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2014 Wiley India Pvt. Ltd.

JEE Knockout Test Solution Exam Date : 30/03/2014

1. Time duration for this test is 180 minutes. This test consists of 90 questions. The
maximum marks are 360.
2. There are three parts in the question paper, namely, Part A: Mathematics, Part B:
Physics and Part C: Chemistry. Each question is awarded 4 (four) marks for correct
response.
3. One-fourth (1/4) marks will be deducted for indicating incorrect response of each
question. No deduction from the total score will be made if no response is indicated for
an item in the answer sheet.
4. This test contains 90 Multiple Choice Questions with single correct answer. Each
Question has four choices (1), (2), (3) & (4), out of which Only One is Correct.
5. Filling up more than one response in any question will be treated as wrong response and
marks for wrong response will be deducted accordingly as per the instruction 3 above.

Part A Mathematics

Question 1: Find the value of
15 15 15 15
2 3 4 15
2 3 14 . C C C C + + + +
(1)
14
13(2 ) 1 + (2) 13 2
15

(3) 13 2
14
(4) 13 2
14
1
Solution
15 15 15 15
2 3 4 15
1 2 3 ... 14 C C C C + + + +
15
15
1
( 1)
r
r
r C
=
=

15 15
15 15
1 1
r r
r r
r C C
= =
=

15
14 15
1
1
15
(2 1)
r
r
r C
r

=
=

= 15 2
14
2
15
+ 1
= 13 2
14
+ 1

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Correct Option: (1)

Question 2: Evaluate:
3 2
2 2
3 9
.
( 1)( 3)
x x x
dx
x x
+ + +
+ +
}

(1)
2 1
ln 3 3tan x x c

+ + + (2)
2 1
1
ln 3 tan
2
x x c

+ + +
(3)
2 1
1
ln 3 3tan
2
x x c

+ + + (4)
2 1
ln 3 tan x x c

+ +

Solution
3 2
2 2
3 2
2 2 2 2
2
2 2 2
2 2
3 9
( 1)( 3)
3( 3)
( 1)( 3) ( 1)( 3)
( 1) 3
( 1)( 3) 1
3
3 1
x x x
I
x x
x x x
x x x x
x x
x x x
x
x x
+ + +
=
+ +
+ +
= +
+ + + +
+
= +
+ + +
= +
+ +

and
1
2
3
x
I dx
x
=
+
}

Substituting x
2
+ 3 = t, we get
2x dx = dt
Therefore,
1
2
1
2
1
ln
2
1
ln 3
2
dt
I
t
t c
x c
=
= +
= + +
}

and

2
2
3
1
I dx
x
=
+
}

= 3 tan
1
x + c
Therefore,
1 2
2 1
1
ln 3 3tan
2
I I I
x x c

= +
= + + +

Correct Option: (3)

Question 3: For any ordered pairs (a, b) and (c, d) of real numbers, define a relation, denoted by R, as
follows: (a, b) R (c, d) if a < c or b > d. Then, R is

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(1) reflexive. (2) symmetric.
(3) transitive. (4) neither reflexive nor symmetric nor transitive.
Solution
1. (3, 5) R (3, 5) is not related; therefore, R is not reflexive because the expressions 3 < 3 and 5 > 5
are false.

2. (3, 5) R (15, 1) is true; however, (15, 1) R (3, 5) is not true. Therefore, R is not symmetric.

3. (3, 2) R (5, 10), where 3 < 5; and (5, 10) R (2, 9), where 10 > 9.
This implies that (3, 2) R (2, 9) is false because the expressions 3 < 2 and 2 > 9 are false.
Therefore, R is not transitive.
Correct Option: (4).

Question 4:

Statement 1: Let p and q be two logical statements, then compound statement ( p q) (p q) is
tautology.
Statement 2: ( p q) (p q) = True p, q
(1) Statement 1 is True; Statement 2 is True; Statement 2 is a correct explanation for Statement 1.
(2) Statement 1 is True; Statement 2 is True; Statement 2 is not a correct explanation for Statement 1.
(3) Statement 1 is True; Statement 2 is False.
(4) Statement 1 is False; Statement 2 is True.
Solution
p q p q
p q q p
( ) ( ) p q q p
T T F F T T T
T F F T F T T
F T T F T F T
F F T T T T T

( ) ( ) p q q p = T for all possible inputs. Hence, it is tautology.
Correct Option: (1)

Question 5: Let
1
sin , 0
( )
0 , 0
n
x x
f x x
x

such that f(x) is continuous at x = 0; f ' (0) is real and finite; and
0
lim ( )
x
f x

' does not exist. This holds true

for which of the following values of n?

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(1) 0 (2) 1
(3) 2 (4) 3
Solution
- Given f (x) is continuous at x = 0. This implies that
(0 ) (0 ) (0) 0 f f f
+
= = =
0 0
1 1
lim(0 ) sin lim(0 ) sin 0
0 0
n n
h h
h h
h h
= + =
+

This holds true for 1or 2 or 3 n = (1)
- Given f ' (0) is real and finite, that is,
0
0
(0 ) (0)
(0 ) lim
sin(1/ ) 0
lim
h
n
h
f h f
f
h
h h
h
+

+
' =

=

1
0
1
lim sin
n
h
h
h

=
which is real and finite. This implies that
1 1 n = or 2
This holds true for 2 n = or 3 (2)
- Let us consider
1
( ) sin
n
f x x
x
=
Therefore,
1 2
1 1
( ) sin ( ) cos
n n
f x nx x
x x

| |
' =
|
\ .

0 0
lim ( ) lim ( )
x x
f x f x
+

' ' = if n 2 = 0. That is, if n = 2
0
1
lim cos
x x
+

| |
|
\ .
does not exist.
Note: For n = 3,
0 0
lim ( ) lim ( ) 0
x x
f x f x
+

' ' = = .
Thus, this condition holds true for n = 2 (3)
Using the intersection of the values of n in Equations (1), (2) and (3), we get the value of n = 2.
Correct Option: (3)

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Question 6: The shortest distance between lines ; 0 y x z = = and ; 1 y x z = = is
(1) 0 (2) 1
(3) 2 (4)
1
2

Solution

If we draw y x = and y x = in xy-plane and if we raise the line y x = by one unit in the positive z-
direction, we get ; 1. y x z = =

Therefore, the shortest distance between the two lines is unity.

Correct Option: (2)

Question 7: If
2
(sin cos ) (sin4 cos4 ) y x x x x = + + + , then
(1) 0 y x R > e (2) 0 y x R > e
(3) 2 2 y x R < + e (4) 2 2 y = + for some x R e
Solution
We know that
2 sin cos 2 x x s + s
When ,
4
x
t
= we have
sin cos 2 x x + =
When ,
4
x
t
= we have
2 1 0 y = + <
which implies that options (1) and (2) are incorrect.
Now, at ,
4
x
t
= we have
sin cos 2 x x + =
That is,
2
(sin4 cos4 ) 2 x x + = . Therefore, 2 2 y = + for any x R e .
which implies that option (4) is incorrect.

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Note: The maximum value of sin cos x x + is 2 , for x = t/ 4 and the maximum value of
2
(sin 4 cos 4 ) x x + is 2 , for x = t/ 16.
Correct Option: (3)

Question 8: Find the radius of the circle escribed to the triangle ABC (shown in the figure below) on the
side BC if NAB 30 ; Z = BAC 30 ; AB AC 5. Z = = =

(1)
(10 2 5 3 5)(2 3)
2 2
+
(2)
(10 2 5 3 5)
(2 3)
2 2
+ +

(3)
(10 2 5 3 5)
(2 3)
2 2
+
+ (4)
(10 2 5 2 1)
( 3 1)
2 3
+ +

Solution
Since we need to compute the radius of an escribed circle, we would be needing the lengths of all the
sides of the given triangle ABC.
From the question, we already know AB = AC = 5.
For finding the length of side BC, let us draw a line AD which is the bisector of angle BAC, as shown in
the figure below.

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BAD DAC 15 Z = Z =
Therefore,
BD BD 3 1
sin15 and sin15
AB 5
2 2

= = =
Therefore,
5( 3 1)
BD 5sin15
2 2

= =
We also know that BC = 2BD
Therefore,
5( 3 1)
BC
2

=

Now, we know that the required radius
r
1
= tan
2
A
s
| |
|
\ .

tan
2 2
AB BC CA A + + | | | |
=
| |
\ . \ .

5( 3 1)
5 5
2
(tan15 )
2
| |

+ +
|
|
=
|
|
\ .

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10 2 5 3 5
(2 3)
2 2
| |
+
=
|
|
\ .

Correct Option: (1)

Question 9: For a function y = f (x), we have D
f
= and
2 2
( 1)( 1)
dy
x x x x x
dx
= + + +
Then, y is strictly increasing for
(1) xe (2) x 0
(3) x 0 (4) ( 1, 0) (1, ) xe

Solution

For strictly increasing function, we have
0 0 if 0 at some discrete points
dy dy dy
dx dx dx
| |
> > =
|
\ .

Let us consider that
g(x) = x
2
+ x + 1

The coefficient of x
2
is 1, which is positive.

D = b
2
4ac = 1 4 = 3 = Negative
Therefore,
( ) 0 g x x > e
Let us also consider that
f(x) = x
2
x + 1

The coefficient of x
2
is 1, which is positive.

D = b
2
4ac = 1 4 = 3 = Negative
Therefore,
2
1 0 x x x + > e
If 0
dy
dx
> , we have
2 2
( 1)( 1) 0 x x x x x + + + >
or x > 0 or x 0 .

Correct Option: (3)

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Question 10: For an ellipse,
2 2
( 1) ( 3)
1
9 4
x y
+ = ,the locus of midpoint of the chords which pass
through the point (1, 3) is a (an)

(1) parabola. (2) ellipse.
(3) hyperbola. (4) point.

Solution

Concept: If a chord passes through centre of the ellipse, then the mid-point is the centre itself.

The centre of the ellipse
2 2
2 2
1
x y
a b
+ = is (0, 0), where , a b
+
e .

