GENETICS BLOCK 1 QUESTIONS Genetics Block 1 Questions

1. A medical student working in a molecular biology laboratory is asked by her mentor to determine the base composition of an unlabelled nucleic acid sample left behind by a former research technologist. The results of her analysis show 10% adenine, 40% cytosine, 30% thymine and 20% guanine. What is the most likely source of the nucleic acid in this sample? a. Bacterial chromosome b. Bacterial plasmid c. Mitochondrial chromosome d. Nuclear chromosome e. Viral genome Note: In eukaryotes, DNA is generally double stranded and RNA is generally single stranded. Exceptions occur in certain viruses, some of which have single stranded DNA genome and some double stranded RNA genomes. 2. A double stranded RNA genome isolated from a virus in the stool of a child with gastroenteritis was found to contain 15% uracil. What is the percentage of guanine in this genome?

a. b. c. d. e.

15 25 35 75 85 3. Which of the following statements regarding a double-helical molecule of DNA is true?

a. b. c. d.

All hydroxyl groups of pentoses are involved in linkages Bases are perpendicular to the axis Each strand is identical Each strand has parallel, 5 to 3 direction

e.

Each strand replicates itself

4. A sample of human DNA is subjected to increasing temperature until the major fraction exhibits optical density changes due to disruption of its helix (melting or denaturation). A smaller fraction is atypical in that it requires a much higher temperature for melting. This smaller, atypical fraction of DNA must contain a higher content of

a.

Adenine plus cytosine

GENETICS BLOCK 1 QUESTIONS

b. c. d. e.

Cytosine plus guanine Adenine plus thymine Cytosine plus thymine Adenine plus guanine

5. Which of the following molecules is found in a nucleoside?

a. b. c. d. e.

A pyrophosphate group A 1 base linked to a pentose sugar A 5-phosphate group linked to a pentose sugar A 3-phosphate group linked to a pentose sugar A terminal triphosphate 6. The process that occurs at the 5 position of cytidine and often correlates with gene inactivation is

a. b. c. d. e.

Gene conversion Sister chromatid exchange Pseudogene Gene rearrangement DNA methylation

7. It is now believed that a substantial proportion of the single nucleotide substitutions causing human genetic disease are due to misincorporation of bases during DNA replication. Which proofreading activity is critical in determining the accuracy of nuclear DNA replication and thus the base substitution mutation rate in human chromosomes?

a. 3 to 5 polymerase activity of DNA pol b. 3 to 5 exonuclease activity of DNA pol c. Primase activity of DNA polymerase d. 5 to 3 polymerase activity of DNA pol III e. 3 to 5 exonuclease activity of DNA pol

GENETICS BLOCK 1 QUESTIONS

8. The proliferation of cytotoxic C cells is markedly impaired upon infection with a newly discovered human immunodeficiency virus, designated HIV-V. the defect has been traced to the expression of a viral encoded enzyme that inactivates a host cell nuclear protein required for DNA replication. Which protein is a potential substrate for the viral enzyme?

a. b. c. d. e.

TATA box binding protein (TBP) Cap binding protein (CBP) Catabolite activator protein (CAP) Acyl carrier protein (ACP) Single strand binding protein (SBP)

9. The anti-pseudomonas action of norfloxacin is related to its ability to inhibit chromosome duplication in rapidly dividing cells. Which of the following enzymes participates in bacterial DNA replication and is directly inhibited by this antibiotic?

a. DNA polymerase I b. DNA polymerase II c. Topoisomerase I d. Topoisomerase II e. DNA ligase

10. Dyskeratosis congenital (DKC) is a genetically inherited disease in which the proliferative capacity of stem cells is markedly impaired. The defect has been traced to inadequate production of an enzyme needed for chromosome duplication in the nuclei of rapidly dividing cells. Structural analysis has shown that the active site of this protein contains a single stranded RNA that is required for normal catalytic function. Which step in DNA replication is most likely deficient in DKC patients?

a. Synthesis of centromere b. Synthesis of Okasaki fragments c. Synthesis of RNA primers d. Synthesis of telomeres e. Removal of RNA primers

GENETICS BLOCK 1 QUESTIONS 11. Given that the chromosomes of mammalian cells may be 20 times as large as those of Escherichia coli, how can replication of mammalian chromosomes be carried out in just a few minutes?

a. b. c. d. e.

