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# MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS IN

GENERAL ENGINEERING
AND APPLIED SCIENCES
By
Emmylou R. Edulan
Jerick D. Lee
Woodrow B. Pino

ENCODED BY:
GARCIA, Virginia Nonna H.
GIRAO, Edward Joseph D.
LAQUI, Louise Ruelyn J.
LORENZO, Luer Breech B.
RIVERA, Billy Joe S.
SANTOLLO, Dan Alvin

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS IN
THERMODYNAMICS
General Engineering and Applied Sciences
By
Emmylou R. Edulan
Jerick D. Lee
Woodrow B. Pino

ENCODED BY:
GARCIA, Virginia Nonna H.
1. Thermodynamics is the study of heat and its transformation which stems from Greek
words meaning _________.
a. transformation of heat
b. transformation of energy
c. movement of heat
d. movement of matter

2. What is the Si unit for temperature?
a. Kelvin
b. Celsius
c. Fahrenheit
d. Rankine

3. The energy that flows from higher temperature object to a lower temperature object
because of the difference in temperature is called
a. heat
b. temperature
c. thermodynamics cycle
d. energy flow

4. The amount of heat energy per kilogram that must be added or removed when a
substance changes from one phase to another.
a. specific heat
b. heat of expansion
c. latent heat
d. useful heat

5. The change in physical size of a substance when its temperature changes.
a. intensive property
b. extensive property
c. volume expansion
d. thermal expansion

6. A stress which develops within an object when it attempts to expand or contract in
response to a temperature changes, but cannot, due to being held rigidly in place.
a. elongation
b. thermal stress
c. expansion contraction
d. thermal expansion

7. The energy associated with individual molecules in a gas, liquid or solid.
a. Specific Energy
b. Molecular Energy
c. Internal Energy
d. Phase Energy

8. The heat Q per unit mass per degree change in temperature that must be supplied or
removed to change the temperature of a substance.
a. Specific Heat Capacity
b. Latent Heat
c. Heat of Transformation
d. Internal Heat

9. The pressure of the vapor phase of a substance that is in equilibrium with the liquid or
solid phase.
a. Phase Pressure
b. Equilibrium Vapor Pressure
c. Specific Pressure
d. Equilibrium Phase Pressure

10. Vapor pressure depends only on _________.
a. pressure
b. force
c. volume
d. temperature

11. A plot of pressure vs. temperature for a given substance showing the various phases
possible for that particular substance.
a. Phase diagram
b. P-T diagram
c. Wein Diagram
d. Histogram

12. _________ is the grand total of all energies inside a substance.
a. Internal Energy
b. Grand Energy
c. Atomic Energy
d. Elemental Energy

13. The _________ is defined as the amount of heat required to change the temperature of 1
gram of water by 1 Celsius degree.
a. specific heat
b. latent heat
c. Joule
d. calorie

14. _________ is a measure of the average kinetic energy per molecule in a substance.
a. movement
b. temperature
c. heat
d. mass

15. _________ the very small KE still present in molecules at absolute zero temperature.
a. internal KE
b. Atomic kinetic energy
c. Zero-Point Energy
d. Subliminal Energy

16. Convert the change of temperature from 20C to 30C to Kelvin scale.
a. 10 K
b. 293 K
c. 303 K
d. 273 K

17. _________ is a thermodynamic potential which measures the useful work obtainable
from a closed thermodynamic system at a constant temperature and volume.
a. useful work
b. energy consumed
c. Helmholtz free energy
d. Kinetic Energy

18. How much will the length of a 1.0 km section of concrete highway change if the
temperature varies from -15C in winter to 41C in summer?
a. 0.67 m
b. 2.2 m
c. 3.1 m
d. 0.47 m

19. Two 12 ft sections of aluminium siding are placed end to end on the outside wall of
house. How large a gap should be left between the pieces to prevent buckling if the
temperature can change by 55C?
a. 0.21 m
b. 0.18 m
c. 0.31 in
d. 0.18 in

20. What is the amount of radiant energy received each second over each square meter that is
at right angles to the suns rays at the top of the atmosphere?
a. 1400 J
b. 6000 J
c. 10000 J
d. 800 J

21. _________ is a thermodynamic potential that measures the useful or process-initiating
work obtainable from an isothermal, isobaric thermodynamic system.
a. Du-Pont Potential
b. Gibbs free energy
c. Rabz-Eccles Energy
d. Claussius Energy

22. All the energy we consume ultimately becomes _________.
a. heat
b. depleted
c. exhausted
d. work

23. _________is the partial pressure of water vapor at the existing temperature divided by the
equilibrium vapor pressure of water at the existing temperature.
a. vacuum pressure
b. relative humidity
c. absolute pressure
d. vapor pressure

24. _________ is the transition of a given substance from the solid to the gas phase with no
intermediate liquid stage.
a. Convection
b. Conduction
d. Sublimation

25. A process in which heat energy is transferred by the flow of fluid.
a. Convection
b. Conduction
d. Sublimation

26. In order to use a substance to make a thermometer the substance must _________ with a
temperature change.
a. expand
b. contract
c. change
d. increase

27. For most solids, the coefficient of volume expansion is _________ the coefficient of
linear expansion.
a. unrelated to
b. proportional to
c. twice
d. three times

28. The volume of a given amount of water _________ as the temperature decreases from
4C to 0C.
a. decreases
b. increases
c. remains constant
d. none of the above

29. The gas in a constant gas thermometer cooled to absolute zero would have _________.
a. no volume
b. no pressure
c. zero temperature at all scales
d. none of the above

30. On a day when the partial pressure of water vapor remains constant, what happens as the
temperature rises?
a. the relative humidity increases
b. the relative humidity decreases
c. the relative humidity remains constant
d. the air would eventually become saturated

31. The flow of a fluid when heat is transferred by convection.
a. placidity
b. mass flow
c. convection current
d. heat transfer

32. An idealized perfect absorber and perfect emitter of radiation.
a. elastic material
b. transponder material
c. Teflon
d. blackbody

33. A process by which heat is transferred through a material without a bulk movement of the
material.
a. Convection
b. Conduction
d. Emission

34. Is the amount of a substance that contains Avogadros number of atoms/molecules.
a. mass
b. matter
c. gram-mole
d. volume

35. The distribution of particle speeds in an ideal gas at a given temperature.
a. velocity of propagation
b. escape velocity
c. Maxwell speed Distribution
d. terminal velocity

36. A convection process in which an external device, such as a fan, is used to produce the
fluid flow.
a. Forced Convection
b. External Convection
c. Placid Convection
d. Thermionic Convection

37. A _________ is a quantity whose value at any state is independent of the path or process
used to reach that state.
a. cycle
b. path function
c. point function
d. process

38. A _________ is a quantity whose value depends on the path followed during a particular
change in state.
a. path function
b. point function
c. process
d. cycle

39. The contact surface shared by both the system and the surroundings is called _________.
a. wall
b. boundary
c. interface
d. intersection

40. A closed system is also known as _________.
a. isolated system
b. closed container
c. control mass
d. control volume

41. Open system is also known as _________.
a. isolated system
b. closed container
c. control mass
d. control volume

42. Liquid hydrogen boils at 17K. What is the temperature in degrees Celsius?
a. 290
b. 63
c. -120
d. -256

43. When a solid melts,
a. the temperature of the substance increases.
b. the temperature of the substance decreases.
c. heat leaves the substance.
d. heat enters the substance.

44. How many kilocalories of heat are required to heat 750 g of water from 35C to 55C.
a. 15
b. 1500
c. 1.5 x 10^4
d. 6.3 x 10^4

45. Which of the following does not determine the amount of internal energy an object has?
a. temperature
b. amount of material
c. type of material
d. shape of the object

46. Which of the following have the highest thermal conductivities?
a. liquids
b. gases
c. metals
d. solids other than metals

47. Identical objects of four different materials are heated to the same high temperature.
Which of the following would least likely burn your hand if touched?
a. aluminium
b. brass
c. glass
d. concrete

48. As we heat a gas at constant pressure, its volume
a. increases
b. decreases
c. stays the same
d. none of the above

49. The volume of an ideal gas is directly proportional to its
a. pressure
b. Celsius temperature
c. Kelvin temperature
d. Fahrenheit temperature
50. An ideal gas is maintained at constant temperature. If the pressure on the gas is doubled,
the volume is
a. increased fourfold
b. doubled
c. reduced by half
d. decreased by a quarter

51. If the Kelvin temperature of an ideal gas is doubled, what happens to the rms speed of the
molecules in the gas?
a. it increases by a factor of square root of 2
b. it increases by a factor of 2
c. it increases by factor of 4
d. none of the above

52. A function of state that is associated with disorder in the system and environment.
a. enthalpy
b. entropy
c. law of diminishing return
d. Lenz Law

53. No volume changes occur during this type of process
a. Isobaric process
b. Isomillimetric process
c. Isocaloric process
d. Isochoric process

54. The boiling of water into steam in an open container is an example of a/an _________
process.
b. isochoric
c. isobaric
d. zero work

55. When liquid water is converted to steam at 100C, the entropy of water
a. increases
b. decreases
c. remains the same
d. none of the above

56. Only energy can cross the boundaries.
a. Closed system
b. Open system
c. Isolated system
d. Isoenergetic system

57. The temperature at which the vapor pressure exactly equals one atm is called _________.
a. boiling temperature
b. normal boiling point
c. triple point
d. point of infliction

58. Mixture of liquid and steam of the same substance in which both are at saturation
temperature.
a. dry steam
b. current steam
c. wet steam
d. aerosol

59. The term _________ is traditionally used to describe steam issuing from condensate
receiver vents and open-ended condensate discharge lines from steam traps.
a. dry steam
b. wet steam
c. phase steam
d. flash steam

60. Defined as the ratio of weight of dry steam to the weight of stuff.
a. dryness fraction
b. Vaporization
c. fusion
d. super heated steam

61. What device measures infrared radiation below?
a. thermocouple
b. thermopile
c. thermodynamic device
d. thermos

62. When an object undergoes thermal expansion,
a. any holes in the object expand as well
b. any holes in the object remain the same
c. mass increases
d. molecular activities would cease

63. _________ is the quantity of heat required to raise the temperature of one pound of water
1 F from 63 F to 64 F.
a. one Joule
b. one calorie
c. one watt
d. one BTU

64. Boiling temperature of a material is dependent on its _________.
a. volume
b. power
c. heat
d. pressure

65. Thermos was invented by _________.
a. Sir Arthur Conan Doyle
b. Sir Fredrich the Great
c. Thomas Edison
d. Sir James Dewar

66. Most cooking activities involve _________ process.
a. Isochoric
b. Isothermal
c. Isobaric
d. Isovolumic

respectively.
a. raising the temp and lowering the temp
b. maintaining the pressure and changing the temperature
c. decreasing the volume and increasing the pressure
d. lowering the temp and raising the temp

68. The statement heat cannot by itself flow from one body into a hotter body is governed
by _________.
a. the first law of thermodynamics
b. the second law of thermodynamics
c. the third law of thermodynamics
d. the zeroth law of thermodynamics

69. It is impossible for any process to have as its sole result the transfer of heat from a cooler
to a hotter body
a. Carnots statement
b. Clausius statement
c. Rankine statement
d. Gauss statement

70. _________ is the average distance a molecule moves before colliding with another
molecule.
a. mean free path
b. path allowance
c. compacting factor
d. molecular space

71. Find the pressure due to a column of mercury 74.0 cm high.
a. 91.80 x 10^3 N/m^2
b. 73.56 x 10^2 N/m^2
c. 9.86 x 10^4 N/m^2
d. 87.2 x 10^4 N/m^2

72. Roughly what is the total weight of air in the entire earth?
a. 1 x 10^5 tons
b. 2 x 10^6 tons
c. 6 x 10^15 tons
d. 8 x 10^10 tons

73. _________ is defined as that equivalent to the pressure due to a column of mercury 76cm
long.
a. surface pressure
b. gage pressure
c. standard atmospheric pressure
d. isobaric pressure

74. If any external pressure is applied to a confined fluid, the pressure will be increased at
every point in the fluid by the amount of the external pressure is known as _________.
a. Torricellis law
b. Barometric law
c. Newtons Second law
d. Pascals law

75. What type of pressure cannot be used for Boyles Law?
a. Atmospheric Pressure
b. Gauge Pressure
c. Surface Pressure
d. Isobaric Pressure

76. To displace a cubic foot of fresh water, you need _________ force.
a. 62.4 lb
b. 9.81 lb
c. 76 lb
d. 760 lb

77. The force per unit length across such a line in the surface is called _________.
a. force per length
b. surface tension
c. Pressure
d. Density

78. The speed at which a liquid escapes from a vessel through an orifice is given by
_________.
a. Archimedes Principle
b. Evangelistas Law
c. Torricellis Theorem
d. Bernoullis Equation

79. The process of one substance mixing with another because of molecular motion is called
_________.
a. diffusion
b. viscosity
c. streamline flow
d. solution

80. When was the Ninth General Conference on Weights and Measures decided to abandon
a. 1950
b. 1936
c. 1957
d. 1948
81. _________ is the temperature to which the air must be cooled, at constant pressure, to
produce saturation.
a. relative humidity
b. triple point temperature
c. dew point
d. critical point

82. _________ is a succession of changes that ends with the return of the body or system to
its initial state.
a. process
b. system
c. equilibrium
d. cycle

83. Intensive properties of a system are called _________.
a. Bulk Properties
b. Innate Properties
c. Natural Properties
d. Inside Properties

84. In thermodynamics, a throttling process, also called a _________, is a type of isenthalpic
process where a liquid or gas is cooled as it passes from a higher pressure state to a lower
pressure state.
a. Rankine Process
b. Carnot Cycle
c. Joule-Thomson process
d. Refrigeration process

85. Gasoline and Diesel Engines are best described by the _________.
a. Otto Cycle
b. Burnign Cycle
c. Shikki Cycle
d. Shapa R Elli Cycle

86. Twenty grams of ice at 0C melts to water at 0C. How much does the entropy of the 20g
change in this process?
a. 30.5 J/K
b. 24.6 J/K
c. 21.3 J/K
d. 15.7 J/K
87. The first law of thermodynamics is based on which of the following principles?
a. conservation of mass
b. the enthalpy-entropy relationship
c. action reaction
d. conservation of energy

88. If a system absorbs 500 cal of heat at the same time does 400J of work, find the change in
internal energy of the system.
a. 1400 J
b. 1700 J
c. 1900 J
d. 1500 J

89. A gas is enclosed in a cylinder with a weighted piston as the top boundary. The gas is
heated and expands from a volume of 0.04 m3 to 0.10 m3 at a constant pressure of 200
kPa. Find the work done on the system.
a. 5 kJ
b. 15 kJ
c. 10 kJ
d. 12 kJ

90. A simple steam engine receives steam from the boiler at 180C and exhausts directly into
the air at 100C. What is the upper limit of its efficiency?
a. 11.28 %
b. 36.77 %
c. 20.36 %
d. 17.66 %

91. Heat which causes a change in temperature of a substance.
a. Latent heat
b. Sensible heat
c. Specific heat
d. Heat of Fusion

92. Who coined the term latent heat?
a. John Thompson
b. Studey Baker
c. Joe di Maggio
d. Joseph Black

93. Which of the following cannot be measured by a thermometer?
a. Latent Heat
b. Sensible Heat
c. Specific Heat
d. Heat of Fusion

94. It is generally accepted as a law of nature that although one may closely approach 0
Kelvin it is impossible actually to reach it.
a. First Law of thermodynamics
b. Second Law of thermodynamics
c. Third Law of thermodynamics
d. Zeroth Law of thermodynamics

95. One calorie is equal to _________.
a. 1/180 W.h
b. 1/860 W.h
c. 1/360 W.h
d. 1/250 W.h

96. A _________ is a reversible process in which there is transfer of heat and takes place
according to the relation pV^n=C where n is any constant.
a. Polytropic process
b. Entropy
c. Ideal Gas Law
d. Carnot Cycle

97. The flow through an open system is _________ if all properties at each point within the
system remain constant with respect to time.
a. streamline flow
c. constant flow
d. algebraic flow

98. The most efficient cycle that can operate between two constant temperature reservoir is
the _________.
a. Otto Cycle
b. Lazare Cycle
c. Isothermal Cycle
d. Carnot Cycle

99. The flow energy of 150 L of a fluid passing a boundary to a system is 110 kJ. Determine
the pressure at this point
a. 733.33 kPa
b. 833.33 kPa
c. 933.33 kPa
d. 633.33 kPa

100. Who is the father of thermodynamics?
a. Lazare Carnot
c. William Thompson
d. Rudolf Classius

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS IN
CHEMISTRY
General Engineering and Applied Sciences
By
Emmylou R. Edulan
Jerick D. Lee
Woodrow B. Pino

ENCODED BY:
GIRAO, Edward Joseph D.
1. An instrument that separates particles of different isotopic composition and measure their
individual relative masses.
A. mass spectrometer
B. barometer
C. hygrometer
D. hydrometer
2. These are compounds containing water molecules loosely bound to the other components.
A. isotope
B. hydrates
C. ion
D. mixture
3. If a more active element replaces a less active one in a compound, the reaction is:
A. combustion reactions
B. replacement reactions
C. metathesis
D. neutralization
4. If a single reactant is transformed by heat or electricity into two or more products, the type of
reaction is
A. decomposition
B. combination
C. displacement
D. double displacement
5. The numerical value for standard pressure of any gas is
A. 76 mm Hg
B. 760 cm Hg
C. 760 mm Hg
D. 7.6 cm Hg
6. Any process extracting the metal in a fused state is called
A. Calcination
B. Roasting
C. Smelting
D. Froth flotation process
7. Which of the following does not change with change in temperature?
A. volume
B. mass
C. pressure
D. density
8. A device used to measure density.
A. manometer
B. hydrometer
C. spectrometer
D. densimeter
9. The statement mass is neither created nor destroyed in a chemical reaction is known as:
A. The law of conservation of mass
B. The law of constant composition
C. The law of multiple proportions
D. The law of chemical reaction
10. What kind of chemical bond will form in binary compounds where the electronegativity
difference between atoms is greater than 2.0
A. Ionic Bond
B. Covalent Bond
C. Metallic Bond
D. Chemical Bond
11. What kind of chemical bond will form in binary compounds where the electronegativity
difference between atoms is less than 1.5?
A. Covalent Bond
B. Ionic Bond
C. Metallic Bond
D. Chemical Bond
12. The element which has a mass of about 9 amu is Berylium (Be), atomic number 4. What is
the charge on the Be atom?
A. +4
B. +8
C. -4
D. Neutral
13. The horizontal arrangement of elements of increasing atomic number in a Periodic table is
called:
A. period
B. group
C. family
D. row
14. Compounds which contain only carbon and hydrogen are called
A. polymorphs
B. hydrocarbons
C. polycarbon
D. plastics
15. The property of liquid which describes their resistance to flow is called
A. viscosity
B. elasticity
C. glueyness
D. stickiness
16. In oxidation-reduction or redox reactions the component receiving the electrons is called
A. reductant
B. reducing agent
C. oxidant
D. acceptor
17. The mass that enters into a chemical reaction remains the unchanged as a result of the
reaction. In precise form: mass is neither created nor destroyed. This is known as:
A. the law of conservation of mass
B. the law of definite proportion
C. the law of multiple proportion
D. law of conservation of energy
18. When the same elements can form two different two compounds, the ratio of masses of one
of the elements in the two compounds is a small whole number relative to a given mass of the
other element. This is known as:
A. The law of constant composition
B. The law of conservation of mass
C. The law of multiple proportion
D. The law of conservation of energy
19. The ratio of density of the test liquid to the density of a reference Liquid is called:
A. specific gravity
B. relative gravity
C. specific weight
D. relative weight
20. How many electrons are there in a covalent bond?
A. 3
B. 2
C. 4
D. 8
21. The SI unit of temperature is
A. Fahrenheit
B. Kelvin
C. Celsius
D. Rankine
22. The elements that a compound is composed of are present in fixed and precise proportion by
mass. This is known as:
A. the law of constant composition
B. the law of conservation of mass
C. the law of multiple proportion
D. law of conservation of energy
23. The mass to the nearest atomic-mass unit of an atom which contains 9 protons and 10
neutrons.
A. 10 amu
B. 19 amu
C. 15 amu
D. 21 amu
24. The number of protons in the nucleus of an atom is called
A. atomic number
B. percent abundance
C. atomic weight
D. oxidation number
25. The measure of the resistance of an object to a changed in its state of Motion is called
A. momentum
B. mass
C. inertia
D. velocity
26. Refers to the agreement of a particular value with the true value.
A. precision
B. error
C. tolerance
D. accuracy
27. Refers to the degree of arrangement among several measurements of the same quantity.
A. accuracy
B. precision
C. error
D. margin
28. A property of matter that is often used by chemist as an identification tag for a substance.
A. mass
B. molarity
C. density
D. volume
29. Protons and neutrons can be broken down further into elementary particles called
A. quarks
B. ions
C. isotope
D. warks
30. The principle of the constant composition of compounds, originally called Prousts Law is
now known as
A. The law of multiple proportion
B. The law of definite proportion
C. The law of conservation of mass
D. The law of compounds
31. The mass of an alpha a particle is how many times more than that of the Electron?
A. 1837 times
B. 7300 times
C. 1829 times
D. 1567 times
32. Atoms with the same number of protons but different number of neutrons are called
A. ions
B. quarks
C. isotopes
D. compounds
33. The forces that hold atoms together are called
A. mechanical bond
B. formula bond
C. atomic bind
D. chemical bond
34. An atom or group of atoms that has a net positive or negative charge is called
A. ion
B. isotope
C. positron
D. polymer
35. A positive ion is called
A. positron
B. anion
C. cation
D. quark
36. A negative ion is called
A. positron
B. anion
C. cation
D. quark
37. The force of attraction between oppositely charged ions is called
A. ionic bonding
B. covalent bonding
C. polar bonding
D. metallic bonding
38. The horizontal arrangement of elements of increasing atomic in a periodic table is called
A. group
B. period
C. series
D. row
39. The vertical arrangement of elements in the periodic table is called
A. period
B. group
C. series
D. column
40. If the number of gas molecule is doubled in a certain volume of a gas the pressure
A. is decreased to half
B. is doubled
C. is increased to four times
D. remains unchanged
41. A symbolic representation to emphasize the valence shell of an atom is called
A. argand diagram
B. constellation diagram
C. electron dot diagram
D. structural formula
42. For which elements do the number of electrons in their outer or valence shell correspond to
their group number?
A. transition group
B. noble gas
C. representative or main group
D. metals
43. What is the maximum number of electrons that can fit into a p orbital?
A. 2
B. 4
C. 6
D. 8
44. Atoms or ions which have the same electronic configuration
A. isoelectronic
B. isometric
C. iso-ionic
D. isotope
45. Which group of the periodic table is known as the alkali metals?
A. Group 1
B. Group 2
C. Group 3
D. Group 4
46. Which group of the periodic table is known as the halogens?
A. Group 4
B. Group 5
C. Group 6
D. Group 7

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS IN
ENGINEERING
ECONOMICS
General Engineering and Applied Sciences
By
Emmylou R. Edulan
Jerick D. Lee
Woodrow B. Pino

ENCODED BY:
LAQUI, Louise Ruelyn J.
1. It is defined to be the capacity of a commodity to satisfy human want

A. Necessity
B. Utility
C. Luxuries
D. Discount

2. It is the stock that has prior to dividends. It usually does not bring voting right to the
owners and the dividend is fixed and cannot be higher than the specified amount.

A. Common stock
B. Voting stock
C. Pretend stock
D. Non par value stock

3. It is an amount which a willing buyer will pay to a willing seller for the property where
each has equal advantage and is under no compulsion to buy or sell.

A. Book value
B. Market value
C. Use value
D. Fair value

4. ____ is the loss of value of the equipment with use over a period of time. It could mean a
difference in value between a new asset and the use asset currently in a service.

A. Loss
B. Depreciation
C. Extracted
D. Gain

5. An economic condition in which there are so few suppliers of a particular product that
one suppliers actions significantly affect prices and supply.