The centre of ellipse
2 2
( 1) ( 3)
1
9 4
x y
+ = is (1, 3).
Correct Option: (4)

Question 11: In a binomial distribution with 10 trials and probability of success
1
3
, what is the standard
deviation of the distribution in each trial?
(1)
10
3
(2)
20
9

(3)
20
3
(4)
20
3

Solution
For the binomial distribution with n = 10 and
1
3
p = , we have the variance as follows:
npq =
1 2 20
10
3 3 9
=
Standard deviation is

20
Variance
3
=
Correct Option: (4)

Question 12: Consider a parabola
2
16 . y x = P is a point on the parabola, M is the foot of the perpendicular
drawn from P onto the directrix and S is the focus. If SPM A

is equilateral, then the focal radius SP is equal to
(1) 16 (2) 8
(3)
8 3
(4) 4

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Solution

We have
2
4(4) ; 4 y x a = =

and
2
(4 ,8 ) P t t is any point on parabola. The equation of directrix is x = 4 and 8
m
y t = . It is given that
SP PM MS = =

2 2 2
2 2 2 2 2 2 2
( ) ( ) ( )
(4 4) (8 ) (4 4) ( 4 4) ( 0)
m
SP PM MS
t t t y
= =
+ = + = +

2 2 2 2 2 2 2
(4 4) (8 ) 8 8 (8 )
m
t t y t + = + = +

Now,
2 2 2
(4 4) 8 t =

2 2
4 4 8 or 4 4 8 t t = =

2 2
3 or 1 rejected ( Negative) t t = =

Therefore,
2 2 2 2 2 2
8 (8 ) 8 (1 ) 8 (4) SP t t = + = + =

16 SP =

Correct Option: (1)

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Question 13: Evaluate
3
4 2
1
.
3
dx
x x +
}

(1)
18 10 3
243
+
(2)
18 10 3
243
| |
+

|
|
\ .

(3)
18 10 3
243
| |

|
|
\ .
(4)
10 18 3
243
| |
+
|
|
\ .

Solution

We have

4 2
3
dx
J
x x
=
+
}

Substituting
1
x
t
= , x > 0, t > 0, we get
2
2 3
2
4 2 2
/
(since , 0)
(1/ )( 1 3 / ) 1 3
dt
dx
t
dt t t dt
t t t
t t t t

= = = >
+ +
} }

Substituting 1 + 3t
2
= u, where u > 1, we get
6tdt du =
Therefore,
3/ 2
1 [( 1) / 3]
6
1 1
18
1
18 (3 / 2) (1/ 2)
u
J du
u
u du
u
u u

=
| |
=
|
\ .
(
=
(

}
}

Now, let us find the value of the given integral as follows:

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3
4 2
1
1/3 3
2
1
4/3
4
4/3 4/3
4 4
3
1 3
1 1
18
1 1
[ ] [ ]
27 9
1 4 2 1 2
. 8 2
27 3 9 3 3
18 10 3
243
dx
I
x x
t dt
t
u du
u
u u u
=
+
=
+
| |
=
|
\ .
= +
| | | | | |
= +
| | |
\ . \ . \ .
+
=
}
}
}

Note:
1
x
t
= . Therefore,
3 1/3
1 1
( ) ( ) f x dx g t dt =
} }

Using
2
1 3 u t = + , we have
4/3
4
( ) h u du
}

Correct Option: (1)

Question 14: The orthocentre of the triangle with vertices (5, 0), (0, 0),
5 5 3
,
2 2
| |
|
|
\ .
is
(1) (2, 3) (2)
5 5
,
2 2 3
| |
|
\ .

(3)
5 5
,
6 2 3
| |
|
\ .
(4)
5 5
,
2 3
| |
|
\ .

Solution

The given triangle is equilateral. Therefore, the orthocentre of the triangle is same as centroid of the
triangle. Thus, the orthocenter, that is, the centroid is given by

5 0 (5 / 2) 0 0 (5 3 / 2) 5 5
, ,
3 3 2 2 3
| |
+ + + + | |

|
|
|
\ .
\ .

Correct Option: (2)

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Question 15: A circle touches the line y x = at point (4, 4) on it. The length of the chord on the line
0 x y + = is 6 2 . Then one of the possible equations of the circle is
(1)
2 2
30 0 x y x y + + + = (2)
2 2
2 18 32 0 x y x y + + + =
(3)
2 2
2 18 32 0 x y x y + + + + = (4)
2 2
2 22 32 0 x y x y + + =
Solution

Family of circles touching the line y x = at the point (4, 4) is
2 2
( 4) ( 4) ( ) 0 x y y x + + =

We need to find the member of this family which has length of chord 6 2 = on 0 x y + = .
For different 's , we get different circles:
2 2
8 8 32 0 x y x y y x + + + =

2 2
( 8 ) ( 8 ) 32 0 (1) x y x y + + + + + =

Now,
OA DC 4 2 = =

6 2
DE 3 2 (given)
2
= =

Therefore,
2 2 2
(3 2) (4 2) R = +

2
2
50 100 10
2

= = =

Substituting 10 = in Eq. (1), we get

2 2
2 18 32 0 x y x y + + + =

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[Substituting 10 = ; in Eq. (1); we get
2 2
18 2 32 0 x y x y + + + = , which does not exist in the given
options.]

Note: From Eq. (1), we get
2 2 2 2
2 2 2
( 8) ( 8)
32
4 4 2
R g f c

= = +
+
= + =

Correct Option: (2)

Question 16: If the letters of the word ASSASSINATION are arranged at random, the probability that no
two S occur together is
(1)
42
143
(2)
9!4!
13!

(3)
21
143
(4)
10! 4!
1
13!

Solution
Total ways to arrange the word ASSASSINATION is
13!
4! 3! 2! 2!

For no two S occur together, let us first arrange AAAIINNTO that can be done in
9!
3! 2! 2!
ways which
would create 10 gaps:
_ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ A A A I I N N T O
On these 10 gaps, four S can be put in
10
4
C ways. We need to select four places out of ten to put S. Since
in each gap we put only one S; so these remain separate even if other gaps remain empty. Hence,
Favourable cases
9! 10!
3! 2! 2! 4! 6!
=
Probability
[9! / 3! 2! 2!] [10! / 4! 6!] 9! 10! 9 8 7 42
[13! / 4! 3! 2! 2!] 6! 13! 13 12 11 143

= = = =

Correct Option: (1)

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Question 17: Let , and a b c be such that 1 and 2. a b c = = = The projection of b along a is equal to
that of c along a . Also, and b c are perpendicular to each other. Find . a b c +
(1) 1 (2) 3
(3) 9 (4) 5
Solution
We have 1 and 2 a b c = = = and
and 0 ( (1)cos , etc.) b a c a b c b a b u = = =
Then,
2 2 2
2 2
2( ) ( ) a b c a b c a b a c b c o o o + = + + + =
= 1 + 4 + 4 + 2(0) = 9
3 a b c + =
Correct Option: (2)
Question 18: A potato is put in a 200C oven and heats up at a rate proportional to the temperature
difference between the object and its surroundings. The potato is at 20C when it is put in the oven. After
30 min, the temperature of the potato is 120C. Then, the constant of proportionality K is (time is in min)

(1)
ln(3 / 2)
15
(2)
ln(9 / 4)
60

(3)
3
4ln
2
| |
|
\ .
(4)
10
log (3 / 2)
15

Solution

The potato heats up according to the differential equation

( 200), 0
dT
K T K
dt
= >
where t is time in minutes, T is the present temperature and
dT
dt
is the rate of increase in temperature with
time. Therefore, solving by variable separable method, we get

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120 30
20 0
120
30
0
20
2
200
200
ln 200 [ ]
ln80 ln180 (30)
ln180 ln80 ln(9 / 4) ln(3 / 2) 2ln(3 / 2)
30 30 30 30
dT
K dt
T
dT
K dt
T
T K t
K
K
=

( =

= = = =
} }

Therefore,
3
ln 15
2
K
( | |
=
| (
\ .
, where time is in min.
Correct Option: (1)

Question 19: If
cos 2 sin tan
( ) 1 1
1 2 1
x x x x x x
f x x
x
= , find
2
0
( )
lim .
x
f x
x

(1) 0 (2) 1
(3) 1 (4) Does not exist
Solution
cos 2 sin tan
( ) 1 1
1 2 1
x x x x x x
f x x
x
=
From first row, taking x common, we have
cos 2sin tan
1 1
1 2 1
x x x
x x
x

Now, R
3
R
3
R
2
is
cos 2sin tan
1 1
0 0
x x x
x x
x

Evaluating using third row, we have
[ (cos tan )] x x x x
2
(cos tan ) x x x =

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2
(tan cos ) x x x =
Hence,
2
( )
tan cos
f x
x x
x
=
and thus
2
0
( )
lim 1
x
f x
x

=
Correct Option: (3)

Question 20: The mean of the numbers a, b, 8, 5, 10 is 6 and the variance is 6.8. Find the median of the
data.
(1) 5 (2) 6
(3) 7 (4)8

Solution
8 5 10
6
5
a b + + + +
=
7 a b + =
Therefore,
2 2
64 25 100
36 6.8
5
a b + + + +
=
2 2
25 a b + =
3, 4 or 4, 3 a b a b = = = =
Therefore, the median is 5.
Correct Option: (1)

Question 21: The system of homogeneous equations ( 1) ( 1) 0 x y z + + + = ,
( 1) ( 2) 0 x y z + + + + = , ( 1) ( 2) 0 x y z + + + = has non-trivial solutions for
(1) exactly three real values of (2) exactly two real values of
(3) exactly one real value of (4) infinitely many real values of

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Solution
For non-trivial solution, or 0 A D = , That is,
1 1
1 2 0
1 2

+
+ + =
+

Now, R
2
R
2
R
1
; R
3
R
3
R
1
gives
1 1
1 1 3 0
1 1 1
+
=

Also R
3
R
3
+ R
2
gives
1 1
1 1 3 0
0 0 4
+
=
Evaluation using third row, we get
( ) 4 1 0
1
2

=

which is exactly the real value of .
Correct Option: (3)

Question 22: If e and e are the complex cube roots of unity and z be such that |z| = 4 and |z + 1| is
maximum, then the area of triangle formed by G, e and e (where G is the centroid of triangle formed by
z, e and e ) is
(1)
3
4
(2)
3 3
2

(3)
3 3
4
(4)
3
2

Solution
We know that | z| = 4 represents a point z on a circle with radius 4 and centre at the origin (0, 0). The
distance of any point z from (1, 0) on argand diagram is
| z + 1| = | z (1)|

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| z + 1| = distance AP. Clearly, | z + 1| is maximum when z ia at point B, that is,
z = 4 + 0i = 4
Let us consider the triangle formed by , e and z = 4 + 0i.

G = Centroid of a triangle formed by , e and (4, 0), which implies that G (1, 0).