Eukaryotic DNA polymerases are extraordinarily fast compared with prokaryotic polymerases The higher temperature of mammalian cells allows for an exponentially higher replication rate Hundreds of replication forks work simultaneously on each piece of chromosomal DNA A great many different RNA polymerases carry out replication simultaneously on chromosomal DNA The presence of histones speeds up the rate of chromosomal DNA replication 12. If a completely radioactive double-stranded DNA molecule undergoes two rounds of replication in a solution free of radioactive label, what is the radioactivity status of the resulting four double-stranded DNA molecules?

a. b. c. d. e.

Half should contain no radioactivity All should contain radioactivity Half should contain radioactivity in both strands One should contain radioactivity in both strands None should contain radioactivity 13. Which of the following descriptions of DNA replication is not common to the synthesis of both leading and lagging strands?

a. b. c. d. e.

RNA primer is synthesized DNA polymerase III synthesizes DNA Helicase (rep protein) continuously unwinds duplex DNA at the replication fork during synthesis Nucleoside monophosphates are added in a 5 to 3 direction along the growing DNA chain DNA ligase repeatedly joins the ends of DNA along the growing strand

14. The first drug to be effective against AIDS, including the reduction of

GENETICS BLOCK 1 QUESTIONS maternal-to-child AIDS transmission by 30%, was AIDS drug azidothymidine (AZT). Which of the following describes its mechanism of action?

a. b. c. d. e.

It inhibits viral protein synthesis It inhibits RNA synthesis It inhibits viral DNA polymerase It stimulates DNA provirus production It inhibits viral reverse transcriptase

15. Which of the following enzymes can be described as a DNA-dependent RNA polymerase?

a. DNA ligase b. Primase c. DNA polymerase III d. DNA polymerase I e. Reverse transcriptase
* know rna dependent dna polymerase

16. Which of the following statements reflects the process by which the telomeric ends of chromosomes are replicated?

a. A unique RNA molecule serves as the primer for synthesis. b. A unique RNA molecule serves as the template for synthesis. c. Short template-independent block of DNA are ligated to the ends using a 5-5 bond. d. Telomeres are replicated as short tandem-repeated stretches of ribonucleotides
instead of deoxyribonucleotides.

e.

Telomeres are replicated in a templeindependent process.

GENETICS BLOCK 1 QUESTIONS 17. Many effective anticancer drugs function as such by interfering with processes of DNA replication. The drug, doxorubicin, is useful in the treatment of lymphomas and breast cancers because of its ability to interfere with which of the following enzyme activities?

a. DNA ligase b. DNA polymerase-alpha c. Primase d. Topoisomerase II e. Uracil N-glycosylase

18. The average size of a human gene is

a. b. c. d. e.

1,000 bp 40,000 bp 2 106 bp 1.5 108 bp 3 109 bp

19. Following ultraviolet damage of DNA in skin

a. b. c. d. e.

A specific excinuclease detects damaged areas Purine dimers are formed Both strands are cleaved Endonuclease removes the strand DNA hydrolysis does not occur 20. Xeroderma pigmentosum is an inherited human skin disease that causes a variety of phenotypic changes in skin cells exposed to sunlight. The molecular basis of the disease appears to be

a. b. c. d. e.

Rapid water loss caused by defects in the cell membrane permeability The inactivation of temperature-sensitive transport enzymes in sunlight The induction of a virulent provirus on ultraviolet exposure The inability of the cells to synthesize carotenoid-type compounds A defect in an excision-repair system that removes thymine dimers from

GENETICS BLOCK 1 QUESTIONS DNA

21. Which is the most correct sequence of events in gene repair mechanisms in patients without a mutated repair process?

a. b. c. d. e.

Nicking, excision, replacement, sealing, recognition Sealing, recognition, nicking, excision, replacement Recognition, nicking, excision, replacement, sealing Nicking, sealing, recognition, excision, replacement Nicking, recognition, excision, sealing, replacement

22. Radiation therapy is employed for many cancers, including irradiation of the central nervous system to destroy lymphoblasts in leukemia. Which of the following accounts for the destruction of rapidly growing cells?

a. b. c. d. e.

Cross-linking of DNA Demethylation of DNA Cleavage of DNA double strands Disruption of DNA-RNA transcription complexes Disruption of purine rings in DNA

23. Patients with hereditary nonpolyposis colon cancer [HNPCC] have genes with microsatellite instability, that is, many regions containing abnormal, small loops of unpaired DNA. This is a result of a mutation affecting

a. b. c. d. e.

Mismatch repair Chain break repair Base excision repair Depurination repair Nucleotide excision repair

24. Which of the following enzymes is specific for DNA mismatch repair

GENETICS BLOCK 1 QUESTIONS mechanism?

a. b. c. d. e.