A. Oligopoly
B. Monopsony
C. Monopoly
D. Perfect competition

6. A market whereby there is only one buyer of an item for when there are no goods
substitute.

A. Monosony
B. Monopoly
C. Oligopoly
D. Oligopsony

7. It is the worth of a property as recorded in the book of an enterprise.

A. Salvage value
B. Price
C. Book value
D. Scrap value

8. Reduction in the level of nation income and output usually accompanied by a fall in the
general price level.

A. Devaluation
B. Deflation
C. Inflation
D. Depreciation

9. A formal organization of producers within industry forming a perfect collusion purposely
formed to increase profit and block new comers from the industry.

A. Cartel
B. Monopoly
C. Corporation
D. Competitors

10. A market situation where there is only one seller with many buyer.

A. Monopoly
B. Monophony
C. Oligopoly
D. Perfect competition

11. A market situation where there is one seller and buyer.

A. Bilateral monopoly
B. Monopoly
C. Oligopoly
D. Bilateral Monopoly

12. Reduction in the level of national income and output usually accompanied by a fall in the
general price level.

A. Deflation
B. Inflation
C. Devaluation
D. Depreciation

13. A series of equal payments made at equal interval of time.

A. Annuity
B. Amortization
C. Depreciation
D. Bonds

14. The money paid for the use of borrowed capital.

A. Interest
B. Amortization
C. Annuity
D. Bonds

15. The place where buyers and sellers come together.

A. Maker
B. Store
C. Bargain center
D. Port

16. The value of the stock as stated on the stocks certificate

A. Stock value
B. Par value
C. Interest
D. Maturity value

17. A market situation in which two competing buyers exert controlling influence over many
sellers.

A. Bilateral monopoly
B. Oligopoly
C. Duopsony
D. Duopoly

18. A market situation in which two powerful groups or organizations dominate commerce in

A. Oligopoly
B. Duopoly
C. Duopsony
D. duopoly

19. The type of annuity where the first payment is made after several periods, after the
beginning of the payment.

A. Perpetuity
B. Ordinary annuity
C. Annuity due
D. Deferred annuity

20. The condition in which the total income equals the total operating expenses.

A. Tally
B. Par value
C. Check and balance
D. Break even

21. The amount which has been spent or capital invested which for some reasons cannot be
retrieved.

A. Sunk cost
B. Fixed costs
C. Depletion cost
D. Construction cost

22. An obligation with no condition attach is called

A. Personal
B. Gratuitous
C. Concealed
D. Private

23. The sum of all the costs necessary to prepare a construction project for operation.

A. Operation costs
B. Construction cost
C. Depletion cost
D. Production cost

24. The amount received from the sale of an addition unit of a product.

A. Marginal cost
B. Marginal revenue
C. Extra profit
D. Prime cost

25. The amount that the property would give if sold for junk.

A. Junk value
B. Salvage value
C. Scrap value
D. Book value

26. The worth of the property which is equal to the original cost less the amount which has
been charged to depreciation.

A. Scrap value
B. Salvage value
C. Book value
D. Market value

27. The sum of the direct labor cost incurred in the factory and the direct material cost of all
materials that go into production is called

A. Net cost
B. Maintenance cost
C. Prime cost
D. Operating cost

28. The difference between the present value and the worth of money at some time in the
future is called

A. Market value
B. Net value
C. Discount
D. Interest

29. The addition cost of producing one more unit is

A. Prime cost
B. Marginal cost
C. Differential cost
D. Sunk cost

30. A written contract by a debtor to pay final redemption value on an indicated date or
maturity date and pay a certain sum periodically.

A. Annuity
B. Bond
C. Amortization
D. Collateral

31. Estimated value of the property at the useful life.

A. Market value
B. Fair value
C. Salvage value
D. Book value

32. Determination of the actual quantity of the materials on hand as of a given date.

A. Physical inventory
B. Counting principle
C. Stock assessment
D. Periodic material update

33. This consists of a cash and account receivable during the next period or any other
material which will be sold.

A. Fixed assets
B. Deferred charges
C. Current asset
D. Liability

34. A wrong act that causes injury to a person or property and for which allows a claim by
the injured party to recover damages.

A. Fraud
B. Tort
C. Libel
D. Scam

35. A series of uniform payment over an infinite period of time

A. Depletion
B. Capitalized cost
C. Perpetuity
D. Inflation

36. These are products or services that are required to support human life and activities that
will be purchased in somewhat the same quantity event though the price varies
considerably.

A. Commodities
B. Necessities
C. Demands
D. Luxury

37. The quantity of a certain commodity that is offered for sale at a certain price at a given
place and time.

A. Utility
B. Supply
C. Stocks
D. Goods

38. It is sometimes called the second hand value

A. Scrap value
B. Salvage value
C. Book value
D. Par value

39. Decreases in the value of a physical property due to the passage of time.

A. Deflation
B. Depletion
C. Declination
D. Depreciation

40. An association of two or more individuals for the purpose of engaging business for profit.

A. Single proprietorship
B. Party
C. Corporation
D. Partnership

41. The simplest form of business organization where in the business is own entirely by one
person.

A. Partnership
B. Proprietorship
C. Corporation
D. Joint venture

42. Parties whose consent or signature in a contract is not considered intelligent.

A. Dummy person
B. Minors
C. Demented persons
D. Convict

43. It is defined as the capacity of a commodity to satisfy human want.

A. Satisfaction
B. Luxury
C. Necessity
D. Utility

44. This occurs in a situation where a commodity or service is supplied by a number of
vendors and there is nothing to prevent additional vendors entering the market.

A. Perfect competition
B. Monophony
C. Monopoly
D. Cartel

45. These are products or services that are desired by human and will be purchased if money
is available after the required necessities have been obtained.

A. Commodities
B. Necessities
C. Luxuries
D. Supplies

46. Grand total of the assets and operational capability of a corporation.

A. Authorized capital
B. Paid off capital
C. Subscribed capital
D. Investment

47. It is where the original record of a business transaction is recorded.

A. Ledger
C. Journal
D. Logbook

48. The length of time which the property may be operated at a profit.

A. Life span
B. Economic life
C. Operating life
D. Profitable life

49. The right and privilege granted to an individual or corporation to do business in a certain
region.

A. Permit
B. Royalty
D. Franchise

50. The worth of an asset as shown in the accounting records of an enterprise.

A. Fair value
B. Par value
C. Market value
D. Book value

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS IN
ENGINEERING
MANAGEMENT
General Engineering and Applied Sciences
By
Emmylou R. Edulan
Jerick D. Lee
Woodrow B. Pino

ENCODED BY:
LAQUI, Louise Ruelyn J.
1. Defined as the creative problem solving process of planning, organizing, leading, and
controlling an organizations resources to achieve its mission and objectives.

A. Management
B. Planning
C. Organizing
D. Supervision

2. Refers to the activity combining technical knowledge with the ability to organize and
coordinate worker power, materials, machinery, and money.

A. Engineering Management
B. Engineering Materials
C. Engineering Organization
D. Engineering Club

3. The following are considered as functions of an engineer except

A. Testing
B. Construction
C. Sales
D. Physical Education

4. A function of an engineer where the engineer is engaged in the process of learning about
nature and codifying this knowledge into usable theories.

A. Research
B. Design and Development
C. Testing
D. Manufacturing

5. A function of an engineer where the engineer undertakes the activity of turning a product
concept to a finished physical term.

A. Research
B. Manufacturing
C. Testing
D. Design and Development

6. A function of an engineer where the engineer works in a unit where new products or parts
are tested for workability.

A. Research
B. Design and Development
C. Testing
D. Manufacturing

7. A function of an engineer where the engineer is directly in charge of production
personnel or assumes responsibility for the product.

A. Research
B. Design and Development
C. Testing
D. Manufacturing

8. A function of an engineer where the engineer is either directly in charge of the
construction personnel or may have responsibility for the quality of the construction
process.

A. Construction
B. Sales
C. Consulting
D. Government

9. A function of an engineer where the engineer assists the companys customers to meet
their needs, especially those that require technical expertise.

A. Construction
B. Government
C. Consulting
D. Sales

10. A function of an engineer where the engineer works as consultant of any individual or
organization requiring his services.

A. Construction
B. Sales
C. Consulting
D. Government

11. A function of an engineer where the engineer may find employment in the government
performing any of the various tasks in regulating, monitoring, and controlling the
activities of various institutions, public or private.

A. Construction
B. Sales
C. Government
D. Consulting

12. A function of an engineer where the engineer gets employment in a school and is
assigned as a teacher of engineering courses.

A. Teaching
B. Government
C. Management
D. Consulting

13. A function of an engineer where the engineer is assigned to manage groups of people

A. Teaching
B. Government
C. Management
D. Consulting

14. Defined as the process of identifying and choosing alternative courses of action in a
manner appropriate to the demands of the situation.

A. Decision Making
B. Engineering Management
C. Initiative
D. Problem solving

15. The first step in Decision making process is to

A. Analyze environment
B. Diagnose problem
C. Make a choice
D. Articulate problem or opportunity

16. The last step in decision making process is to

A. Analyze environment
B. Make a choice
C. Diagnose problem
D. Evaluate and adapt decision results

17. Refers to evaluation of alternatives using intuition and subjective judgment.

A. Quantitative evaluation
B. Qualitative evaluation
C. Relative evaluation
D. Subjective evaluation

18. Refers to evaluation of alternatives using any technique in a group classified as rational
and analytical.

A. Quantitative evaluation
B. Qualitative evaluation
C. Relative evaluation
D. Subjective evaluation

19. Refers to the management function that involves anticipating future trends and
determining the best strategies and tactics to achieve organizational objectives.

A. Management
B. Planning
C. Organizing
D. Supervision

20. Refers to the process of determining the major goals of the organization and the policies
and strategies for obtaining and using resources to achieve those goals.

A. Operational Planning
B. Intermediate Planning
C. Strategic planning
D. Secondary Planning

21. The top management of any firm is involved in this type of planning.

A. Operational Planning
B. Intermediate Planning
C. Strategic planning
D. Secondary Planning

22. Refers to the process of determining the contributions that subunits can make with
allocated resources.

A. Operational Planning
B. Intermediate Planning
C. Strategic planning
D. Secondary Planning

23. This type of planning is undertaken by middle management.

A. Operational Planning
B. Intermediate Planning
C. Strategic planning
D. Secondary Planning

24. Refers to the process of determining how specific tasks can best be accomplished on time
with available resources.

A. Operational Planning
B. Intermediate Planning
C. Strategic planning
D. Secondary Planning

25. This type of planning is a responsibility of lower management.

A. Operational Planning
B. Intermediate Planning
C. Strategic planning
D. Secondary Planning

26. This is the written document or blueprint for implementing and controlling an
organizations marketing activities related to particular marketing strategy.

A. Marketing Plan
B. Financial Plan
C. Production Plan
D. Short-range plans

27. This is a written document that states the quantity of output a company must produce in
broad terms and by product family.

A. Marketing Plan
B. Financial Plan
C. Production Plan
D. Short-range plans

28. It is a document that summarizes the current financial situation of the firm, analyzes
financial needs, and recommends a direction for financial activities.

A. Marketing Plan
B. Financial Plan
C. Production Plan
D. Short-range plans

29. It is a document that indicates the human resource needs of a company detailed in terms
of quantity and quality and based on the requirements of the companys strategic plan.

A. Marketing Plan
B. Financial Plan
C. Production Plan
D. Human Resource Management Plan

30. These are plans intended to cover a period of less than one year. First-line supervisors are
mostly concerned with these planes.

A. Short-range plans
B. Long-range plans
C. Standing Plans
D. Single-Use Plans

31. These are plans covering a time span of more than one year. These are mostly undertaken
by middle and top management.

A. Short-range plans
B. Long-range plans
C. Standing Plans
D. Single-Use Plans

32. Plans that are used again and again and they focus on managerial situations that recur
repeatedly.

A. Short-range plans
B. Long-range plans
C. Standing Plans
D. Single-Use Plans

33. These are broad guidelines to aid managers at every level in making decisions about
recurring situations or function.

A. Policies
B. Procedures
C. Guidelines
D. Rules

34. These are plans that describe the exact series of actions to be taken in a given situation.

A. Policies
B. Procedures
C. Guidelines
D. Rules

35. These are statements that either require or forbid a certain action.

A. Policies
B. Procedures
C. Guidelines
D. Rules

36. Specifically developed to implement courses of action that are relatively unique and are
unlikely to be repeated.

A. Short-range plans
B. Long-range plans
C. Standing Plans
D. Single-Use Plans

37. A plan which sets forth the projected expenditure for a certain activity and explains
where the required funds will come from.

A. Project
B. Budget
C. Program
D. Financial Statement

38. A plan designed to coordinate a large set of activities.

A. Project
B. Budget
C. Program
D. Financial Statement

39. A plan that is usually more limited in scope than a program and is sometimes prepared to
support a program.

A. Project
B. Budget
C. Program
D. Financial Statement

40. A management function which refers to the structuring of resources and activities to
accomplish objectives in an efficient and effective manner.

A. Organizing
B. Planning
C. Supervising
D. Structure

41. The arrangement or relationship of positions within an organization.

A. Organizing
B. Planning
C. Supervising
D. Structure

42. This is a form of departmentalization in which everyone engaged in one functional
activity, such as engineering or marketing, is grouped into one unit.

A. Functional Organization
B. Product or Market Organization
C. Matrix Organization
D. Divisible Organization

43. This type of organization is very effective in similar firms especially single business
firms where key activities revolve around well-defined skills and areas of specialization.

A. Functional Organization
B. Product or Market Organization
C. Matrix Organization
D. Divisible Organization

44. This refers to the organization of a company by a division that brings together all those
involved with a certain type of product or customer.

A. Functional Organization
B. Product or Market Organization
C. Matrix Organization
D. Divisible Organization

45. This is appropriate for a large corporation with many product lines in several related
industries.

A. Functional Organization
B. Product or Market Organization
C. Matrix Organization
D. Divisible Organization

46. An organizational structure in which each employee reports both a functional or division
manager and to a project or group manager.

A. Functional Organization
B. Product or Market Organization
C. Matrix Organization
D. Divisible Organization

47. Refers to a managers right to tell subordinates what to do and then see that they do it.

A. Line authority
B. Staff authority
C. Functional authority

48. A staff specialists right to give advice to a superior.

A. Line authority
B. Staff authority
C. Functional authority

49. A specialists right to oversee lower level personnel involved in that specialty, regardless
of where the personnel are in the organization.

A. Line authority
B. Staff authority
C. Functional authority

50. A committee created for a short-term purpose and have a limited life.

B. Standing committee
C. Sinking committee
D. Midget committee

51. A permanent committee that deals with issues on an ongoing basis.

B. Standing committee
C. Sinking committee
D. Midget committee

52. Defined as the management function that determines human resource needs, recruits,
selects, trains, and develops human resources for jobs created by an organization.

A. Resourcing
B. Recruitment
C. Hiring
D. Staffing

53. An assessment of future human resource needs in relation to the current capabilities of
the organization.

A. Forecasting
B. Control
C. Programming
D. Recruitment

54. Refers to translation of the forecasted human resource needs to personnel objectives and
goals.

A. Forecasting
B. Control
C. Programming
D. Recruitment

55. This refers to monitoring human resource action plans and evaluating their success.

A. Forecasting
B. Evaluation and Control
C. Programming
D. Recruitment

56. Refers to attracting qualified persons to apply for vacant positions in the company so that
those who are best suited to serve the company may be selected.

A. Forecasting
B. Evaluation and Control
C. Programming
D. Recruitment

57. Refers to the act of choosing from those that are available than individuals most likely to
succeed on the job.

A. Forecasting
B. Evaluation and Control
C. Selection
D. Training

58. In this staffing procedure, the new employee is provided with the necessary information
about the company and will be introduced to the immediate working environment and co-
workers.

A. Performance Appraisal
B. Induction and Orientation
C. Training and Development
D. Monetary Rewards

59. Refers to the learning that is provided in order to improve performance on the present
job.

A. Performance Appraisal
B. Induction and Orientation
C. Training and Development
D. Monetary Rewards

60. Refers to a movement by a person into a position of higher pay and greater
responsibilities and which is given as a reward for competence and ambition.

A. Monetary reward
B. Promotion
C. Demotion
D. Transfer

61. The movement of a person to a different job at the same or similar level of responsibility
in the organization.

A. Monetary reward
B. Promotion
C. Demotion
D. Transfer

62. The movement from one position to another which has less pay or responsibility attached
to it. It is used as a form of punishment or as a temporary measure to keep an employee
until he is offered a higher position.

A. Separation
B. Promotion
C. Demotion
D. Transfer

63. Either a voluntary or involuntary termination of an employee.

A. Separation
B. Transfer
C. Termination
D. Demotion

64. A process of sharing information through symbols, including words and message.

A. Counseling
B. Communication
C. Hypnotism
D. Language

65. Function of communication that can be used for decision-making at various work levels
in the organization.

A. Information Function
B. Emotive Function
C. Motivation Function
D. Control Function

66. A function of communication used as a means to motivate employees to commit
themselves to the organizations objectives.

A. Information Function
B. Emotive Function
C. Motivation Function
D. Control Function

67. Function of communication that deals when feelings are repressed in the organization,
employees are affected by anxiety, which, in turn, affects performance.

A. Information Function
B. Emotive Function
C. Motivation Function
D. Control Function

68. A form of communication transmitted through hearing or sight.

A. Verbal
B. Oral
C. Written
D. Nonverbal

69. A means of conveying message through body language, as well as the use of time, space,
touch, clothing, appearance and aesthetic elements.

A. Verbal
B. Oral
C. Written
D. Nonverbal

70. Refers to the process of activating behavior, sustaining it, and directing it toward a
particular goal.

A. Suppression
B. Motivation
C. Praising
D. Unification

71. The following are considered as factors contributing to motivation except:

A. Willingness to do a job
B. Self-confidence in carrying out a task
C. Needs satisfaction
D. Inferiority complex

72. The following are considered theories of Motivation except:

A. Maslows Needs Hierarchy Theory
B. Expectancy Theory
C. Herzbergs Two-Factor Theory
D. Gagarins Theory

73. It is a management function which involves influencing others to engage in the work
behaviors necessary to reach organizational goals.

A. Sales talk
B. Motivation
D. Commanding

74. A person who occupies a higher position has power over persons in lower positions
within the organization. This describes:

A. Legitimate power
B. Referent power
C. Coercive power
D. Reward power

75. When a person has the ability to give rewards to anybody who follows orders or requests,
it termed as:

A. Legitimate power
B. Referent power
C. Coercive power
D. Reward power

76. When a person compels with orders through treats or punishment.

A. Legitimate power
B. Referent power
C. Coercive power
D. Reward power

77. When a person can get compliance from another because the latter would want to be
identified with the former.

A. Legitimate power
B. Referent power
C. Coercive power
D. Reward power

78. Which of the following is not a trait of an effective leader:

A. A high level of personal drive
B. Knowledge of the company, industry or technology
C. Charisma
D. Greedy

79. Refers to the process of ascertaining whether organizational objectives have been
achieved and determining what activities should then be taken to achieve objectives
better in the future.

A. Planning
B. Controlling
C. Evaluation
D. Inspection

80. A type of controlling when the management anticipates problems and prevents their
occurrence.

A. Feed forward control
B. Preventive control
C. Concurrent control
D. Feedback control

81. A type of controlling when the operations are already ongoing and activities to detect

A. Feed forward control
B. Preventive control
C. Concurrent control
D. Feedback control

82. A type of controlling when information is gathered about a completed activity, and in
order that evaluation and steps for improvement are derived.

A. Feed forward control
B. Preventive control
C. Concurrent control
D. Feedback control

83. Refers to any process that accepts inputs and uses resources to change those inputs in
useful ways.

A. Operation
B. Production
C. Construction
D. Creation

84. The process of planning, organizing, and controlling operations to reach objectives
efficiently and effectively.

A. Planning
B. Operations management
C. Evaluation management
D. Backboning

85. A process of creating a set of product specifications appropriate to the demands of the
situation.

A. Product Design
B. Blueprinting
C. Product planning
D. Conceptualizing

86. Refers to forecasting the future sales of a given product, translating this forecast into the
demand it generates for various production facilities, and arranging for the procurement
of these facilities.

A. Product Design
B. Blueprinting
C. Product planning
D. Conceptualizing

87. The phase of production control involved in developing timetables that specify how long
each operation in the production process takes.

A. Plotting
B. Scheduling
C. Timetable
D. Anticipating

88. Refers to the approach that seeks efficiency of operation through integration of all
material acquisition, movement, and storage activities in the firm.

A. Work
B. Quality Control
C. Inventory Control

89. The process of establishing and maintaining appropriate levels of reserve stocks of goods.

A. Work-Flow Layout
B. Quality Control
C. Inventory Control

90. The process of determining the physical arrangement of the production system.

A. Work-Flow Layout
B. Quality Control
C. Inventory Control

91. Refers to the measurement of products or services against standards set by the company.

A. Work-Flow Layout
B. Quality Control
C. Inventory Control

92. A group of activities designed to facilitate and expedite the selling of goods and services.

B. Commercial
C. Marketing
D. Sales

93. The four Ps of marketing are the following except:

A. Product
B. Price
C. Promotion
D. Publicity

94. It includes the tangible (or intangible) item and its capacity to satisfy a specified need.

A. Product
B. Price
C. Promotion
D. Place

95. Refers to the money or other considerations exchanged for the purchase or use of the
product, idea, or service.

A. Product
B. Price
C. Promotion
D. Place

96. An important factor for a company to locate in places where they can be easily reached
by their customers.

A. Product
B. Price
C. Promotion
D. Place

97. Defined as communicating information between seller and potential buyer to influence
attitudes and behavior.

A. Product
B. Price
C. Promotion
D. Place

98. A type of promotion where a paid message appears in mass media for the purpose of

B. Publicity
C. Sales promotion
D. Personal selling

99. The promotional tool that publishes news or information about a product, service, or idea
on behalf of a sponsor but is not paid for by the sponsor.

B. Publicity
C. Sales promotion
D. Personal selling

100. A more aggressive means of promoting the sales of a product or service.

B. Publicity
C. Sales promotion
D. Personal selling

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS IN
ENGINEERING
MECHANICS
General Engineering and Applied Sciences
By
Emmylou R. Edulan
Jerick D. Lee
Woodrow B. Pino

ENCODED BY:
RIVERA, Billy Joe s.
1. A physical quantity that is completely described by a real number is called ___________.

A. scalar
B. vector
C. tensor
D. none of the above

2. A convenient means of representing physical quantities that have magnitude and direction.

A. scalars
B. vectors
C. tensors
D. none of the above

3. The product of a scalar and a vector is a

A. scalar
B. vector
C. tensor
D. none of the above

4. It is simply a vector whose magnitude is 1

A. moment vector
B. tensor
C. unit vector
D. vector unity

5. It is sometimes called the scalar product.

A. dot product
B. vector product
C. cross product
D. unit scalar

6. To calculate for the force exerted on a charged particle by a magnetic field, _________ is
used.

A. vector product
B. scalar product
C. dot product
D. vector sum

7. It is sometimes called the vector product.

A. dot product
B. cross product
C. tensor product
D. unit vector

8. Which of the following statements is false?

A. The cross product is commutative.
B. The cross product is associative with respect to scalar multiplication.
C. The cross product is distributive with respect to vector addition.
D. The angle between two identical vectors placed tail to tail is zero.

9. When a force is represented by a vector, the straight line collinear with the vector is called the
________.

A. line of apsides
B. line of reaction
C. line of vector
D. line of action

10. A system of forces is __________ if the lines of action of the forces intersect at a point.

A. parallel
B. coplanar
C. concurrent
D. two-dimensional

11. A system of two forces is ___________ if the lines of action of the forces lie in a plane.

A. coplanar
B. two-dimensional
C. A or B
D. none of the above

12. Force acting on an object is called a ___________ if its acts on the volume of the object.

A. internal force
B. external force
C. body force
D. surface force

13. If each point on the object has the same constant velocity, this is referred to as __________.

A. continuum translation
B. discrete translation
C. finite translation

14. The moment of a force about a point P is equal to the sum of the moments of its components

A. Cavalieris Theorem
B. Pascals Theorem
C. Varignons Theorem
D. Torricellis Theorem

15. It is the measure of the tendency of a force to cause rotation about a line or axis.

A. moment
B. momentum
C. impulse
D. torsion

16. A couple is composed of two forces that are

A. equal
B. equal and opposite
C. equal and different lines of action
D. equal, opposite and different lines of action

17. Which of the following statements is true about a couple?

A. A couple does not tend to cause a rotation of an object.
B. The vector sum of the force couple always has a value.
C. A couple tends to cause a rotation of an object.
D. The moment it exerts is not the same about any point.

