Biology

2 0 0 3 A S S E S S M E N T R E P O R T

Science Learning Area

BIOLOGY 2003 ASSESSMENT REPORT

GENERAL COMMENTS
Student achievement in the 2003 Biology exam was the highest since the introduction of the new curriculum statement in 2000. The mean score for the 2003 examination was 59.4%, which compares with previous means of 57.7% (2002), 54.2% (2001), 53.7% (2000), 59.6% (1999) and 54.1% (1998). The range of examination marks was from 11 to 196 out of a possible 200. The mean marks for Sections A, B, C, and D were 62.3%, 59.3%, 68.8%, and 48.3% respectively.

ASSESSMENT COMPONENT 1: EXAMINATION SECTION A: MULTIPLE-CHOICE QUESTIONS

Twenty candidates scored full marks in Section A. The mean of facilities and range of facilities for each of the last five years are shown below. The facility for a question is the percentage of candidates who gave the correct response.

Year 2003 2002 2001 2000 1999

Mean (%) 62.4 59.4 56.1 57.9 58.7

Range (%) 26 to 86 20 to 86 32 to 83 24 to 95 33 to 88

It is the intention of the examination setters to produce multiple-choice questions that vary in difficulty from easy knowledge through to difficult knowledge and problem-solving. This variation in question difficulty is reflected in the range in the question facility as seen in the table above. Most questions are also intentionally discriminating so that, ideally, poorer candidates are likely to choose the four responses with equal frequency, whereas more capable candidates will show a distinct preference for the correct response. Data from the 2003 multiple-choice questions shows that the top ten percent of the candidates preferred the correct response for every question, whilst the bottom ten percent of candidates preferred the correct answers only for questions 1, 2, 8, 9, 12, 13, 17, 19, 20, 23, 24 and 25.

Multiple-Choice Analysis The table below indicates the correct response for each of the questions in Section A and the percentage of responses for each alternative for each question.
Question Correct Percentage of Responses for Each Alternative

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25

Answer J M M L M J L L L M M M K L J L K J L J K K K K K

J 81 3 11 17 17 26 13 17 5 19 4 17 11 40 62 15 6 47 22 80 9 17 16 1 6

K 9 15 5 12 6 37 24 12 11 10 6 1 61 6 9 3 78 22 10 3 64 35 77 83 86

L 10 5 12 58 12 4 55 55 68 6 18 11 12 33 19 35 8 12 51 16 3 4 5 13 1

M 1 78 73 13 65 32 8 15 16 65 73 71 16 21 10 48 7 18 17 2 23 45 3 2 7

COMMENTS ON SELECTED MULTIPLE-CHOICE QUESTIONS

Question 6 This was the most poorly done question in Section A. The role of genes in coding for RNA, whether it be mRNA, tRNA or rRNA seemed only to be known by the top decile of candidates. Not surprisingly, the lower deciles preferred alternative K, whilst the middle and upper deciles preferred M. These candidates seemed to have missed two important pieces of information in the question. Firstly, the bolded and italicised initially, and secondly that the question referred to all 30,000 human genes. Question 7 Candidates continue to struggle with the relationship between the size of a cell and its surface area to volume ratio, as has happened for many years. This question revealed that there is also doubt in candidates minds about the relationship between surface area and volume and the efficiency of exchange of materials.

Question 14 Three-quarters of the candidates knew that the conversion of ADP and phosphate into ATP required energy. However, the majority of these candidates thought that this conversion occurred only in mitochondria. Perhaps they forgot about fermentation (and glycolysis), or perhaps they were unaware that these processes occur in the cytoplasm. Question 16 Alternative M was a good distracter and suggested that almost half of the candidates thought that the thickness of the exchange surface affected its surface area. Only the top three deciles correctly selected alternative L. Question 19 Given the historically poor performance of candidates in questions about mitotic cell division and meiotic cell division it was pleasing that just over half of the candidates correctly selected alternative L. Surprisingly the correct alternative was preferred by all deciles, convincingly so by the top five deciles. Question 22 A discriminating question with only the top decile of candidates preferring the correct alternative. Most of the other deciles preferred alternative M. These candidates did not seem to realise that whilst different species may have different breeding seasons, this does not have to be the case. There may be other factors that cause the two species to be reproductively isolated. However, members of different species must have different chromosomes, whether that be different numbers of chromosomes, different sizes and shapes of chromosomes, or different genes on chromosomes.

SECTION B: SHORT-ANSWER QUESTIONS

In general, 2 marks are allocated for one well-expressed piece of information. Questions that require an explanation are worth 4 marks and therefore, in order to obtain full marks, candidates must supply two relevant and connected pieces of information.