Uracil-N-glycosylase GATC endonuclease DNA ligase DNA polymerase Excinuclease

25. If the DNA strand shown below is used as a template for RNA polymerase, what would be the sequence of the resultant mRNA following transcription? 5-CATTCCATAGCATGT-3

a. b. c. d.

5-ACAUGCUAUGGAAUG-3 5-CAUUCCAUAGCAUGU-3 5-GUAAGGUAUCGUACA-3 5-UGUACGAUACCUUAC-3

26. The function of A promoter site on DNA is

a. b. c. d. e.

Transcribes repressor Initiates transcription Codes for RNA polymerase Regulates termination Translates specific proteins

27. An immigrant from eastern Europe is rushed into the emergency room with nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, and abdominal pain. His family indicates he has eaten wild mushrooms. They have brought a bag of fresh, uncooked mushrooms from a batch he had not yet prepared. You note the presence of Amanita phalloides, the death-cap mushroom. A liver biopsy indicates massive hepatic necrosis. Care is supportive. A major toxin of the death-cap mushroom is the hepatotoxic octapeptide -amanitin, which inhibits

a. b.

DNA primase RNA nuclease

GENETICS BLOCK 1 QUESTIONS

c. d. e.

DNA ligase RNA polymerase RNA/DNA endonuclease 28. The consensus sequence 5 TATAAAA 3 found in eukaryotic genes is quite similar to a consensus sequence observed in prokaryotes. It is important as the

a. b. c. d. e.

Only site of binding of RNA polymerase III Promoter for all RNA polymerases Termination site for RNA polymerase II Major binding site of RNA polymerase I First site of binding of a transcription factor for RNA polymerase II 29. The factor found in many bacteria is best described as a

a. b. c. d. e.

Subunit of RNA polymerase responsible for the specificity of the initiation of transcription of RNA from DNA Subunit of DNA polymerase that allows for synthesis in both 5' to 3' and 3' to 5 directions Subunit of the 50S ribosome that catalyzes peptide bond synthesis Subunit of the 30S ribosome to which mRNA binds Factor that forms the bridge between the 30S and 50S particles constituting the 70S ribosome 30. In bacterial RNA synthesis, the function of factor is to

a. b. c. d. e.

Bind catabolite repressor to the promoter region Increase the rate of RNA synthesis Eliminate the binding of RNA polymerase to the promoter Participate in the proper termination of transcription Allow proper initiation of transcription

31. A 58 year old woman is admitted to the hospital with fever, abdominal cramps, and severe watery diarrhea. The symptoms began one day after attending a

GENETICS BLOCK 1 QUESTIONS banquet. She was treated with ciprofloxacin, a quinolone group of antibiotic, but her condition did not improve. PCR amplification and analysis of a gene region in the bacteria isolated from the patient revealed a missense mutation that conferred resistance to CIPROFLOXACIN. This missense mutation is most likely in the gene encoding which one of the following enzymes? a. DNA polymerase b. DNA helicase c. DNA gyrase d. Primase e. RNA polymerse 32. If a double-stranded DNA molecule undergoes two rounds of replication in an in vitro system that contains all of the necessary enzymes and nucleoside triphosphates that have been labeled with 32P, which of the following best describes the distribution of radioactivity in the four resulting DNA molecules? a. Exactly one of the molecules contains no radioactivity. b. Exactly one of the molecules contains radioactivity in only one strand. c. Two of the molecules contain radioactivity in both strands. d. Three of the molecules contain radioactivity in both strands. e. All four molecules contain radioactivity in only one strand.

33. Acetylation and deacetylation of lysine residues on histone proteins provide one mechanism by which transcription can be activated or repressed. Which one of the histone proteins is least likely to participate in this process? a. H1 b. H2A c. H2B d. H3 e. H4

34. Telomeres are complexes of DNA and protein that protect the ends of linear chromosomes. In most normal human somatic cells, telomeres shorten with each division. In stem cells and cancer cells, however, telomeric length is maintained. The function of telomerase in the synthesis of telomere is a. Telomerase, a ribonucleoprotein, provides both the RNA and the polymerase needed for the synthesis b. The RNA of telomerase serves as a primer