18. If an object is on an inclined plane having an angle , the component of weight (w) parallel to
incline is __________.

A. w sin
B. w cos
C. w tan
D. w cot

19. A type of force acting on a body due to the acceleration of gravity.

B. shear
C. bear
D. mass

20. A type of force acting on a body caused by the friction between the body and the ground.
B. shear
C. bear
D. mass

21. The unit of force, Newton, is equivalent to
A. lb
m
-ft/s
2

B. g-cm/s
2

C. kg-m/s
2

D. kg
f

22. When a body is in contact with the ground, the force that is reflected back to the body is
called

A. ground reflected force
B. gravity reflected force
C. ground reaction force
D. gravity reaction force

23. The gravity in the moon is about

A. 1.6 m/s
2

B. 2.6 m/s
2

C. 3.6 m/s
2

D. 0.6 m/s
2

24. The ground reaction force on a body can be represented by a single force acting on a point
called

A. center of force
B. center of reaction
C. center of reflection
D. center of pressure

25. The tuning effect on a body is dependent on which of the following?

B. acceleration of gravity
C. moment arm
D. all of the above

26. The perpendicular distance of the force from the point about which the body will turn is
called

A. moment arm
B. moment distance
C. lever arm
D. A or C

27. If the force is moved in the direction parallel to the direction of the force, the moment exerted
by the force ___________.

A. increases
B. decreases
C. is unchanged
D. becomes zero

28. The moment of force is zero when

A. the applied force is zero.
B. the force is applied at the moment axis.
C. the line of action of the force is parallel to the axis.
D. all of the above

29. __________ is finding a single force which shall be equal to two or more given forces when
acting in given directions.

A. resolution of forces
B. integration of forces
C. composition of forces
D. quantization of forces

30. He is the father of the modern engineering mechanics

A. Gilbert Lewis
B. Stephen Timoshenko
C. J. Gordon
D. A. Cotrell

31. It is a method of applying mechanics that assumes all objects are continuous.

A. Discrete Mechanics
B. Finite Element Method
C. Continuum Mechanics
D. Contact Mechanics

32. Which of the following is an example of contact force?

A. gravitational force
B. magnetic force
C. air resistance force
D. electric force
33. It occurs when an object is moving across a surface.

A. dynamic friction
B. static friction
C. kinetic friction
D. sliding friction

34. Given = 0.35 between the object of mass 400 g and the floor, the object will __________ if
pulled with a force of 3 N.

A. remain at rest
B. move
C. accelerate
D. B and C

35. Which of the following statements is correct?

A. The coefficient of static friction is always less than 1.
B. The coefficient of static friction is typically greater than the coefficient of kinetic
friction.
C. The coefficient of kinetic friction is typically greater than the coefficient of static friction.
D. The coefficient of static and kinetic friction are always equal.

36. The equations that apply to bodies moving linearly (that is, one dimension) with uniform
accelerations are often referred to as

A. UVATS
B. SUVAT
C. UVATS
D. Either of the above

37. Observed from an internal reference frame, the net force on a particle is proportional to the
time rate of change of its linear momentum. This is known as Newtons ___________ of
motion.

A. Zeroth Law
B. First Law
C. Second Law
D. Third Law

38. It is also known as quantity of motion.

A. momentum
B. force
C. mass
D. acceleration
39. This concept assumes that the substance of the body is distributed throughout and completely
fills the space it occupies.

A. Finite Element
B. Contact
C. Discrete
D. Continuum

40. In fluids, _________ is used to assess to what extent the approximation of continuity can be

A. Brayton Number
B. Knudsen Number
C. Reynolds Number
D. Prandtl Number

41. It is the time rate of change of any property of a continuum for a specified group of particles
of the moving continuum body.

A. Material Derivative
B. Continual Derivative
C. Particle Derivative
D. Quantum Derivative

42. Material derivative is also known as __________.

A. substantial derivative
B. commoving derivative
C. convective derivative
D. all of the above

43. The vector connecting the positions of a particle in the undeformed and deformed
configuration is called the ________.

A. displacement vector
B. position vector
C. displacement field
D. position field

44. A __________ is a vector field of all displacement vectors for all particles in the body.

A. position field
B. action field
C. displacement field
D. path field

45. _________ is the study of the physics of continuous solids with a defined rest shape.

A. Continuum Mechanics
B. Solid Mechanics
C. Fluid Mechanics
D. Discrete Mechanics

46. It is an experimental method for visualizing and analyzing fluid flow.

A. Particle Image Velocimetry
B. Particle Image Accelerometry
C. Particle Image Flowmeter
D. Particle Image Viscosimetry

47. A fluid at rest has no

A. longitudinal stress
B. shear stress
C. tensile stress
D. compressive stress

48. A property of fluids which is the force generated by a fluid in response to a velocity gradient.

A. compressibility
B. plasticity
C. elasticity
D. viscosity

49. These equations state that changes in momentum of fluid particles depend only on the
external pressure and internal viscous forces acting on the fluid.

A. Navier Stokes Equations
B. Torricelli Equations
C. Reynolds Equations
D. Lagrangian Equations

50. It is defined as, regardless of the forces acting on a fluid, the fluid continues to flow

A. Newtonian fluid
B. non-Newtonian fluid
C. Lagrangian fluid
D. non-Lagrangian fluid

51. Which of the following is an example of Newtonian fluid?

A. oobleck
B. pudding
C. water
D. paint

52. If an object is stationary or moving at a constant velocity, then

A. no forces are acting on the object.
B. the forces acting the object are balanced.
C. the object is in equilibrium state.
D. either of the above

53. It is an additional force that exactly balances a resultant force.

A. reactant
B. equilibrant
C. buoyant
D. reverse effective force

54. The equilibrant of the forces 10 N at 10 and 15 N at 100 is

A.18 N at 246
B. 18 N at 66
C. 25 N at -114
D. 25 N at 66

55. It is a point within an object from which the force of gravity appears to act

A. center of gravity
B. centroid
C. center of mass
D. all of the above are correct

56. If an area has one line of symmetry the centroid will

A. lie somewhere along the line symmetry
B. lie anywhere on the area
C. lie in the midpoint of the line of symmetry
D. not lie on the line of symmetry

57. The second moment of area is an important value which is used to __________. It can also
be called moment of inertia.

A. determine the state of stress in a section
B. calculate the resistance to buckling
C. determine the amount of deflection in a beam
D. all of the above
58. The __________ transfers the moment of inertia of a section or area from its own centroidal
axis to another parallel axis.

A. moment of axis theorem
B. transfer formula
C. parallel axis theorem
D. B or C

59. The moment of force is zero when

A. the applied force is zero
B. the force is applied at the moment axis
C. the line of action of the force is parallel to the moment axis
D. all of the above

60. The mass moment of inertia of a solid sphere about its diameter is

A. 1/5 mr
2

B. 2/5 mr
2
C. 3/5 mr
2

D. 4/5 mr
2

61. The mass moment of inertia of a thin spherical shell about its diameter is

A. 1/6 mr
2

B. 1/3 mr
2
C. 1/2 mr
2
D. 2/3 mr
2

62. It is a mathematical property of a section concerned with a surface area and how that area is

A. moment of area
B. second moment of area
C. third moment of area
D. fourth moment of area

63. It is the materials ability to resist twisting

A. mass moment of inertia
B. moment of area
C. second moment of area
D. polar moment of area

64. Any object, wholly or partly immersed in a fluid, is buoyed up by a force equal to the
weight of the fluid displaced by the object. This is known as the ____________.
A. Bernoullis Principle
B. Torricellis Principle
C. Archimedes Principle
D. Pascals Principle

65. It is the upward force on an object produced by the surrounding fluid in which it is fully or
partially immersed.

A. Archimedes force
B. fluid pressure
C. buoyancy
D. weight reaction

66. A rock of weight 10 N suspended by a string is lowered into water, displacing water of
weight 3 N. Determine the tension in the string.

A. 13 N
B. 7 N
C. 10 N
D. 3 N

67. If the buoyancy of an object exceeds its weight, the object __________.

A. tends to rise
B. tends to sink
C. A or B
D. none of the above

68. It is the rate of change of velocity

A. displacement
B. acceleration
C. momentum
D. impulse

69. Impulse is equal to ________.

A. force x time
B. change in momentum
C. A or B
D. none of the above

70. Collisions in which objects rebound with the same speed as they had prior to the collision are
known as __________.

A. elastic collisions
B. inelastic collisions
C. static collisions
D. plastic collisions

71. If a 10-kg object experiences a 20-N force for a duration of 0.05-second, then what is the
momentum change of the object?

A. 1 N-s
B. 400 N-s
C. 0.5 N-s
D. 200 N-s

72. When hit, the velocity of a 0.2 kg baseball changes from +25 m/s to -25 m/s. What is the
magnitude of the impulse delivered by the bat to the ball?

A. 1 N-s
B. 5 N-s
C. 10 N-s
D. 20 N-s

73. It is defined as the integral of force with respect to time.

A. momentum
B. impulse
C. velocity
D. acceleration

74. The SI unit for angular velocity is

A. degrees per second
B. revolutions per second
C. mils per second

75. The angular momentum of a rotating object can be calculated by the formula

A. mass moment of inertia x linear velocity
B. mass x linear velocity
C. mass moment of inertia x angular velocity
D. mass x angular velocity

76. The time derivative of angular momentum is called

A. angular velocity
B. angular acceleration
C. work
D. torque

77. It defines limits on how accurately the momentum and position of a single observable system
can be known at once.

A. Heisenberg uncertainty principle
B. particle momentum principle
C. particle position principle
D. Bohrs uncertainty principle

78. The SI unit for polar moment of inertia is

A. kg-m
2

B. kg-m
4

C. m
4

D. m
2

79. A structure is _________ when the static equilibrium equations are not sufficient for
determining the internal forces and reactions on that structure.

A. statically determinate
B. statically indeterminate
C. dynamically determinate
D. dynamically indeterminate

80. It is an equation used to find the final velocity of an object moving with a constant
acceleration without having a known time interval.

A. Bernoullis equation
B. Torricellis equation
C. Newtons equation
D. Cavendishs equation

81. Torricellis equation of motion is

A. V
f
2
= V
i

2
+ 2as
B. V
f
= V
i
+ at
C. V
f
2
= V
i

2
+ at
D. V
f
= V
i
+ 2as

82. Which of the following is true about centripetal force?

A. It is directed toward the center of the circular path.
B. It appears to act outward the body.
C. It is directly proportional to the radius of the circular path.
D. It is inversely proportional to the square of the tangential velocity.
83. Centripetal acceleration

A. changes the direction of the velocity.
B. changes the magnitude of the velocity.
C. changes the magnitude of angular velocity.

84. Tangential acceleration

A. changes the direction of the velocity.
B. changes the magnitude of the velocity.
C. changes the magnitude of the centripetal acceleration.

85. The _________ is the primary force from which gravity, electromagnetic and electrostatic
force manifest.

A. Eforce
B. Tforce
C. Kforce
D. Gforce

86. The value of Gforce is equal to

A. 1.211 x 10
41
N
B. 1.211 x 10
42
N
C. 1.211 x 10
43
N
D. 1.211 x 10
44
N

87. The gravitational force constant has the units

A. m
3
kg
-1
s
-2

B. N kg
-1
s
-2

C. m
2
kg
-1
s
-2
D. N kg
-1
m
-1

88. The gravitational force between an electron and a proton 1 meter apart is

A. 1.02 x 10
57
N
B. 1.02 x 10
-57
N
C. 1.02 x 10
-67
N
D. 1.02 x 10
67
N

89. The value of the standard gravitational parameter for Earth is

A. 4 x 10
11
m
3
s
-2

B. 4 x 10
14
m
3
s
-2

C. 4 x 10
8
m
3
s
-2

D. 4 x 10
10
m
3
s
-2

90. Given that the radius of the moon is 1,730 km and mass is 7.34 x 10
22
kg, determine the
acceleration due to gravity on the moon.

A. 1.6 m/s
2

B. 2.6 m/s
2

C. 3.6 m/s
2

D. 0.6 m/s
2

91. It is the resistance that occurs when a round object such as a ball or a tire rolls on a flat
surface.

A. rolling resistance
B. rolling friction
C. rolling drag
D. either of the above

92. Which of the following affects the magnitude of rolling resistance an object generates?

A. type of material
B. dimensions
C. both A and B
D. none of the above

93. Rolling resistance coefficient is a dimensionless quantity also known as

A. coefficient of rolling friction
B. coefficient of friction
C. coefficient of resistance
D. rolling friction constant

94. The rolling resistance coefficient of rail road steel wheel on steel rail is

A. 0.0002 0.0010
B. 0.005
C. 0.02
D. 0.3

95. The rolling resistance coefficient of ordinary car tires on concrete is

A. 0.0002 0.0010
B. 0.1 0.2
C. 0.01 0.015
D. 0.05 0.06

96. It is the factor by which a mechanism multiplies the force put into it.

A. factor of safety
B. mechanical factor
D. mechanical coefficient

97. It is the study that describes the motion of macroscopic objects.

A. quantum mechanics
B. classical mechanics
C. discrete mechanics
D. continuum mechanics

98. Determine the magnitude of the force vector F = 20i + 60j 90k (N).

A. 130 N
B. 120 N
C. 100 N
D. 110 N

99. Determine the dot product of the two vectors U = 8i 6j + 4k and V = 3i + 7j + 9k.

A. 18
B. 16
C. 14
D. 12

100. Two perpendicular vectors are given in terms of their components by U = U
x
i 4j + 6k and
V = 3i + 2j 3k. Determine the component U
x
.

A. 5.67
B. 6.67
C. 7.67
D. 8.67

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS IN
PHYSICS
General Engineering and Applied Sciences
By
Emmylou R. Edulan
Jerick D. Lee
Woodrow B. Pino

ENCODED BY:
1. At any point along a streamline in an ideal fluid in steady flow, the sum of the pressure,
the potential energy per unit volume and the kinetic energy per unit volume have the
same value. The concept is known as
A. Bernoullis Energy Principles
B. Fluid theorem
C. Pascals theorem
D. Hydraulic theorem
2. The work done by all forces except the gravitational force is always equal to the one of
the system.
A. Total mechanical energy
B. Total potential energy
C. Total kinetic energy
D. Total momentum
3. When the two waves of the same frequency, speed and amplitude traveling in opposite
directions are superimposed,
A. the phase difference is always zero
B. distractive waves are produced
C. standing waves are produced
D. constructive interference always results to zero
4. According to this law, The force between two charges varies directly as the magnitude
of each charge and inversely as the square of the distance between them.
A. Law of Universal Gravitation
B. Newtons Law
C. Inverse Square Law
D. Coulombs Law
5. It describes the luminous flux incidence per unit area and is expressed in lumens per
square meter.
A. Illuminance
B. Luminance
C. Luminous Intensity
6. The fluid pressure is the same in all directions. This is known as
A. Pascals Principle
B. Bernoullis Theorem
C. Ideal Fluid Principle
D. Archimedes Principle
7. The amount of heat needed to change solid to liquid is
A. condensation
B. cold fusion
C. latent heat of fusion
D. solid fusion

8. At the boiling point of liquid, the vapor pressure
A. is equal to external pressure on the surface of the liquid
B. is greater than the atmospheric pressure
C. is less than the atmospheric pressure
D. can have any value
9. Which of the following thermometers is best suited for measuring a temperature of nearly
1500
o
C?
A. Gas thermometer
B. Platinum resistance thermometer
C. Thermo couple thermometer
D. Mercury thermometer
10. The energy stored in a starched elastic material such as spring is
A. Mechanical energy
B. Elastic potential energy
C. Internal energy
D. Kinetic energy
11. In physics, if LF and LV are the latent heat of fusion and vaporization, respectively,
which of the following equations apply in determining the amount of energy needed to
freeze a liquid?
A. Q = -mif
B. Q = -miv
C. Q = mif
D. Q = miv
12. Which of the following is true? The density of water
A. Is maximum at 4
o
C
B. Decreases as the temperature is increased
C. Is minimum at 4
o
C
D. Increases with temperature
13. When the pitch of a note is raised then, its
A. frequency decreases
B. wavelength is increased
C. frequency increases
D. None of the above is true
14. Cohesion is the attraction between like
A. atom
B. element
C. compound
D. molecule
15. The quality known as specific heat is based on:
A. the increase in temperature due to induction
B. the heat needed for one pound of water to boil
C. the heat needed to increase the temperature to one gram of a substance one
degree Celsius
D. the amount of heat required to melt one kg of lead

16. On decreasing the pressure, the boiling point of water will
A. increase
B. remain unaffected
C. decrease
D. may increase/decrease depending on the pressure
17. When sugar is added to water, its boiling point
A. increases
B. remains unaffected
C. decreases
D. Any of the above is possible
18. Which one of the following processes of heat transfer requires the presence of a fluid?
A. conduction
B. convection
D. none of the above
19. When salt is added to water, its boiling point
A. increases
B. decreases
C. remains unaffected
D. may increase/decrease depending on the pressure
20. Which one of the following propagates with the same speed as speed of light?
A. The sound waves
B. The heat waves
C. The shock waves
D. The Beta rays
21. Which of the following is not true about sound waves?
A. They transmit the energy
B. They are propagated as a series of compressions and the rare fractions
C. They travel faster in air than in solids
D. They produce interference
22. Sound waves in air are
A. longitudinal
B. neither longitudinal nor transverse
C. transverse
D. stationary
23. Normal range of the frequency of sound, which the human beings can hear, is
A. Less than 20 Hz
B. More than 25,000 Hz
C. 20 Hz to 20,000 Hz
D. All of these
24. The loudness of sound depends upon its
A. Wavelength
B. Frequency
C. Amplitude
D. All of the above
25. Sound above the frequency of 20000 Hz is called
A. Supersonic sound
B. Intrasonic sound
C. Hypersonic sound
D. Ultrasonic sound
26. The surface of the thermos flask is silvered for minimizing heat transfer by what process?
A. conduction
C. convection
D. vaporization
27. Water starts boiling when
A. Its temperature reaches 100
o
C
B. Its vapor pressure equals 76cm of mercury
C. Its saturated vapor pressure equals the external pressure on its surface
D. Its saturated vapor pressure is less than the atmospheric pressure
28. 500 gm of water at 4
o
C occupies a certain volume V. Which of the following statements
is correct?
A. It will weigh less than one pound of water at 0
o
C
B. It will weigh more than 500 gm of water at 0
o
C
C. Its volume will decrease when its temperature is lowered
D. Its volume will increase when its temperature is lowered or raised
29. Heat will flow from one body to another in thermal contact with it, when they differ in
A. mass
B. specific mass
C. density
D. temperature
30. The amount of heat which is absorbed during the change of state of a substance without
rise in its temperature is called its
A. Specific heat
B. Latent heat
C. Thermal conductivity
D. Water equivalent
31. The scientist who systematically demonstrated the equivalence of mechanical energy and
heat was
A. Joule
B. Boltzmann
D. Kelvin
32. On a sunny day at the beach, the sand gets so hot and the water stays relatively cool is
due to the difference in of water and sand.
A. density
B. specific heat
C. depth
D. thermal conductivity

33. The instrument, which measures temperature by radiation, is called
A. thermopile
B. thermometer
C. pyrometer
D. hydrometer
34. When the temperature of an ideal gas is increased at constant pressure,
A. the potential energy of molecules increases
B. the potential energy of molecules decreases
C. the kinetic energy of molecules increases
D. the kinetic energy of molecules decreases
35. The root mean square speed of the molecules of a gas is
A. independent of its pressure P
B. directly proportional to square root of P
C. directly proportional to the square of its temperature T
D. proportional to T
36. At what temperature do both the centigrade and Fahrenheit thermometers show the same
A. -38
o
C
B. -40
o
C
C. -42
o
C
D. -50
o
C
37. A mercury thermometer is constructed at
A. room temperature
B. a temperature higher than the maximum range of the thermometer
C. a temperature lower than the minimum range of the thermometer
D. atmospheric pressure
38. The boiling point of water on plains is 100
o
C. At hills it will be
A. 100
o
C
B. Less than 100
o
C
C. More than 100
o
C
D. May be any of the above
39. It is hotter over the top of a fire than at the same distance on the sides because of:
A. convection of heat
B. conduction of heat
D. convection, conduction and radiation of heat
40. The density of water is
A. same at all temperature
B. maximum at 4
o
C
C. minimum at 4
o
C
D. maximum at 0
o
C

41. When a substance is heated, its
A. molecules move more slowly
B. molecules move more rapidly
C. there is no change in the speed of its molecules
D. its temperature always increases
42. When common salt is sprinkled on ice the temperature of ice
A. increases
B. decreases
C. remains unchanged
D. none of these
43. The minimum temperature which can be measured with a mercury thermometer is
A. 0
o
C
B. -273
o
C
C. -39
o
C
D. -143
o
C
44. A wave in which the particles of the material move up and down as the waves goes from
left is called a
A. Longitudinal wave
B. Transverse wave
C. Standing wave
D. None of these
45. When waves go from one place to another they transport
A. Energy and matter
B. Wavelength and matter
C. Frequency only
D. Energy only
46. The phenomenon of damping results in decrease in
A. frequency
B. velocity
C. wavelength
D. amplitude
47. Echo is formed as a result of
A. refraction of sound
B. diffraction of sound
C. interference of sound
D. reflection of sound
48. The characteristic of sound which enables us to distinguish two musical notes having the
same frequency and loudness is called
A. pitch
B. intensity
C. timber
D. decibel

49. Which of the following could be a longitudinal wave?
A. electromagnetic waves
B. a sound wave in air
C. a water wave
D. waves on vibrating string
50. A Decibel is a
A. musical instrument
B. highest frequency emitted by a tuning fork
C. a measure of intensity level
D. a measure of clarity of sound

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS IN
STRENGTH OF
MATERIALS
General Engineering and Applied Sciences
By
Emmylou R. Edulan
Jerick D. Lee
Woodrow B. Pino

ENCODED BY:
1. Strength of materials can most aptly be described as statics of deformable _______
bodies.
A. elastic
B. rigid
C. compressible
D. thermal
2. It states that the elongation is proportional to the force
A. Pascals Law
B. Hookes Law
C. Youngs Theorem
D. Farrells Law
3. The modulus of elasticity is also known as
A. Youngs modulus
B. Modulus of rigidity
C. Hookes ratio
D. Yield strength
4. A ________ material is one having a relatively large tensile strain up to the point of
rupture
A. malleable
B. brittle
C. conductible
D. ductile
5. A ________ material has a relatively small strain up to the point of rupture
A. brittle
B. malleable
C. ductile
D. conductible
6. The maximum stress that may be developed during a simple tension that the stress is a
linear function of strain.
A. elastic limit
B. proportional limit
C. yield point
D. rupture point
7. The maximum stress that may be developed during a simple tension test such that there is
no permanent or residual deformation when the load is entirely removed
A. elastic limit
B. proportional limit
C. yield point
D. rupture point
8. The region of the stress-strain curve extending from the origin to the proportional limit is
called
A. rigid range
B. malleable range
C. elastic range
D. plastic range

9. The region of the stress-strain curve extending from the proportional limit to the point of
rupture is called
A. rigid range
B. malleable range
C. elastic range
D. plastic range
10. The ordinate of the point at which there is an increase in strain with no increase in stress
is known as
A. elastic limit
B. proportional limit
C. yield point
D. rupture point
11. The maximum ordinate to the curve
A. yield strength
B. ultimate strength
C. tensile strength
D. both B and C are correct
12. The ratio of the strain in the lateral direction to that in the axial direction
A. Pascals Number
B. Factor of Safety
C. Youngs Modulus
D. Poissons ratio
13. Defined as the ratio of the ultimate strength to the specific weight
A. Specific Strength
B. Specific Rigidity
C. Specific Modulus
D. Specific Gravity
14. Defined as the ratio of the Youngs modulus to the specific weight
A. Specific Strength
B. Specific Rigidity
C. Specific Modulus
D. Specific Gravity
15. One of the same elastic properties at all points in the body
A. heterogeneous material
B. multistate material
C. homogenous material
D. monostate material
16. One of having the same elastic properties in all directions at any one point of the body
A. Orthotropic
B. Isotropic
C. Anisotropic
D. Monotropic