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Area of the triangle shown is
1 1 3 3 1
(Base)(Height) 1
2 2 2 2 2
3 3
4
| |
| |
= + +
|
|
|
\ .
\ .
=

Correct Option: (3)

Question 23: The minimum value of the expression
2 1
5
2 2 ,
2
x x
x
x
+
+ + e is
(1) 7 (2)
1/7
(7.2)
(3) 8 (4)
1/3
(3.10)
Solution
2 1
5
2 2
2
x x
x
+
+ +
2 2
1 1 1 1 1
2 2 2
2 2 2 2 2
x x x
x x x x x
= + + + + + + +
1/8
2 1
2 2
5
2 2 (5 / 2 ) 1
2 (2 ) 1
8 (2 )
x x x
x x
x
+
| |
+ +
> =
|
\ .

2 1
5
2 2 8
2
x x
x
+
+ + >
Correct Option: (3)

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Question 24: Which of the following statements is always correct?
(1)
2 4
0 0
1 1
lim lim
x y
x y
+ +

<
(2)
0
lim times
x
n
n
x x x n
+

e
+ + + + =
(3)
2 3
0
lim 0
n
x
n
n
x x x x
+

e
+ + + + =
(4)
22
| | 0,
7
t
(
=
(

where [ ] is greatest integer function and | | represents modulus function.

Solution

- For option (1): If
1/4
( ) y x = , then
2
0 0
1 1
lim lim
x x x x
+ +

< is wrong. Therefore, the answer would
definitely depend on how x and y are related.
Hence, option (1) is incorrect.

- For option (2): If
1
x
n
= , then
0
0 0
1
lim times = lim lim 1
x x
x
x x
n
n
x x x n n x n
n
+
+ +

e
+ + + + = =
Therefore, the answer would definitely depend on how x and n are related.
Hence, option (2) is incorrect.

- For option (3): We have
2 3
0 0
limit lim
1
0
0 (as )
1 0
x x
x
x x x
x
n
+

+ + + =

= =

Hence, option (3) is correct.
- For option (4):
22
7
t = , which is wrong because
22 22
and
7 7
t t < .
Therefore,
22
7
t is a very small positive fraction.
That is,
22
(0, 1).
7
t e

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Thus,
22
0
7
t
(
=
(

.
Hence, option (4) is incorrect.

Correct Option: (3)

Question 25: The number of solutions of the equation x
1
+ x
2
+ x
3
+ x
4
+ x
5
= 101, where x
i
s are odd
natural numbers, is
(1)
105
4
C (2)
52
5
C
(3)
52
4
C (4)
50
4
C
Solution
1 2 3 4 5
101 x x x x x + + + + =
x
i
are odd natural numbers. Let 2 1, 1, 2,3, 4,5
i i
x y i = + =
1 2 3 4 5
2 1 2 1 2 1 2 1 2 1 101 y y y y y + + + + + + + + + =
1 2 3 4 5
48 y y y y y + + + + =
y
i
0. Therefore, the number of solutions is
48 5 1 52
5 1 4
C C
+

= .
Note: The formula is
1
1
n r
r
C
+

. It is the same as number of ways to divide 48 identical objects into five

places.
Correct Option: (3)

Question 26: The locus of
2 2
( )( )( ) 0 xy x y x y + + = may consist of

(1) four planes. (2) three planes and one line.
(3) two planes and two lines. (4) one plane and three lines.

Solution

We have
2 2
( )( )( ) 0 xy x y x y + + =

This implies that 0 x = or
0 y =
or
0 x y + =
or
2 2
0 x y + =
.

Let us consider x = 0, which implies that this is yz-plane.

Let us consider 0 y = , which implies that this is xz-plane.

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Let us consider y x = , that is, z can take any value. This implies that this is a plane perpendicular to xy-plane
and it contains the line y x = in the xy-plane

Let us consider
2 2
0 x y + = , which implies that 0 x = and 0 y = . This represents z-axis.

Correct Option: (2)

Question 27: Suppose f and g are two differentiable functions with the values as listed in the following
table:
x f (x) g (x) f ' (x) g ' (x)
2 3 4 5 2

and
( ) 1
( ) ln( ) sin (sin ( ))
f x
h x e g x

= . Then find the value of h'(2).

(1) 5 26 (2) 5 14
(3) 26 (4) 14
Solution
We have
( )
ln( ) ( ) : ( ) .
f x
e f x x f x = e
and
1 1
1
sin [sin ( )] sin [sin(4)] [ (2) 4]
sin [sin( 4)]
4
g x g
t
t

= =
=
=

Note
sin4 sin[ (4 )] t t = +
sin(4 ) t =
sin( 4) t =
and 4 ,
2 2
t t
t
(
e
(

1
sin [sin ( )] ( ); g x g x t

= in the neighbourhood of x = 2. Therefore,

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( ) ( ) [ ( )]
( ) ( )[ ( )] [ ( ) ( )]
(2) 5( 4)

3( )
14
2
5
h x f x g x
h x f x g x f x g x
h
t
t
t
t
=
' ' ' =

' =

Correct Option: (2)

Question 28: Find the Cartesian equation of the straight line passing through 2 3 + + i j k and 4 3 . i j k +
(1)
3 3
1
2 2
x z
y

= =

(2)
2 3
1
3 2
x z
y

= =

(3)
2 2
1
3 3
x z
y

= =

(4)
3 3
1
3 3
x z
y

= =

Solution
The vector equation of the straight line passing through 2 3 a i j k = + + and 4 3 b i j k = + is
(1 ) , p r a rb r = + e
That is
(1 )(2 3 ) ( 4 3 3 ) p r i j k r i j k = + + + +
(2 2 4 ) (1 3 ) (3 3 ) p r r i r r j r r k = + + +
(2 6 ) (1 2 ) (3 4 ) , p r i r j r k r = + + + e
It implies
2 6 ; 1 2 ; 3 4
2 1 3
6 2 4
2 1 3
3 1 2
x r y r z r
x y z
r
x y z
r
= = + =

= = =

= = =

Correct Option: (2)

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Question 29: If a 0 and the equation ax
2
+ bx + c = 0 has two roots and such that < 3 and > 2,
which of the following is always true?
(1) ( ) 0 a a b c + + > (2) ( ) 0 a a b c + + <
(3) 9a 3b + c > 0 (4) (9 3 )(4 2 ) 0 a b c a b c + + + <
Solution
We have the equation ax
2
+ bx + c = 0 has two roots and such that < 3 and > 2.
- If a > 0, then we have the following graphical representation:

Then, for all [ 3, 2], ( ) 0 x f x e < , we have the following graphical representation:

This implies that
( 1) 0 and (1) 0 f f < <

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0 and 0 a b c a b c + < + + <
( ) 0 a a b c + + <
- If a < 0, then for all [ 3, 2], ( ) 0 x f x e > . This imply that
( 1) 0 and (1) 0 f f > >
0and 0 a b c a b c + > + + >
( ) 0 a a b c + + <
Correct Option: (2)

Question 30: If
2 2
( ) min , sin , ( 2 ) ,
2
x
f x x x t
(
=
(

the area bounded by the curve
( ), -axis, 0 and 2 y f x x x x t = = = is given by
(Note: x
1
is the point of intersection of the curves x
2
and sin
2
x
; x
2
is the point of intersection of the curves
sin
2
x
and
2
( 2 ) x t )
(1)
1 2
1 2
2
2 2
0
sin ( 2 ) sin
2 2
x x
x x
x x
dx x dx x dx dx
t t
t
t
| | | |
+ + +
| |
\ . \ .
} } } }

(2)
1 2
1 2
2
2 2
0
sin ( 2 )
2
x x
x x
x
x dx dx x dx
t
t
| |
+ +
|
\ .
} } }
, where
1
0,
3
x
t | |
e
|
\ .
and
2
5
, 2
3
x
t
t
| |
e
|
\ .

(3)
1 2
1 2
2
2 2
0
sin ( 2 )
2
x x
x x
x
x dx dx x dx
t
t
| |
+ +
|
\ .
} } }
, where
1
,
3 2
x
t t | |
e
|
\ .
and
2
3
, 2
2
x
t
t
| |
e
|
\ .

(4)
1 2
1 2
2
2 2
0
sin ( 2 )
2
x x
x x
x
x dx dx x dx
t
t
| |
+ +
|
\ .
} } }
, where
1
2
,
2 3
x
t t | |
e
|
\ .
and
2
( , 2 ) x t t e

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Solution

At
2
1, 1 x y x = = = , we have
1
sin sin 1
2 2
x
y
| | | |
= = <
| |
\ . \ .

Thus,
1
1 x < .

At
2
2
3.14
, 1
3 3
x y x
t | |
= = = >
|
\ .
, we have
1
sin 1
6 2
y
t | |
= = <
|
\ .

Thus,
1
3
x
t
< . Therefore,
1
0,
3
x
t | |
e
|
\ .
because at (0, 2), the graph intersects at 0 and x
1
only. Similarly,
2
2 , 2
3
x
t
t t
| |
e
|
\ .
by symmetry about x = .

Note: At
2 1
1 1
, we have ( ) sin
2
x
x x x
| |
= =
|
\ .
; At
2 2
2 2
, we have ( 2 ) sin
2
x
x x x t
| |
= =
|
\ .
.

Correct Option: (2)

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Part B Physics

Question 1: An RLC series circuit is driven by a sinusoidal emf with angular frequencye . If e is
increased without changing the amplitude of the emf, the current amplitude increases. If the inductance is
L, the capacitance is C and the resistance R, it implies that
(1)
1
L
C
e
e
> (2)
1
L
C
e
e
<
(3) L R e > (4) L R e <
Solution
The peak current in an RLC circuit is given by
0
0
0
2 2
( )
L C
V
I
Z
V
R X X
=
=
+

Since
0
I increases when e is increased while keeping
0
V the same, it implies that the impedance Z
decreases. This means that
L C
X X decreases as e is increased. But, an increase in e will cause
inductive reactance ( )
L
X L e = to increase and capacitive reactance ( 1/ )
C
X C e = to decrease. We,
therefore, conclude that
C L
X X > .
Hence,
1
L
C
e
e
< .
Correct Option: (2)

Question 2: A thin movable plate is separated from two fixed plates P
1
and P
2
by two highly viscous
liquids of coefficients of viscosity q
1
and q
2
as shown in the figure below, where q
2
= 9q
1
. Area of
contact of movable plate with each fluid is the same. If the distance between two fixed plates is h, then the
distance h
1
of movable plate from upper plate such that movable plate can be moved with a constant
velocity by applying a minimum force on it is (Assume only linear velocity distribution in each liquid.)