GENETICS BLOCK 1 QUESTIONS c. The polymerase of telomerase is a DNA directed DNA polymerase d. The shorter 3 to 5 strand gets extended e. The direction of synthesis is 3to 5 35. While studying the structure of a small gene that was recently sequenced during human genome project, an investigator notices that one strand of the DNA molecule contains 20 A, 25 G, 30 C, and 22 T (bases). How many of each base is found in the complete double stranded molecule? a. A = 40, G = 50, C = 60, T = 44 b. A = 44, G = 60, C = 50, T = 40 c. A = 45, G = 45, C = 52, T = 52 d. A = 50, G = 47, C = 50, T = 47 e. A = 42, G = 55, C = 55, T = 42 36. Retroviruses, like HIV which causes AIDS, have their genetic information in the form of RNA. Reverse transcriptase synthesizes a DNA copy of the viral genome. One drug used in the treatment of AIDS is AZT, an anolog of deoxythymidine, which has an azido group at the 3 position of the sugar. It can be phosphorylated and competes with the dTTP for incorporation into the reverse transcript. Once incorporated, its presence terminates chain elongation. The growing chain is terminated becuase a. The analog cannot hydrogen bond to RNA b. The presence of the AZT analog inhibits the proofreading ability of reverse trascriptase c. AZT does not have free 3-OH d. The analog causes distortion of the growing chain inhibiting reverse transcriptase e. dTTP can no longer be added to the growing chain

37. Fragile X syndrome is caused by expression of a CGG sequence in the 5 untranslated region of the FMR1 gene. In some instances, this increased number of CGG units leads to hypermethylation of the FMR1 gene region. Which of the following is the most likely consequence of this hypermethylation in the 5 untranslated region? a. Little or no FMR1 gene product will be synthesized b. The FMR1 gene product will be elongated c. The FMR1 gene product will have missense mutations and therefore be inactive d. The CGG expansion will cause a frameshift mutation, and therefore the product will be inactive e. The FMR1 gene product will be overexpressed

GENETICS BLOCK 1 QUESTIONS

38. A portion of exon 10 of a candidate gene for a novel form of muscular dystrophy in the family is cloned and sequenced for mutation studies. The sequence of the exon containing the suspected mutation is pTpGpGpApTpG Which of the following is the sequence of the messenger RNA corresponding to this section of the exon? a. pCpApUpCpCpA b. pGpTpApGpGpU c. pTpGpGpApTpG d. pUpCpCpApUpC e. pUpGpGpApUpG

39. A ten year old girl is brought to the dermatologist by her parents. She has many freckles on her face, neck, arms, and hands, and the parents report that she is unusually sensitive to sunlight. Two basal cell carcinomas are identified on her face. Which of the following processes is most likely to be defective in this patient? a. Repair of double strand breaks b. Removal of mismatched bases c. Removal of Pyrimidine dimmers d. Removal of uracil from DNA

40. Sickle hemoglobin (HbS) differs from normal adult hemoglobin (HbA) at amino acid number 6 of the beta-globin chain, where HbS has a Val and HbA a Glu. This amino acid substitution arose from what type of mutation? a. Missense b. Nonsense c. Insertion d. Deletion e. Amplification 41. The base sequence of codons 57-58 in the cytochrome 5 reductase gene is CAGCGC (coding strand). The mRNA produced upon transcription of this

GENETICS BLOCK 1 QUESTIONS gene will contain the following sequence a. GCGCTG b. CUGCGC c. GCGCUG d. CAGCGC e. GUCGCG

42. A gene encodes a protein with 150 amino acids. There is one intron of 1,000 bps, a 5 untranslated region of 100 bp, and a 3 untranslated region of 200 bp. In the final processed mRNA, how many bases lie between the start AUG codon and the final termination codon? a. 1,750 b. 750 c. 650 d. 450 e. 150 43. Cytosine arabinoside (araC) is used as an effective chemotherapeutic agent for cancer although resistance to this drug may eventually develop. In certain cases, resistance is related to an increase in the enzyme cytidine deaminase in the tumor cells. This enzyme would inactivate araC to form a. Cytosine b. Cytidilic acid c. Thymidine arabinoside d. Uracil arabinoside e. Cytidine 44. A 45 year old man is diagnosed with cancer of the proximal portion of the colon. His father died of colon cancer at the age of 52. He has three siblings. His 55 year old brother has not been diagnosed with cancer, but his 57 year old sister has an endometrial carcinoma, and his other sister died of ovarian cancer. A diagnosis of hereditary nonpolyposis colonrectal cancer (HNPCC) is made. Which of the following types of mutations most likely occur in this family? a. A mutation causing defects in the mismatch repair system b. A point mutation in the gene coding for an excision exonuclease c. A reciprocal translocation between chromosomes 8 and 14, associated with the Epstein-Barr virus d. Loss of the retinoblastoma (RB) tumor suppressor gene