17. Material that does not possess any kind of elastic symmetry
A. Orthotropic
B. Isotropic
C. Anisotropic
D. Monotropic
18. Material that has three mutually perpendicular planes of elastic symmetry
A. Orthotropic
B. Isotropic
C. Anisotropic
D. Monotropic
19. The change of volume per unit volume is defined as the
A. Convection
B. Dilatation
C. Expansion
D. Mutation
20. A measure of the resistance of a material to change of volume without change of shape or
form
A. Youngs modulus
B. Modulus of rigidity
C. Bulk modulus
D. Shear modulus
21. Stresses arising when a change in temperature affects the original length of a body
A. Kelvin stress
B. Thermal stress
C. Hydraulic stress
D. Humid stress
22. The typical Youngs modulus of steel is
A. 145-170 GPa
B. 195-210 GPa
C. 225-240 GPa
D. 275-310 GPa
23. Poissons ratio of glass
A. 0.16
B. 0.19
C. 0.23
D. 0.27
24. The yield strength of pure aluminum is
A. 7-11 MPa
B. 7-11 GPa
C. 2-5 MPa
D. 2-5 GPa

25. One Newton per square meter is one
A. Joule
B. Watt
C. Pascal
D. Kelvin
26. Stress on an object is _________ its cross sectional area
A. directly proportional to
B. inversely proportional to
C. less than
D. greater than
27. The condition under which the stress is constant or uniform is known as
A. Shearing stress
B. Tangential stress
C. Torsion
D. Simple stress
28. Tensile and compressive stress are caused by forces _________ to the areas on which
they act
A. perpendicular
B. parallel
C. angled
D. skew
29. Which of the following is/are known as tangential stress?
A. Circumferential stress
B. Hoop stress
C. Girth stress
D. All of the above
30. The maximum safe stress a material can carry
A. Optimum stress
B. Working stress
C. Differential stress
D. Partial stress
31. It is the change in shape and / or size of a continuum body after it undergoes a
displacement between an initial and a deformed configuration
A. Deformation
B. Distortion
C. Deflection
D. Dilation
32. Expressed as the ration of total deformation to the initial dimension of the material body
in which forces are being applied.
A. Elasticity
B. Dislocation
C. Stress
D. Strain

33. Engineering strain is also known as
A. Hooke strain
B. Cauchy strain
C. Couch strain
D. Pascal strain
34. When a material is stretched in one direction and the other direction tends to contract, the
Poissons ratio is
A. Positive
B. Negative
C. Zero
D. Cannot be determined
35. When a material is stretched in one direction and the other direction tends to expand, the
Poissons ratio is
A. Positive
B. Negative
C. Zero
D. Cannot be determined
36. Which of the following is known to have no contractions or expansion when stretched in
the other direction?
A. Cast iron
B. Sand
C. Auxetics
D. Cork
37. Which of the following materials is known to expand instead of contracting when
stretched in the other direction?
A. Cast iron
B. Sand
C. Auxetics
D. Cork
38. Is the twisting of an object due to an applied torque.
A. Torsion
C. Circumferential shear
D. Centrifugal force
39. The angle of twist is measured in
A. Mils
D. Degrees
40. It is the rotational force down a shaft
A. Pressure
B. Torque
C. Torsion
41. It is made of elastic material formed into the shape of a helix which returns to its natural
A. Autumn
B. Spring
C. Spiral
D. Beam
42. The form of deformation of a spring is
A. Twisting
B. Volume expansion
C. Elongation
D. None of the above
43. A 6mm bar is subjected to a tensile force of 4000 N. Find the stress.
A. 333.33 MPa
B. 70.74 MPa
C. 435.34 MPa
D. 43.30 MPa
44. If the circumference of the cross section of a cylindrical bar is 25mm, what maximum
axial load can it handle if the stress is not to exceed 100 MPa?
A. 4973.59 N
B. 4932.43 N
C. 4901.53 N
D. 4892.43 N
45. What is the minimum diameter of a bar subjected to an axial load of 6.5 kN if its ultimate
stress is 140 MPa
A. 2.43 mm
B. 4.24 mm
C. 6.34 mm
D. 7.69 mm
46. A hollow cylindrical baris subjected to an axial load of 4.5 kN. If the inner diameter is
3mm, what should the outer diameter be if it is not to exceed 125 MPa?
A. 4.34 mm
B. 8.53 mm
C. 7.41 mm
D. 5.34 mm
47. Determine the outside of a hollow steel tube that will carry a tensile load of 500 kN at a
stress of 140 MPa. Assume the wall thickness to be one tenth of the outside diameter.
A. 104 mm
B. 113 mm
C. 134 mm
D. 153 mm

48. A 20 m bar with a square cross section of 9 mm
2
is subjected to a tensile force without
exceeding its ultimate stress. If the bar is to be replaced by cylindrical one, what should
the diameter be?
A. 4.34 mm
B. 8.32 mm
C. 3.39 mm
D. 1.24 mm
49. Two plates are being pulled at opposite directions with a load of 20 kN. If the plates are
secured by two bolts 75 mm in diameter, what is the shearing stress applied to each bolt?
A. 4.23 MPa
B. 3.21 MPa
C. 2.26 MPa
D. 1.28 MPa
50. Three plates, secured by a 60 mm bolt, are being pulled at opposite directions alternately.
What pulling force is needed to shear off the bolt if it can withstand a stress of up to 175
MPa?
A. 434 kN
B. 242 kN
C. 495 kN
D. 272 kN
51. What force is required to punch off a 5 mm hole out of a 4 mm thick plate if the ultimate
punching stress is 200 MPa?
A. 15.53 kN
B. 17.45 kN
C. 14.43 kN
D. 12.57 kN
52. A hole is to be punched out of a plate having an ultimate shearing stress of 300 MPa. If
the compressive stress in the punch is limited to 400 MPa, determine the maximum
thickness of plate from which a hole, 100 mm in diameter can be punched.
A. 33.3 mm
B. 17.9 mm
C. 13.4 mm
D. 26.9 mm
53. A cylindrical vessel with wall diameter of 15 mm containing gas holds pressure of 30
MPa. If the thickness is 10% of the inner diameter, what is the longitudinal stress?
A. 150 MPa
B. 125 MPa
C. 100 MPa
D. 75 MPa
54. What is the tangential stress in question 51?
A. 150 MPa
B. 125 MPa
C. 100 MPa
D. 75 MPa

55. If the tensile stress of a spherical vessel is limited to 17 MPa, what is the minimum
thickness allowed if its inner radius is 7 mm containing gas with 20 N/mm
2
of pressure?
A. 2.06 mm
B. 4.12 mm
C. 6.24 mm
D. 8.75 mm
56. What is the bearing stress if a 15kN force is applied to plates 9 mm thick secured by a
bolt 8 mm in diameter?
A. 453.32 MPa
B. 321.43 MPa
C. 431.43 MPa
D. 208.33 MPa
57. What is the elongation if a steel bar 7m long is subjected to a temperature change of
17
o
C? Use = 11.7 x 10
-6
/ C
o
.
A. 1.34 mm
B. 13.44 mm
C. 134.44 mm
D. 1.34 m
58. By how much will a 15m steel rod with diameter of 3mm elongate if it is subjected to a
tensile load of 26 kN. Use E=200 GPa
A. 293.34 mm
B. 67.34 mm
C. 275.87 mm
D. 69.34 mm
59. At temperature of 25
o
C, a 17 m rod 8 mm in diameter is subjected to a tensile load of 24
kN. At what temperature without the load will the bar have the same elongation? Use =
13.8 x 10
-6
/ C
o
and E = 180 GPa.
A. 115
o
C
B. 217
o
C
C. 245
o
C
D. 287
o
C
60. A cylindrical bar 75 m long is attached to the ceiling atone end. At what new length could
be expected if it has a unit mass of 5000 kg/m
3
? Use E = 750 MPa.
A. 75.023 m
B. 75.104 m
C. 75.184 m
D. 75.245 m
61. A 7mm bar 9 m long is attached to the ceiling at one end. If a weight of 40 kN is hung on
its lower end, what is the total elongation? Use E = 200 GPa and unit mass of kg/m
3
.
A. 46.78 mm
B. 45.34 mm
C. 48.33 mm
D. 52.23 mm
62. A steel wire 10 m long, hanging vertically supports a tensile load of 2000 N. Neglecting
the weight of the wire, determine the required diameter if the stress is not to exceed 140
MPa and the total elongation is not to exceed 5 mm. Assume E = 200 GPa.
A. 4.26 mm
B. 3.12 mm
C. 5.05 mm
D. 2.46 mm
63. A steel rod having a cross-sectional area of 300mm
2
and length of 150 m is suspended
vertically from one end. It supports a load of 13 kN at the lower end. If the unit mass of
steel is 5120 kg/m
3
and E=200 GPa, find the total elongation of the rod.
A. 33.45 mm
B. 54.33 mm
C. 53.44 mm
D. 35.33 mm
64. What is the torsion on a solid cylindrical shaft whose diameter is 6 mm subjected to a
rotational force of 27 N-m?
A. 434.31 MPa
B. 542.46 MPa
C. 255.44 MPa
D. 636.62 MPa
65. What is the maximum torque allowed if a 12 mm shaft is allowed torsion of up to 40 MPa
only?
A. 13.57 N-m
B. 15.34 N-m
C. 18.34 N-m
D. 23.43 N-m
66. How many degrees of rotational deformation would occur on an 8 m cylindrical bar 8
mm in radius if it subjected to torque of 95 N-m?
A. 56.34
o

B. 35.62
o

C. 92.32
o

D. 43.53
o

67. What is the torque if the power transmitted by a shaft rotating at 30 rev/s is 1 MW?
A. 8.342 kN-m
B. 3.532 kN-m
C. 7.453 kN-m
D. 5.305 kN-m
68. A cylindrical solid shaft 7 mm in diameter is rotating at 18 rev/s. What is the maximum
allowable power transmitted if the stress should not exceed 380 MPa?
A. 3.43 kW
B. 5.23 kW
C. 1.53 kW
D. 2.89 kW

69. Determine the length of the shortest 2-mm diameter bronze wire which can be twisted
through two complete turns without exceeding a shearing stress of 343 MPa. Use G=35
GPa.
A. 6280 mm
B. 3420 mm
C. 1280 mm
D. 1658 mm
70. A solid steel shaft 5 m long is stressed to 60 Mpa when twisted through 4
o
. Using G=83
GPa, compute the power that can be transmitted by the shaft at 20 rev/s.
A. 1.21 MW
B. 1.67 MW
C. 3.21 MW
D. 1.26 MW
71. A helical spring with mean radius of 40 mm has wire diameter of 2.7 mm. What is the
shearing stress if there is a 22 N load? Use the approximate formula.
A. 325.32 MPa
B. 231.54 MPa
C. 432.43 MPa
D. 154.67 MPa
72. Solve question 69 using the exact formula.
A. 238.29 MPa
B. 431.32 MPa
C. 365.35 MPa
D. 153.64 MPa
73. By how much will a spring with 9 turns elongate if it supports a weight of 400 N? The
wire diameter is 6 mm and the mean radius is 28 mm. Use G=150 GPa.
A. 64.35 mm
B. 42.43 mm
C. 26.02 mm
D. 16.65 mm
74. A helical spring is made by wrapping steel wire 20 mm in diameter around a forming
cylinder 150 mm in diameter. Compute number of turns required to permit an elongation
of 132 mm without exceeding a shearing stress of 184.8 MPa. Use G=83 GPa.
A. 15.43 turns
B. 13.83 turns
C. 18.24 turns
D. 12.36 turns
75. Determine the maximum shearing stress in a helical steel spring composed of 20 turns of
20-mm diameter wire on a mean radius of 80 mm when the spring is supporting a load of
2kN. Use the exact formula.
A. 120.6 MPa
B. 117.9 MPa
C. 132.4 MPa
126.9 MPa

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS IN
ENGINEERING
MATERIALS
General Engineering and Applied Sciences
By
Emmylou R. Edulan
Jerick D. Lee
Woodrow B. Pino

ENCODED BY:
1. The property of metals that allows them to be drawn into thin wires beyond their elastic
limit without being ruptured is called
A. ductility
B. malleability
C. elasticity
D. hardness
2. Interaction between the surface of two closely adjacent bodies which causes them to cling
together is known as
A. Friction
B. Cohesion
D. Viscosity
3. Solids which break above the elastic limit are called
A. Brittle
B. Ductile
C. Plastic
D. Malleable
4. The property of some elementary particles that causes them to exert force on one another
I known as
A. Potential difference
B. Charge
C. Specific change
D. Nucleon interaction
5. The property which permits the flow of current under the action of a potential difference
is called
A. Resistance
B. Permeance
C. Impedence
D. Conductance
6. When a body is resistant to heat, it is called
A. Thermoscopic
B. Thermotropic
C. Thermoduric
D. Thermoplastic
7. The property of fluids by virtue of which they offer resistance to flow is known as
A. Gummosity
B. Glutinosity
C. Viscidity
D. Viscosity
8. The tendency of a body to return to its original size or shape after having been deformed
is called
A. Elastance
B. Elasticity
C. Elastivity
D. Anelastivity

9. The emission of light by a material because of its high temperature is known as
A. Incandescence
B. Luminescence
C. Scintillation
D. Phosphorescence
10. Which of the following statements is correct concerning the passage of white light into a
glass prism?
A. The violet color travels faster than the red color
B. The violet color travels slower than the red color
C. All the colors of white light travels the same speed
D. Greater the wavelength, slower the speed of color
11. The property by virtue of which a body resists any attempt to change its state of rest or
motion is called
A. Torpidity
B. Passivity
C. Inactivity
D. Inertia
12. The property of an isolated conductor to store electric charge is
A. Capacitance
B. Conductance
C. Permeability
D. Accumulation
13. If the properties of a body are the same in all directions, it is called
A. Isodynamic
B. Isotropic
C. Isogonic
D. Isotopic
14. The property of an object that determines the direction of heat flow when in contact with
another object is called
A. Calidity
B. Pyxeria
C. Caloric
D. Temperature
15. The rate of flow of thermal energy through a material in the presence of a temperature
A. Thermal capacity
B. Thermal conductivity
D. Thermal convection

16. The property of some crystals of absorbing light difference extents, thereby giving to the
crystals different colors according to the direction of the incident light is known as
A. dichroism
B. dichromatism
C. diastrophism
D. chromaticity
17. Emission of radiations from a substance during illumination by radiations of higher
frequency is called
A. illuminance
B. fluorescence
D. incandescence
18. If a materials is feebly repelled by a magnet it is
A. diamagnetic
B. paramagnetic
C. ferromagnetic
D. ferromagnetic
19. The progressive decrease of a property as a result of repeated stress is called
A. debility
B. rigidity
C. elastic deformation
D. fatigue
20. Property of some pure metals and their alloys at extremely low temperatures of having
negligible to the flow of an electric current is called
A. supercharging
B. supercooling
C. superfluidity
D. superconductivity

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS IN
LAWS & ETHICS - 1
General Engineering and Applied Sciences
By
Emmylou R. Edulan
Jerick D. Lee
Woodrow B. Pino

ENCODED BY:
1. A juridical necessity to give, to do, or not to do.
A. Contracts
B. Obligation
C. Quasi-delicts
D. Condition
2. Obligation comes from the latin word _______ which means to bind.
A. Obligum
B. Obligate
C. Obligare
D. Obligus
3. A legal wrong, committed through fault or negligence, on a person or property,
independent of contract.
A. Contracts
B. Obligation
C. Quasi-delicts
D. Condition
4. A nature of obligation under civil code which is legally demandable and the courts of
justice may compel their performance.
A. Civil Obligations
B. Natural Obligation
C. Pure Obligation
D. Condition
5. A nature of obligation under civil code based on morality, natural law and conscience,
they are not legally demandable.
A. Civil Obligations
B. Natural Obligation
C. Pure Obligation
D. Condition
6. Requisites of obligations which is the vinculum or the link that binds the party
A. Juridical or legal tie
B. Prestation
C. Active subject
D. Passive subject
7. Requisites of obligation consist in giving, doing or not doing something
A. Juridical or legal tie
B. Prestation
C. Active subject
D. Passive subject
8. Requisites of obligation that refers to a person who can demand the performance of the
obligation or known as the creditor or oblige
A. Juridical or legal tie
B. Prestation
C. Active subject
D. Passive subject

9. Requisites of obligation that refers to a person from whom prestation is demandable or
known as the debtor or obligor
A. Juridical or legal tie
B. Prestation
C. Active subject
D. Passive subject
10. One of the following is not considered as a source of obligation.
A. Law
B. Contracts
C. Quai-delicts
D. Work
11. The following are requisites of Quasi-delicts except
A. An act or omission
B. Accompanied by fault or negligence
C. There must be no pre-existing contractual relation between the parties
D. Acts or omissions punished by law
12. An obligation which is not subject to conditions or burdens nor does it mention a specific
date for its fulfillment and as such it is immediately demandable.
A. Pure obligation
B. Condition obligation
C. Reciprocal obligation
D. Alternative obligation
13. An uncertain event which wields an influence on a legal relation.
A. Pure obligation
B. Condition
C. Reciprocal obligation
D. Alternative obligation
14. An obligation which is a subject to a condition.
A. Pure obligation
B. Condition obligation
C. Reciprocal obligation
D. Alternative obligation
15. A kind of condition which suspends the demandability of the obligation until the
fulfillment of the condition.
A. Suspensive Condition
B. Alternative obligation
C. Reciprocal obligation
D. Resolutory obligation
16. A kind of condition that produces the extinguishment of an obligation upon the
happening of the event.
A. Suspensive Condition
B. Alternative obligation
C. Reciprocal obligation
D. Resolutory Condition

17. An obligation whose consequences are subjected in one way or the other to the expiration
of said term.
A. Pure obligation
B. Obligations with a period
C. Reciprocal obligation
D. Alternative obligation
18. A borrowed money from B in the amount of P50.00 promising to pay the amount as
soon as possible. If later on, they cannot agree on the specific date of payment, the
remedy of B is to go to court and ask the court to fix the date when the debt is to be
paid. This illustrates:
A. Pure obligation
B. Obligations with a period
C. Reciprocal obligation
D. Alternative obligation
19. A kind of period with suspensive effect.
A. Ex die
B. In diem
C. Legal period
D. Voluntary period
20. A kind of period with a resolutory effect and the validity of obligation is up to a certain
date
A. Ex die
B. In diem
C. Legal period
D. Voluntary period
21. A period established by law.
A. Ex die
B. In diem
C. Legal period
D. Voluntary period
22. A period agreed to by the parties.
A. Judicial period
B. In diem
C. Legal period
D. Voluntary period
23. A period authorized by the court.
A. Judicial period
B. In diem
C. Legal period
D. Voluntary period
24. An obligation where two parties are mutually obliged to do or to give something.
A. Pure obligation
B. Condition
C. Reciprocal obligation
D. Alternative obligation
25. Marc obliged himself to deliver to Edwin either a piano or a refrigerator. The delivery of
the piano or the refrigerator is sufficient compliance with the obligation. Marc could not
compel Edwin to accept only a part of the piano or a part of the refrigerator because this
illustrates:
A. Pure obligation
B. Condition
C. Reciprocal obligation
D. Alternative obligation
26. An obligation wherein various things are due, but the payment of one of them is
sufficient, determined by the choice which as a general rule belongs to the obligor.
A. Pure obligation
B. Condition
C. Reciprocal obligation
D. Alternative obligation
27. One in which each of the debtors is answerable only for a proportionate part of the debt,
and each one of the creditors is entitled to a proportionate part of the credit
A. Joint obligation
B. Solidary obligation
C. Divisible obligation
D. Indivisible obligation
28. One in which each of the debtors is liable for the whole obligation and each of the
creditors may demand compliance of the entire obligation.
A. Joint obligation
B. Solidary obligation
C. Divisible obligation
D. Indivisible obligation
29. A kind of solidarity when it exists among the creditors only.
A. Active Solidarity
B. Passive Solidarity
C. Mixed Solidarity
D. Solo Solidarity
30. When the solidarity takes place among the debtors only, it is called
A. Active Solidarity
B. Passive Solidarity
C. Mixed Solidarity
D. Solo Solidarity
31. When the solidarity exists both among the creditors and the debtors at the same time, this
is called
A. Active Solidarity
B. Passive Solidarity
C. Mixed Solidarity
D. Solo Solidarity

32. An obligation which is capable of partial performance.
A. Joint obligation
B. Solidary obligation
C. Divisible obligation
D. Indivisible obligation
33. Juan obliged himself to deliver to Pedro six sacks of rice as follows: Three sacks of rice
to be delivered by Juan on May 1
st
, and Pedro to pay Juan the amount of P150.00.
Another three sacks of rice to be delivered by Juan on June 1
st
, and Pedro to pay Juan the
same amount of P150.00. This illustrates:
A. Joint obligation
B. Solidary obligation
C. Divisible obligation
D. Indivisible obligation
34. A type division that depends on quality rather than quantity
A. Qualitative
B. Quantitative
C. Ideal
D. Moral
35. A type of division that depends on quantity rather than quality
A. Qualitative
B. Quantitative
C. Ideal
D. Mental
36. A type of division also known as moral, intellectual or mental division
A. Qualitative
B. Quantitative
C. Ideal
D. All of the above
37. It is an accessory undertaking to assume greater liability in case of breach.
A. Law
B. Penal clause
C. Stipulation
D. Preceding
38. A binds himself to deliver to B a Honda Civic car at the end of the current year. They
agree in writing that should A fail to deliver the car on a specified date, A shall pay
B as penalty P10,000.00. A fails to make the delivery. B could demand the
payment of P10,000.00 against A. B, however could not compel A to deliver the
car and pay the penalty at the same time. This is _______ type of penal clause:
A. Joint
B. Subsidiary
C. Solo
D. Partial

39. A classification of penal clause when both the principal contract and the penal clause can
be enforced.
A. Joint
B. Subsidiary
C. Solo
D. Partial
40. An obligation can be extinguished by the following except
A. By Payment or Performance
B. By the condition or remission of the debt
C. By altering the signature
D. By the loss of the thing due
41. An obligation which is not capable of partial performance.
A. Joint obligation
B. Solidary obligation
C. Divisible obligation
D. Indivisible obligation
42. A kind of remission when the enforcement of the obligation is waived or renounced
totally.
A. Partial
B. Complete
C. Express
D. Implied
43. A remission when the waiver or renunciation refers only to a part of the obligation.
A. Partial
B. Complete
C. Express
D. Implied
44. A remission when it is shown by words or declaration of the obligee.
A. Partial
B. Complete
C. Express
D. Implied
45. A remission when it is inferred from the acts or conduct of the obligee.
A. Partial
B. Complete
C. Express
D. Implied
46. A type of compensation that takes place when compensation extinguishes the two debts
in their concurrent amounts even without the express agreement of the parties. Judicial
compensation
A. Legal compensation
B. Voluntary compensation
C. Judicial compensation
D. Partial compensation

47. A type of compensation that takes place when there is compensation by agreement of the
parties as in the case of mutual set off of accounts.
A. Legal compensation
B. Voluntary compensation
C. Judicial compensation
D. Partial compensation
48. A type of compensation that takes place when the court permits the counterclaim of the
defendant as against the claim of the plaintiff.
A. Legal compensation
B. Total compensation
C. Judicial compensation
D. Partial compensation
49. A type of compensation that takes place when the two obligations are of different
amounts and a balance remains unextinguished after the compensation.
A. Legal compensation
B. Total compensation
C. Judicial compensation
D. Partial compensation
50. A type of compensation that takes place when the obligations are of the same amount and
compensation extinguishes the obligations entirely.
A. Legal compensation
B. Total compensation
C. Judicial compensation
D. Partial compensation
51. A novation where the principal conditions of the obligation is change.
A. True novation
B. Real novation
C. Personal novation
D. Substitute novation
52. A obliged himself to deliver to B a car. Subsequently, they entered into another
contract whereby instead of A delivering a car, A would deliver a truck. This
illustrates:
A. True novation
B. Real novation
C. Personal novation
D. Substitute novation
53. A novation where another person is sustained in place of the debtor or he is subrogated to
the rights of the creditor.
A. True novation
B. Real novation
C. Personal novation
D. Substitute novation

