressure d. pressure 197. The tensile stress that is sufficient to produce a permanent deformation of 0.2% a. working pressure b. yield strength

c. ultimate pressure d. pressure 198. A manually operated device that initiates he action of controls or controllers. a. antirunaway (safety stop) b. bracing c. backstop d. actuator 199. A safety device to stop and hold the uncontrolled descent of a platform or carrier. a. antirunaway (safety stop) b. bracing c. backstop d. actuator 200. A mechanical device to prevent reversal of a loaded vertical or inclined reciprocating conveyor under action of gravity when upward travel is interrupted. a. antirunaway (safety stop) b. bracing c. backstop d. actuator 201. Structural members used to stabilize the supporting structure. a. antirunaway (safety stop) b. bracing c. backstop d. actuator 202. A friction device for slowing down conveyor components, bringing conveyor equipment to a controlled stop, holding travelling equipment at a selected landing, preventing reverse travel, and controlling overspeed due to the action of gravity. a. brake b. controller c. counter weight d. emergency stop 203. The moving part of a vertical or inclined reciprocating conveyor that supports the load. a. carrier or platform b. controller c. counter weight d. emergency stop

204. The system governing the starting, stopping, direction of motion, acceleration, speed, retardation identification, and function of the moving member in a predetermined manner. a. brake b. control c. counter weight d. emergency stop 205. An electromechanical device or assembly of device for starting, stopping, accelerating, or decelerating a drive, or serving to govern in the predetermined manner the power delivered to the drive. a. brake b. controller c. counter weight d. emergency stop 206. Weights in a structural frame used to balance or impose a load. a. brake b. controller c. counter weight d. emergency stop 207. An assembly of the necessary structural, mechanical and electrical parts that provides the motive power. a. brake b. controller c. counter weight d. drive 208. A stop resulting from a sudden and unexpected need, and not as part of the normal operation. a. brake b. controller c. counter weight d. emergency stop 209. A point at which moving or rotating machinery components may entrap persons or objects by nipping, pinching, or squeezing. a. rotating point b. squeezing point c. pinching point d. nip point 210. A gas originating from naturally occurring gas- or oil- bearing strata.

a. natural gas b. fuel gas c. refrigerant gas d. sewage gas 211. Include natural gas, liquefied petroleum gases, coke-oven gas, coal gas, oil gas, carburetted water gas, water gas, producer gas, and blast-furnace gas. a. natural gas b. fuel gas c. refrigerant gas d. sewage gas 212. A number of the common refrigerants, such as ammonia, methyl chloride, ethyl chloride, methyl bromide, and ethyl bromide, have varying degrees of flammability. a. natural gas b. fuel gas c. refrigerant gas d. sewage gas 213. Results from the fermentation or decomposition of organic matter. a. natural gas b. fuel gas c. refrigerant gas d. sewage gas 214. Pipes located below the public sewer shall discharge into a sump or receiving tank. a. building drains b. areaway drains c. window areaway drains d. paved drains 215. Shall be provided in all open subsurface space adjacent to a building and serving as an entrance to the basement of a building. a. building drains b. areaway drains c. window areaway drains d. paved drains 216. When surface water drainage sloped is to use to drain water, the sumps, gratings, or floor drains that collect the water shall be piped to a storm drain or an approved water course. a. building drains b. areaway drains

c. window areaway drains d. paved drains 217. Gas used in a medical facility, including oxygen, nitrous oxide, carbon dioxide, helium, medical air, and mixtures of these gases. Standards of purity apply. a. medical gas b. medical air c. medical gas system d. manifold 218. The pipe from the source of supply to a building or structure. a. building supply b. structure pipe c. building pipe d. structure supply 219. A device for connecting outlets of one or more gas cylinders to the central piping system for that specific gas. [NFPA 99 22] a. medical gas b. medical air c. medical gas system d. manifold 220. Any portion of a healthcare facility wherein patients are intended to be examined or treated. [NFPA 99 22] a. patient care area b. purge, flow c. purge, system d. special hazard area 221. The removal oxygen from a system by oil free dry nitrogen during brazing. a. patient care area b. purge, flow c. purge, system d. special hazard area 222. The removal of nitrogen from a system with the medical gas required for that system. a. patient care area b. purge, flow c. purge, system d. special hazard area

223. An area such as a kitchen or electrical switchgear room. a. patient care area b. purge, flow c. purge, system d. special hazard area 224. An inlet point in a medical surgical piped vacuum distribution system at which the user makes connections and disconnections. [NFPA 99 3.3.171] a. station inlet b. station outlet c. use inlet d. use outlet 225. An inlet point in a piped medical/surgical vacuum distribution system at which the user makes connections and disconnections. [NFPA 3.3.167] a. station inlet b. station outlet c. use inlet d. use outlet 226. A room or area of a room where medical gases are dispensed to a single patient for medica purposes. a. high point b. low point c. use point d. work point 227. A valve that isolates one piece of equipment from another. a. valve, isolation b. valve, riser c. valve, service d. valve, zone 228. A valve at the base of a vertical riser that isolates that riser. a. valve, isolation b. valve, riser c. valve, service d. valve, zone 229. A valve serving horizontal piping extending from a riser to a station outlet or inlet. a. valve, isolation b. valve, riser