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(1)
4
h
(2)
2
h

(3)
6
h
(4)
3
h

Solution
Force required to pull the movable plate is given by

1 2
1 1
1 1
1 1
1
1 1
( )
9
( )
1 9
( )
v v
F A
h h h
v v
A
h h h
Av
h h h
q q
q q
q
(
= +
(

(
= +
(

(
= +
(

For minimum force to pull the movable plate,

1
0
dF
dh
=

1 2 2
1 1 1
1 9
0
( )
dF
Av
dh h h h
q
(
= + =
(

2 2
1 1
9 1
( ) h h h
=

1 1
3 1
( ) h h h
=

1 1
3h h h =

1
4
h
h =
Correct Option: (1)

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Question 3: A binary compound AB
3
is initially prepared from atoms A and B which are radioactive with
decay constants and 2 , respectively. The time, at which the compound will have equal number of
atoms of A and B, is
(1)
1.1

(2)
0.69

(3)
0.34

(4)
3

Solution

A A
2 2
B B A
( ) (0)
( ) (0) 3 (0)
t
t t
N t N e
N t N e N e

=
= =

When N
A
= N
B
at time t = T,

1 3
ln3 1.1
T
e
T

=
= =

Correct Option: (1)
Question 4: Consider the circuits shown in the figure given below.

A B

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C D
Each resistor has resistance R , battery has emf E and internal resistance r . Assuming , r R < rank the
circuits in order of the total power dissipated, from the greatest to least.
(1) D, C, B, A (2) D, B, C, A
(3) C, B, D, A (4) C, D, B, A
Solution
Power consumed in circuit A is
2
A
3
E
P
R r
=
+

Power consumed in circuit B is
2
B
E
P
R r
=
+

Power consumed in circuit C is
2
C
2 ( / 2)
E
P
R r
=
+

Power consumed in circuit D is
2
D
( / 3)
E
P
R r
=
+

Since r R < , we have

2
( / 3)
E
R r +
>
2
E
R r +
>
2
2 ( / 2)
E
R r +
>
2
3
E
R r +

D
P >
B
P >
C
P >
A
P
Correct Option: (2)

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Question 5: The ratio of x-coordinate to the y-coordinate of the center of mass of a system of three
particles of 2 kg, 3 kg and 4 kg kept at the vertices of an equilateral triangle of side 1 m (as shown in the
figure) will be

2 kg
4 kg
O
3 kg
x
y

(1)
11
3 3
(2)
3 3
11

(3)
1
3
(4)
3
1

Solution

Assuming O at origin,
1/ 2
2
2
1 1 3
OC m and AC 1 m
2 2 2
(
| |
= = =
(
|
\ .
(

The x-coordinate of center of mass will be
x
cm
=
+ +
+ +
1 1 2 2 3 3
1 2 3
m x m x m x
m m m
=
1
2(0)+3 +4(1)
11 2
= m
2+3+4 18
| |
|
\ .

and the y-coordinate of the center of mass will be
y
cm
=
+ +
+ +
1 1 2 2 3 3
1 2 3
m y m y m y
m m m
=
( )
2(0)+ 3 3 2 + 4(0)
3 3
= m
2 + 3 + 4 18

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The ratio of x-coordinate to the y-coordinate of the center of mass of system will be
cm
cm
11
3 3
x
y
=
Correct Option: (1)
Question 6: A satellite is in circular Earth orbit at an altitude of 200 km above Earths surface. At that
height, the acceleration due to gravity is
2
9.20ms

. If the radius of the Earth is

6
6.4 10 m , what is the
orbital speed of the satellite?
(1)
1
43.4 ms

(2)
1
7.79 kms

(3)
1
4.34 kms

(4)
1
767 ms

Solution
Let m be the mass of the satellite and h be the height of satellite above the surface of Earth. The
gravitational force acting on satellite provides the centripetal force, therefore
gravitation centripetal
2
6 3
1
1
( )
( )
9.20(6.4 10 200 10 )
7792ms
7.79 kms
F F
mv
mg
R h
v g R h

=
=
+
= +
= +
=
~

Correct Option: (2)
Question 7: The following question consists of two statements, 1 and 2. Of the four choices given, choose
the one that best describes the two statements.
Statement 1: Two balls A and B, moving towards each other, undergo head-on collision and bounce back
from each other. After the collision, each balls velocity is equal in magnitude and opposite in direction to
what it was before. The total momentum of the two-ball system is zero.
Statement 2: The momentum of a system is conserved in the absence of any external force.
(1) Statement 1 is true, Statement 2 is false
(2) Statement 1 is true, Statement 2 is true; Statement 2 is the correct explanation of Statement 1
(3) Statement 1 is true, Statement 2 is true; Statement 2 is not the correct explanation of Statement 1
(4) Statement 1 is false, Statement 2 is true

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Solution
In the absence of an external force, the momentum of a system is conserved. So, Statement 2 is true. During
the head-on collision, no external force acts on the two-ball system. Taking care of the direction of each
balls momentum by appropriate sign, we can write
1 1 2 2 1 1 2 2
1 1 2 2
( ) ( ) ( ) ( )
0
mv m v mv m v
mv m v
+ = +
=

But,
1 1 2 2
mv m v is the total momentum of the system before collision. Thus, Statement 1 is true.
Statement 2 is the correct explanation of Statement 1.
Correct Option: (2)
Question 8: A series of transmitter/receiver antenna towers, each of height 50 m, are planned to be
arranged in a circle at latitude of 60
o
on the moon, for operation in the line of sight mode. Given the
radius of the moon to be 1734 km, the number of towers needed is
(1) 358 (2) 207
(3) 155 (4) 57
Solution
The radius of the circle at a latitude of 60
o
= R sin 30
o
= R/2 = 867 km
Let n towers of height h be needed, then
2 ( / 2)
2 2
2 2
1734000
2 2 50
207
R
Rh
n
R
n
h
t
t
t
=
=
=

=

Correct Option: (2)
Question 9: For a glass prism, the index of refraction for visible light ranges from 1.524 at the blue end
of the spectrum to 1.509 at the red end. What is the dispersive power of the prism, assuming that the
refractive index for yellow light is the mean of the two given indices?
(1) 0.029 (2) 0.034
(3) 0.018 (4) 0.038

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Solution
If n
V
, n
R
and n
Y
represent refractive indices of violet, red and yellow light respectively then the dispersive
power can be calculated as

V R
Y
1
1.524 1.509
1.524 1.509
1
2
0.015
0.516
0.029
n n
n
e

=

=
+ | |

|
\ .
=
=

Correct Option: (1)
Question 10: A solid spherical region of radius R having a spherical cavity with diameter R, as shown in
the figure given below, has a total charge Q. The electric field at a point P is

(1)
( )
2 2
0
2 1 1
7
2 2
Q
x
x R
tc
(
(
(

(2)
( )
2 2
0
8 1 1
21
2 2
Q
x
x R
tc
(
(
(

(3)
( )
2 2
0
8 1 1
7
2 2
Q
x
x R
tc
(
(
(

(4)
( )
2 2
0
2 1 1
21
2 2
Q
x
x R
tc
(
(
(

Solution
Charge density of the configuration is

3 3
3
6
7
4
3 2
Q Q
R
R
R

t
t
= =
(
| |

(
|
\ .
(

(1)
Using the superposition principle, the electric field at point P will be

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( )
3
3
2 2
0
0
3
2 2
0
3
2 2
0
4
4
3 2
3
4
4
2
1 1
3
8
2
1 1
(2)
3
2 2
R
R
E
x
R
x
R
x
R
x
R
x
x R
t
t
tc
tc

c
(
| |
| |
(
|
|
\ .
(
\ .
=
| |

|
\ .
(
(
(
=
(
| |

(
|
\ .
(
= (
(

Substituting Eq. (1) in Eq. (2) we get
( )
( )
( )
3
2 2
0
3
2 3 2
0
2 2
0
1 1
3
2 2
6 1 1
7 3
2 2
2 1 1
7
2 2
R
E
x
x R
Q R
R x
x R
Q
x
x R

c
t c
tc
(
= (
(

(
= (
(

(
= (
(

Correct Option: (1)
Question 11: A parallel plate capacitor is charged completely and then disconnected from the battery. If
the separation between the plates is reduced by 50% and the space between the plates is filled with a
dielectric slab of dielectric constant 10, then the potential difference between the plates
(1) decreases by 95% (2) increases by 95%
(3) decreases by 50% (4) increases by 50%
Solution
The capacitance of parallel plate capacitor is
0
A
C
d
c
=
where A is the area of the plates and d is the separation between the plates.
If the separation between the plates is reduced by 50% and the space between the plates is filled with a
dielectric slab of dielectric constant 10, the new capacitance becomes

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0 0
' 20
/ 2
A A
C K
d d
c c
= =
' 20 C C =
Since charge q is constant, we have
constant q CV = =
The relation between potential and capacitance is
1
V
C

Therefore,
'
20
V
V =

Therefore, % decrease in potential is

20
100
V
V
V
| |

|
=
|
|
\ .

= 95%.

Correct Option: (1)

Question 12: The current in a solenoid is decreased to one-half of its original value. Which one of the
following statements is true concerning the self-inductance of the solenoid?
(1) The self-inductance does not change.
(2) The self-inductance increases by a factor of 2.
(3) The self-inductance decreases by a factor of 2.
(4) The self-inductance decreases by a factor of 4.
Solution
The self-inductance of a solenoid is given by
2
0
N A
L
l

=
where N is the number of turns, A is the cross-sectional area, and l is the length of the solenoid.
We see from this relation that the inductance is independent of the current. Thus, the self-inductance does
not change when the current is decreased.

2014 Wiley India Pvt. Ltd.

Correct Option: (1)
Question 13: Two small balls of the same mass, having equal charge q, are suspended by two insulating
strings of equal length L from the same hook in an elevator. The elevator is falling freely. The tension in
the string at equilibrium with respect to frame attached with elevator will be
(1)
2
2
0
1
4 4
q
L tc
(2)
2
2
2 2
2
0
1
4 4
q
m g
L tc
| |
+
|
\ .

(3) mg (4) ( )
2
2
2
2
0
1
4
q
mg
L tc
| |
+
|
\ .