54. A novation where there is a change in the person of the parties and the objects or
modification of principal condition.
A. Mixed novation
B. Real novation
C. Personal novation
D. Substitute novation
55. It is the meeting of minds between two persons whereby one binds himself with respect
to the other to give something or to render some services.
A. Contracts
B. Obligation
C. Quasi-delicts
D. Condition
56. A contract comes from the Latin word _______ which signifies an agreement.
A. Kontrus
B. contractus
C. Tractum
D. Contractumus
57. The following are considered to be the essential elements of contracts except
A. consent of the parties
B. object or subject matter
C. cause or consideration
D. effects to the subject
58. An element of contracts which refers to those the existence of which is presumed by law
unless there is an agreement to the contrary
A. Essential element
B. Natural elements
C. Accidental elements
D. Unnatural elements
59. Refers to an element of contracts that consist of the unusual stipulation of the parties such
as conditions, terms, etc.
A. Essential element
B. Natural elements
C. Accidental elements
D. Unnatural elements
60. A stage of contract that includes all the initial stages up to the time the parties agree upon
the terms of the contract.
A. Preparation or Conception
B. Perfection or Birth
C. Consummation or Termination
D. Deliberation

61. A stage of contract that refers to the time when the minds of the parties meet in
agreement upon the object or subject matter as well as to the price or consideration.
A. Preparation or Conception
B. Perfection or Birth
C. Consummation or Termination
D. Deliberation
62. Juan agrees to receive P2,000.00 for his horse and Pedro agrees to take the horse for the
amount. This refers to what stage of the contract
A. Preparation or Conception
B. Perfection or Birth
C. Consummation or Termination
D. Deliberation
63. Juan delivers the horse to Pedro and the same is accepted. Pedro gives the amount
P2,000.00 as purchase price and the latter receives it.
A. Preparation or Conception
B. Perfection or Birth
C. Consummation or Termination
D. Deliberation
64. A contract wherein the intent of the parties is shown by words, oral or written.
A. Express contract
B. Implied contracts
C. Executed contracts
D. Executory contracts
65. A contract wherein the intent of the parties is shown by conduct.
A. Express contract
B. Implied contracts
C. Executed contracts
D. Executory contracts
66. A contract that has already been performed.
A. Express contract
B. Implied contracts
C. Executed contracts
D. Executory contracts
67. A contract that has not yet performed.
A. Express contract
B. Implied contracts
C. Executed contracts
D. Executory contracts
68. A contract that is perfected by mere consent, such as a contract of sale.
A. Consensual contract
B. Bilateral contract
C. Real contract
D. Unilateral contract

69. A contract that is perfected by delivery of the thing which is the object of the contract.
A. Consensual contract
B. Bilateral contract
C. Real contract
D. Unilateral contract
70. A contract wherein only one of the parties has an obligation such as in commodatum or
gratuitous deposit.
A. Consensual contract
B. Bilateral contract
C. Real contract
D. Unilateral contract
71. A contract that creates reciprocal obligations.
A. Consensual contract
B. Bilateral contract
C. Real contract
D. Unilateral contract
72. A, for and in consideration of P1,000.00, entered into a contract with B whereby the
latter agreed to murder C. This limitation upon the right to contract that refers to
A. Contrary to law
B. Against moral
C. Contrary to good customs
D. Contrary to public order
73. A entered into a contract with B whereby for and In consideration of P100,000.00 the
latter agrees to live with A without the benefit of marriage. This limitation upon the
right to contract that refers to
A. Contrary to law
B. Against moral
C. Contrary to good customs
D. Contrary to public order
74. Pedro and Maria decided to get married on October 10, 2007. Invitations were printed
and distributed to relatives and friends and apparel were purchased including matrimonial
bed. Pedro, however walked out of it and was never heard of again. This limitation upon
the right to contract that refers to
A. Contrary to law
B. Against moral
C. Contrary to good customs
D. Contrary to public order
75. A entered into a contract with B whereby A will not enter into any enterprise
whatever in the Philippines. This limitation upon the right to contract that refers to
A. Contrary to law
B. Against moral
C. Contrary to good customs
D. Contrary to public order

76. The following are requisites of contracts except
A. Consent
B. Object of contract
C. Cause of contract
D. Effect of contract
77. A classification of contracts as to its cause where the cause is the pure liberality of the
giver.
A. Gratuitous Contract
B. Remunetory Contract
C. Onerous Contrary
D. Liberation Contract
78. A classification of contracts as to its cause where the cause is the service or benefit for
which the remuneration is given.
A. Gratuitous Contract
B. Remunetory Contract
C. Onerous Contract
D. Liberation Contract
79. A classification of contracts as to its cause where the cause is the mutual undertaking
or promise of either of the contracting parties.
A. Gratuitous Contract
B. Remunetory Contract
C. Onerous Contract
D. Liberation Contract
80. Remedy in equity by means of which a written instrument is made or constructed so as to
express or confirm to the real intention of the parties when some error or mistake has
been committed.
A. Reformation
B. Novation
C. Defect
D. Erroneous
81. Which of the following cannot be considered as a requisite of reformation?
A. There is a valid contract;
B. The contract is in writing;
C. The oral contract expresses the true intention of the parties
D. The failure of the written contract to express the true intention is due to mutual
mistake, fraud, inequitable conduct, or accident.
82. A defective contract where it has all the essential requisites of a damage to third persons,
such as creditors, the contract may be rescinded.
A. Rescissible Contract
B. Voidable Contract
C. Unenforced Contracts
D. Void or Inexistent Contracts
83. A damage or injury suffered by the party seeking rescission by reason of the fact that the
A. damage
B. effect
C. lesion
D. payment
84. A contract which possesses all the essential requisites of a valid contract, namely,
consent, object and cause or consideration. It is a valid contract until it is annulled.
A. Void or Inexistent Contract
B. Unenforceable Contract
C. Voidable Contract
D. Negotiorum Gestio
85. A contract which is absolutely without legal force or effect.
A. Void or Inexistent Contract
B. Unenforceable Contract
C. Voidable Contract
D. Negotiorum Gestio
86. When a contract cannot be sued upon or enforced in court unless it is ratified is said to be
A. Void or Inexistent Contract
B. Unenforceable Contract
C. Voidable Contract
D. Negotiorum Gestio
87. It is the voluntary administration of the abandoned business or property belonging to
another without the consent of the latter.
A. Void or Inexistent Contract
B. Unenforceable Contract
C. Voidable Contract
D. Negotiorum Contract
88. It is the sum of money which the law awards or imposes as the pecuniary compensation,
recompense, or satisfaction for an injury done or a wrong sustained as a consequence
either of a breach of a contractual obligation or a tortuous act.
A. Payment
B. Injury
C. Damages
D. Compensation
89. Damages that cover actual injury or economic loss. It typically includes medical
expenses, lost wages and the repair or replacement of property.
A. Actual or Compensatory Damages
B. Nominal Damages
C. Moral Damages
D. Temperate and Moderate Damages
90. Damages that includes physical suffering, mental anguish, fright, serious anxiety,
besmirched reputation, wounded feelings, moral shock, social humiliation and similar
injury.
A. Actual or Compensatory Damages
B. Nominal Damages
C. Moral Damages
D. Temperate or Moderate Damages
91. Damages which are small and trivial sums awarded for a technical injury due to a
violation of some legal right, and as a consequence of which some damages must be
awarded to determine the right.
A. Actual or Compensatory Damages
B. Nominal Damages
C. Moral Damages
D. Temperate or Moderate Damages
92. Damages that are reasonable compensation for the injury.
A. Actual or Compensatory Damages
B. Nominal Damages
C. Moral Damages
D. Temperate or Moderate Damages
93. Damages where the amount of which has been agrees upon by the parties or fixed by
the judgment of a competent court.
A. Liquidated Damages
B. Exemplary Damages
C. Corrective Damages
D. Compensatory Damages
94. Damages which are given in enhancement merely of the ordinary damages on account of
wanton, reckless, malicious, or oppressive character of the acts complained of.
A. Actual or Compensatory Damages
B. Nominal Damages
C. Moral Damages
D. Exemplary or Corrective Damages
95. Branch of the unwritten law which was originally founded on the customs of merchants,
mariners and business men generally in their dealings with one another throughout the
civilized countries of the world.
A. Law of merchants
C. Law of mariners
D. Law of people

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS IN
LAWS & ETHICS - 2
General Engineering and Applied Sciences
By
Emmylou R. Edulan
Jerick D. Lee
Woodrow B. Pino

ENCODED BY:

1. An electrical discharge which occurs between clouds and also from cloud to earth.
A. Thunder
B. Lightning
C. Corona
D. Aurora
2. Results from abnormally high sound level, the physical effects of which may vary from
minor discomfort to serious injury.
A. Electrical Shock
B. Super Sonic
C. Acoustic Shock
D. Sonic Boom
3. The factor that determines the intensity of electrical shock is
A. Current
B. Voltage
C. Resistance
D. Conductance
4. The average resistance of a dry adult human body is approximately:
A. 10,000 ohms
B. 100,000 ohms
C. 1,000,000 ohms
D. 100 ohms
5. Ventricular fibrillation is likely to occur when a 60Hz rms current of _________
amperes and above passes through ones chest cavity.
A. 0.010
B. 0.11
C. 0.030
D. 0.33
6. The minimum voltage value that is considered hazardous is:
A. 45V RMS AC
B. 12V RMS AC
C. 24V RMS AC
D. 50V RMS AC
7. The minimum voltage value that is considered hazardous is:
A. 150V DC
B. 45V DC
C. 135V DC
D. 160V DC

8. The potential difference at any time between two points on the floor or earth surface
separated by a distance of one pace, or about one meter, in the direction of maximum
potential gradient shall be no greater than __________.
A. 45 volts rms AC or 135 volts DC
B. 25 volts rms AC or 115 volts DC
C. 15 volts rms AC or 105 volts DC
D. 55 volts rms AC or 145 volts DC
9. It is the provision of a grounded electrical conducting material located such that foreign
potential will be intercepted and surge currents diverted to ground with the least damage
to plant equipment possible.
A. Grounding
B. Shielding
C. Bonding
D. Current Limiting
10. Prevents development of hazardous potential difference in communication plant by direct
bonding, when permissible or by use of surge arresters, discharge gaps, diodes, etc. which
operate under abnormal voltage condition.
A. Current limiting
B. Resistance limiting
C. Grounding
D. Voltage limiting
11. The current in a circuit can be kept from rising above predetermined value by the use of a
fuse in series with a circuit.
A. Current limiting
B. Resistance limiting
C. Grounding
D. Voltage limiting
12. This is used to divert undesired currents before they reach the equipment being protected
and often are installed both at and some distance away from the protected equipment.
A. Current limiting
B. Resistance limiting
C. Grounding
D. Voltage limiting
13. It is the resistance path of a ground connection which includes the ground wire and its
connection to ground electrode.
A. Ground Resistance
B. Grounde Electrode
C. Ground Path
D. Resistance Path
14. For equipment locations, antenna towers, and all allied installations, the ground resistance
must never exceed __________.
A. 25 ohms
B. 3 ohms
C. 43 ohms
D. 5 ohms
15. For outside plant telephone poles and manholes as well as customer premises, the ground
resistance must never exceed __________.
A. 25 ohms
B. 3 ohms
C. 43 ohms
D. 5 ohms
16. It is an electrode buried in the ground for the purpose of establishing a low resistance
electrical contact with the earth.
A. Ground pole
B. Lightning Rods
C. Guy
17. It is a metal strip or rod, usually of copper or similar conductive material, designed to
protect tall or isolated structures (such as the roof of a building or the mast of a vessel)
from lightning damage.
A. Ground pole
B. Lightning Rods
C. Guy
18. A device used in electrical systems to protect against excessive current.
A. fuse
B. Lightning rod
C. Surge arrester
D. Grounding
19. These are normally open circuited devices and pass no significant current at normal
operating potentials.
A. fuse
B. Lightning rod
C. Surge arrester
D. Grounding

20. Provides certain level of safety to humans and property in case of equipment damages.
A. fuse
B. Lightning rod
C. Surge arrester
D. Bonding or Grounding
21. The simplest way to make an earth resistance test is to use:
A. Direct Method or two terminal test
B. Voltmeter-Ammeter Method
C. Triangulation Method
D. Three terminal test
22. It is the resistance of parallel faces of a one cubic centimeter of soil expressed in ohm-
centimeter.
A. Ground resistance
B. Earth resistivity
C. Cubic resistance
D. Earth density
23. The following are ways to improve grounds except:
A. Lengthen the ground-electrode in the earth
B. Use multiple rods
C. Treat the soil when 1 & 2 are not feasible
D. Place stones near the rod
24. Ground resistance shall be tested when installed and periodically afterwards, at least
__________ during the dry or non-rainy months and ALL VALUES OBTAINED
SHALL BE NO GREATER THAN THE RULE REQUIRED.
A. 3 times per year
B. twice a year
C. once a year
D. 12 times a year
25. All ground connections, be it solderless or soldered, shall be checked at least __________
to be sure they are tight.
A. 3 times per year
B. twice a year
C. once a year
D. 12 times a year
26. This loading shall be taken as the resultant stress due to wind and dead weight for 240
kph wind velocity.
27. This loading shall be taken as the resultant stress due to wind and dead weight for 200
kph wind velocity.
28. This loading shall be taken as the result ant stress due to wind and dead weight for 160
kph wind velocity.
29. Batteries should be located where temperatures range between __________ degrees
Celsius.
A. 12.5 and 25.2
B. 15.5 and 32.2
C. 15.2 and 52.2
D. 55.5 and 60.3
30. Lead acid or similar gas emitting battery installations where the aggregate power exceeds
__________ 5 kilowatts shall be located in a properly ventilated room separated from the
equipment room or location where people are staying.
A. 5 kW
B. 10 kW
C. 1 kW
D. 15 kW
31. Smoking and storing of inflammable materials is prohibited in battery rooms and NO
SMOKING signs should be posted ___________.
A. inside the room only
B. before entering battery rooms
C. outside the room only
D. Both A and C
32. An acid neutralizing agent such as __________ should be stored and available in battery
rooms for use in accidental electrolyte or acid spillage.
A. oil
B. kerosene
C. flour
D. Caustic soda

33. A low resistance electrical connection between two cable sheaths, between two ground
connections or between similar parts of two circuits.
A. Bond
B. Short
C. Fuse
D. Guy
34. The vertical space reserved along the side of a pole or tower to permit ready access for
linemen to equipment and conductors located thereon.
A. Stairway
B. Climbing Space
C. Guy
D. Pole
35. Insulated wires, used to run a subscribers line from the terminal on the pole to the
protector at the house or building.
A. main line
B. main cable
C. dropline
D. dropwire
36. a physical condition that causes a device, a component or an element to fail to perform in
a required manner.
A. damaged
B. hazard
C. fault
D. short
37. A current that flows from one conductor to ground or to another conductor owing to any
abnormal connection (including an arc) between the two.
A. Fault current
B. Dark current
C. Leakage current
38. An apparatus so treated such that it will not maintain a flame or will not be injured
A. Flame Proof
B. Flame Retarding
C. Burn Proof
D. Anti Flame

39. A property of materials or structures such that they will not convey flame or continue to
burn for longer times than specified in the appropriate flame test.
A. Flame Proof
B. Flame Retarding
C. Burn Proof
D. Anti Flame
40. A discharge through air, around or over the surface of solid, liquid or other insulation,
between parts of different potential of polarity, produced by the application of voltage
such that the breakdown path becomes sufficiently ionized to maintain an electric arc.
A. Aurora
B. Corona
C. Washover
D. Arc
41. A conducting connection, whether intentional or accidental, by which an electric circuit
or equipment is connected to earth, or to some conducting body of relatively large extent
that serves in place of the earth.
A. short
B. jumper
C. ground
D. ink
42. A tension member (of solid or stranded wires) used to withstand an otherwise unbalanced
force on a pole or other overhead line structures.
A. Bond
B. Short
C. Fuse
D. Guy
43. A guy extending from a pole or structure or tree is sometimes called a span guy.
B. Anchor guy
C. Bla guy
D. Guy post
44. An opening in an underground run or system into which workers reach, but do not enter.
A. Manhole
B. Rathole
C. Handhole
D. Finger hole

45. A device designed to protect apparatus from high transient voltage, by diverting surge
current to ground and capable of repeating this function as specified.
A. Lightning ball
B. Lightning Arrester
C. Fuse
D. Lightning Protector
46. A subsurface chamber, large enough for a person to enter, in the route of one or more
conduit runs, and affording facilities for placing and maintaining in the runs, conductors,
cables and any associated apparatus.
A. Manhole
B. Rathole
C. Handhole
D. Finger hole
47. Stranded steel wires in a group which generally is not a part of the conducting system, its
primary function being to support wires or cables of the system.
A. guy
B. support
C. conduit
D. messenger
48. A general term applied to the whole or portion of the physical property of a
communication company which contributes to the furnishing of communication service.
A. zone
B. area
C. plant
D. division
49. A metallic rod, driven into the ground to provide an electrical connection to the earth.
A. Lightning rod
B. Ground rod
C. Drop ground
50. A metallic rod carried above the highest point of a pole or structure and connected to
earth by a heavy copper conductor intended to carry lightning currents directly to earth.
A. Lightning arrester
B. Lightning rod
C. Breaker
D. Lightning gap

51. The installation from the terminal on the pole to the protector at the customers premises.
A. Service drop
B. Subscribers loop
C. Main line
D. Local drop
52. The horizontal displacement of a point on the tower axis from its no-wind load position at
that elevation.
A. Tower displacement
B. Tower sway
C. Tower twist
D. Tower bend
53. The angular displacement of a tangent to the tower axis at the elevation from its no-wind
A. Tower displacement
B. Tower sway
C. Tower twist
D. Tower bend
54. The horizontal angular displacement of the tower from its no-wind position at that
elevation
A. Tower displacement
B. Tower sway
C. Tower twist
D. Tower bend
55. Refers to communication facilities installed below the surface of the earth.
A. underneath
B. underground
C. earth mat
D. under earth

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS IN
LAWS & ETHICS - 3
General Engineering and Applied Sciences
By
Emmylou R. Edulan
Jerick D. Lee
Woodrow B. Pino

ENCODED BY:
1. Define as wires or cables entering the building, terminated to the main cross
connecting point within the building from the nearest telephone facility.
A. drop wire
B. local loop
C. service entrance
D. subscribers loop
2. A type of service entrance that serves as means of providing service aerially from a
pole to a building.
A. Aerial entrance
B. Underground entrance
D. Handhole
3. The size of the aerial entrance conduit shall not be less than __________ in diameter.
A. 20mm
B. 30mm
C. 40mm
D. 50mm
4. The maximum span from telephone pole to a building used in aerial entrance should
be ___________.
A. 20m
B. 30m
C. 40m
D. 50m
5. In aerial entrance, the minimum clearances between telephone cable and power
entrance must be __________ radial distance.
A. 2m
B. 3m
C. 4m
D. 1m
6. In aerial entrance, the minimum clearance from ground level when crossing the street
must be ___________.
A. 4.4m
B. 3.3m
C. 5.5m
D. 6.6m

7. In aerial entrance, minimum clearance over areas accessible to pedestrians only, must
be __________.
A. 3.5m
B. 5.5m
C. 4.5m
D. 6.1m
8. A type of service entrance that provides mechanical protection and minimizes the
need for possible subsequent repairs to the property.
A. Aerial entrance
B. Underground entrance
D. Handhole
9. An underground entrances minimum depth under areas used for vehicular traffic
inside private property is
A. 800 mm
B. 600 mm
C. 900 mm
D. 700 mm
10. For underground entrance, conduits should be separated from power conduits by not
less than __________ in well-tamped earth:
A. 300 mm
B. 100 mm
C. 50 mm
D. 150 mm
11. For underground entrance, conduits should be separated from power conduits by not
less than __________ of concrete.
A. 300 mm
B. 100 mm
C. 50 mm
D. 150 mm
12. The size of underground entrance conduit within the building shall be no case smaller
than __________ in diameter when the service entrance does not require use of a
service box.
A. 50 mm
B. 75 mm
C. 65 mm
D. 45 mm
13. The use of handholes will be permitted for entrance cable not exceeding __________
pairs.
A. 20
B. 40
C. 30
D. 50
14. The minimum size for vehicular handholes is
A. 0.61m x 0.91m x 0.91m
B. 0.61m x 0.91m x 0.73m
C. 0.19m x 1.23m x 1.21m
D. 0.91m x 1.22m x 1.19m
15. The minimum size for non-vehicular handholes is
A. 0.61m x 0.91m x 0.91m
B. 0.61m x 0.91m x 0.73m
C. 0.19m x 1.23m x 1.21m
D. 0.91m x 1.22m x 1.19m
16. The use of service box will be permitted for entrance cable exceeding __________
pairs. The minimum size for service box is
A. 0.61m x 0.91m x 0.91m
B. 0.61m x 0.91m x 0.73m
C. 0.19m x 1.23m x 1.21m
D. 0.91m x 1.22m x 1.19m
17. The minimum size for service-box is
A. 0.61m x 0.91m x 0.91m
B. 0.61m x 0.91m x 0.73m
C. 0.19m x 1.23m x 1.21m
D. 0.91m x 1.22m x 1.19m
18. The minimum size for an entrance conduit is
A. 20mm
B. 30mm
C. 40mm
D. 50mm
19. The minimum number of entrance conduit is
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
20. It is a point where cable from TELCO and the in-building distribution system are
terminated.
A. drop wire
B. terminal wire
C. main terminals
D. service box
21. The location of the main terminal must be equipped with adequate lighting, and
located at a minimum distance of __________ above floor finish.
A. 1.3 m
B. 2.3 m
C. 1.6 m
D. 2.6 m
22. The location of the main terminal should have enough working space in front of all
terminations. Normally __________ away from all hazards.
A. 800 mm
B. 800 mm
C. 1000 mm
D. 700 mm
23. A main terminal required for terminating entrance cables using one or more terminal
blocks.
A. Main Telephone Terminal Cabinet (MTTC)
B. Main Distributing Frame (MDF)
C. Riser System
D. Service Box
24. The backboard color for Main Telephone Terminal Cabinet (MTTC) used other
special services is:
A. white
B. yellow
C. black
D. blue
25. The backboard color for Main Telephone Terminal Cabinet (MTTC) used as an
entrance is:
A. white
B. yellow
C. black
D. blue
26. The backboard color for Main Telephone Terminal Cabinet (MTTC) used for risers
is:
A. white
B. yellow
C. black
D. blue

27. A main terminal generally recommended when entrance cable requirements will
exceed 300 pairs.
A. Main Telephone Terminal Cabinet (MTTC)
B. Main Distributing Frame (MDF)
C. Riser System
D. Service Box
28. Defined as the vertical and horizontal distribution of telephone communication lines
between two or more floors or adjoining premises on the same floor of a building
generally originating at or near the cabinet up to the Telephone Terminal or outlet.
A. Main Telephone Terminal Cabinet (MTTC)
B. Main Distributing Frame (MDF)
C. Riser System
D. Service Box
29. A riser system usually extends from the ground to the roof top of the building with no
floor separation to a ventilating shaft. Telephone cable is not permitted in unless
placed in metallic conduit.
A. Open Riser
B. Elevated Riser
C. Closed Riser
D. Underground Riser
30. A riser system that consists of a series of telephone terminal cabinets/closets
vertically or non-vertically aligned, usually beginning at the ground floor and
extending throughout the height of the building.
A. Open Riser
B. Elevated Riser
C. Closed Riser
D. Underground Riser

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS IN
LAWS & ETHICS - 4
General Engineering and Applied Sciences
By
Emmylou R. Edulan
Jerick D. Lee
Woodrow B. Pino

ENCODED BY:
Comment [m1]: Done!