c. valve, service d. valve, zone 230. A single valve at the source that controls a number of units that makes up the source. a. valve, isolation b. valve, riser c. valve, source d. valve, zone 231. A valve that controls the gas or vacuum to a particular area. a. valve, isolation b. valve, riser c. valve, service d. valve, zone 232. A fire alarm system component such as bell, horn, speaker, light, or text display that provides audible, tactile, or visible outputs, or any combination thereof. a. fire alarm signal b. fire alarm control unit c. alarm notification appliance d. alarm signal 233. A signal indicating an emergency requiring immediate action, such as signal indicative of fire. a. fire alarm signal b. fire alarm control unit c. alarm notification appliance d. alarm signal 234. A system component that receives inputs from automatic and manual fire alarm devices and is capable of supplying power to detection devices and transponder(s) of transmitter(s). a. fire alarm signal b. fire alarm control unit c. alarm notification appliance d. alarm signal 235. A signal initiated by a fire alarm-initiating device such as manual fire alarm box, automatic fire detector, water-flow switch, or other device whose activation is indicative of the presence of a fire of a fire signature. a. fire alarm signal b. fire alarm control unit c. alarm notification appliance d. alarm signal

236. A unit containing one or more indicator lamps, alphanumeric displays, or other equivalent means in which each indication provides status information about a circuit, condition or location. a. annunciator b. fire alarm control unit c. alarm notification appliance d. alarm signal 237. A notification appliance that alerts through the sense of hearing. a. fire alarm signal b. fire alarm control unit c. audible alarm notification appliance d. alarm signal 238. The root mean square, a-weighted sound pressure level measured over a 24-hour period. a. ambient sound level b. fire alarm control unit c. alarm notification appliance d. average ambient sound level 239. Electrically non-conducting, volatile, or gaseous fire extinguisher that does not leave a residue upon evaporation. a. clean agent b. deluge system c. detector, heat d. fire alarm system 240. A sprinkler system employing open sprinklers attached to a piping system connected to a water supply through a valve that is opened by the operation of detection system installed in the same area as the sprinklers. a. clean agent b. deluge system c. detector, heat d. fire alarm system 241. A fire detector thats senses heat produced by burning substances. a. clean agent b. deluge system c. detector, heat d. fire alarm system

242. A system or portion of a combination system consisting of components and circuits arranged to monitor and annunciate the status of fire alarm or supervisory signal-initiating devices and to initiate the appropriate response to those signals. a. clean agent b. deluge system c. detector, heat d. fire alarm system 243. Apparatus or equipment provided or installed/ or use in the event of an emergency. a. fire appliance b. fire area c. fire detector, automatic d. fire protection system 244. The aggregate floor area enclosed and bounded by fire walls, fire barriers, exterior walls, or fireresistance-rated horizontal assemblies of a building. a. fire appliance b. fire area c. fire detector, automatic d. fire protection system 245. A device designed to detect the presence of a fire signature and to initiate action. a. fire appliance b. fire area c. fire detector, automatic d. fire protection system 246. Approved devices, equipment and systems or combinations of systems used to detect a fire, activate an alarm, extinguish or control a fire, control a manage smoke and products of a fire or any combination thereof. a. fire appliance b. fire area c. fire detector, automatic d. fire protection system 247. Building and fire control functions that are intended to increase the level of life safety for occupants or to control the spread of the harmful effects of fire. a. impairment coordinator b. halogenated extinguishing system c. foam-extinguishing system d. fire safety functions

248. A special system discharging a foam made from concentrates, either mechanically or chemically, over the area to provide protection. a. impairment coordinator b. halogenated extinguishing system c. foam-extinguishing system d. fire safety functions 249. A fire extinguishing system using one or more atoms of an element from the halogen chemical series: fluorine, chlorine, bromine, and iodine. a. impairment coordinator b. halogenated extinguishing system c. foam-extinguishing system d. fire safety functions 250. The person responsible for the maintenance of a particular fire protection system. a. impairment coordinator b. fire coordinator c. maintenance coordinator d. fireman 251. A system component that originates transmission of a change-of-state condition such as in a smoke detector, manual fire alarm box, or supervisory switch. a. initiating device b. halogenated extinguishing device c. foam-extinguishing device d. fire safety device 252. A manually-operated fire device used to initiate an alarm signal. a. nuisance alarm b. multiple-station smoke alarm c. multiple-station alarm device d. manual fire alarm box 253. Two or more single-station alarm devices that can be interconnected such that the actuation of one causes all integral or separate audible alarms to operate. It can also consist of one singlestation alarm device having connections to other detectors or to a manual fire alarm box. a. nuisance alarm b. multiple-station smoke alarm c. multiple-station alarm device d. manual fire alarm box