Solution
In case of freely falling elevator,the effect of gravity is cancelled by the pseudo force (w.r.t. the
elevator) therefore, the angle made by string with each other is 180 and the tension in the string at
equilibrium is
2 2
2 2
0 0
1 1
4 (2 ) 4 4
q q
F
L L tc tc
= =

Correct Option: (1)
Question 14: A helicopter is lifting a 2100 kg jeep. The steel suspension cable is 48 m long and has a
3
5.0 10

m. Find the amount the cable is stretched when the jeep is hoisted up with an
acceleration of
2
1.5ms

. (Given that:
11 2
2.0 10 Nm Y

= )
(1) 1.2 cm (2) 3.6 cm
(3) 5.1 cm (4) 7.3 cm
Solution

Tension in the cable
( ) T m g a = +
Stress in the cable
2
( ) T m g a
A r
o
t
+
= =
According to Hookes law,

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2
( )
( / )
m g a
Y
r L L
o
t
+
= =
e A

So,
2
2
3 2 11 2
2
( ).
(2100kg)(9.8 1.5)(ms )(48m)
(5.0 10 m) (2.0 10 Nm )
7.3 10 m
m g a L
L
r Y t
t

+
A =
+
=

=

Correct Option: (4)
Question 15: Neglecting air resistance, a 1.0kg projectile has an escape velocity of about
1
11 kms

at the
surface of the Earth. The corresponding escape velocity for a 2.0 kg projectile is
(1)
1
3.5kms

(2)
1
5.5kms

(3)
1
10kms

(4)
1
11kms

Solution
Escape velocity of the projectile at the surface of the Earth is given by

e
esc
e
2GM
v
R
= (1)
where
e
M is the mass of the Earth, and
e
R is radius of the Earth.
From Eq. (1) we conclude that escape velocity is independent of the projectiles mass, so escape velocity
for a 2.0 kg projectile is also
1
11 kms

.
Correct Option: (4)
Question 16: A can is filled with liquid up to 97% of its capacity. The temperature of the can and liquid
is 0.0
o
C . The material from which the can is made has a coefficient of linear expansion of
5 o 1
2.8 10 ( C)

. At a temperature of 100.0
o
C , the liquid inside the can expands to fill it to the brim.
The coefficient of volume expansion of the liquid is
(1)
4 o 1
3.38 10 ( C)

(2)
4 o 1
3.96 10 ( C)

(3)
4 o 1
3.08 10 ( C)

(4)
4 o 1
2.96 10 ( C)

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Solution
If V is the volume of the can at 0.0
o
C , then the increase in its volume at 100.0
o
C is
Can
(3 )(100 0) 300 V V V o o A = =
whereo is the coefficient of linear expansion of can.
The initial volume of the liquid is 0.97V. The change in volume of the liquid is
L
0.97 ( )(100 0) 97 V V V A = =
where is the coefficient of volume expansion of liquid.
At 100.0
o
C , both can and liquid have the same volume. Thus
Can L
0.97 V V V V + A = + A
(1 300 ) 0.97 (1 100 ) V V o + = +

5
4 o 1
0.03 300
97
0.03 300 2.8 10
97
3.96 10 ( C)
o

+
=
+
=
=

Correct Option: (2)
Question 17: The reflection of perpendicularly incident white light by a soap film in air has an
interference maximum at 600 nmand a minimum at 450 nm, with no minimum in between. If refractive
index 1.33 n = for the film, the film thickness is
(1) 552 nm (2) 445 nm
(3) 338 nm (4) 286 nm
Solution

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Since the refractive index of the film is greater than that of air, ray 1 will undergo a phase change of t
on reflection. Ray 2, on the other hand, will not undergo any phase change upon reflection. (See figure.)
Let t be the thickness of the film. For constructive interference, ray 1 and ray 2 should be in phase, that is,
path difference should be an integral multiple of wavelength. Path difference is 2t due to travelling in the
medium and
film
/ 2 due to reflection at a boundary. Let it be m times the wavelength. Wavelength will
be reduced by a factor of refractive index n. Therefore,

film film
film
1
2
2
2 1
4
2 1 600
(1)
4
t m
m
t
m
n

+ =

=
| |
=
|
\ .

where t is the thickness of the film.
So, by substituting m = 1, 2, 3 in Eq. (1), we get

150 450 750
, , , ... t
n n n
= (2)
For destructive interference:

film film
film
1 1
2
2 2
2
450
(3)
2
t m
m
t
m
n

| |
+ = +
|
\ .
=
| |
=
|
\ .

So, by substituting m = 1, 2, 3 in Eq. (3) ,we get
225 450 675
, , , ... t
n n n
= (4)
Comparing Eq. (2) and Eq. (4) , we conclude that

450
450
1.33
338 nm
t
n
=
=
=

2014 Wiley India Pvt. Ltd.

Correct Option: (3)

Question 18: Combination of logical gates shown below yields

A
B
X

(1) NOT gate (2) OR gate
(3) XOR gate (4) NAND gate
Solution
Here two NAND gates are being used as input for another NAND gate. Truth table for this would be

A B NAND(A,B)=C NAND(A,B)=D NAND(C,D)
0 0 1
1
1 0
0 1 1 0
1 0 1 1 0
1 1 0 0 1

So the output is equal to OR gate.
Correct Option: (2)
Question 19: The magnetic field due to current distribution at any point is given by

B Ar k = , where
r is the position vector of the point, and A is a constant. The net current through a circle of radius R , in
the xy plane and centered at the origin is given by
(1)
2
0
AR t

(2)
0
2 AR t

(3)
3
0
4
3
AR t

(4)
2
0
2 AR t

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Solution
Let us consider the given circle as an Amperian loop it lies in the xy plane, with center at the origin,
and has a radius of R .
Now, the magnetic field at any point on this loop will be

B AR k = , and will have a direction tangential

to the circle (at the circumference).
Hence, . B dl
}
for this circular loop will be
. (2 ) Bdl B R t =
}
.
Applying Amperes law, we get

0
0
0
0
2
0
.
(2 )
(2 )
( )(2 )
2
B dl I
B R I
B R
I
AR R
AR

t
t

=
=
=
=
=
}

Correct Option: (4)

Question 20: An ideal gas with pressure P, volume V, and temperature T is expanded isothermally to a
volume 2V and pressure P
1
. If the same gas is expanded adiabatically to a volume 2V, the final pressure is
P
2
. If the ratio of the specific heats for the gas is 1.67, then the ratio P
2
/P
1
is nearly
(1) 1/2 (2)
1/3
4

(3)
1/3
2

(4)
5/3
2

Solution
For the isothermal process,

1 1 2 2
1
1
(2 )
(1)
2
PV PV
P V PV
P
P
=
=
=

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2
2
constant
(2 )
(1/ 2) (2)
PV
P V PV
P P

=
=
=

From Eq. (1) and Eq. (2) we get

1 2
1
5/3 1
2/3
1/3
(1/ 2)
1
2
2
4
P
P

=
=
=
=

Correct Option: (2)
Question 21: Two bodies P and Q move along the same straight line. Both start at 0 x = at time 0 t = .
Their velocities are plotted over the same time interval as shown below in figure.

What information does this graph provide about whether P and Q collide?
(1) P and Q collide at an instant
0
t t <
(2) P and Q collide at an instant
0
t t =
(3) P and Q do not collide in the interval
0
0 t t s s
(4) Nothing about their collision can be concluded from the graph
Solution
Both P and Q start together from the same point. Hence, their displacements will be equal to the areas
under their respective v t graphs. From the given graphs it is clear that in the interval
0
0 t t s s , the area
under Q is greater than that under P. So, Qs displacement is greater than that of P. Hence, P and Q will
not collide in the interval
0
0 t t s s .
Correct Option: (3)

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Question 22: For a constant volume process, the heat capacity of gas A is greater than the heat capacity
of gas B. If both the gases absorb the same amount of energy as heat, at constant volume, then
(1) The temperature of A increases by a greater extent than it does for B
(2) The temperature of B increases by a greater extent than it does for A
(3) The internal energy of A increases by a greater extent than it does for B
(4) The internal energy of B increases by a greater extent than it does for A
Solution
If n
A
and n
B
represents the number of moles of gas A and B respectively. For a constant volume process,
work done 0 W = . Thus, Q U = A . Since Q is same for both the gases, hence the change in internal
energy is same for both. So,

A B
A B
A A A B B B
A B B
B A A
U U
Q Q
n C T n C T
T n C
T n C
A = A
=
A = A
A
=
A

Since the heat capacity of A is greater than that of B,
A A B B
n C n C > . Hence, the temperature of B
increases by a greater extent than it does for A, that is,
A B
T T A < A .
Correct Option: (2)
Question 23: A converging lens of focal length 20 cmis placed in contact with a diverging lens of focal
length 30 cm. The focal length of this combination is
(1) 60 cm + (2) 25 cm +
(3) 12 cm + (4) 10 cm
Solution
Power of the converging lens
1
1
1 1
0.20
P D
f
= =
Power of the diverging lens
2
2
1 1
0.30
P D
f
= =

Power of the combination,

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1 2
1 1
0.20 0.30
0.10
(0.20)( 0.30)
1
0.60
P P P
D
= +
= +

=

Hence, focal length of the combination,
1
0.60 m = 60 cm f
D
= =

Correct Option: (1)
Question 24: If the work function for a certain metal is 1.8 eV, what is the stopping potential for
electrons ejected from the metal when light of wavelength 400 nm shines on the metal?
(1) 0.95 V (2) 1.31 V
(3) 2.08 V (4) 3.44 V
Solution
Photon energy

34 8
9
19
(6.63 10 )(3 10 )
400 10
4.97 10 J
hc
E

=

=

=

Work function
19
19
1.8eV
1.8(1.6 10 C)(1V)
2.88 10 J
|

=
=
=

Therefore, maximum kinetic energy

max
19
19
(4.97 2.88) 10 J
2.09 10 J
K E |

=
=
=

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Hence, stopping potential will be

max
0
19
19
2.09 10 J
1.6 10 C
1.306V 1.31V
K
V
e

=

Correct Option: (2)
Question 25: A particle is performing SHM about mean position O as shown in the figure given below.
Its amplitude is 5 m and time period of oscillation is 4 s. The minimum time taken by the particle to move
from point A to B is nearly

O A B
3m
4m

(1) 0.18 s (2) 0.20 s
(3) 0.15 s (4) 0.24 s
Solution
The displacement equation of SHM is
1
sin
sin
sin
x A t
x
t
A
x
t
A
e
e
e

=
=
| |
=
|
\ .