1. RA 9292 is known as
A. Electronics Engineering Law of 2004
B. Electronics and Communications Engineering Law of the Philippines
C. Electronics and Communications Engineering Law of 2004
D. Electronics Engineering Law of the Philippines
2. The science dealing with the development and application of devices and systems
involving the flow of electrons or other carriers of electric charge, in a vacuum, in
gaseous media, in plasma, in semiconductors, in solid-state and/or in similar devices,
including, but not limited to, applications involving optical, electromagnetic and other
energy forms when transduced or converted into electronic signals.
A. Electronics
B. Communications
C. Electricity
D. Physics
3. A person who is qualified to hold himself/herself out as a duly registered/licensed
Professional Electronics Engineer under RA 9292 and to affix to his/her name the letters
PECE.
A. Professional Electronics and Communications Engineer
B. Professional Electronics Engineer
C. Electronics Engineer
D. Electronics and Communications Engineer
4. A person who is qualified to hold himself/herself out as a duly registered/licensed
Electronics Engineer under RA 9292 and to affix to his/her name the letters ECE.
A. Professional Electronics and Communications Engineer
B. Professional Electronics Engineer
C. Electronics Engineer
D. Electronics and Communications Engineer
5. A person who is qualified to hold himself/herself out as a duly registered/licensed
Electronics Technician under RA 9292 and to affix to his/her name the letters ECT.
A. Professional Electronics and Communications Engineer
B. Professional Electronics Engineer
C. Electronics Engineer
D. Electronics Technician
6. A person who is qualified to hold himself/herself out as a duly registered/licensed
Electronics and Communications Engineer under Republic Act No. 5734.
A. Professional Electronics and Communications Engineer
B. Professional Electronics Engineer
C. Electronics Engineer
D. Electronics and Communications Engineer
7. Any of a variety of electronic devices that is capable of accepting data, programs and/or
instructions, executing programs and/or instructions to process the data and presenting
the results.
A. Computer
B. ICT
C. ATM
D. Laptop
8. The acquisition, production, transformation, storage and transmission/reception of data
and information by electronic means in forms such as vocal, pictorial, textual, numeric or
the like; also refers to the theoretical and practical applications and processes utilizing
such data and information.
A. Information and Communications Technology
B. Communications
C. Telecommunications
D. Information Technology
9. The process of sending and/or receiving information, data, signals and/or messages
between two (2) or more points by radio, cable, optical wave guides or other devices and
wired or wireless medium.
A. Information and Communications Technology
B. Communications
C. Telecommunications
D. Information Technology
10. Any transmission, emission or reception of voice, data, electronic messages, text, written
or printed matter, fixed or moving pictures or images, words, music or visible or audible
signals or sounds, or any information, intelligence and/or control signals of any design/or
format and for any purpose, by wire, radio, spectral, visual/optical/light, or other
electronic, electromagnetic and technological means.
A. Information and Communications Technology
B. Communications
C. Telecommunications
D. Information Technology
11. An undertaking the object of which is to transmit audio, video, text, images or other
signals or messages for reception of a broad audience in a geographical area via wired or
wireless means.
A. Communications
C. Transmission
D. Paging

12. Includes all a manufacturing establishments and other business endeavors where
electronic or electronically-controlled machinery or equipment are installed and/or being
used, sold, maintained, assembled, manufactured or operated.
A. Industrial Plant
B. Commercial Establishment
C. Production Area
D. Power Plant
13. Shall include but not be limited to office buildings, hotels, motels, hospitals,
condominiums, stores, apartments, supermarkets, schools, stadia, parking areas,
memorial chapels/parks, watercraft and aircraft used for business or profit, and any other
building/s or area/s for business purposes, where electronic or electronically-controlled
machinery or equipment are installed and/or are being used, sold, maintained, assembled,
manufactured or operated.
A. Industrial Plant
B. Commercial Establishment
C. Production Area
D. Power Plant
14. Shall include services requiring adequate technical expertise, experience and professional
capability in undertaking advisory and review, pre-investment or feasibility studies,
design, planning, construction, supervision, management and related services, and other
technical studies or special studies in the field of electronics engineering.
A. Consulting services
B. Primary services
C. Secondary services
D. Technical services
15. The integrated and accredited national organization of Professional Electronics
Engineers, Electronics Engineers and Electronics Technician.
A. IECEP
B. Accredited Professional Organization
C. PIECEP
D. Organization of PECE
16. To be qualified as a Member of the Board, he/she mustbe a citizen and a resident of the
Philippines for at least __________ consecutive years prior to his/her appointment.
A. 7 years
B. 10 years
C. 5 years
D. 3 years

17. The members of the board shall hold office for a term of __________ years from date of
appointment or until their successors shall have been appointed and qualified and may be
re-appointed once for another term.
A. 7
B. 10
C. 5
D. 3
18. To pass the licensure examination, a candidate for Electronics Engineer or Electronics
Technician must obtain a passing rating of in each subject given during the examination:
A. 50%
B. 60%
C. 70%
D. 80%
19. One shall be allowed to take one removal examination on the subject/s where he/she has
failed to obtain the passing rating. Provided, however, that a candidate who obtains a
passing rating in the majority of the subjects but obtains a rating in the other subject/s.
A. Below 70% but not lower than 60%
B. Below 70% but not lower than 50%
C. Below 60% but not lower than 50%
D. Below 75% but not lower than 60%
20. Certified experience record of active self-practice and/or employment either in
government service or in the private sector, in the format to be prescribed by the Board,
indicating the inclusive dates, companies worked for, description of specific
responsibilities, relevant accomplishments and name, position of immediate supervisors
for a period of at least __________ years (inclusive and/or aggregate), at least
___________ years of which are in responsible charge of significant engineering work,
from the date applicant took his/her oath as an Electronics and Communications Engineer
or Electronics Engineer.
A. 10 years; 3 years
B. 7 years; 2 years
C. 5 years; 2 years
D. 10 years; 2 years
21. RA 9292 is a consolidation of House Bill No. __________ and Senate Bill No. _______.
A. 5224; 2683
B. 5447; 458
C. 5734; 109
D. 5533; 4552

22. RA 9292 was finally passed by the House of Representatives and the Senate on
A. February 2, 2004
B. March 2, 2007
C. April 17,2004
D. March 5, 2005
23. RA 9292 was approved on
A. April 17, 2004
B. April 27, 2004
C. March 17, 2005
D. March 27, 2004
24. The effectivity of RA 9292 was on
A. April 17, 2004
B. April 27, 2004
C. May 24, 2004
D. May 28, 2004
25. To qualify in the registration to be PECE, one must provide __________ certification/s
signed by __________ PECEs attesting that the experience record submitted by the
applicant is factual.
A. 1; 3
B. 1; 2
C. 3; 3
D. 2; 2
26. Under the exception proviso stipulated in the particular Section 18, Article III of RA No.
9292 those who have been registered and licensed as Electronics and Communications
Engineer under Republic Act No.5734 for at least __________ years upon the effectivity
of RA No. 9292 are qualified to register as PECE.
A. 5
B. 10
C. 3
D. 7
27. Registration with and without Examination for Electronics Technicians (ECT) will start
within __________ years from the effectivity of RA No. 9292.
A. 5
B. 3
C. 10
D. 7

28. To register for Electronics Technicians (ECT), he/she must have rendered at least
___________ years (inclusive or aggregate) of active self-practice and/ or employment
either in the Government or private sector.
A. 5
B. 3
C. 10
D. 7
29. To register for Electronics Technicians (ECT),one must provide individual certification/s
from at least __________ registered PECEs vouching for the integrity, technical
capability and good moral character of the applicant in a format to be prescribed by the
Board.
A. 5
B. 3
C. 10
D. 7
30. The Board may, __________ years after the revocation of a Certificate of Registration
and Professional Identification Card, upon application of the party concerned and for
reasons deemed proper and sufficient, reinstate the validity of a revoked Certificate of
Registration and Professional Identification Card, subject to compliance with the
applicable requirements of the Commission and the Board.
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
31. Exemptions for examination and registration can be possibly given to
A. A Filipino PECEs, ECEs or ECTs with at least 20 years of experience in the
Philippines
B. A Filipino PECEs, ECEs or ECTs with at least 25 years of experience abroad
C. A foreign national that are PECEs, ECEs or ECTs and equivalent who are
temporarily employed by the Philippine Government or by private firms in the
Philippines
D. A foreign national with at least 20 years of experience in ECE field here in the
Philippines
32. The official seal/logo of the Board which is circular in shape, consisting two concentric
circles, with the outside circle measuring __________ in diameter.
A. 28 mm
B. 45 mm
C. 48 mm
D. 32 mm

33. The official seal/logo of the Board which is circular in shape, consisting two concentric
circles, with the inner circle measuring __________ in diameter.
A. 28 mm
B. 45 mm
C. 48 mm
D. 32 mm
34. In the official seal/logo of the Board, the upper part of the annular space bear the words
A. BOARD OF ELECTRONICS ENGINEERING
B. PROFESSIONAL REGULATION COMMISSION
C. NAME OF THE MEMBER
35. In the official seal/logo of the Board, the lower half part of the annular space bear the
words
A. BOARD OF ELECTRONICS ENGINEERING
B. PROFESSIONAL REGULATION COMMISSION
C. NAME OF THE MEMBER
36. In the official seal/logo of the Board, the inner circle space has the symbol of a/an
A. atom
B. electron
D. computer
37. In the official seal/logo of the Board, the atom symbol contains
A. 1 electron
B. 2 electrons
C. 3 electrons
D. 4 electrons
38. In the official seal/logo of the Board, the atom symbol contains
A. 1 nucleus
B. 2 nuclei
C. 3 nuclei
D. 4 nuclei
39. In the official seal/logo of the Board, the outer and inner ring is filled with
A. grey with boundaries in black color
B. orange with boundaries in navy color
C. white with boundaries in black color
D. yellow with boundaries in black color

40. In the official seal/logo of the Board, the text is
A. black with white background
B. white with black background
C. black with grey background
D. white with grey background
41. in the official seal/logo of the Board, the inner ring is filled with
A. orange background
B. navy blue background
C. black background
D. white background
42. In the official seal/logo of the Board, the atom is colored with ___________ and the
nucleus and electrons in __________ color.
A. Black ; red
B. White; orange
C. White; red
D. Black; orange
43. The seal of Professional Electronics Engineer as provided by Section 29, Article IV of
RA No. 9292 shall be, a dry circular seal consisting of two concentric circles with the
outer circle measuring __________ in diameter.
A. 28 mm
B. 45 mm
C. 48 mm
D. 32 mm
44. The seal of Professional Electronics Engineer as provided by Section 29, Article IV of
RA 9292 shall be, a dry circular seal consisting of two concentric circles with the inner
circle measuring ___________ in diameter.
A. 28 mm
B. 35 mm
C. 48 mm
D. 32 mm
45. The Seal of Professional Electronics Engineer as provided by Section 29, Article IV of
RA 9292 shall be, a dry circular seal containing the appearance of ___________ in the
upper part of the inner circle
A. atom
B. electron
D. computer

46. The Seal of Professional Electronics Engineer as provided by Section 29, Article IV of
RA 9292 shall be, a dry circular seal with a horizontal space bearing the word
A. BOARD OF ELECTRONICS ENGINEERING
B. PROFESSIONAL REGULATION COMMISSION
C. NAME OF THE MEMBER
47. In the Seal of Professional Electronics Engineer, below the words LICENSE NO. is the
B. the word PHILIPPINES
C. name of the person holding the Professional Electronics Engineer license
D. the words PROFESSIONAL ELECTRONICS ENGINEER
48. In the Seal of Professional Electronics Engineer, the portion of the inner circle below the
diametral space shall bear
B. the word PHILIPPINES
C. name of the person holding the Professional Electronics Engineer license
D. the words PROFESSIONAL ELECTRONICS ENGINEER
49. In the Seal of Professional Electronics Engineer, the upper portion of the annular space
bear
B. the word PHILIPPINES
C. name of the person holding the Professional Electronics Engineer license
D. the words PROFESSIONAL ELECTRONICS ENGINEER
50. In the Seal of Professional Electronics Engineer, the lower portion of the annular space
bear
B. the word PHILIPPINES
C. name of the person holding the Professional Electronics Engineer license
D. the words PROFESSIONAL ELECTRONICS ENGINEER

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS IN
LAWS & ETHICS - 3
General Engineering and Applied Sciences
By
Emmylou R. Edulan
Jerick D. Lee
Woodrow B. Pino

ENCODED BY:
1. In KBP radio standards, each station is required to schedule a minimum of __________
of news per day (from 5:00 a.m. to 10:00 p.m.) on Monday-thru-Saturday basis.
A. 30 min.
B. 60 min.
C. 45 min.
D. 75 min.
2. The minimum length/s of a daily radio news can be __________
A. 1 minute
B. 5 minutes
C. 10 minutes or 15 minutes
D. All of the above
3. A distinct unit of a program with minimum news content of one (1) minute excluding
A. Newsbreak
B. Flash report
C. Newscast
D. all of the above
4. A __________ is a person from whom a piece of news originates
A. Primary source
B. Secondary source
C. 1
st
person source
D. 2
nd
person source
5. A __________ is normally a recorded material (print or audio) from which a piece of
news is extracted or attributed to, or may be a person who acts as a conduit.
A. primary source
B. secondary source
C. 1
st
person source
D. 2
nd
person source
6. The cancellation or revocation of accreditation of individual employee, and
recommendation for expulsion from KBP membership and, recommendation to the NTC
for the cancellation of permit to operate the station, for improper placement of
A. first offense
B. third offense
C. second offense
D. fourth offense

7. These are announcements requested by private individuals or groups either through the
KBP or directly with the broadcast station.
A. Public Service Announcements
B. Private Announcements
C. Private Service Announcements
D. Public Announcements
8. All stations shall actively promote the growth and development of Filipino music. Radio
stations are encouraged to schedule _________ OPMs every clockhour.
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
9. The principal source of revenue of the free, competitive system of commercial
B. Donation
C. Fund
D. All of the above
10. A commercial preceding the opening of the program is called
A. cow-catcher
B. hitch-hiker
D. sweeper
11. A commercial following the close of the program is called:
A. cow-catcher
B. hitch-hiker
D. sweeper
12. Commercial load for radio shall not exceed __________ for one hour program in Metro
Manila
A. 15 min
B. 17 min
C. 18 min
D. 20 min
13. A half-hour program shall have a maximum of __________ commercial minutes within
Metro Manila
A. 15
B. 7 minutes and 30 sec
C. 3 minutes and 30 sec
D. 1 minute and 15 sec
14. A quarter-hour program shall not exceed __________ commercial minutes within Metro
Manila
A. 15
B. 7 minutes and 30 sec
C. 3 minutes and 30 sec
D. 1 minute and 15 sec
15. A five-minute program shall have a maximum of __________ commercial minutes
within Metro Manila
A. 15
B. 7 minutes and 30 sec
C. 3 minutes and 30 sec
D. 1 minute and 15 sec
16. Commercial load for radio shall not exceed __________ for one hour program outside
Metro Manila
A. 15 min
B. 17 min
C. 18 min
D. 20 min
17. 17. A half-hour program shall have a maximum of __________ commercial minutes
outside Metro Manila
A. 17
B. 8 min and 30 sec
C. 4 min
D. 1 min and 30 sec
18. A quarter-hour program shall not exceed __________ commercial minutes outside Metro
Manila
A. 17
B. 8 min and 30 sec
C. 4 min
D. 1 min and 30 sec
19. A five-minute program shall have a maximum of __________ commercial minutes
outside Metro Manila
A. 17
B. 8 min and 30 sec
C. 4 min
D. 1 min and 30 sec

20. Program interruption for the airing of commercial in Metro Manila shall not exceed
__________ breaks in every program hour
A. 5
B. 7
C. 6
D. 8
21. Program interruption for the airing of commercial outside Metro Manila shall not exceed
__________ breaks in every program hour
A. 5
B. 7
C. 6
D. 8
22. In international sports events, the commercial load may be increased upon the approval of
the Board of Directors but in no case to exceed __________ commercial minutes per
hour.
A. 20 min
B. 15 min
C. 30 min
D. 25 min
23. Commercial placements of competing products, services or firms in radio standards:
A. shall not be placed within the same cluster
B. can be placed in the same time cluster
C. can be placed in the same time cluster given there is a different product in between
D. A and B
A. Advertising which do not use superlatives, false claims and other misleading
expressions
B. Advertisements without violent scenes or messages which describe or condone these
acts
grammar
D. All of the above
25. Any product and/or service that is sold or a service rendered within a province
A. Local product
B. Local account
C. Local merchandise
D. Local goods

26. The following are considered local accounts except:
A. Bowling Alleys
B. Painting shops
C. Barber shops
D. Drugstores with branches in another radio area or province
27. Within Metro Manila, Class A airtime classification in AM radio is within:
A. 5:00 AM to 9:00 AM / 4:00 PM to 7:00 PM
B. 9:00 AM to 4:00 PM / 7:00 PM to 9:00 PM
C. 9:00 PM to 12 midnight
D. 12:00 midnight to 5:00 AM
28. Within Metro Manila, Class B airtime classification in AM radio is within:
A. 5:00 AM to 9:00 AM / 4:00 PM to 7:00 PM
B. 9:00 AM to 4:00 PM / 7:00 PM to 9:00 PM
C. 9:00 PM to 12 midnight
D. 12:00 midnight to 5:00 AM
29. Within Metro Manila, Class C airtime classification in AM radio is within:
A. 5:00 AM to 9:00 AM / 4:00 PM to 7:00 PM
B. 9:00 AM to 4:00 PM / 7:00 PM to 9:00 PM
C. 9:00 PM to 12 midnight
D. 12:00 midnight to 5:00 AM
30. Within Metro Manila, Class D airtime classification in AM radio is within:
A. 5:00 AM to 9:00 AM / 4:00 PM to 7:00 PM
B. 9:00 AM to 4:00 PM / 7:00 PM to 9:00 PM
C. 9:00 PM to 12 midnight
D. 12:00 midnight to 5:00 AM
31. Within Metro Manila, Class A airtime classification in FM radio is within:
A. 6:00 AM to 8:00 PM
B. 5:00 AM to 6:00 AM / 8:00 PM to 9:00 PM
C. 9:00 PM to 12 midnight
D. 12 midnight to 5:00 AM
32. Within Metro Manila, Class B airtime classification in FM radio is within:
A. 6:00 AM to 8:00 PM
B. 5:00 AM to 6:00 AM / 8:00 PM to 9:00 PM
C. 9:00 PM to 12 midnight
D. 12:00 midnight to 5:00 AM
33. Within Metro Manila, Class C airtime classification in FM radio is within:
A. 6:00 AM to 8:00 PM
B. 5:00 AM to 6:00 AM / 8:00 PM to 9:00 PM
C. 9:00 PM to 12 midnight
D. 12:00 midnight to 5:00 AM
34. Within Metro Manila, Class D airtime classification in FM radio is within:
A. 6:00 AM to 8:00 PM
B. 5:00 AM to 6:00 AM / 8:00 PM to 9:00 PM
C. 9:00 PM to 12 midnight
D. 12:00 midnight to 5:00 AM
35. Outside Metro Manila, Class A airtime classification in AM radio is within:
A. 5:00 AM to 9:00 AM
B. 12 noon to 2:00 PM
C. 4:00 PM to 7:00 PM
D. all of the above
36. Outside Metro Manila, Class B airtime classification in AM radio is within:
A. 9:00 AM to 12 noon
B. 7:00 PM to 9:00 PM
C. 2:00 PM to 4:00 PM
D. All of the above
37. In Metro Manila, AM radio prime time is the time
A. 5:00 AM to 9:00 AM / 4:00 PM to 8:00 PM
B. 6:00 AM to 8:00 PM
C. 4:00 PM to 7:00 PM
D. 6:00 AM to 8:00 PM
38. In Metro Manila, FM radio prime time is the time
A. 5:00 AM to 9:00 AM / 4:00 PM to 8:00 PM
B. 6:00 AM to 8:00 PM
C. 4:00 PM to 7:00 PM
D. 6:00 AM to 8:00 PM
39. For provincial stations, AM radio prime time is the time
A. 5:00 AM to 9:00 AM
B. 4:00 PM to 7:00 PM
C. 12 noon to 2:00 PM
D. all of the above
40. For provincial stations, AM radio prime time is the time
A. 5:00 AM to 9:00 AM / 4:00 PM to 8:00 PM
B. 6:00 AM to 8:00 PM
C. 4:00 PM to 7:00 PM
D. 6:00 AM to 8:00 PM
41. For provincial stations, FM radio prime time is the time
A. 5:00 AM to 9:00 AM / 4:00 PM to 8:00 PM
B. 6:00 AM to 8:00 PM
C. 4:00 PM to 7:00 PM
D. 6:00 AM to 8:00 PM
42. It is required that during prime time only __________ hours of the airtime SHALL be
allowed for block time programs under station responsibility and supervision.
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
43. In TV standards, every station shall schedule at least a minimum of _________ newscast
(aggregate total including advisories) per day from Monday to Friday.
A. 30 min
B. 60 min
C. 45 min
D. 75 min
44. Text crawls, either electronic or manual, shall not be used for any other purpose like:
A. news bulletins
B. last minute program changes
C. advisories in the public interest
45. Commercial load for television in Metro Manila shall not exceed __________ minutes
per hour in foreign or local programs, inclusive of breakspots.
A. 15
B. 18
C. 17
D. 20

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS IN
ELECTRONICS SYSTEMS
AND TECHNOLOGIES
By
Melvin C. Arceo

ENCODED BY:
GARCIA, Virginia Nonna H.
GIRAO, Edward Joseph D.
LAQUI, Louise Ruelyn J.
LORENZO, Luer Breech B.
RIVERA, Billy Joe S.
SANTOLLO, Dan Alvin

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS IN
ENGINEERING
Electronics Systems and Technologies
By
Melvin C. Arceo

ENCODED BY:
1. In stereophonic broadcast, the center frequency of each SCA subcarrier shall be kept at
all times within ____ Hz of the authorized frequency.

A. 200
B. 300
C. 400
D. 500

2. Sawtooth generator circuits produce the scanning raster, but the sync pulses are needed
for

A. Linearity
B. Timing
C. Keystoning
D. Line pairing

3. Which of the following camera tubes has minimum lag?

A. Vidicon
B. Plumbicon
C. Saticon
D. Iconoscope

4. The service area in standard AM broadcast is described as ____ if there is no fading
signal.

A. Class A
B. Secondary
C. Class B
D. Primary

5. The vertical field-scanning frequency is _____ Hz.

A. 30
B. 60
C. 525
D. 15,750

6. A 4.5-MHz signal which is equal to the difference between the picture and sound RF
carrier frequencies in a 6-MHz TV channel.

A. Audio frequency
B. Video frequency
C. Intercarrier frequency
D. Subcarrier frequency

7. A system where the modulated RF picture and sound carrier signals are distributed in a
cable network, instead of wireless system.

A. CCTV
B. MATV
C. CATV
D. SATV

8. A class A FM station is limited in antenna height of _____ feet above average terrain.

A. 1000
B. 2000
C. 4000
D. 5000

9. What circuit in the TV receiver is used to develop the high voltage needed to operate the
picture tube?

A. Low-voltage power supply
B. Horizontal output
C. Vertical output
D. Sync separator

10. The modulated picture carrier wave includes the composite video signal as the

A. Average carrier level
B. Symmetric envelope of amplitude variations
C. Lower sideband without the upper sideband
D. Upper envelope without the lower envelope

11. With which emission type is the capture-effect more pronounced?

A. CW
B. FM
C. SSB
D. AM

12. The hue of color sync phase is

A. Red
B. Cyan
C. Blue
D. Yellow-green

13. How much is the equivalent internal resistance of the electron beam with a 1.2-mA beam
current at 25 kV?

A. 48 nano ohms
B. 30 ohms
C. 20.8 mega ohms
D. 15.6 kilo ohms

14. The difference between the picture and sound carrier frequencies for channel 3 is ____
MHz.

A. 3.58
B. 64.5
C. 4.5
D. 6.75

15. Refers to the deviation of the operating frequency of a crystal oscillator from its nominal
value due to temperature variations.