The mean mark for Section B was 59.3%. As with Section A, the examination setters aim to produce short-answer questions that vary in difficulty from easy knowledge through to difficult knowledge and problem-solving. The mean mark for each question is shown in the table below. Question 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 Question 26 (a) Mitosis was by far the most common, but incorrect, answer. Perhaps the reference to four stages of a type of cell division being shown in the diagrams caused many to assume mitosis without checking the information provided in the diagrams. Candidates are reminded that questions that involve naming a curriculum statement term often have one mark allocated for correct spelling of the term. Hence both binnary fission and binary fision received only one mark. (b) Many candidates did not state the idea that an identical copy of the genetic code is required. Instead, they said that the same amount is required, which was awarded one mark. (c) A disturbingly large number of candidates described transcription rather than DNA replication. Others thought that DNA replication was the same as mitosis. Some candidates (unnecessarily) named specific enzymes involved with replication. This was impressive when the candidate could correctly describe the role of an enzyme. However the candidate was penalised if an incorrect function of an enzyme was provided, and it often was. Question 27 Most candidates were able to recognise the difference in percentages between C and D, and between C and B. (A few thought that C and D had identical DNA.) It was not necessary to quote numbers, but those who did left no doubt that they had correctly interpreted the data. The second point that needed to be made was either that those species with more similar DNA are more closely related, or that the greater the difference in DNA, the more time has passed in order to allow mutations to occur. Many candidates repeated information that was in the question. This practice does not attract marks, wastes time, and it uses space that could be used for writing additional information that may receive credit. Mean Mark 4.90 2.50 2.47 4.07 4.12 4.24 3.16 2.84 7.29 2.47 6.12 2.50 6.88 2.57 3.21 Maximum Mark 8 4 4 10 6 8 4 4 10 6 10 6 10 4 6 Mean Mark (%) 61.30 62.40 61.82 40.73 68.64 53.01 79.10 70.95 72.89 41.17 61.17 41.60 68.75 64.37 53.44

Question 28 The poorest answers simply restated information in the question. To gain full marks it was necessary to make the link between nucleotide sequence and amino acids, and then to make a link between the amino acid sequence and the protein produced.

Question 29 This was the most poorly answered question in Section B. (a) Considerable detail was provided about extracting the gene from the virus, but there was less certainty about how to get the gene into the banana cells. To gain full credit students needed to realise that the viral gene needed to be incorporated into the banana cell genome and provide a description of a process such as using a viral vector, bacterial plasmid or by micro-injection. Other options such as putting the gene into the air or into the water supply, were discussed but did not receive credit. Many answers referred to banana plasmids! (b) It was commonly stated that DNA is common to all (most) living things, but relatively few seemed to know about the universality of the genetic code. The same polypeptide is only produced if a particular base triplet codes for the same amino acid in all species. (c) Generalisations did not receive full credit, as an example was asked for. Very few tried to explain how genetic engineering is used. A surprising number of answers indicated a lack of understanding of the meaning of genetic engineering, with references to processes such as cell culture. Question 30 (a) Vague answers stating that the DNA was similar did not receive full credit. Some students thought that the bands represented chromosomes, genes, or even fingerprints. (b) The uniqueness of an individuals DNA fingerprint was generally well understood. Establishing parentage and linking to criminal offences were the most commonly stated forensic uses of DNA fingerprinting. (c) The privacy issue (who should have access to the DNA) was a valid concern. However, many answers indicated that students are not clear as to the method of fingerprinting (which uses non-coding DNA) and said that a DNA fingerprint could cause identification of genetic propensities and therefore the person could lose their job or not get insurance etc. From the fingerprint per se this is not true. From the entire DNA sample it is, and better answers pointed this out. A surprising number of candidates gave the clear impression that they were referring to fingerprints. Others thought that the convict being re-identified next time they commit a crime is a reason not to have DNA fingerprinting!! Question 31 (a) Despite this question appearing in one form or another over the past few examinations, many candidates answered it very poorly. Many misconceptions were evident. Some thought that many steps means less chance of mistakes occurring! Others thought that releasing energy in small steps meant that the energy could be reused by the cell by making ATP. Another strongly held incorrect view was that small steps meant that overall less energy would be used in the reaction. Some teachers may refer to the concept