254. Two or more single-station devices that is capable of interconnection such that actuation of one causes all integral or separate audible alarms to operate. a. nuisance alarm b. multiple-station smoke alarm c. multiple-station alarm device d. manual fire alarm box 255. An alarm caused by mechanical failure, malfunction, improper installation, of lack of proper maintenance, or an alarm activated by a cause that cannot be determined. a. nuisance alarm b. multiple-station smoke alarm c. multiple-station alarm device d. manual fire alarm box 256. Drawings (as builds) that document the location of all devices, appliances, wiring sequences, wiring methods, and connections of the components of a fire alarm system as installed. a. nuisance drawing b. multiple-station smoke drawing c. multiple-station alarm drawing d. record drawings 257. An assembly incorporating the detector, the control equipment, and the alarm-sounding device in one unit, operated from a power supply either in the unit or obtained at the point of installation. a. nuisance alarm b. multiple-station smoke alarm c. multiple-station alarm device d. single-station smoke alarm 258. A room or a space in which people sleep, which can also include permanent provisions for living, eating and either sanitation or kitchen facilities but not both. Such rooms and spaces that are also part of a dwelling unit are not sleeping units. a. sleeping unit b. maintenance unit c. storage unit d. sanitation unit 259. A single or multiple-station alarm responsive to smoke and not connected to a system. a. supervisory service b. supervising station c. smoke detector d. smoke alarm

260. A listed device that senses visible or invisible particles of combustion. a. supervisory service b. supervising station c. smoke detector d. smoke alarm 261. A facility that receives signals and at which personnel are in attendance at all times to respond to these signals. a. supervisory service b. supervising station c. smoke detector d. supervisory signal initiating device 262. The service required to monitor performance of guard tours and the operative condition of fixed suppression systems or other systems for the protection of life and property. a. supervisory service b. supervising station c. smoke detector d. supervisory signal initiating device 263. A signal indicating the need of action in connection with the supervision of guard tours, the fire suppression systems or equipment, or the maintenance features of related systems. a. supervisory service b. supervisory signal c. smoke detector d. supervisory signal initiating device 264. A signal initiated by the fire alarm system or device indicative of a fault in a monitored circuit or component. a. supervisory signal b. trouble signal c. wireless protection system d. supervisory signal initiating device 265. A notification appliance that alerts through the sense of sight. a. zone b. wireless protection system c. wet-chemical extinguishing agent d. visible alarm notification appliance 266. A solution of water and potassium-carbonate-based chemical, potassium-acetate-based chemical or a combination thereof, fanning an extinguishing agent.

a. zone b. wireless protection system c. wet-chemical extinguishing agent d. visible alarm notification appliance 267. A system or a part of a system that can transmit and receive signals without the aid of wire. a. zone b. wireless protection system c. wireless receiver d. wireless connection zone 268. A defined area within the protected premises. a. zone b. fire area c. storage room d. maintenance room 269. A service tank used in agriculture for applying anhydrous ammonia to the soil, or for other agricultural uses. a. applicator tank b. appurtenance tank c. storage tank d. artificial tank 270. A device installed on and used in the normal operation of the vessel. This includes, but is not limited to, safety relief devices, liquid level gauging devices, valves, and pressure gauges. a. applicator tank b. appurtenance c. appurtenance heat d. artificial heat 271. Any heat other than solar or atmospheric heat. a. heat transfer b. wind heat c. solar heat d. artificial heat 272. A pipe failure mode which exhibits no visible (to the naked eye) material deformation (stretching, elongation, or necking down) in the area of the break. a. brittle failure b. ductile failure c. a and b

d. none of these 273. A pipe failure mode which exhibits material deformation (stretching, elongation, or necking down) in the area of the break. a. brittle failure b. ductile failure c. a and b d. none of these 274. Certification issued by the Division to persons who have satisfactory passed the written boiler and pressure vessel inspectors examination prescribed by the Division. a. certificate of competency b. certificate of resale inspection c. certificate of ASTM d. none of these 275. A certificate issued after a resale inspection and designating the maximum allowable working pressure for the tank when it is installed in compliance with these orders. a. certificate of competency b. certificate of resale inspection c. certificate of ASTM d. none of these 276. Storage in vessels other than DOT cylinders. a. bulk storage b. container assembly c. container d. none of these 277. An assembly consisting essentially of the container and fitting for all container openings, including shutoff valves, excess flow valves, liquid-level gauging devices, safety relief devices, and protective housing. a. bulk storage b. container assembly c. container d. none of these 278. Any vessel, including tanks, cylinders, tubes, portable tanks and cargo tanks, used for transporting or storing any liquid or gas. a. bulk storage b. container assembly c. container