Substituting values given in the question, we have

1
1
3
5 180
t
t
e

| | | |
= = =
| |
\ . \ .
(1)
and
1
2
4
5 180
t
t
e

| | | |
= = =
| |
\ . \ .
(2)
Subtracting Eq. (1) and Eq. (2), we get

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( )
( )
( )
2 1
2 1
( ) 53 37
180
1
53 37
180
16
180
8
2
8 4
180 180
8
45
0.18s
t t
t t
T
T
e
t
t
e
t
t
=
=
=

= =
=
=

Correct Option: (1)
Question 26: A tuning fork of frequency 600 Hz is moving towards a reflecting wall with a speed of
30 ms
1
. The velocity of sound in air is 330 ms
1
. The observer is between the source and the wall and is
also moving towards the wall. The beat frequency heard by the observer is 4 Hz. Now if the tuning fork is
replaced with a new tuning fork of unknown frequency, the beat frequency heard by the observer
becomes 3 Hz. The frequency of the new tuning fork is

O

(1) 450 Hz (2) 425 Hz
(3) 400 Hz (4) 475 Hz
Solution

Apparent frequency of source

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0 1
1
s
c v
c v
v v

=
(
(

Apparent frequency of reflected sound
0 2
1
s
c v
c v
v v

=
( +
(

Beats frequency

1
1
s
2
0
2 v
c v
v
v v v =

=
Initial beats frequency is 4 Hz, therefore

0 1
s
1
2
4Hz
2 600
4Hz
330 30
v
c v
v
v
=

1
1
1
1
2 600
4 Hz
300
4 4 Hz
1ms
v
v
v

=
=
=

The observer moves with a velocity 1 ms
1
towards the wall.
When the tuning fork is replaced with a new tuning fork of frequency v
new
, the new beats frequency is
new
ne
1
w
s
2
'
2 1
3 Hz
330 30
v
c v
v
v
v
=

new
2
3 Hz
300
v
=

new
v = 450 Hz
The frequency of new tuning fork is 450 Hz.

Correct Option: (1)

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Question 27: Two blocks rest on a horizontal frictionless surface, as shown in the figure.

The surface between the top and bottom blocks is rough such that there is no slipping between the two
blocks. A 30N horizontal force is applied to the bottom block. What is the frictional force between the
two blocks?
(1) 10 N (2) 20 N
(3) 25 N (4) 30 N
Solution
Since there is no slipping between the blocks, their common acceleration is
2
30
2ms
(10 5)
a

= =
+

If the frictional force is f , then it is the only force acting on the upper block.
2
(5kg)(2ms ) 10N f ma

= = =
Correct Option: (1)
Question 28: If the velocity of light c, Plancks constant h and time t are taken as basis of fundamental
units, then the dimension of force will change to
(1) hc
1
t
2
(2) hc
1
t
2

(3) hc
1
t
1
(4) h
1
c
1
t
2
Solution

Dimensions of h and c are

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2 1
[ ] h ML T

=
and
1
[ ] c LT

=
Let the force be expressed in terms of fundamental units as
F = h
a
c
b
t
d

Taking dimensions on both sides, we get
[MLT
2
] = [ML
2
T
1
]
a
[LT
1
]
b
[T]
d
= [M
a
L
2a+b
T
a-b+d
] (1)
Comparing both sides of Eq. (1), we get
a = 1 (2)
2a + b = 1 (3)
and a b + d = 2 (4)
Substituting Eq. (2) in Eq. (3), we get
2 + b = 1
b = 1 (5)
Substituting Eq. (2) and Eq. (5) in Eq. (4), we get
1 (1) + d = 2
d = 2 (6)
Hence force can be expressed as
F = h c
1
t
2

Correct Option: (1)
Question 29: In DavissonGermer experiment, the correct relation between angle of diffraction |

and
glancing angle u

is
(1)
0
90
2
|
u = (2)
0
90
2
|
u = +
(3)
2
|
u =

(4)u | =

Solution

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In the DavissonGermer apparatus as shown above, the relation between angle of diffraction |

and the
glancing angle u

is given by

2
|
u + = 90
.

Therefore, u

=

90
2
.
|

Correct Option: (1)
Question 30: A uniform density rigid L-shaped thin frame POQ (hinged at O) of mass 21 kg is
undergoing planar motion as shown in the figure given below. The arrows show the velocities at the
terminal points P and Q. The kinetic energy of the frame at this instant is

(1) 182 J (2) 224 J
(3) 672 J (4) 91 J
Solution
Intersection point of perpendiculars to velocities of any two points would be the point from where
instantaneous axis of rotation (IAR) passes. Hence IAR passes through O. Let e be the angular velocity
of the frame, then velocity at point Q can be expressed as

Q
OQ v e =
8 4e =
Moment of Inertia
IAR

( ) ( )
IAR IAR(OP) IAR(OQ)
2 2
OP OQ
OP OQ
3 3
I I I
M M
= +
= +

Finding mass using unitary method gives us
OP
9 kg M = and
OQ
12 kg M = . So

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( ) ( )
2 2
IAR
2
3 4
9 12
3 3
27 64
91 kgm
I = +
= +
=

The kinetic energy will be

R
2
2
A
1
2
1
91 2
2
182 J
I
K I e =
=
=

Correct Option: (1)

Part C Chemistry

Question 1: The alkali metals can be easily detected by flame test because they have
(1) low ionization enthalpy. (2) high conductance.
(3) low density. (4) low electron gain enthalpy.
Solution
Because of low ionization enthalpy, the alkali metals can be easily detected by flame test. When any salt
of the metal is heated in a Bunsen burner flame, the heat excites one of the orbital electrons to higher
energy level. When this electron falls back to its original energy level, it gives out the extra energy
absorbed. For alkali metals, this energy falls in the visible light range.
Correct Option: (1)

Question 2: In which of the following pairs, the two species are not isostructural?
(1)
+
4
PCl and SiCl
4
(2)
4
BF

and SF
4
(3) SF
6
and
3
6
AlF

(4) CO
2
and
2
NO
+

Solution
(1) Tetrahedral, tetrahedral

(2) Tetrahedral, see-saw
4
BF

has 4 bond pairs and 0 lone pairs on central atom. Hence, boron is sp
3
hybridized and tetrahedral in
shape.

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SF
4
has 4 bond pairs and 1 lone pair on the central atom. Hence, sulphur is sp
3
d hybridized and see-saw in
shape.

(3) Octahedral, octahedral

(4) Linear, linear
O=C=O O N O
+
= =

Correct Option: (2)

Question 3: Which of the oxides given below is the most basic?
(1) Li
2
O (2) Na
2
O (3) K
2
O (4) MgO
Solution
Li, Na and K belong to the same group. The basic character in the group increases from top to bottom in
a group. So, K
2
O is the most basic. As far as MgO is concerned, it is less basic than Na
2
O as Mg comes
after Na in a period. On moving from left to right across a period, the metallic character of the element
decreases and the oxides of elements become less basic.

Correct Option: (3)

Question 4: Which of the following relationship is not correct regarding their atomic radius?
(1) Ag Au (2) Pd > Ni (3) W >> Mo (4) La > Y
Solution
Due to lanthanoid contraction, the radius of elements of first transition series is less than that of radius of
corresponding second transition series elements but that of third transition series elements is nearly same
as the second transition series, that is
First transition series.
Second transition series
Second transition series.
Third transition series

The exception to this behavior is observed in case of Sc < Y < La. Lanthanoid contraction is not observed
in case of La because 4f
14
is not present in its electronic configuration. Hence,
Option (1) is correct: r
Ag
= 1.34 and r
Au
= 1.34 .
Option (2) is correct: r
Pd
= 1.28 and r
Ni
= 1.15 .
Option (3) is incorrect: r
W
= 1.30 and r
Mo
= 1.29 , that is, both are almost the same.
Option (4) is correct: r
La
= 1.69 and r
Y
= 1.62 .
Correct Option: (3)

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Question 5: Which of the following is not usually associated with eutrophication?
(1) Reduced photosynthesis
(2) Increased heavy metal concentrations
(3) Increased nutrient concentrations
(4) Reduced dissolved oxygen
Solution Eutrophication is a process in which a body of water develops a high concentration of nutrients
such as nitrogen and phosphorus. Their increased concentration leads to growth of aquatic plants in
general and in production of blue-green algae. This algal mat reduces the availability of light below its
surface, thus greatly reducing photosynthesis. The bacteria and algae die and their decomposition
increases the BOD of water, thus the dissolved oxygen content of water is reduced.
Heavy metal concentration is not affected by eutrophication.
Correct Option: (2)

Question 6: In the following equilibrium:
2 2
4 4
Stable form Metastable form
[ON Ru(NO) OH] [NO Ru(NO) (OH)]
+ +

which of the following statements is correct?
(1) Coordination numbers of the above two complexes are not the same.
(2) NO is acting as an ambidentate ligand in metastable form.
(3) NO is acting as an ambidentate ligand in both stable and metastable forms.
(4) The complexes show coordination isomerism.
Solution
The coordination numbers of both the complexes is 6.
NO can act as ambidentate ligand but both kinds of linkages are observed (i.e., RuN and RuO) in
metastable form only.
Correct Option: (2)

Question 7: Which of the following statements is incorrect for the reaction given below?
conc NaOH
ArCHO HCHO
A
+
(1) The reaction involves hydride transfer from one aldehyde to another.
(2) ArCHO is reduced in the reaction, which results in the major products.
(3) Aldol addition product is not possible for the given reactants.
(4) One of the major products of the reaction is ethanol.
Solution
Since both aldehydes lack alpha hydrogen, aldol condensation is not possible. In this case, Cannizzaros
reaction will take place. Two aldehydes without alpha hydrogens will give crossed Cannizzaros products.
However, HCHO transfers hydride more easily as compared to ArCHO, so the major products of the
reaction are ArCH
2
OH and HCOONa.
conc NaOH
2
ArCHO HCHO ArCH OH HCOONa
A
+ +
Correct Option: (4)
Quick Tip: In crossed Cannizzaro reaction, HCHO always gets oxidized and ArCHO always gets
reduced.

Question 8: In the test for halogens, sodium fusion extract is boiled with concentrated nitric acid to
(1) increase the solubility of silver halides formed.
(2) increase the precipitation of silver halides formed.
(3) supplement the concentration of nitrate ions.