GENETICS BLOCK 1 QUESTIONS

45. A scientist exposes a culture of a bacterium with minimum nutritional requirements to a chemical mutagen, then streaks out the bacteria on plates filled with a complex medium supplemented with all necessary nutrients. When the bacteria begin growing, she isolates individual colonies and tests each one for the ability to grow on a minimal medium. Cells derived from colonies unable to grow on a minimal medium are considered mutants, and their genome sequenced. In one case, she finds that a two nucleotide segment of DNA has been deleted. This event would most likely give rise to a a. Conservative mutation b. Frame shift mutation c. Missense mutation d. Nonsense mutation e. Silent mutation

46. A 48-year-old man has had a lengthy history of skin cancer. In the past 6 years he has had over 30 neoplasms removed from sun-exposed areas and have been diagnosed with xeroderma pigmentosum. Defect or deficiency of which one of the following enzymes causes xeroderma pigmentosum? a. DNA polymerase b. DNA polymerase c. DNA ligase d. UV specific excision nuclease e. RNA polymerase III

47. Patients with the rare genetic disease xeroderma pigmentosum are very sensitive to light and are highly susceptible to skin cancers. Xeroderma pigmentosum is caused by defective DNA repair -nucleotide excision repair. All the following are true about nucleotide excision repair except a. Removal of the damaged bases occurs on only one strand of the DNA b. It removes thymine dimmers generated by UV light c. It involves the activity of an excision nuclease, which is an endonuclease d, It requires a polymerase and ligase e. Only the damaged nucleotides are removed 48. A 5-year-old boy has a rough, raised lesion on his neck. Physical examination shows that he has excessive freckling and some erythema (redness) of his face,

GENETICS BLOCK 1 QUESTIONS lips, neck, and upper extremities as well as some clouding of his corneas. His mother reports that he has a tendency to sunburn easily and has an aversion to direct sunlight. Pathologic evaluation of a biopsy of the lesion reveals it to be a malignant melanoma. This patient most likely suffers from deficiency of an enzyme involved in the repair of which type of DNA damage? a. Base adducts b. Thymine dimers c. Abasic sites d. Mismatches e. Double-stranded breaks 49. It is well known that DNA polymerases synthesize DNA only in the 5 to 3 direction. Yet, at the replication fork, both strands of parental DNA are being replicated with the synthesis of new DNA. How is it possible that while one strand is being synthesized in the 5 to 3 direction, the other strand appears to be synthesized in the 3 to 5 direction? This apparent paradox is explained by A.3 to 5 DNA repair enzymes B.3 to 5 DNA polymerase C.Okazaki fragments D.Replication and immediate crossover of the leading strand E.Lack of RNA primer on one of the strands 50. A child presents with severe growth failure, accelerated aging that causes adult complications such as diabetes and coronary artery disease, and microcephaly (small head) due to increased nerve cell death. In vitro assay of labeled thymidine incorporation reveals decreased levels of DNA synthesis compared to controls, but normal-sized labeled DNA fragments. The addition of protein extract from normal cells, gently heated to inactivate DNA polymerase, restores DNA synthesis in the childs cell extracts to normal. Which of the enzymes used in DNA replication is likely to be defective in this child? A.DNA-directed DNA polymerase B.Unwinding proteins C.DNA polymerase I D.DNA-directed RNA polymerase E.DNA ligase 51. Xeroderma Pigmentosum is an autosomal recessive disorder with hypersensivity to UV light and patients with this disorder are highly susceptible to develop skin cancer. Defect in which one among the following enzymes is responsible for developing xeroderma pigmentosum? A.UV Specific endonuclease B.DNA Polymerase