d. none of these 279. A person holding a valid certificate of competency issued by the Division in accordance with the Boiler and Fired pressure Vessel Safety Orders. a. certified inspector b. qualified inspector c. qualified safety engineer d. none of these 280. Either a certified inspector or a qualified safety engineer. a. certified inspector b. qualified inspector c. qualified safety engineer d. none of these 281. A person who is qualified to make inspections or examinations of boilers or tanks according to the rules under which the vessel was constructed, and who holds a valid certificate of competency issued by the division. a. certified inspector b. qualified inspector c. qualified safety engineer d. none of these 282. A tank used in agriculture for off highway service to deliver NH3 from a transportation tank or storage tank to an applicator tank in the field. a. nurse tank b. storage tank c. transportation tank d. trap tank (trap wagon) 283. A tank permanently located and used to store a product or to supply a product to utilization equipment. a. nurse tank b. storage tank c. transportation tank d. trap tank (trap wagon) 284. A tank permanently installed on a truck, trailer, or semi-trailer used to transport aproduct over highway. a. nurse tank b. storage tank c. transportation tank

d. trap tank (trap wagon) 285. A tank mounted on wheels for off-highway use and having a capacity of 1200 gallons or less and used to transport LP-Gas from a storage tank to a mobile fuel tank. a. nurse tank b. storage tank c. transportation tank d. trap tank (trap wagon) 286. An air tank mounted with an air compressor on a toed vehicle. a. portable air tank b. portable LNG tank c. portable NH3 tank d. mobile storage tank, MST 287. A service tank not exceeding 2,000-gallon water capacity used to transport LNG. a. portable air tank b. portable LNG tank c. portable NH3 tank d. mobile storage tank, MST 288. A service tank not exceeding 1200-gallons capacity used to transport anhydrous ammonia. a. portable air tank b. portable LNG tank c. portable NH3 tank d. mobile storage tank, MST 289. A tank installed on a trailer or semi-trailer, and used temporarily to receive and store anhydrous ammonia. Temporarily means not more than 120 days. a. portable air tank b. portable LNG tank c. portable NH3 tank d. mobile storage tank, MST 290. A vessel mounted on a vehicle or other readily portable device and used only to supply fuel to an internal combustion engine or other equipment secured to the vehicle or device. a. mobile fuel tank b. mobile storage module c. motor fuel tank d. tank

291. Assembly of a multiple number of tubes securely fastened within a framework structure and used in DOT service. a. mobile fuel tank b. mobile storage module c. motor fuel tank d. tank 292. A recognized architectural or mechanical component of a building having a fire resistance rating as required for the structure and whose purpose is to enclose the vapor removal duct for its full length to its termination point outside the structure without any portion of the enclosure having a fire resistance rating less than the required value. [NFPA 96:3.3.22.1] a. continues enclosure b. factorybuilt grease enclosure c. fieldapplied grease duct enclosures d. none of the these 293. A listed factory built grease duct enclosure system evaluated for reduced clearances to combustibles, as an alternative to a duct with its fire rated enclosure. [NFPA 96:3.3.22.1] a. continues enclosure b. factorybuilt grease enclosure c. fieldapplied grease duct enclosures d. none of the these 294. A listed system evaluated for reduced clearances to combustibles, and as an alternative to a duct with its fire rated enclosure. [NFPA 96:3.3.22.2.2] a. continues enclosure b. factorybuilt grease enclosure c. fieldapplied grease duct enclosures d. none of the these 295. Material subject to an increase in combustibility or flame spread rating beyond the limits established in the definition of Limited Combustible Material. a. combustible materials b. non-combustible materials c. flammable vapor or fumes d. none of the these 296. A material that, in the form in which it is used and under the conditions anticipated, will not ignite, burn, support combustion, or release flammable vapors when subjected to fire or heat. a. combustible materials b. non-combustible materials c. flammable vapor or fumes

d. none of the these 297. The concentration of flammable constituents in air that exceeds twenty-five percent (25%) of its Lower Flammability Limit (LFL). a. combustible materials b. non-combustible materials c. flammable vapor or fumes d. none of the these 298. Are movable component of the grease removal system designed to capture grease and direct it to a safe collection point before it enters a duct system. a. grease filter b. grease filter, mesh-type c. secondary filtration d. none of the these 299. A general air purpose air filter designed to collect and retain lint and grease from the air passing through it. a. grease filter b. grease filter, mesh-type c. secondary filtration d. none of the these 300. Fume incinerators, thermal conductivity units, air pollution control devices or other filtration media installed in ducts or hoods located in the path of travel of exhaust products after the initial filtration. a. grease filter b. grease filter, mesh-type c. secondary filtration d. none of the these 301. A valve or plate within a duct or its terminal components for controlling draft or the flow of gasses, including air. [NFPA 96:3.3.15] a. damper b. dips c. fire partition d. greasetight 302. Depression or cup like places in horizontal ducts runs in which liquids could accumulate. [NFPA 96:3.3.17] a. damper b. dips