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(4) decompose sodium cyanide and sodium sulphide, if formed during Lassaignes test.
Solution
In sodium fusion test, halogens are converted into soluble salts of sodium, which on reaction with silver
nitrate precipitate out. However, nitrogen and sulphur, if present in the compound, will form sodium
cyanide and sodium sulphide and then precipitate out as silver cyanide and silver sulphide, respectively
on addition of silver nitrate. Therefore, sodium extract is boiled with concentrated nitric acid first to
decompose sodium cyanide and sodium sulphide formed during Lassaignes test, so that they do not
interfere with silver nitrate test.
Correct Option: (4)

Question 9: What is the order of rate of electrophilic substitution reaction for the following compounds?

(I) (II) (III) (IV)

(1) I > III > II > IV (2) III > I > II > IV (3) I > III > IV > II (4) IV > II > III > I
Solution
The electrophilic substitution reaction takes place through two-step mechanism in which the first step is
the rate determining step. The first step is the attack of electrophile on benzene ring and can be
accelerated by increasing electron density on benzene ring.
The electron density in benzene ring is increased or decreased according to the substituent on the ring.
According to electron displacement effects, the groups attached to the given compounds have the
following electron withdrawing or electron donating tendencies:

I effect order: F > Cl and + I effect order: t-Butyl group > Methyl group

The reaction rate will be more in case of methyl group because it is further stabilized by hyperconjugation
which is not possible in t-butyl group.
+R effect: F > Cl since lone pairs of fluorine are in 2p orbitals which result in more effective overlapping
between fluorine and carbon atoms. So, in the case of fluoride group, the reaction rate will be more, even
though it is more electron withdrawing than chloride group.
Hence, Cl deactivates the ring more than F and methyl group activates it more than t-butyl group.
Correct Option: (3)

Question 10: Consider the following pairs of reaction reagents. In which of the following pairs, the
second nucleophile would be more nucleophilic in a polar aprotic solvent?
(1) F

and I

(2) CH
3
CH
2
SH and CH
3
CH
2
OH

(3) CH
3
NH

and CH
3
NH
2
(4) CH
3
O

and CH
3
COO

Solution
In polar aprotic solvents, nucleophilicity is proportional to the basicity of reagents. In other words, more
solvated nucleophile in protic solvents shows more nucleophilicity in polar aprotic solvents.
So, the order of nucleophilicity in each case is:

F

> I

CH
3
CH
2
SH < CH
3
CH
2
OH

CH
3
NH

> CH
3
NH
2
CH
3
O

> CH
3
COO

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In the case of second option, CH
3
CH
2
OH is more basic than CH
3
CH
2
SH.
Correct Option: (2)
Quick Tip: Compare the basicity of the given species. More is the basicity, greater will be the
nucleophilicity.

Question 11: Which of following statements is not true about o-, m-, and p-nitrophenol?
(1) Boiling point of o-nitrophenol is lower than p-nitrophenol.
(2) Nitration of phenol with concentrated nitric acid gives p-nitrophenol as the major product.
(3) p-nitrophenol is a stronger acid than o-nitrophenol.
(4) m-nitrophenol is the weakest acid among them.
Solution
The acidic strength order: p-nitrophenol > o-nitrophenol > m-nitrophenol.
Due to intramolecular hydrogen bonding in o-nitrophenol, its boiling point is less than p-nitrophenol.
Nitration of phenol with concentrated nitric acid leads to formation of 2,4,6-trinitrophenol, commonly
known as picric acid.
Correct Option: (2)

Question 12: The correct order of the boiling point of comparable molecular weight of acid and its
derivatives is
(1) Primary amides > carboxylic acids > nitriles > esters
(2) Carboxylic acids > primary amides > nitriles > esters
(3) Carboxylic acids > nitriles > primary amides > esters
(4) Primary amides > carboxylic acids > esters > nitriles
Solution
Boiling point of primary amides is the maximum due to dipoledipole interactions and intermolecular
hydrogen bonding.

Carboxylic acids also have strong hydrogen bonding due to which they form dimers and their boiling
points are higher than that of corresponding nitriles and esters but lower than primary amides.

Nitriles show strong dipoledipole interactions, so, their boiling points are more than esters but lower
than acids.

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Correct Option: (1)

Question 13: Which of the following alkyl halides forms a substitution product in an S
N
1 reaction that is
the same as the substitution product formed in an S
N
2 reaction?
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
Solution
In S
N
2 reaction, back side attack of nucleophile takes place and the whole reaction occurs in a single step.
S
N
1 reaction occurs in two steps in which carbocation is produced as intermediate.
So, rearrangement can take place in S
N
1 reaction which will change the skeleton of the compound, and
hence a product with different skeleton will be obtained.
In the compound given in option (4), its carbocation will not rearrange. Therefore, both S
N
2 and S
N
1
products will be the same in this case.
Correct Option: (4)
Quick Tip: Both S
N
1 and S
N
2 mechanisms produce the same compound if stereochemistry is ignored.
However, different products can be obtained if the intermediate rearranges. So, we need to form
carbocation by removing the leaving group and check whether this carbocation can rearrange.
Rearrangement will produce different compounds.

Question 14: Which of the following polymer does not contain hydrogen bonding?
(1) Nylon-6,6 (2) Polyurethanes (3) Kevlar (4) Dacron
Solution
Fibres are long-chain polymers in which chains are linked by strong intermolecular forces. The
intermolecular forces are in general strong hydrogen bonds, dipoledipole and van der Waals forces.
The polymers given in options are fibres, but Dacron is a polyester which contains strong dipoledipole
Correct Option: (4)

Question 15: Arrange the following carbon acids in the increasing order of their pK
a
values?

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(1) IV < II < I < III (2) III < I < II < IV (3) IV < III < II < I (4) III < IV < I < II
Solution
Each of these compounds contains methylene (CH
2
) group clamped between two electron withdrawing
groups. So, after deprotonation from methylene group, negative charge can be delocalized and conjugate
base can be stabilized. If stronger electron withdrawing group is attached to this methylene group, it will
give more stable conjugate base which is produced from a stronger acid.

Since compound (IV) contains NO
2
group which is most electron withdrawing through M effect and
I effect, its presence makes the compound (IV) most acidic. Compound (III) contains COOEt group and
is least electron withdrawing. The OEt group shows mesomeric effect (+M) and inductive effect (I) but
+M effect is more dominant than I effect. In the case of compound (I) and compound (II), group -
COCH
3
and CHO are more electron withdrawing than COOEt. Therefore acidic order is IV > II > I >
III. Since pK
a
= log K
a
, so increasing order is IV < II < I < III.
Correct Option: (1)

Question 16: Among the following, the paramagnetic compound is
(1) Na
2
O
2
(2) O
3
(3) N
2
O (4) NO
2

Solution
Na
2
O
2
contains
2
2
O

ions, the molecular orbital configuration is
2 * 2 2 * 2 2 2 2 * 2 * 2
1 1 2 2 2 2 2 2 2
z x y x y
s s s s p p p p p o o o o o t t t t = =
As there are no unpaired electrons, so it is not paramagnetic.
Similarly, O
3
and N
2
O are even electron species. This implies non-existence of unpaired electrons and no
paramagnetism.
NO
2
is an odd-electron molecule, that is, there exists at least one unpaired electron, so it is paramagnetic.
Correct Option: (4)

Question 17: Which of the following is best resonance structure for azide ion,
3
N

?
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
Solution
Nitrogen belongs to the second period, so the valence shell can have 8 electrons only. Therefore, the
structure given in option (3) is not possible as nitrogen cannot form five bonds.
The formal charges for the structures are
1 1 1
:N N N:
+
= =
0 1
2
:N N N:
+

0 0 1
:N N N:

=
3
2 2
:N N N:
+

Out of the other structures, Option (1) species has sufficient bonds, that is, the octet of every atom is
complete. Also, it has the least formal charge, so it is the best Lewis structure.
Correct Option: (1)

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Quick Tip: The most stable structure is the one which contains maximum bonding pair and least formal
charge allocation. Also, the structure with least charge separation of unlike charges and maximum charge
separation of like charges is favoured.

Question 18: What volume of wet methane (saturated with water vapour) would you have to collect at
29C and 1 atm pressure to be sure that the sample contains 244 ml of dry methane at 950 torr. [Given
that vapour pressure of water at 29C = 30 torr.]
(1) 317.5 ml (2) 187.5 ml (3) 305 ml (4) 244 ml
Solution
The moles of methane gas required is
950 244
mol
pV
n
RT RT

= =
Same number of moles of methane should be present in wet methane, which is saturated with water
vapour. So, wet methane contains water vapour and the partial pressure of water vapour in it should be
equal to the vapour pressure of water for given conditions.
Therefore, partial pressure of methane in wet methane = 760 30 = 730 torr. Thus,
4
CH
950 244
317.5 ml
730
nRT RT
V
p RT

= = =
Correct Option: (1)
Quick Tip: Options (2) and (4) can be neglected easily since
p
mix
> p
dry methane
> p
wet methane

Question 19: Silver cyanide, AgCN is one of the important salts used in the extraction of silver metal. It
is sparingly soluble in water and its solubility is approximately 2 10
6
mol/l at 25C. If the dissociation
constant of HCN at 25C is 5 10
10
, what is the solubility product of AgCN at this temperature?
(1)
13
3.6 10

(2)
12
4 10

(3)
14
3.24 10

(4)
12
3.6 10

Solution
The reaction is
AgCN(s) Ag (aq) CN (aq)
+
+
Since CN

comes from weak acid, so its hydrolysis will take place, therefore
2
6 6 6
CN (aq) H O HCN(aq) OH (aq)
At equilibrium 2 10 (1 ) 2 10 2 10 (where is the degree of hydrolysis) h h h h

+ +

6 2
6
[HCN][OH ] (2 10 )
[CN ] (2 10 )(1 )
w
h
a
K h
K
K h

= = =

or
14 6 2
5
10
10 2 10
2 10
5 10 (1 )
h
h

= =

or
2
2
10 10 10 0 0.91
(1 )
h
h h h
h
= + = =

Therefore,
6 7
[CN ] 2 10 (1 0.91) 1.8 10 mol/l

= =
and
6 7 13
sp
[Ag ][CN ] 2 10 1.8 10 3.6 10 K
+
= = =
Correct Option: (1)

Question 20: Which of the following statements is not correct about the Freundlich adsorption
isotherm?
(1) At low pressure, the amount of adsorbate depends linearly on pressure.
(2) At high pressure, the amount of adsorbate is independent of pressure.
(3) The slope of log(x/m) vs. log(p) may vary from zero to one.