of spontaneous combustion in order to dramatise the concept of controlling energy release. Many students remembered this and quoted it as an almost expected occurrence. (b) Generally this was well answered. Weaker students said that the phenylalanine hydroxylase being faulty meant that melanin could not be made and did not understand that it was the failure to make the precursor that was the problem. (c) As with part (a) this question has made regular appearances in recent examinations, but it does not seem to have made the concept more accessible to many candidates. Weaker candidates confused the question with part (a) and repeated that answer explaining why many steps are involved, and not why different enzymes are needed. The substrate specificity of enzymes was often mentioned, but few went on to state that there were different substrates at each step in the pathway. Question 32 This question had the highest mean in section B. Most candidates drew something appropriate in the first empty box. The second empty box presented more of a challenge, with common errors involving the food particle being enclosed in either no vesicle, or in two vesicles. Question 33 (a) Most candidates realised that both arrows pointed from the right to the left. (b) Involuntary response was the most common incorrect answer. This is not synonymous with reflex. Although reflexes are involuntary, the reverse is not necessarily true. Other candidates simply named the type of response as quick, and received no credit. Question 34 (a) A common answer for this was 6:30 with no units or with a.m. This scored 1 mark. No marks were awarded for 6 hours. (b) (i) To gain full marks it was necessary to name aerobic respiration, not merely respiration. (ii) Photosynthesis was widely known, although it was sometimes given as the answer to (i) instead of (ii). (c) The best answers came from students who used glucose as the molecule. They found it easy to describe its use. Others scored marks for water, but found it more difficult to describe its use. Nitrogen was not accepted, unless nitrogen fixers were mentioned. Those who chose carbon did not understand the concept of a molecule. No one managed to successfully describe the use of carbon dioxide by heterotrophs. Of great concern were those who confused energy or light as the molecule. Question 35 (a) (i) Despite being told in the line above the question that the concentration of Cdk remains constant, many answers indicated that either factor A or factor B was Cdk! (ii) Candidates should have answered this question from information provided in the graph, but many were unable to do so. Whilst there is no specific reference to MPF in the curriculum statement, students understanding of cell division would be enhanced if they were exposed to the role of MPF in the cell cycle.

(b) This was simply a restatement of one intended student learning from the curriculum statement (C9.2), but was poorly done by many candidates. Some answers referred to general information such as hormones binding to receptors, but could not state a specific consequence such as the stimulation of DNA synthesis. Question 36 (a) A few candidates seemed to overlook this part of the question but most were able to answer it satisfactorily. (b) Knowledge about the differences between hormones and nerves was generally good with many high quality answers. Some candidates incorrectly wrote that nerves were specific in their action, whereas hormones were not. Possibly they were referring to hormones potentially having a very wide range of effect, but could not communicate this idea clearly. (c) The answer to this question was not widely known, and, if known, often not well described. Many candidates responded by giving answers about the way the body generates heat, e.g. shivering or an increased metabolic rate, which suggests little understanding of the process of homeostasis. Question 37 (a) The curriculum statement requires the knowledge of only four chemical equations. However, many candidates could not write the appropriate chemical equation that had correct formulae and was balanced. ATP is not a direct product of lactic acid fermentation, or any other type of respiration, and should therefore not be included as a product. (b) Students who could write the equation invariably correctly answered cytoplasm. Mitochondria and muscles were frequent incorrect answers. (c) This problem-solving question caused difficulties for many candidates. Better answers referred to the continued diffusion of lactic acid into the blood or to the continuation of fermentation until oxygen levels were sufficiently increased. Question 38 (a) Most candidates were able to select an appropriate scale that used most of the grid, label the axes with units, and do an accurate plot of the points. Very few candidates drew a satisfactory line of best fit, with many making sure that each data point was covered. Students need to understand that a line of best fit is a mechanism used to average random error and that scatter in data is a common occurrence. (b) Many candidates responded incorrectly with a systematic factor that would influence the measurement in the same way each time. Better students were able to respond correctly by suggesting a measurement error such as incorrectly weighing the bag on an occasion, or varying depth of reburial, or measurement taken on the wrong day. (c) The majority of candidates knew that decomposers were living organisms and were then able to link the presence of decomposers to the breakdown of the leaf litter.

Question 39 (a) Few candidates received full marks for part (a). Common mistakes were either not knowing the shape of an exponential graph or not labelling the axes correctly, if at all. (b) Many answers only reiterated the information given in the question and did not link resource demand to exponential population growth. Question 40 (a) Most answers clearly expressed consequences and gained full credit. Weaker responses ignored the specific context of the question and gave vague answers such as upsetting the balance, which were not rewarded. (b) Many candidates were not able to respond with a clear and concise answer. Weaker responses resorted to implying conscious will on behalf of the rhinoceros to adapt to its habitat.