c. fire partition d. greasetight 303. An interior wall or partition of a building that separates two areas and serves to restrict the spread of fire but does not qualify as a firewall. a. damper b. dips c. fire partition d. greasetight 304. Constructed and performing in such a manner as not to permit the passage of any grease under normal cooking. [NFPA 96:3.3.8.1] a. damper b. dips c. fire partition d. grease tight 305. The supporting frame to which the car platform, upper and lower sets of guide shoes, car safety and hoisting ropes or rope sheaves of a cable elevator are usually attached or the plunger or cylinder of a direct plunger elevator are attached. a. car frame (sling) b. frame, overslung c. car frame, underslug d. car frame, sub-post 306. A car frame to which the hoisting rope fastenings or hoisting rope sheaves are attached to the crosshead or top member of the car frame. a. car frame (sling) b. frame, overslung c. car frame, underslug d. car frame, sub-post 307. A car frame to which the hoisting rope fastenings or hoisting rope sheaves are attached at or below the car platform. a. car frame (sling) b. frame, overslung c. car frame, underslug d. car frame, sub-post 308. A car frame, all of whose members are located below the car platform. a. car frame (sling) b. frame, overslung

c. car frame, underslug d. car frame, sub-post 309. A car frame sufficiently offset from the center of the platform to require special design and construction not covered by the formulas in Article 18. a. car frame (sling) b. frame, overslung c. car frame, underslug d. none of these 310. The operation of advancing the elevator drives motor speed from zero to normal operating speed. a. acceleration b. velocity c. speed d. none of the above 311. The portion of a sheave contacted by a rope. Measured in degrees of contact. a. angle of contact b. angle of inclination c. angle of sheave d. none of the above 312. An electrical device, the function of which is to prevent the operation of the driving machine by the normal operating device unless the car door or gate is in the closed position. a. car door or gate power closer b. car door or gate electric contact c. car door or gate power closed d. car, elevator 313. A device or assembly of devices which closes a manually opened car door or gate by power other than by hand, gravity, springs, or the movement of the car. a. car door or gate power closer b. car door or gate electric contact c. car door or gate power closed d. car, elevator 314. A door or gate which is closed by a door or gate power operator. a. car door or gate power closer b. car door or gate electric contact c. car door or gate power closed d. car, elevator

315. The load-carrying unit, including its platform, car frame, enclosure, and car door or gate. a. car door or gate power closer b. car door or gate electric contact c. car door or gate power closed d. car, elevator 316. The structure which forms the floor of the car and which directly supports the load. a. car platform b. car platform, laminated c. car platform frame d. none of the above 317. A self-supporting platform constructed of plywood with a bonded steel sheet facing on both top and bottom surfaces. a. car platform b. car platform, laminated c. car platform frame d. none of the above 318. A structure frame, composed of interconnecting members, which supports the car platform floor. a. car platform b. car platform, laminated c. car platform frame d. none of the above 319. The movable portion(s) of the car entrance which closes the opening, providing access to the car or landings. a. car platform b. car platform, laminated c. car platform frame d. none of the above 320. Any person who has been determined by the Authority Having Jurisdiction to have the qualifications and ability of a competent conveyance inspector and is certified as a CCCI by the Authority Having Jurisdiction. a. Certified Competent Conveyance Mechanic b. Certified Competent Conveyance Inspector c. Certified Qualified Conveyance Company d. none of the above

321. Any person who has been determined by the Authority Having Jurisdiction to have the qualifications and ability of a competent journey-level elevator mechanic and is certified as a CCCM by the Authority Having Jurisdiction. a. Certified Competent Conveyance Mechanic b. Certified Competent Conveyance Inspector c. Certified Qualified Conveyance Company d. none of the above 322. Any person, firm, or corporation that, (1) possesses a valid elevator contractors license accredited by the PCAB, and (2) is certified as a CQCC a. Certified Competent Conveyance Mechanic b. Certified Competent Conveyance Inspector c. Certified Qualified Conveyance Company d. none of the above 323. The clear vertical distance from the pit floor to the lowest structural or mechanical part, equipment or device installed beneath the car platform, except guide shoes or rollers, safety jaw assemblies and platform aprons or guards, or other equipment located within 12 inches horizontally from the edge of the platform, when the car rests on its fully compressed buffer. a. clearance, bottom car b. clearance, top car c. clearance, top counterweight d. none of the above 324. The shortest vertical distance between the tip of the car crosshead, or between the top of the car whichever is higher, and the nearest part of the overhead structure or any other obstryction when the car floor is level with top terminal landing. a. clearance, bottom car b. clearance, top car c. clearance, top counterweight d. none of the above 325. The shortest vertical distance between any part of the counterweight structure and the nearest part of the overhead structure or any other obstruction when the car floor is level with the bottom terminal landing. a. clearance, bottom car b. clearance, top car c. clearance, top counterweight d. none of the above 326. Wire rope which does not pass over the driving means and is used to connect the car and counterweight.