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(4) The most probable value of (1/n) is around one.
Solution
According to Freundlich isotherm,
1/ n
x
kp
m
| |
=
|
\ .
; where n > 1. At low pressure, the isotherm is
approximately linear, so (x/m) depends linearly on pressure and at high pressure (x/m) becomes constant.
So, (x/m) is almost independent of pressure.
The slope of log( / ) vs. log( ) x m p curve is 1/n. Since the value of 1/n varies from 0 to 1, the slope may
vary from 0 to 1. But, in most cases the value of 1/n lies between 0.1 and 0.5.
Correct Option: (4)

Question 21: Which of the following solutions will show positive deviation from ideal behaviour?
(1) C
2
H
5
OH + H
2
O (2) CH
3
COCH
3
+ CHCl
3

(3) H
2
O + HCl (4) H
2
O + HNO
3

Solution
Positive deviation is shown by the solutions in which interactions between the molecules of its
components (solute and solvent) are reduced. It causes increase in vapour pressure and it is greater than
the value calculated by using Raoults law.
In pure water, molecules are held by strong intermolecular force known as hydrogen bonding. But, it is
reduced when ethanol molecule comes in between two molecules of water. So, the solution will show
positive deviation.
Correct Option: (1)

Question 22: Which of the following electron transitions in hydrogen atom will produce photon with
maximum wavelength?
(1) n = 5 to n = 1 (2) n = 4 to n = 2 (3) n = 6 to n = 4 (4) n = 6 to n = 5
Solution
The energy of photon is calculated as the energy difference of the orbits,
2 1
photon n n
E E E E = = A
Hence,
photon
hc hc
E E
E

= = A =
A

So, emitted photons wavelength is inversely proportional to the energy difference of energy levels. Since
2 2
2 1
1 1
E
n n
| |
A
|
\ .
, moving away from nucleus the gap between successive energy levels is suppressed. So
for the transition from highest energy level to lower energy level will produce lowest energy photon.
For n = 6 to n = 5, transition is taking place from the highest energy level, n = 6 to just lower energy level,
n = 5. As the energy difference is minimum, so the wavelength of emitted photon will be maximum.
Correct Option: (4)

Question 23: At 460C, the reaction,
2 2 3
SO (g) NO (g) NO(g) SO (g); + + has K
C
= 85. A reaction
flask at 460C contains these gases at the following concentrations: [SO
2
] = 0.0025 M, [NO
2
] = 0.0035
M, [NO] = 0.025 M and [SO
3
] = 0.04 M.
Which of the following statements is correct?
(1) Reaction is proceeding towards forward direction.
(2) Reaction is proceeding towards reverse direction.
(3) Equilibrium would be affected on addition of inert gas at constant pressure.
(4) The value of K
p
is greater than K
C
.
Solution
The reaction quotient is given by

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3
2 2
[SO ][NO] 0.04 0.025
114
[SO ][NO ] 0.0025 0.0035
Q

= = ~

Since Q > K
C
, this implies that the product concentration is more than the equilibrium concentration, so,
reverse reaction takes place.
The number of moles of reactants and products is the same; hence, change in pressure will not affect the
equilibrium. The addition of an inert gas at constant pressure will also not affect the equilibrium.
The two equilibrium constants are related as:
( )
g
n
p C
K K RT
A
=
where An
g
= coefficient of gaseous products coefficient of gaseous reactants. Since coefficient of
reactants and products is the same, An
g
=0 and so K
p
= K
C
.
Correct Option: (2)

Question 24: 100 g of 0.1 M Ca(OH)
2
aqueous solution of density 1.5 g/cm
3
is mixed with 100 g of 0.1
M H
2
SO
4
of density 1.1 g/cm
3
. Which of the following statements is not correct about the final mixture?
(1) Final solution is neutral with [H
+
] ~ 10
7
M.
(2) The final calcium ion concentration, [Ca
2+
] ~ 0.04 M.
(3) The final sulphate ion concentration,
2
4
[SO ] 0.06 M

~
(4) Ca(OH)
2
is the limiting reagent in the reaction.
Solution
2 2 4 4 2
Ca(OH) H SO CaSO 2H O + +
2
Mass
Moles of Ca(OH) taken Molarity Volume Molarity
density
100
0.1 mmol 6.66 mmol
1.5
= =
= =

2 4
100
Similarly, moles of H SO taken 0.1 mmol 9.09 mmol
1.1
= =
Therefore, Ca(OH)
2
is the limiting reagent and it cannot neutralize the acid completely. As the mmol of
H
2
SO
4
> mmol of Ca(OH)
2
, so the resulting mixture is acidic.

The final volume of solution = 66.6 ml + 90.9 ml = 157.5 ml
2+
2
mmol of Ca ions 6.66
[Ca ] 0.04 M
total volume 157.5
+
= = =
2
4
9.09
[SO ] 0.06 M
157.5

= ~
2 (9.09 6.66)
[H ] 0.03 M
157.5
+

= =
Therefore, the final mixture is not neutral as equivalents of acid and base are not equal and the final
hydrogen ion concentration is 0.03 M.
Correct Option: (1)

Question 25: Which of the following contains the maximum number of atoms?
(1) 16 g of oxygen atoms (2) 16 g of methane gas
(3) 48 g of ozone (4) All contain the same number of atoms
Solution

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A A
16
Number of atoms in16 g Oatoms
16
N N = =
4 A A
16
Number of atoms in16 g CH 5 5
16
N N = =
A A
48
Number of atoms in 48 g ozone 3 3
48
N N = =
Correct Option: (2)
Quick Tip:
16 g of oxygen atoms = 1 mol of atoms
16 g CH
4
= 5 mol of atoms
48 g of O
3
= 3 mol of atoms

Question 26: A solid is formed with three types of atoms A, B and C. A forms fcc lattice, while B atoms
occupy all tetrahedral voids and C atoms occupy half of the octahedral voids. The formula of the solid is
(1) A
2
B
4
C (2) A
2
B
2
C (3) AB
2
C
2
(4) AB
2
C
Solution
The atoms of A per unit cell
1 1
8 6 4
8 2
= + =
The atoms of B per unit cell = 2 4 8 =
The atoms of C per unit cell =
1
4 2
2
=
Therefore formula is
4 8 2 2 4
A B C A B C
Correct Option: (1)

Question 27: The standard enthalpy of formation of carbon disulphide, CS
2
(g), is 115.3 kJ/mol. Given
that
o
f
(S) 277 kJ/mol H A = and
o
f
(C) 716.7 kJ/mol H A = , where
o
f
H A is the standard heat of formation of
the gaseous atoms from the elements in their standard state. Using the data, calculate the bond enthalpy of
C=S.

(1) 577.7 kJ/ mol (2) 1155.4 kJ/mol (3) 878.4 kJ/mol (4) 439.2 kJ/mol
Solution
The chemical equation for formation of CS
2
can be written as
o
f 2
C(s) 2S(s) S C S(g); (CS (g)) 115.3kJ/mol H + = = A =

It implies that
o o o o
f 2 f f bond
(CS (g)) (C) 2 (S) 2 (C=S) H H H H A = A + A A
Therefore,
o
bond
o
bond
115.3 716.7 2 277 2 (C S)
(C S) 577.7 kJ/mol
H
H
= + A =
A = =

Correct Option: (1)

Question 28: The decomposition of N
2
O
5
follows the reaction; 2N
2
O
5
(g) 4NO
2
(g) + O
2
(g) and it is a
first order reaction. The reaction was allowed to take place in a closed vessel. After 30 minutes, the total

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pressure was 284.5 mm Hg, and on complete decomposition the total pressure was 584.5 mm Hg.
Calculate the rate constant of the reaction.
(1) 8.7 10
3
min
1
(2) 5.2 10
3
min
1
(3) 5.2 10
3
s
1
(4) 2.5 10
3
min
1

Solution
The reaction can be expressed as
2 5 2 2
2N O 4NO (g) O (g)
Initial pressure 0 0
After 30 min. 2 / 2
On completion 0 2 / 2
p
p x x x
p p
+

After the reaction is over, 1 mol of reactant changes to 5/2 mol of products.
Therefore, the initial pressure, p = 2/5 584.5 = 233.8 mm Hg
3
Total pressureafter 30 min 2 284.5
2 2
x x
p x x p = + + = + =
or
3
284.5 50.7
2
x
p = =
Therefore, x = 33.8 and p x = 200
3 1
2.303 2.303 233.8
log log 5.2 10 min
30 200
p
k
t p x

= = =

Correct Option: (2)

Question 29: For the reaction
2
2 2 2
NiO (s) Cl (aq) H (aq) Cl (g) Ni (aq) H O
+ +
+ + + + , the standard cell
potential is 0.32 V. The value of AG
o
will be
(1) 61.8 kJ (2) 61.8 kJ (3) 30.9 kJ (4) 123.6 kJ
Solution
The balanced chemical equation:
2
2 2 2
NiO (s) 2Cl (aq) 4H (aq) Cl (g) Ni (aq) 2H O
+ +
+ + + +
We know that
o o
G nFE A = ; where n implies number of electrons involved in the reaction, and F is
96500 C/mol. Since NiO
2
is converting from Ni
4+
to Ni
2+
, two electrons are involved per molecule of
NiO
2
.
Therefore,
4
o
6.18 10
2 mol 96500 C/mol 0.32 V 61.8 kJ; (C V J)
1000
G

A = = = =
Correct Option: (1)

Question 30: Calculate the osmotic pressure of a solution obtained by mixing 100 ml of 3.4% solution
(w/V) of urea (mol. wt. 60) and 100 ml of 1.6% solution (w/V) of cane sugar (mol. wt. 342) at 20C.
(1) 14.73 atm (2) 13.61 atm (3) 7.38 atm (4) 6.82 atm
Solution
For urea, the osmotic pressure is
1
1 1 1 1 1
1
w
V n RT RT
M
H = =
For sugar, the osmotic pressure is
2
2 2 2 2 2
2
w
V n RT RT
M
H = =
Since, 100 ml of urea solution are mixed with 100 mL of cane-sugar solution, and thus, the total volume
becomes 200 ml in which 3.4 g urea and 1.6 g sugar is present
1 1
200 3.4
0.0821 293 6.82 atm
1000 60
H = H = (where R = 0.0821 l atm/mol-K)
and
2 2
200 1.6
0.0821 293 0.56 atm
1000 342
H = H =

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So,
total 1 2
7.38atm H = H +H =
Correct Option: (3)