A. Drift
B. Flashover
C. Frequency deviation
D. Deviation ratio

16. It is the measure of how many picture elements can be reproduced

A. Definition
B. Resolution
C. Detail
D. Any of these

17. A 3.58-MHz subcarrier signal for color in television

A. Hue signal
B. Video signal
C. Audio signal
D. Chroma signal

18. A class D FM station shall have an authorized power not exceeding _____ watts.

A. 20
B. 15
C. 10
D. 5

19. Which of the following is not a benefit of cable TV?

A. Lower-cost reception
B. Greater stability
C. Less noise, stronger signal

20. The width of the vertical sync pulse in the Philippine TV system is

A. 21H
B. 3H
C. H
D. 0.5H

21. Term in communication which is referred, to send out in all direction

A. Announce
C. Transmit
D. Media

22. The number of frames per second in the Philippine TV system is

A. 60
B. 262
C. 4.5
D. 30

23. It means multiple outlines of edges to the right in the picture.

A. Ghosting
B. Ringing
D. Snowing

24. In the sawtooth waveform for linear scanning,

A. The linear rise is for flyback
B. The complete cycle includes trace and retrace
C. The sharp reversal in amplitude produces trace
D. The beam moves faster during trace and retrace

25. The purpose of pre-emphasis and de-emphasis in FM broadcasting is to :

A. Increase the high frequency amplitude
B. Improve the audio harmonic
C. Decrease the low frequency amplitude
D. Improve the S/N ratio

26. The part of the visible spectrum where camera pickup tubes have the greatest output is

A. Red
B. Blue
C. Yellow-green
D. Infrared

27. The type of modulation of the sound carrier signal is ________.

A. Pulse modulation
B. Phase modulation
C. Amplitude modulation
D. Frequency modulation

28. A video or audio signal that can be used directly to reproduce the picture and sound.

A. Baseband signal
C. Electromagnetic wave signal
D. Modulated signal

29. Class B FM station should have an ERP not exceeding ____ kW.

A. 50
B. 40
C. 30
D. 20

30. What technique is used to permit hundreds of TV signals to share a common cable?

A. Frequency modulation
B. Mixing
C. Frequency division multiplexing
D. Time division multiplexing

31. Another name for the horizontal retrace in a TV receiver is the

A. Ringing
B. Burst
C. Damper
D. Flyback

32. In the Philippine color television system, the intercarrier frequency, in MHz, is

A. 3.58
B. 3.579545
C. 4.5
D. 45.75

33. In channel 14 (470 to 476 MHz), the 3.58-MHz color signal is transmitted at

A. 471.25 MHz
B. 473.25 MHz
C. 474.83 MHz
D. 475.25 MHz

34. Interfaced scanning eliminates

A. Snowing
B. Flicker
C. Distortion

35. Beam alignment magnets for the camera tube are adjusted while rocking which control?

A. Optical focus
B. Electrical focus
C. Beam current

36. What is the frequency discriminator?

A. An FM generator
B. A circuit for detecting FM
C. A circuit for filtering two closely adjacent signals
D. An automatic bandwidth circuit

37. A system used in television field operation to make on the spot video tape recordings
using portable TV cameras and VTRs.

A. SNG
B. ENG
C. HAFC
D. MATV

38. Class B FM station shall have an authorized transmitter power not exceeding ______ kW.

A. 10
B. 100
C. 1000
D. 10000

39. The total bandwidth of an NTSC TV signal is

A. 3.58 MHz
B. 4.5 MHz
C. 6 MHz
D. 10.7 MHz

40. Referred to the oscillator signal leak through from a property neutralized amplifier such
as a master oscillator power amplifier.

A. Carrier
B. Stray signal
C. Back wave
D. Loss wave

41. Interfacing is used in television to

A. Produce the illusion of motion
B. Ensure that all lines on the screen are scanned, not merely the alternate ones
C. Simplify the vertical sync pulse train
D. Avoid flicker

42. Coaxial cable for distribution system has an impedance of

A. 50 ohms
B. 75 ohms
C. 150 ohms
D. 300 ohms

43. The average voltage value of the 3.58-MHz modulated chrominance signal is

A. Zero for most colors
B. Close to black for yellow
C. The brightness of the color
D. The saturation of the color

44. When does broadcast station conduct an equipment test?

A. During day time
B. During night time
C. During experimental period
D. At any time

45. It causes the picture information to spread out or crowded at one end of the raster
compared to the opposite end.

A. Linear scanning
B. Interfaced scanning
C. Non-linear scanning
D. Retrace

46. If the camera cannot be placed far away enough to include everything in the scene,
change the lens to one with a

A. Lower f rating
B. Higher f rating
C. Longer focal length
D. Shorter focal length

47. Type of radio communication transmission utilizing frequency modulation technique

A. Television video
C. Single sideband HF transmission
D. Television audio

48. The amount of color in the picture or color intensity is the ______.

A. Color level
B. Chroma level
C. Saturation
D. Any of these

49. One of the early radio transmitters which produced keyed carrier generating purer
waveform than spark transmitter, used for high powered RF transmission and are limited

A. Arc transmitter
B. Hartley transmitter
C. Spark transmitter
D. Frequency transmitter

50. A technique where segments of videotape are joined by electronic erasing and recording
to create a single program.

B. Segmenting
C. Editing
D. Programming

51. A class C FM station has an authorized radiated power not exceeding ____watts of ERP.

A. 500
B. 750
C. 1000
D. 2000

52. The assembly around the neck of a picture tube that produces the magnetic fields that
deflect and scan the electron beams is called the

B. Phosphor
C. Electron gun
D. Yoke

53. An odd number of lines per frame forms part of every one of the worlds TV systems.
This is

A. Done to assist interlace
B. Purely an accident
C. To ensure that line and frame frequencies can be obtained from the same original
source
D. Done to minimize interference with the chroma subcarrier

54. The difference between the sound carrier and the color signal is

A. 4.5 MHz
B. 1.25 MHz
C. 0.92 MHz
D. 0.25 MHz

55. In color television, it is made for uniform color in the raster.

B. Degaussing
D. Background control

56. Which of the following camera tubes uses load oxide for the photoconductive target
plate?

A. Vidicon
B. Plumbicon
C. Saticon
D. Image orthicon

57. The number of fields is _____ per frame.

A. 2
B. 60
C. 525
D. 262

58. An RF carrier wave that is frequency-modulated by the baseband audio signal in TV

A. Audio signal
B. Video Signal
C. Intercarrier signal
D. Color signal

59. A class B FM station is limited in antenna height of _____ feet.

A. 1000
B. 500
C. 250
D. 100

60. The HV anode supply for the picture tube of a TV receiver is generated in the

A. Mains transformer
B. Vertical output stage
C. Horizontal output stage
D. Horizontal deflection oscillator

61. A tap for the subscriber drop line has a

A. High insertion loss
B. High tap loss
C. Low tap loss
D. 300-ohm

62. Which system can be used for both recording and playback?

A. CED
B. VHD
C. Laser disk
D. VHS

63. The hue 180 degrees out of phase with red is

A. Cyan
B. Yellow
C. Green
D. Blue

64. It is used around the phosphor dots to make a darker black which improves contrast in the
picture.

65. A lens lower f rating is ____ lens that allows more light input.

A. Slower
B. Wider
C. Narrower
D. Faster

66. Picture frames are repeated at the rate of ____ per second.

A. 30
B. 60
C. 45
D. 50

67. The effective radiated power of a class A FM station should not exceed _____ kW.

A. 125
B. 30
C. 10
D. 1

68. In television, 4:3 represents the

A. Interface ratio
B. Maximum horizontal deflection
C. Aspect ratio
D. Ratio of the two diagonals

69. Titling the video head gaps is necessary with the

A. Color-under
B. Zero guard bands
C. FM luminance signal
D. Long-play tapes

70. It is a special camera tube with a test pattern in the image plate.

A. Vidicon
B. Monoscope
C. Oscilloscope
D. Iconoscope

71. The number of lines scanned per frame in the raster on the picture tube screen is

A. 525
B. 262
C. 20
D. 10

72. One of the following is a high powered RF ac basic transmitter that has two or more
stages, the oscillator stage which determines the frequency of operation and RF amplifier
stage or stages that develop the high power output. The purpose of which is to develop a
good frequency stability.

A. MOPA
B. Hartley
C. Alexanderson
D. Goldsmith

73. Camera signal output without sync is called ______.

A. Black burst
B. Generator lock video
C. Composite video
D. Non-composite video

74. The tint of the color is its

A. Brightness
B. Contrast
C. Chroma
D. Hue

A. HF
B. UHF
C. MF
D. VHF

76. The I and Q composite color signals are multiplexed onto the picture carrier by
modulating a 3.58 MHz subcarrier using

A. FM
B. PM
C. DSB AM
D. Vestigial sideband AM

77. The shadow mask in a color picture tube is used to

A. Reduce X-ray emission
B. Ensure that each beam hits only its own dots
C. Increase screen brightness
D. Provide degaussing for the screen

78. The video heads rotate at high velocity to increase the

A. Tape speed
B. Writing speed
C. Reel rotation
D. Tape tension

79. How ho you eliminate radio frequency variation of an oscillator transmitter caused by its
supply voltage?

A. Use of regulated power supply
B. Use of new power supply
C. Use of high capacitor in the supply circuit
D. Loosen power supply shielding

80. The composite video signal includes the camera signal with the following except

A. Picture information
B. Sync pulses
C. Blanking pulses
D. Camera signal

81. A lens has an 8-cm focal length and 4-cm diameter. Its f rating is

A. 2
B. 4
C. 8
D. 32

82. Which of the following is a possible cause for an abrupt frequency variation in a self-
excited transmitter oscillator circuits resulting a poor frequency stability to hold a
constant frequency oscillation?

A. DC and RF AC heating of resistor which cause a change in values
B. Heating and expansion of oscillator coil
C. Heating of capacitor in the oscillator
D. Power supply voltage changes

83. How long does it take to scan 2 picture elements when 400 are scanned in 50
microseconds?

A. 25 microsec
B. 0.25 microsec
C. 2.5 microsec
D. 0.5 microsec

84. Anode voltage for the picture tube, developed from the output of the horizontal deflection
circuit.

A. Yoke voltage
B. Flyback voltage
D. Tube voltage

85. The channel spacing in the Philippine FM broadcast standards

A. 400 kHz
B. 800 kHz
C. 600 kHz
D. 200 kHz

86. What is the black-and-white or monochrome brightness signal in TV called?

A. RGB
B. Color subcarrier
C. Q and I
D. Luminance Y

87. Which of the following is a midband cable TV channel?

A. 6
B. 7
C. 14
D. 23

88. What is the primary purpose of an RF amplifier in a receiver?

A. To vary the receiver image rejection by utilizing the AGC
B. To provide most of the receiver gain
C. To develop the AGC voltage
D. To improve the receivers noise figure

89. The color with the most luminance is

A. Red
B. Yellow
C. Green
D. Blue

90. It is the light flux intercepted by one-foot-square surface that is one foot from one-
candlepower source.

A. Candela
B. Footcandle
C. Lux
D. Lumens

91. Refers to the possible cause for an abrupt frequency variations in a self-excited
transmitter oscillator circuit resulting to a poor frequency stability to hold a constant
oscillator.

A. Poor soldered connections
B. Heating of capacitor in the oscillator
C. DC and AC heating of resistors which cause change in values
D. Aging which cause change in condition in parts characteristics

92. It is the difference in intensity between the black parts and white parts of the picture.

A. Brightness
B. Hue
C. Contrast
D. Illumination

93. The stereophonic subcarrier suppression level in the Philippines standards

A. Less than 4% modulation of the main carrier
B. Less than 3% modulation of the main carrier
C. Less than 2% modulation of the main carrier
D. Less than 1% modulation of the main carrier

94. The sound IF in a TV receiver is

A. 4.5 MHz
B. 10.7 MHz
C. 41.25 MHz
D. 45.75 MHz

95. The circuit separates sync pulse from the composite video waveform is

A. The keyed AGC amplifier
B. A clipper
C. An integrator
D. A differentiator

96. In the CED system, the disk capacitance varies with the

A. Pit depth
B. Disk size
C. Speed of rotation
D. Wavelength of the scanning light

97. The final power amplifier in an FM transmitter usually operates class _____

A. AB
B. C
C. B
D. A

98. In a picture tube, it is the total angle that the beam can be deflected without touching the
sides of the envelope.

A. Screen angle
B. Tube angle
C. Picture angle
D. Deflection angle

99. It is necessary to time the scanning with respect to picture information.

A. Flyback
B. Synchronization
C. Blanking
D. Scanning

100. The intermediate frequency used in for FM broadcasting Philippine standards.

A. 455 kHz
B. 10.7 MHz
C. 11.4 MHz
D. 12.5 MHz

101. What is the horizontal scanning time for 20 pixels?

A. 2.5 microsec
B. 0.25 microsec
C. 1.25 microsec
D. 125 microsec

102. In basic radio transmitter, the main advantage of a single-tube transmitter is

A. Frequency instability
B. Non-portable
C. Heating effect
D. Bulky

103. The carrier transmitted 1.25 MHz above the bottom frequency in a Philippine TV
channel is the

A. Sound carrier
B. Chroma carrier
C. Intercarrier
D. Picture carrier

104. In camera tubes, it means that the old image remains too long after the picture
information on the target plate has changed.

A. Light lag
B. Switch lag
C. Image lag
D. Camera lag

105. What is the maximum color TV bandwidth?

A. 1.6 MHz
B. 0.5 MHz
C. 1.0 MHz
D. 1.3 MHz

106. Class of FM station where its authorized power should not exceed 15 kW.

A. Class A
B. Class B
C. Class C
D. Class D

107. What is the name of the solid state imaging device used in TV cameras that
converts the light in a scene into an electrical signal?

A. CCD
B. Phototube matrix
C. Vidicon
D. MOSFET array

108. The signals sent by the transmitter to ensure correct scanning in the receiver is
called

A. Sync
B. Chroma
C. Luminance
D. Video

109. What signals are transmitted by a SSBSC transmitter when no modulating signal
is present?

A. The upper sideband only
B. Both the upper and lower sideband
C. The lower sideband
D. No signal transmitted

110. The second IF value for color in receivers, for any station, is

A. 0.5 MHz
B. 1.3 MHz
C. 3.58 MHz
D. 4.5 MHz

111. In the frame for which interfaced scanning is used, alternate lines are skipped
during vertical scanning because

A. The trace is slower than retrace
B. The vertical scanning frequency is doubled from 30 to 60 Hz
C. The horizontal scanning is slower than vertical scanning
D. The frame has a 4:3 aspect ratio

112. A typical value of vidicon dark current is

A. 0.2 microampere
C. 8 milliampere
D. 800 milliampere

113. The smallest are of light or shade in the image is a picture element called

A. Chroma
B. Hue
C. Contrast
D. Pixel

114. An entry of the time the station begins to supply power to the antenna and the
time it stops.

A. Operating log entries
B. Program log entries
C. Operating schedule
D. Any of these

115. What type of circuit is used to modulate and demodulate the color signals?

A. Phase-locked loop
B. Differential peak detector
D. Balanced modulator

116. This is referred to as a fixed radio station that broadcast program material from

A. Aural BC intercity relay
C. Short wave station
D. Remove pick-up

117. Indicate which of the following frequencies will not be found in the output of a

A. 4.5 MHz
B. 41.25 MHz
C. 45.75 MHz
D. 42.17 MHz

118. In all standard television broadcast channels , the difference between the picture
and sound carrier frequencies is

A. 0.25 MHz
B. 1.25 MHz
C. 4.5 MHz
D. 6 MHz

119. It is caused by phase distortion for video frequencies of about 100 kHz and lower.

A. Streaking
B. Snowing
C. Ringing

120. Special effects and production switching are done by the

A. CCU
B. ENG camera
C. SEG
D. Sync generator

121. A picture has 400 horizontal and 300 vertical picture elements. What is the total
number of details in the picture?

A. 120,000
B. 700
C. 0.75
D. 100

122. After the IF stages have been aligned, the next stage to align in FM receiver is

A. Local oscillator
B. Limiter stage
C. RF amplifier
D. Mixer stage

123. What ensures proper color synchronization at the receiver?

A. Sync pulses
C. 4.5-MHz intercarrier sound
D. 3.58-MHz color burst

124. The interfering beat frequency of 920 kHz is between the 3.58-MHz color
subcarrier and the

A. 4.5-MHz intercarrier sound
B. Picture carrier

125. Light is converted to video signal by the _____ tube.

A. Camera tube
B. Picture tube
C. Anode tube
D. Cathode tube

126. The frequency spectrum of the stereophonic FM signal.

A. 67 kHz
B. 59.5 to 74.5 kHz
C. 19 to 38 kHz
D. 30 to 53 kHz

127. Equalizing pulses in TV are sent during

A. Horizontal blanking
B. Vertical blanking
C. The serrations
D. The horizontal retrace

128. Which signal has color information for 1.3 MHz bandwidth?

A. I
B. Y
C. R-Y
D. B-Y

129. It is the distance from the center of the lens of the camera to the point at which
parallel rays from a distant object come to a common focal point.

A. Focal length
B. Latus rectum
C. Major axis
D. Minor axis

130. The method of generating FM used by broadcast station is

A. Direct
B. Indirect
C. Insertion
D. All of these

131. The picture and sound carrier frequencies in a TV receiver IF are respectively.

A. 41.25 and 45.75 MHz
B. 45.75 and 41.25 MHz
C. 41.75 and 45.25 MHz
D. 45.25 and 41.75 MHz

132. The channel width in the Philippine TV system, in MHz, is

A. 41.25
B. 6
C. 4.5
D. 3.58

133. The cable converter output or the TV receiver is usually on channel

A. 3
B. 6
C. 7
D. 9

134. One-half line spacing between the start positions for scanning even and odd fields
produces

A. Linear scanning
B. Line pairing
C. Fishtailing
D. Exact interlacing

135. Precise scanning size and linearity are most important in

A. A black-and-white camera
B. Plumbicon
C. A single-tube color pickup
D. A saticon

136. A signal in which the sum of all signals which frequency-modulates the main
carrier.

A. Composite baseband signal
B. FM baseband
C. Main channel signal
D. Stereophonic signal

137. What is the total number of interlaced scan lines in one complete frame of a
NTSC Philippine TV signal?

A. 262
B. 525
C. 480
D. 625

138. The video voltage applied to the picture tube of a television receiver is fed in

A. Between grid and ground
B. To the yoke
C. To the anode
D. Between the grid and cathode

139. How many dBmV units correspond to a 1-mV signal level?

A. 0
B. 1
C. 3
D. 6

140. In color television, it is made to maintain neutral white from low to high levels of
brightness.

141. Average power of a radio transmitter supplied to the antenna transmission line by
a transmitter during one radio frequency cycle taken under the condition or no
modulation.

A. Peak envelope power
B. Rated power
C. Carrier power
D. Mean power

142. The number of scanning lines is ____ per second.

A. 525
B. 262
C. 15,750
D. 30

143. The ratio of the actual frequency swing to the frequency swing defined as 100
percent modulation, expressed in percentage.

A. Modulation index
B. Deviation ration
C. Maximum deviation
D. Percentage modulation

144. In a TV receiver, the color killer

A. Cuts off the chroma stages during monochrome reception
B. Ensures that no color is transmitted to monochrome receivers
C. Prevents color coding
D. Make sure that the color burst is not mistaken for sync pulses, by cutting off reception
during the back porch.

145. How many TV fields are recorded on one slant track of tape?

A. 1
B. 2
C. 4
D. 60

146. A communication circuit using class C amplifier is considered a narrow band
amplifier if the bandwidth is less than _____ % of its resonant frequency.

A. 15
B. 13
C. 10
D. 20

147. The width of a vertical sync pulse with its serrations includes the time of

A. Six half-lines, or three lines
B. Five lines
C. Three half-lines
D. Five half-lines

148. A low-contrast picture in which white seems flat and lacking in detail suggests

A. Low beam current
B. High gain in the pre-amplifier
C. Excessive gamma
D. Insufficient scanning width

149. The product of the transmitter power multiplied by the antenna power gain of the
antenna field gain squared.

A. Field intensity
B. Field gain
C. ERP
D. Electric field strength

150. What keeps the scanning process at the receiver in step with the scanning in the

A. Nothing
B. Sync pulses
C. Color burst
D. Deflection oscillators

151. The number of lines per second in the TV system is

A. 31,500
B. 15,700
C. 262
D. 525

152. In a basic transmitter, ________is a kind of transmitter that develops type B
emission.

A. Arc
B. Spark
C. Alexanderson
D. High end

153. It is a number that indicates how contrast is expanded or compressed.

A. Alpha
B. Beta
C. Gamma
D. Sigma

154. Color picture tubes have ______ guns for its phosphors.

A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4

155. The FM broadcast band is divided into _____ channels are suggested by KBP.

A. 200
B. 100
C. 50
D. 25

156. The output of the vertical amplifier, applied to the yoke in a TV receiver, consists
of

A. Direct current
B. Amplified vertical sync pulse
C. A sawtooth voltage
D. A sawtooth current

157. The frequency spectrum of the stereophonic FM signal.

A. 67 kHz
B. 59.5 kHz to 74.5 kHz
C. 19 kHz to 38 kHz
D. 30 kHz to 53 kHz

158. What is the video frequency response corresponding to the horizontal resolution
of 200 lines?

A. 4 MHz
B. 1.5 MHz
C. 4.5 MHz
D. 2.5 MHz

159. The gamma of the picture tube is

A. 0.4545
B. 1.0
C. 1.4
D. 2.2

160. It is the instantaneous departure of the frequency of the emitted wave from the
center frequency resulting from modulation.

A. Deviation
B. Frequency swing
C. Phase shift
D. Deviation ratio

161. If a TV sound transmitter has a carrier frequency of 197.75 MHz, the picture
carrier is

A. 191.75 MHz
B. 193.25 MHz
C. 202.25 MHz
D. 203.75 MHz

162. The number of lines per field in the Philippine TV system is

A. 262
B. 525
C. 30
D. 60

163. What is the best site of an AM broadcast transmitter?

A. Marshy land
B. Dry land
C. Highly elevated
D. Average terrain

164. What is the hue of a color 90 degrees leading sync burst phase?

A. Yellow
B. Cyan
C. Blue
D. Orange

165. The two black conductive coatings of picture tubes are made up of

A. Phosphor
C. Cavity
D. Nickel

166. The maximum power allocation of AM transmitter in Metro Manila in kW is

A. 10 kW
B. 20 kW
C. 40 kW
D. 30 kW

167. The function of the serrations in the composite video waveforms is to

A. Equalize the change in the integrator before the start of vertical retrace
B. Help vertical synchronization
C. Help horizontal synchronization
D. Simplify the generation of the vertical sync pulse

168. Which system uses a light beam for playback?

A. CED
B. VHD
C. Betamax
D. VLP

169. Weak emission from one cathode in a tricolor picture tube causes

A. A weak picture
B. A long warmup time
C. A color imbalance in the raster and picture
D. All of these

170. In AM broadcast, the current carrier shift at any percentage of modulation shall
not exceed

A. 5%
B. 15%
C. 20%
D. 2.5%

171. Indicate which voltages are not found in the output of a normal monochrome

A. Sync
B. Video
C. Sweep
D. Sound

172. The sawtooth waveform for deflection provides _______.

A. Horizontal deflection
B. Distortions
C. Linear scanning
D. Flicker

173. In AM broadcast, the transmitter must be capable of maintaining the operating
frequency within the limits of ______.

A. +/- 10 Hz
B. +/- 20 Hz
C. +/- 25 Hz
D. +/- 75 Hz

174. How much illumination in lux a 400-candlepower make that is 3 meters from the
surface?

A. 133.3
B. 1200
C. 200
D. 44.4

175. Brightness variations of the picture information are in which signal?

A. I
B. Q
C. Y
D. R-Y

176. How many octaves is the frequency range of 1 to 8 MHz?

A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 8

177. For television, the maximum deviation of the FM sound signal in kHz.

A. 10
B. 25
C. 75
D. 100

178. Indicate which of the following signals is not transmitted in color TV

A. Y
B. Q
C. R
D. I

179. Emission outside of the assigned channel, as a result of the modulation process.

A. Overmodulation
B. Spurious emission
C. Out-of-band emission
D. In band emission

180. Determine which of the following is not part of RF section of a radio transmitter.

A. Master oscillator
B. Buffer amplifier
C. AF voltage amplifier
D. Frequency amplifier

181. The power of any conducted spurious emission shall be attenuated below the
maximum level of carrier frequency in accordance with the following formula:

A. Attenuation (dB) = 43 + 20 log P
B. Attenuation (dB) = 43 + log P
C. Attenuation (dB) = 43 + 10 log P
D. Attenuation (dB) = 43 + log P/10

182. In television, gamma affects _____

A. Color
B. Contrast
C. Brightness
D. Hue

183. In the IRE scale for the composite video signal, what is the number of IRE units
for sync?

A. 7.5
B. 92.5
C. 40
D. 10

184. As prescribed by the technical standards for Cable Television operation and in
order to be compatible for any value added services in the future, Trunk cable should
have a minimum diameter of _______.