a. rope, car-counterweight b. rope, compensating c. rope, counterweight d. rope, governor 327. Wire rope used to counterbalance, or partially counterbalance, the weight of the suspension ropes. a. rope, car-counterweight b. rope, compensating c. rope, counterweight d. rope, governor 328. Wire rope used to raise and lower the counterweight or an electric elevator having a winding drum machine or a hydraulic elevator equipped with a counterweight. a. rope, car-counterweight b. rope, compensating c. rope, counterweight d. rope, governor 329. Wire rope with at least one end fastened to the safety activating means or governor rope releasing carrier, passing over and driving the governor sheave, and providing continuous information on the speed and direction of the car of counterweight. a. rope, car-counterweight b. rope, compensating c. rope, counterweight d. rope, governor 330. Wire roped used to raise and lower an elevator car or its counterweight, or both. a. rope suspension (hoisting) b. rope equalizer, suspension c. rope-fastening device, auxiliary d. rope sprocket drive 331. A device installed on an elevator car or counterweight to equalize automatically the tensions in the hoisting wire ropes. a. rope suspension (hoisting) b. rope equalizer, suspension c. rope-fastening device, auxiliary d. rope sprocket drive 332. A device attached to the car or counterweight or to the overhead dead-end rope hitch support which will function automatically to support the car or counterweight in case the regular wire

rope fastening fails at the point of connection to the car or counterweight or at the overhead dead-end hitch. a. rope suspension (hoisting) b. rope equalizer, suspension c. rope-fastening device, auxiliary d. rope sprocket drive 333. A driving means consisting of wire rope which fixed links at constant intervals throughout its length. a. rope suspension (hoisting) b. rope equalizer, suspension c. rope-fastening device, auxiliary d. rope sprocket drive 334. The distance between the car buffer striker plate and the striking surface of the car buffer when the car floor is level with the bottom terminal landing. a. runby, bottom elevator car b. runby, bottom elevator counterweight c. runby, top, direct-plunger hydraulic elevator d. none of these 335. The distance between the counterweight buffer striker plate and the striking surface of the counterweight buffer when the car floor is level with the top terminal landing. a. runby, bottom elevator car b. runby, bottom elevator counterweight c. runby, top, direct-plunger hydraulic elevator d. none of these 336. The distance the elevator car can run above its top terminal landing before the plunger strikes its mechanical stop. a. runby, bottom elevator car b. runby, bottom elevator counterweight c. runby, top, direct-plunger hydraulic elevator d. none of these 337. A closure at the bottom of the cylinder head and provided with an orifice for controlling the loss of fluid in the event of the cylinder head failure. a. runby, bottom elevator car b. runby, bottom elevator counterweight c. runby, top, Direct-plunger hydraulic elevator d. none of these

338. Unit of frequency. a. hertz b. farad c. ohm d. siemens 339. Unit of capacitance. a. hertz b. farad c. ohm d. siemens 340. Unit of electric resistance. a. hertz b. farad c. ohm d. siemens 341. Unit of conductance. a. hertz b. farad c. ohm d. siemens 342. Unit of absorbed dose. a. gray b. becquerel c. lux d. lumen 343. Unit of activity (of radionuclides) a. gray b. becquerel c. lux d. lumen 344. Unit of luminance. a. gray b. becquerel c. lux d. lumen

345. Unit of luminous flux. a. gray b. becquerel c. lux d. lumen 346. Unit of inductance. a. henry b. tesla c. weber d. coulomb 347. Unit of magnetic flux density. a. henry b. tesla c. weber d. coulomb 348. Unit of magnetic flux. a. henry b. tesla c. weber d. coulomb 349. Unit of quantity of electricity, electric charge. a. henry b. tesla c. weber d. coulomb 350. Unit of energy, work, quantity of heat. a. joule b. volt c. watt d. newton 351. Unit of electric potential, potential difference, electromotive force. a. joule b. volt c. watt d. newton

352. Unit of power, radiant flux. a. joule b. volt c. watt d. newton 353. Unit of force. a. joule b. volt c. watt d. newton 354. What is the standard number of a residential duct systems standard title for ducts application? a. ACCA Manual D-2002 b. ACCA Manual J-2003 c. ACCA Manual N Fifth Edition d. ACCA Manual Q 355. What is the standard number of a residential load calculations standard title for ducts application? a. ACCA Manual D-2002 b. ACCA Manual J-2003 c. ACCA Manual N Fifth Edition d. ACCA Manual Q 356. What is the standard number of a commercial load calculation standard title for ducts application? a. ACCA Manual D-2002 b. ACCA Manual J-2003 c. ACCA Manual N Fifth Edition d. ACCA Manual Q 357. What is the standard number of a low pressure low velocity duct systems design standard title for ducts application? a. ACCA Manual D-2002 b. ACCA Manual J-2003 c. ACCA Manual N Fifth Edition d. ACCA Manual Q 358. What is the standard number of a specification for fluorocarbon refrigerant standard title for refrigerant application? a. ARI 700-2006*