SECTION C: PRACTICAL QUESTION

Question 41 (a) Many candidates had difficulty in formulating a testable hypothesis that linked the dependent and independent variable. Some stated an aim rather than a hypothesis, whilst others ignored the role of Spirodela polyrhiza in the experiment. (b) A high proportion of answers received less than full marks for this question. Whilst some candidates thought that time was the dependent variable, most knew that the weight of L. gibba was the correct answer. However, many of these candidates wrote either weight or L. gibba and therefore did not receive full marks. (c) Most answers identified two quantities that should have been kept the same. As with the previous part, however, a lack of detail in the answer deprived some candidates of full marks. (d) Most candidates were able to describe the initial increase in weight, followed by a decrease. (e) The examiners were looking for answers that supported the hypothesis students posed in part (a) and the more able candidates were able to provide such answers. Weaker answers either just described the results or provided an explanation rather than a conclusion. (f) (i) The question tested the idea that results from valid experiments are reproducible and the result from one experiment may be an isolated chance event. If experimental results are not reproducible then a systematic error may be present. Very few students gave answers that expressed those concepts. However many students were able to reason correctly that repeating an experiment facilitated the averaging of results, which will minimise random error. Unfortunately many students have the incorrect notion that random errors can be eliminated. (ii) Only a very few students were able to gain credit in this part and correctly realized that the sampling method was barely adequate.

(g) Most responses correctly identified two mistakes in the graph. Ironically, many candidates, having themselves drawn dot to dot lines in question 38(a), pointed out that a line of best fit had not been drawn.

SECTION D: EXTENDED RESPONSE QUESTIONS

Each extended-response question is marked out of 15, with 12 marks being allocated for content (each well-made point is worth 2 marks) and 3 marks for communication. Question 42 had two content parts, with each part being marked out of six, whilst Question 43 had three content parts, with each part being marked out of four. In awarding a communication mark the following factors were taken into account. Is the response at least half a page in length and is it structured in the form of sentences and paragraphs? Does the response contain correct grammar and spelling? Does the response clearly explain concepts using relevant and concise biological language? Candidates should be able to gain full marks in an answer of about one page of writing. It is unnecessary for candidates to re-write the question or to provide an introduction to their response. Both of these practices are time wasting and receive no credit, and may even result in a reduction in the communication mark. Question 42 Mutation is generally well understood to be a source of variation in a population, as is crossing over and fertilisation. In describing crossing over many candidates did not the express the concept of homologous chromosomes clearly. However some were able to support their written descriptions with clear diagrams, increasing their chances of receiving credit. Only the better answers adequately described random assortment with reference to new combinations of maternal and paternal chromosomes. A very common error was to describe the variation within a species rather than how variation arises within a population. Regrettably there were many responses stating that as soon as a change in the environment occurred the species had to change suggesting that Lamarckism has re-emerged as a viable theory. The second part of the question produced a great range of marks. Most candidates seemed to have some understanding of natural selection, but a limited grasp of speciation. The weaker responses probably the majority described peppered moths, giraffes, and red/yellow/green frogs and implied that natural selection was speciation. Some candidates had a notion of geographical isolation, but too often it was between species rather than populations. The notion of different selective pressures in each area, as a consequence of geographical isolation, was not clearly stated. For all but the best candidates the proper use of the words species, population and individual was poor, and very few students referred to gene flow and gene pool. More attention needs to be paid to the correct use of these terms. Question 43 Aside from the frequent misconceptions about smoking and injecting being passive and active methods of getting drugs into cells, many students were able to gain at least half marks in the

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first part of this question. Facilitated diffusion was well known and was cited frequently and accurately. A common misconception was the use of osmosis as a passive process. Candidates did not understand that osmosis is a movement of solvent whereas drugs are solutes. The notion of concentration gradients was well known but was poorly described as being a movement from high to low but without reference to a substance. Endocytosis was known but not well explained in terms of the role of the cell membrane. The best candidates understood the role of the kidney and could describe filtration and reabsorption correctly. Many went a step further to state that drugs were left in the tubule to be excreted as part of the urine. The mid-range responses mentioned the ideas of filtration and reabsorption, but without specific detail. Many candidates confused the relative arrangements of the glomerulus and the Bowmans capsule and quite often it was blood that was filtered into and flowed through the tubule. The spelling in this section was appalling, and was appropriately penalised in the communication mark. Most students gained marks in the last part of the question by describing the benefits of drug testing programs in sport and random breath testing. The better responses stated the benefits to society, as required by the question, whereas the weaker ones referred only to the benefits to individuals.

Chief Examiner Biology

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