GENETICS BLOCK 1 QUESTIONS C.RNA Polymerase D.Nucleoside N-glycosylase E.DNA Ligase 52. Sickle cell anemia is the clinical manifestation of homozygous genes for an abnormal hemoglobin molecule. The mutation in the beta chain is known to produce a single amino acid change. The most likely mechanism for this mutation is A.Crossing over B.Two-base insertion C.Three-base deletion D.Nondisjunction E.Single-base substitution (point mutation) 53. The first drug to be effective against AIDS, including the reduction of maternal-tochild AIDS transmission by 30%, was AIDS drug azidothymidine (AZT). Which of the following describes its mechanism of action? A.It inhibits viral protein synthesis B.It inhibits RNA synthesis C.It inhibits viral DNA polymerase D.It inhibits DNA provirus production E.It inhibits viral RNA synthesis 54. The hypothetical stimulin gene contains two exons that encode a protein of 100 amino acids. They are separated by an intron of 100 bp beginning after the codon for amino acid 10. Stimulin messenger RNA (mRNA) has 5 and 3 untranslated regions of 70 and 30 nucleotides, respectively. A complementary DNA (cDNA) made from mature stimulin RNA would have which of the following sizes? A.500 bp B.400 bp C.300 bp D.100 bp E.70 bp 55. Which one of the following binds to specific nucleotide sequences that are upstream of the start site of transcription? A.RNA polymerase B.Primase C.Helicase D.Histone protein E.Restriction endonuclease 56. A lethal mutation occurs in a bacterium rendering it incapable of replicating its chromosome. Because of this mutation, DNA synthesis produces many short

GENETICS BLOCK 1 QUESTIONS fragments of DNA that have RNA sequences at their 5 ends. The mutation is most likely in a gene encoding which of the following? a. DNA gyrase b. DNA helicase c. DNA ligase d. DNA polymerase I e. Primase 57. Transcription of a eukaryotic gene by RNA polymerase yields an hnRNA with two introns, intron 1 having 27 nucleotides and intron 2 having 54 nucleotides, two exons, exon 1 having 30 nucleotides and exon 2 having 15 nucleotides. On processing of hnRNA, the mature mRNA has a 5' untranslated region of 120 nucleotides and a 3' untranslated region of 240 nucleotides. Approximately how many amino acids are translated in the coding region of the mRNA? A. 27 B. 42

C. 15
D. 135 E. 120 58. A 58 year old woman is admitted to the hospital with fever, abdominal cramps, and severe watery diarrhea. The symptoms began one day after attending the banquet. She was treated with ciprofloxacin, but her condition did not improve. PCR amplification and analysis of a gene gene region in the bacteria isolated from the patient revealed a missense mutation that conferred resistance to ciprofloxacin. The missense mutation is most likely in the gene encoding an enzyme essential for which of the following functions? a. DNA replication b. Folate synthesis c. mRNA translocation on a ribosome--rifampin d. Peptide bond formation e. Reduction of folate to THF 59. Cancer cells avoid replicative senescence by maintaining integrity of their chromosome ends through increased activity of which of the following enzymes?. A. Topoisomerase B. DNA polymerase C. Helicase D. RNA polymerase I E. RNA polymerase II F. Telomerase.

GENETICS BLOCK 1 QUESTIONS 60. An eight-year-old girl with cystic fibrosis is treated with ciproflaxacin for Pseudomonas aeruginosa infection in her lungs. Which of the following enzymatic activities is most directly affected By this drug?. A.The synthesis of RNA primers. B.The breaking of hydrogen bonds in front of the replication fork. C. The breaking and subsequent rejoining of the DNA backbone. D. The removal of RNA primers. E. The joining together of Okazaki fragments.

61. You are treating your patient with AZT, which is Azidothymidine. The administration of AZT helps to treat your patient with an HIV infection by: (A). Stimulating T and B cells to mount an immune response. (B). Inhibiting the viral RNA polymerase. (C). Preventing further DNA chain elongation. (D). Causing lysis of the retrovirus. (E). Stimulating Reverse Transcriptase activity. 62. .In the semiconservative replication of DNA, progeny DNA molecules consist of: A. one-half of the molecules with two parental strands and one-half of the molecules with two new strands. B. all molecules with interspersed parental and new segments. C. all molecules with one parental and one new strand. D. all molecules with two new strands. 63. The two polynucleotide chains in DNA are: A. semidiscontinuous. B. semiconservative. C. parallel. D. discontinuous. E. antiparallel.

64. A nucleic acid was analyzed and found to contain 37 percent A, 16 percent G, 22 percent C, and 25 percent T. The nucleic acid must be: A. single-stranded RNA. B. single-stranded DNA. C. double-stranded RNA. D. double-stranded DNA.

GENETICS BLOCK 1 QUESTIONS 65. A group of scientists is investigating the anti-neoplastic properties of a new drug. In an in vitro experiment, cancer cells exposed to the drug are found to be uniformly arrested in metaphase. The mechanism of action of this new drug is similar to the action of which of the following drugs? a. bleomycin---g2 phase b. cyclophosphamide c. 5-flurouracil---s phase d. methotrexatesphase e. paclitaxelm phase