b. ASCE 25-2006 c. ASHRAE 15-2007* d. ASHRAE 34-2007* 359. What is the standard number of an earthquake actuated automatic gas shutoff devices standard title for earthquake valves, shutoff valves application? a. ARI 700-2006* b. ASCE 25-2006 c. ASHRAE 15-2007* d. ASHRAE 34-2007* 360. What is the standard number of safety refrigeration system standard title for refrigeration systems application? a. ARI 700-2006* b. ASCE 25-2006 c. ASHRAE 15-2007* d. ASHRAE 34-2007* 361. What is the standard number of designation and safety classification of refrigerants for refrigeration classifications application? a. ARI 700-2006* b. ASCE 25-2006 c. ASHRAE 15-2007* d. ASHRAE 34-2007* 362. What is the standard number of ventilation for acceptable indoor air quantity for indoor air quantity ventilation application? a. ASHRAE 62.1-2007* b. ASRAE 129-1997* (RA 2002) c. ASHRAE Climatic Conditions d. ASHRAE Handbook 363. What is the standard number of measuring air-change effectiveness for used as an alternate sizing value application? a. ASHRAE 62.1-2007* b. ASRAE 129-1997* (RA 2002) c. ASHRAE Climatic Conditions d. ASHRAE Handbook 364. What is the standard number of panel heating systems for design application? a. ASHRAE Volume 1980 b. ASME A13.1-2007*

c. ASME A112.4.1-1993* d. ASME A112.18.16-2003* 365. What is the standard number of scheme for the identification of piping systems for piping application? a. ASHRAE Volume 1980 b. ASME A13.1-2007* c. ASME A112.4.1-1993* d. ASME A112.18.16-2003* 366. What is the standard number of water heater relief valve drain for drain tubes, relief valve application? a. ASHRAE Volume 1980 b. ASME A13.1-2007* c. ASME A112.4.1-1993* d. ASME A112.18.16-2003* 367. What is the standard number of flexible water connectors for product; connectors flexible connectors, water connection application? a. ASHRAE Volume 1980 b. ASME A13.1-2007* c. ASME A112.4.1-1993* d. ASME A112.18.16-2003* 368. What is the standard number of qualification of installers of high purity piping systems for certification: high purity piping, installers application? a. ASME A112.20.1-2004* b. ASME B1.20.1-1983 (2006)* c. ASME B1.20.3-1976 (2003)* d. ASME B16.1-2005 369. What is the standard number of pipe threads, general purpose, inch for threads application? a. ASME A112.20.1-2004* b. ASME B1.20.1-1983 (2006)* c. ASME B1.20.3-1976 (2003)* d. ASME B16.1-2005 370. What is the standard number of dryseal pipe threads, inch joints for threads application? a. ASME A112.20.1-2004* b. ASME B1.20.1-1983 (2006)* c. ASME B1.20.3-1976 (2003)* d. ASME B16.1-2005

371. What is the standard number of cast-iron pipe flanges and flanged fittings, classes 25, 125, 250 for cast fittings, cast iron fittings, copper alloy fittings, flanged fittings, pressure fittings, solder fittings application? a. ASME A112.20.1-2004* b. ASME B1.20.1-1983 (2006)* c. ASME B1.20.3-1976 (2003)* d. ASME B16.1-2005 372. What is the standard number of cast copper alloy solder joint pressure fittings for cast fittings, copper alloy fittings, pressure fittings, solder fittings application? a. ASME B16.18-2001 (R2005) b. ASME B16.18-2001 (R2005) c. ASME B16.20-1998 (R2004)* d. ASME B16.22-2001 (R2005)* 373. What is the standard number of cast copper alloy solder joint pressure fittings for cast fittings, copper alloy fittings, pressure fittings, solder fittings application? a. ASME B16.18-2001 (R2005) b. ASME B16.18-2001 (R2005) c. ASME B16.20-1998 (R2004)* d. ASME B16.22-2001 (R2005)* 374. What is the standard number of metallic gaskets for pipe flanges; spiral-wound, and jacketed for pipe flanges application? a. ASME B16.18-2001 (R2005) b. ASME B16.18-2001 (R2005) c. ASME B16.20-1998 (R2004)* d. ASME B16.22-2001 (R2005)* 375. What is the standard number of wrought copper and copper alloy solder joint pressure fittings for copper alloy fittings, pressure fittings, solder fittings, wrought fittings application? a. ASME B16.18-2001 (R2005) b. ASME B16.18-2001 (R2005) c. ASME B16.20-1998 (R2004)* d. ASME B16.22-2001 (R2005)* 376. What is the standard number of aluminum and aluminum-alloy drawn seamless tubes/ aluminium and aluminum-alloy drawn seamless tubes metric for product application? a. ASTM B 2102004/B210M-2005 b. ASTM B 241/241M-2002 c. ASTM D 93-2007

d. ASTM D 2513-2007b* 377. What is the standard number of aluminum and aluminum-alloy seamless pipe and seamless extruded tube for product application? a. ASTM B 2102004/B210M-2005 b. ASTM B 241/241M-2002 c. ASTM D 93-2007 d. ASTM D 2513-2007b* 378. What is the standard number of standard test methods for flash point by Pensky-Martens closed cup tester for certification application? a. ASTM B 2102004/B210M-2005 b. ASTM B 241/241M-2002 c. ASTM D 93-2007 d. ASTM D 2513-2007b* 379. What is the standard number of thermoplastic gas pressure pipe, tubing and fittings for product application? a. ASTM B 2102004/B210M-2005 b. ASTM B 241/241M-2002 c. ASTM D 93-2007 d. ASTM D 2513-2007b* 380. What is the standard number of crosslinked polyethylene (PEX) tubing for piping application? a. ASTM F 876-2006* b. ASTM F 877-2005e1* c. ASTM F 1973-2005* d. ASTM F 1974-2004* 381. What is the standard number of crosslinked polyethylene (PEX) plastic hot-and cold-water distribution systems for piping application? a. ASTM F 876-2006* b. ASTM F 877-2005e1* c. ASTM F 1973-2005* d. ASTM F 1974-2004* 382. What is the standard number of factory assembled anodeless risers and transition fittings in polyethylene (PE) and polymide 11 (PA11) fuel gas distribution for piping connection application? a. ASTM F 876-2006* b. ASTM F 877-2005e1* c. ASTM F 1973-2005* d. ASTM F 1974-2004*

383. What is the standard number of standard specification for metal insert fittings for polyethyrene/ aluminum/ polyethylene and crosslinked polyethylene/aluminum/crosslinked polyethylene composite pressure pipe for joints application? a. ASTM F 876-2006* b. ASTM F 877-2005e1* c. ASTM F 1973-2005* d. ASTM F 1974-2004* 384. Which of the following International Association Plumbing and Mechanical Officials (IAPMO) is used for tile-lined roman bathtubs? a. IS 2-2003 b. IS 3-2003 c. IS 4-2003 d. IS 5-2003 385. Which of the following International Association Plumbing and Mechanical Officials (IAPMO) is used for copper plumbing tube, pipe, and fittings? a. IS 2-2003 b. IS 3-2003 c. IS 4-2003 d. IS 5-2003 386. Which of the following International Association Plumbing and Mechanical Officials (IAPMO) is used for tile-lined shower receptors (and replacements)? a. IS 2-2003 b. IS 3-2003 c. IS 4-2003 d. IS 5-2003 387. Which of the following International Association Plumbing and Mechanical Officials (IAPMO) is used for ABS building drain, waste, and vent pipe and fittings? a. IS 2-2003 b. IS 3-2003 c. IS 4-2003 d. IS 5-2003 388. Which of the following International Association Plumbing and Mechanical Officials (IAPMO) is used for hubless cast iron sanitary and rainwater systems? a. IS 6-2003 b. IS 7-2003 c. IS 8-2003

d. IS 9-2003 389. Which of the following International Association Plumbing and Mechanical Officials (IAPMO) is used for polyethylene (PE) cold water building supply? a. IS 6-2003 b. IS 7-2003 c. IS 8-2003 d. IS 9-2003 390. Which of the following International Association Plumbing and Mechanical Officials (IAPMO) is used for PVC cold water building supply and yard piping? a. IS 6-2003 b. IS 7-2003 c. IS 8-2003 d. IS 9-2003 391. Which of the following International Association Plumbing and Mechanical Officials (IAPMO) is used for PVC building drain, waste and vent pipe and fittings? a. IS 6-2003 b. IS 7-2003 c. IS 8-2003 d. IS 9-2003 392. Which of the following International Association Plumbing and Mechanical Officials (IAPMO) is used for ABS sewer pipe and fittings? a. IS 11-2003 b. IS 12-2003 c. IS 13-2003 d. IS 15-2003 393. Which of the following International Association Plumbing and Mechanical Officials (IAPMO) is used for protectively coated pipe? a. IS 11-2003 b. IS 12-2003 c. IS 13-2003 d. IS 15-2003 394. Which of the following International Association Plumbing and Mechanical Officials (IAPMO) is used for Polyethylene (PE) for gas yard piping? a. IS 11-2003 b. IS 12-2003 c. IS 13-2003

d. IS 15-2003 395. Which of the following International Association Plumbing and Mechanical Officials (IAPMO) is used for asbestos cement pressure pipe for water service and yard piping? a. IS 11-2003 b. IS 12-2003 c. IS 13-2003 d. IS 15-2003 396. Which of the following International Association Plumbing and Mechanical Officials (IAPMO) is used for extra strength vitrified clay pipe in building drains? a. IS 18-2003 b. IS 20-2003 c. IS 21-2003 d. IS 26-2003 397. Which of the following International Association Plumbing and Mechanical Officials (IAPMO) is used for CPVC solvent cemented hot and cold water distribution systems? a. IS 18-2003 b. IS 20-2003 c. IS 21-2003 d. IS 26-2003 398. Which of the following International Association Plumbing and Mechanical Officials (IAPMO) is used for welded copper and copper alloy water tube? a. IS 18-2003 b. IS 20-2003 c. IS 21-2003 d. IS 26-2003 399. Which of the following International Association Plumbing and Mechanical Officials (IAPMO) is used for trenchless polyethylene (PE) pipe for sewer laterals? a. IS 18-2003 b. IS 20-2003 c. IS 21-2003 d. IS 26-2003 400. Which of the following International Association Plumbing and Mechanical Officials (IAPMO) is used for composite PEX-AL-PEX hot and PE-AL-PE cold water distribution systems? a. IS 26-2003 b. IS 28-2005 c. IS 27-2003

d. IS 25-2003