A. 0.25 inch
B. 0.5 inch
C. 0.75 inch
D. 1.0 inch

185. Compared with 100 percent saturation, the desaturated color have

A. More luminance for the Y signal
B. Less luminance for the Y signal
C. More chrominance for the C signal
D. Less hue for the C signal

186. What is the practical baseband frequency for the color video signal?

A. 1 MHz
B. 2 MHz
C. 0.2 MHz
D. 0.5 MHz

187. What is the diagonal screen size for the 19CP4 picture tube?

A. 21
B. 23
C. 4
D. 19

188. What is the phase angle between B Y and R Y?

A. 180 deg
B. 45 deg
C. 90 deg
D. 270 deg

189. How many gray scale steps are in the EIA test pattern in television?

A. 10
B. 40
C. 50
D. 15

190. In TV, degaussing is done with _____.

A. Direct current
B. Pulsed current
C. Alternating current
D. Any of these

191. R, G and B video drive controls set for ________.

A. Black
B. Dark gray
C. White
D. Light gray

192. What is the phase difference between the color sync burst and the B Y video?

A. 180 deg
B. 45 deg
C. 90 deg
D. 270 deg

193. What is the hue of the color sync burst?

A. Yellow-green
B. Red
C. Blue
D. Orange

194. What synchronizes the horizontal of the TV picture tube?

A. HSC
B. HAFC
C. HFC
D. HAC

195. What is the typical anode voltage for a 25-inch color picture tube?

A. 3 kV
B. 20 kV
C. 10 kV
D. 30 kV

196. In television, what is the phosphor number for monochrome picture tube?

A. P4
B. P21
C. P22
D. P3

197. In television picture tube, what is the color of the P1 phosphor?

A. Red
B. Green
C. Yellow
D. Blue

198. What video frequency corresponds to 240 lines of horizontal resolution?

A. 1 MHz
B. 3 MHz
C. 2 MHz
D. 4 MHz

199. The minimum FM broadcast transmitter power in metro manila and metro cebu is

A. 25 kW
B. 10 kW
C. 1 kW
D. 30 kW

200. The maximum power suggested by KBP on 919-1312 AM broadcast station in
Metro Manila.

A. 10 kW
B. 20 kW
C. 15 kW
D. 5 kW

201. What are the frequency limits of the standard AM broadcast band?

A. 565 to 1605 kHz
B. 535 to 1605 kHz
C. 575 to 1615 kHz
D. 535 to 1615 kHz

202. What is the width of an AM broadcast channel?

A. 30 kHz
B. 25 kHz
C. 15 kHz
D. 200 kHz

203. The following are designations of service areas of AM broadcast station, except:

A. Primary
B. Secondary
C. Tertiary
D. Intermittent

204. The following are parts of the AM broadcast day, except:

A. Daytime
B. Night time
C. Mid-day
D. Experimental period

205. Why is it desirable to have broadcast antennas on marshy land?

A. For better reflection
C. For greater absorption
D. For sky wave propagation

206. What is another name for a console pot?

A. Attenuator
B. Gain control
D. Any of these

207. The highest peaks of modulation in AM should be held between what two
percentages?

A. 85-100%
B. 65-70%
C. 50-75%
D. 75-90%

208. What is the name of the second transmitter used when a station operates 24 hours
a day?

A. Alternate
B. Reserve
C. Spare
D. Diversity

209. What is a combo operator?

A. Announcer
B. Disk jockey
C. Engineer
D. All of these

210. What term is used to indicate intercom operation in a broadcast station?

A. Communication
B. Talk-back
C. Respond
D. Remote talk

211. What does a red light glowing in a studio indicate?

A. Off the air
B. Floating
C. Experimental
D. On the air

212. What is the attenuator which controls the the output of the program amplifier
called?

A. Master gain control
B. Auxiliary gain control
C. Reserve frequency control
D. Auxiliary frequency control

213. The following are important operational requirements during a broadcast, except:

A. Timing
B. Modulation
C. Fidelity
D. AF amplitude
214. What are the names of two unbalanced pads used in broadcasting?

A. T and L
B. K and P
C. R and I
D. H and L

215. What is the advantage of using balanced lines in audio systems?

B. Improve fidelity
C. Reduce noise pickup
D. Improve carrier level

A. Better energy conversion
B. Better attenuation
C. Match impedance better
D. Any of these

217. What device is used to make up for the high-frequency losses in long AF lines?

A. Signal booster
B. Noise suppressor
C. Line equalizer
D. Compander

218. What is another term meaning operating power

B. Sideband power
C. Audio power
D. Harmonic power

219. What does maximum rated carrier power referred to?

A. Buffer amplifier power rating
B. Intermediate amplifier power rating
C. Speech amplifier power rating
D. Final-amplifier power rating

220. When are equipment tests made?

A. Mid-day
B. Daytime
C. Night time
D. Experimental period

221. What is the maximum allowable distortion at 80% modulation?

A. 3%
B. 4%
C. 5%
D. 6%

A. Omnidirectional antennas
B. Directive antennas
C. High gain antennas
D. Any of these

223. Within what limits must the antenna current ratios of a directional antenna be
held?

A. 3%
B. 5%
C. 4%
D. 1%

224. What monitor is required at the operating position in a broadcast station?

A. Frequency
B. Modulation
C. Fidelity
D. Carrier

225. What monitor may also give an indication of carrier amplitude regulation?

A. Modulation
B. Carrier
C. Fidelity
D. Frequency

226. What device can give the most accurate instantaneous peak-of-modulation
indications?

A. Spectrum analyzer
B. Fourier analyzer
C. CRT oscilloscope
D. Frequency probe

227. The item required in program log?

A. Identification
B. Program description
D. All of these

228. The item required in an operating log?

A. Antenna power and programs on-off
B. EBS tests
C. Any of these
D. Antenna lights and meter readings

229. The item required in a maintenance log?

A. Any of these
B. Antenna current checks
C. Meter replacements
D. Light inspection and experimental period operation

230. What is the minimum time broadcast station logs must be held?

A. One year
B. Two years
C. Three years
D. Five years

231. What class operator has no restrictions on technical work in a broadcast station?

A. 1
st
phone
B. 2
nd
phone
C. 3
rd
phone
D. 4
th
phone

232. What classes of operators are restricted on technical work in a broadcast station?

A. 3
rd
phone
B. 2
nd
phone
C. 4
th
phone
D. 2
nd
and 3
rd
phone

233. If improper transmitter indications are given at the remote-control point, what
should be done?

A. First phone operator to transmitter
B. Second phone operator to transmitter
C. Third phone operator to transmitter
D. Fourth phone to transmitter

A. Quarter of an hour
B. Half an hour
C. On the hour
D. On the day

235. Where must station license be posted?

A. Tower
B. Modulators
C. Transmitter

236. Where operator licenses must be posted?

A. Operating desk
B. Operating position
C. Operating console
D. Anywhere

237. What device is usually used today to measure the frequency of a broadcast
station?

A. Multivibrators
B. Counter
C. Ripper
D. Wave meter

238. What does EBS stand for?

C. Electronic Base Station
D. Emergency Base Station

239. How often must EBS tests be made?

A. Weekly
B. Daily
C. Monthly
D. Yearly

240. What must non-EBS station have?

A. EBS signal monitor
B. EAN signal monitor
C. EAT signal monitor
D. CPCS signal monitor

241. What stylus material is used in broadcast station?

A. Ruby
B. Gamet
C. Emerald
D. Diamond

242. What advantage is there to having heavy turntables?

A. Constant speed
B. Less vibration
C. Rumble
D. All of these

243. What is the width of recording tapes?

A. 0.5 inch
B. 0.75 inch
C. 0.125 inch
D. 1 inch

244. What frequency is used to erase tapes?

A. Supersonic
B. Subsonic
C. Ultrasonic
D. Infrasonic

245. What tape speed produces highest fidelity of audio?

A. 20 in/sec
B. 15 in/sec
C. 10 in/sec
D. 5 in /sec

246. What should be used to clean recording heads?

A. Methanol
B. Ethyl Alcohol
C. Isopropyl alcohol
D. Rubbing alcohol

247. What impedance is usually used with broadcast microphones?

A. All of these
B. 150 ohms
C. 250 ohms
D. 600 ohms

248. In what log is antenna-light information entered?

A. Maintenance log
B. Program log
C. Operating log
D. Logging log

249. What was the name of the first TV camera tube?

A. Vidicon
B. Iconoscope
C. Image orthicon
D. Kinescope

250. Which camera tube requires electron multipliers?

A. Vidicon
B. Iconoscope
C. Image orthicon
D. Kinescope

251. Which is used in closed-circuit TV?

A. Vidicon
B. Iconoscope
C. Image orthicon
D. Kinescope

252. What is the waveform of the sweep voltages?

A. Trapezoidal
B. Sawtooth
C. Trigger
D. Square

253. If the pulse peak is 100% modulation, what is the blanking level?

A. 25%
B. 50%
C. 65%
D. 75%

254. What device allows one camera to accept pictures from three or more projectors?

A. Film multipliers
B. Film demultiplexers
C. Film multiplexers
D. Film acceptor

255. What is the order of scanning four successive motion-picture frames for TV?

A. 3,2,3,2
B. 2,3,2,3
C. 2,2,3,3
D. 3,3,2,2

256. From the low-frequency end of a channel, what is the visual carrier frequency?

A. 3.58 MHz
B. 0.25 MHz
C. 1.25 MHz
D. 4.5 MHz

257. The circuits make up the front end of a TV receiver, except:

A. RF
B. Mixer
C. IF
D. Oscillator

258. What is the impedance at the antenna input terminals of a TV receiver?

A. 300 ohms
B. 150 ohms
C. 50 ohms
D. 100 ohms

259. Why are triodes and MOSFETs best for TV RF amplifiers?

A. High power
B. Efficiency
C. Low noise
D. High gain

260. In what circuit configuration are triodes and MOSFETs used?

B. Darlington
D. Shunt

261. The signal might a video amplifier amplify?

A. Aural IF
B. Video
C. Blanking
D. Any of these

262. When coupling from a sync separator, what is used to obtain the horizontal sync
pulses?
A. Integrator
B. Corrector
C. Differentiator
D. Separator

263. When coupling from a sync separator, what is used to obtain the vertical sync
pulses?

A. Integrator
B. Corrector
C. Differentiator
D. Separator

264. The type of active device used in horizontal output stages, except:?

A. Vacuum tube
B. FET
C. BJT
D. SCR

265. What should be produced by weak blue, weak green, and weak red signals on a
color CRT?

A. White
C. Gray
D. Off white

266. How many such mirrors are required in a color TV camera?

A. One
B. Two
C. Three
D. Four

267. What is the combining circuit called in TV?

A. Combiner
B. Multiplexer
C. Integrator
D. Mixer

268. What is the letter symbol for the luminance signal?

A. R
B. Q
C. I
D. Y

269. What is the total R + G + B for a Y signal?

A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. 1.5

270. If a white scene is picked up what is the Y value?

A. 1
B. 2
C. 0
D. 2.5

271. If a black scene is being picked up, what is the Y value?

A. One
B. 0.5
C. Zero
D. 1.5

272. What circuit does a color killer kill?

A. Bandstop filter
B. High-pass filter
C. Low-pass filter
D. Bandpass filter

273. If the blue dot is always at the bottom of a triad, what position must the blue gun
always have?

A. Top
B. Left side
C. Right aside
D. Center

A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4

A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS IN
TRANSMISSION LINES
Electronics Systems and Technologies
By
Melvin C. Arceo

ENCODED BY:
1. Category of media with some form of conductor that provides a conduit in which
electromagnetic signals are contained.

A. Guided
B. Balanced
C. Unguided
D. Unbalanced

2. The conductive connections between elements which carry signals.

A. Transmission Lines
B. Antenna
C. Frequency allocations

3. Calculate the characteristic impedance for a line that exhibits an inductance of 4 nH/m
and 1.5pF/m

A. 36.6 ohms
B. 51.6 ohms
C. 22 ohms
D. 24.5 ohms

4. Category of media which are wireless

A. Guided
B. Balanced
C. Unguided
D. Unbalanced

5. It is a medium or any physical facility used to propagate electromagnetic signals between
two locations in a communications system.

A. Transmission medium
B. Channel allocation
C. Frequency allocation
D. Any of these

6. It is a metallic conductor system used to transfer electrical energy from one point to
another using electrical current flow.
A. Transmitter
B. Multiplexers
D. Transmission line

7. A kind of wave where the displacement is in the direction of propagation.

A. Transverse
B. Longitudinal
C. Reverse
D. Perpendicular

8. Calculate the capacitance per meter of a 50-ohm load cable that has an inductance of 55
nH/m.

A. 13 pF
B. 18 pF
C. 20 pF
D. 22 pF

9. The desirable SWR on a transmission line is

A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. Infinity

10. A kind of wave where the direction is displacement is perpendicular to the direction of
propagation.

A. Transverse
B. Longitudinal
C. Reverse
D. Perpendicular

11. A short-circuited half-wavelength line acts like a

A. Parallel resonant circuit
B. Series Resonant Circuit
C. Oscillator
D. LC circuit

12. Electromagnetic waves that travel along a transmission line from the source to the load.

A. Reverse waves
B. Transverse waves
C. Incident waves
D. Longitudinal waves

13. Electromagnetic waves that travel from the load back toward the source.

A. Incident waves
B. Transverse waves
C. Forward waves
D. Reflected waves

14. Sound travels approximately

A. 2200 feet per second
B. 1100 feet per second
C. 550 feet per second
D. 600 feet per second

15. Determine the surge impedance for a parallel wire, air dielectric with a ratio of the
spacing between conductors and the diameter of 3

A. 250 ohms
B. 210 ohms
C. 180 ohms
D. 215 ohms

16. The rate at which the periodic wave repeats

A. Wavelength
B. Amplitude
C. Period
D. Frequency

17. The distance of one cycle occurring in space

A. Wavelength
B. Amplitudes
C. Period
D. Frequency

18. Classification of transmission line where both conductors carry current; one conductor
carries the signal, the other conductor is the return path

A. Differential transmission lines
B. Unbalanced lines
C. Coaxial cables
D. Balun

19. A shorted half-wave line at the operating frequency acts like

A. Capacitor
B. Inductor
C. Series resonant circuit
D. Parallel resonant circuit

20. What is the characteristic impedance of a coaxial line, air dielectric with a ratio of the
diameter of the outer and inner conductor equal to 1.5?

A. 24.3 ohms
B. 25.6 ohms
C. 13.2 ohms
D. 18 ohms

21. Currents that flow in opposite direction in a balanced wire pair is called

A. Longitudinal currents
B. Reverse circuit currents
C. Transverse circuit currents
D. Metallic circuit currents

22. Currents that flow in same direction in a balanced wire pair is called

A. Longitudinal currents
B. Reverse circuit currents
C. Transverse circuit currents
D. In-phase currents

23. A circuit device used to connect a balanced transmission line to an unbalanced load

A. Slotted lines
B. Stub
C. Balun
D. Quarterwave lines

24. The most common type of balun used in relatively high frequency

A. Narrowband
B. Choke
C. Sleeve
D. All of these

25. A pattern of voltage and current variations along the transmission line not terminated in
its characteristic impedance is called

A. An electric fluid
C. Standing waves
D. A magnetic field

26. A type of parallel-conductor transmission lines consists of simply of two parallel wires,
closely-spaced and separated by air.

A. Twisted pair
B. Open-wire lines
C. Coaxial cables
D. Twin pair

27. A type of parallel-conductor transmission lines which is essentially the same as open-
wire transmission line except that the spacers between the conductors are replaced with a
continuous solid dielectric that ensures uniform spacing along the entire cable

A. Twisted pair
B. Open-wire lines
C. Coaxial cables

28. What is the range of size of wires of a twisted pair?

A. AWG 16 to AWG 26
B. AWG 14 to AWG 25
C. AWG 10 to AWG 20
D. AWG 12 to AWG 28

29. What is the characteristic impedance of a coaxial line, polyethylene dielectric with the
ratio of the diameter of the outer and the inner conductor of 2.5?

A. 43.5 ohms
B. 23.4 ohms
C. 36.2 ohms
D. 29.8 ohms

30. In AWG, the higher the wire gauge ______

A. The higher the diameter and the lower the resistance
B. The smaller the diameter and the higher the resistance
C. The smaller the diameter and the higher the conductance
D. The larger the diameter and the higher the resistance
31. Type of twisted pair wire cable that consists of two copper wires where each wire is
separately encapsulated in PVC insulation.

A. Shielded twisted pair
C. Unshielded twisted pair
D. Open wire frame

32. A shorted quarter-wave line at the operating frequency acts like

A. Series resonant circuit
B. Parallel resonant circuit
C. Capacitor
D. Inductor

33. The minimum number of twist for UTP is

A. Two twist per foot
B. Two twist per meter
C. Three twist per foot
D. Three twist per meter

34. A delay line using RG-8A/U cable is to exhibit a 5-ns delay. Calculate the required length
of the cable.

A. 4.57 ft
B. 1.23 ft
C. 6.2 ft
D. 3.4 ft

35. An open-circuited quarter-wavelength line acts like a

A. Parallel resonant circuit
B. Series resonant circuit
C. Oscillator
D. LC circuit

36. Level for category of UTP cable which is suitable only for voice grade telephone signals
and very low-speed data applications

A. Level 1 or Cat 1
B. Level 3 or Cat 3
C. Level 2 or Cat 2
D. Cat 4

37. An antenna is being fed by a properly terminated two-wire transmission line. The current
in the line at the input end is 3A. The surge impedance of the line is 500 ohms. How
much power is being supplied to the line?

A. 3.1 kW
B. 2.5 kW
C. 1.6 kW
D. 4.5 kW

38. Level or Category of UTP cable which was developed for IEEE 802.5 token ring local
area networks operating at a transmission rates of 4Mbps

A. Level 1 or Cat 1
B. Level 3 or Cat 3
C. Level 2 or Cat 2
D. Cat 4

39. If the period of one complete cycle of a radio wave is 0.000001 s, what is the
wavelength?

A. 300 m
B. 200 m
C. 100 m
D. 400 m

40. If the two towers of a 950-kHz antenna are separated by 120 electrical degrees, what is
the tower separation in feet?

A. 231 ft
B. 235 ft
C. 176 ft
D. 345 ft

41. Category of UTP used for virtually any voice or data transmission rate up to 16 Mbps,
has a minimum of 3 turns per inch.

A. Category 5e
B. Category 4
C. Category 5
D. Category 3

42. The mismatch between the antenna and transmission line impedances cannot be corrected
for by

A. Using an LC matching network
C. Using a balun
D. Adjusting the length of transmission line

43. Category of UTP that was designed for data transmission rates up to 20 Mbps

A. Category 5e
B. Category 4
C. Category 5
D. Category 3

44. Variation of CAT5 cables that are intended for data transmission rates up to 250 Mbps

A. Category 5e
B. Category 2
C. Category 6
D. Category 3

45. A type of twisted-pair wherein its wires and dielectric are enclosed in a conductive metal
sleeve called a foil.

A. STP
C. UTP

46. It is the name given to the area between the ceiling and the roof in a single-story building
or between the ceiling and the floor of the next higher level in a multistory building.

A. Attic
B. Rooftop
C. Plenum
D. Ceiling

47. It consists of center conductor surrounded by dielectric material, then a concentric
shielding, and an environmental protection outer jacket.

A. Twisted pair
B. Coaxial cable
D. Open wire

48. In a transmission line, it refers to the woven stranded mesh or braid that surround some
types of coaxial cables

A. Grounding
B. Shielding
C. Degaussing
D. Any of these

49. A coaxial cable with one layer of foil insulation and one layer of braided shielding.

A. Backup shielding
B. Temporary shielding
C. Dual shielding
D. Interference shielding

50. At very high frequencies, transmission lines are used as

A. Tuned circuits
B. Antennas
C. Insulators
D. Resistors

51. A coaxial cable with two layers of foil insulation and two layers of braided shielding.

B. Double shielding
C. Triple shielding
D. Shielding

52. A type of coaxial cable that has a tubular outer conductor surrounds the center conductor
coaxially and the insulating material is air

A. Rigid air coaxial cable
B. Gas-filled coaxial cable
C. Solid coaxial cable
D. Flexible cable

53. If the length of an open-circuited stub is less than quarter-wavelength but greater than 0,
the stub behaves as

A. Inductor
B. Capacitor
C. Resistor
D. Complex

54. Type of coaxial cable where the outer conductor is braided, flexible, and coaxial to the
center conductor.

A. Gas-filled coaxial cable
B. Rigid air coaxial cable
C. Solid flexible coaxial cable
D. Flexible cable

55. A 50-ohm coax is connected to a 73-ohm antenna. The SWR is

A. 0.685
B. 1
C. 1.46
D. 2.92

56. Defined as the impedance seen looking at an infinitely long line or the impedance seen
looking into a finite length of the line that is terminated in a purely resistive load with the
resistance equal to the characteristic impedance of the line.

A. Input impedance
B. Surge impedance
C. Output impedance
D. Circuit impedance

57. Determine the characteristic impedance for an air dielectric two-wire parallel
transmission line with a D/r ratio of 12.22

A. 150 ohms
B. 120 ohms
C. 75 ohms
D. 300 ohms

58. Determine the characteristic impedance for an RG-59A coaxial cable with the following
specifications: d=0.025 inches, D=0.15 inches, and dielectric constant of 2.23

A. 120 ohms
B. 72 ohms
C. 150 ohms
D. 75 ohms

59. Determine the characteristic impedance for an RG-59A coaxial cable with the following
specifications: L=0.118 uH/ft and C=21 pF/ft

A. 150 ohms
B. 72 ohms
C. 75 ohms
D. 100 ohms

60. It is used to express the attenuation or signal loss and the phase shift per unit length of the
transmission line.

A. Propagation coefficient
B. Propagation constant
C. Propagation factor
D. Any of these

61. For matched condition, what is the relationship of load and characteristic impedance?

A. Greater than
B. Less than
C. Equal
D. Impossible to say

62. It is defined simply as the ratio of the actual velocity of propagation of an
electromagnetic wave through a given medium to the velocity of propagation through a
vacuum or free space.

A. Velocity factor
B. Velocity propagation
C. Index of refraction
D. Phase delay

63. It is simply the permittivity of the material

A. Permittivity
B. Insulation constant
C. Dielectric constant
D. Resistivity

64. For a given length of RG 8A/U coaxial cable with distributed capacitance of 96.6 pF/m, a
distributed inductance of 241.56 nH/m, and a relative dielectric constant of 2.3, determine
the velocity of propagation

A. 1.07 x 10^8 m/s
B. 2.3 x 10^7 m/s
C. 3.28 x 10^8 m/s
D. 2.07 x 10^8 m/s

65. For a given length of RG 8A/U coaxial cable with distributed capacitance of 96.6 pF/m, a
distributed inductance of 241.56 nH/m, and a relative dielectric constant of 2.3, determine
the velocity factor

A. 1.2
B. 0.66
C. 0.7
D. 0.5

66. If the length of an open-circuited stub is greater than quarter-wavelength but less than
half-wavelength, the stub behaves as

A. Inductor
B. Capacitor
C. Resistor
D. Complex

67. Delay line is a function of what two parameters?

A. Resistance and capacitance
B. Resistance and susceptance
C. Inductance and resistance
D. Inductance and capacitance

68. How is the time delay calculated in a coaxial cables with a dielectric constant of 0.66?

A. 0.56 sec
B. 0.67 sec
C. 0.45 sec
D. 1.2 sec

69. Three feet is one wavelength at a frequency of

A. 100 MHz
B. 164 MHz
C. 300 MHz
D. 328 MHz

70. When current flows through a conductor, the loss introduced as a function of resistance
and current is called _______

A. Inductance loss
B. Conductor loss
C. Voltage loss
D. Skin effect

71. For maximum absorption of power at the antenna, the relationship between the
characteristic impedance of the line Zo and the load impedance ZL should be

A. Zo = ZL
B. Zo > ZL
C. Zo < ZL
D. Zo = 0

72. The ratio of the AC resistance and the DC resistance

A. Impedance ratio
B. Susceptance ratio
C. Resistance ratio
D. Conductance ratio

73. The difference in potential between two conductors of a metallic transmission line causes
______.

A. Conductor loss
B. Dielectric heating
D. Corona

74. If the length of a short-circuited stub is greater than quarter-wavelength but less than half-
wavelength, the stub behaves as

A. Inductor
B. Capacitor
C. Resistor
D. Complex

75. If the separation between the conductors in a metallic transmission line is an appreciable
fraction of a wavelength, the electrostatic and electromagnetic fields that surround the
conductor cause the line to act as if it were an antenna and transfer energy to any nearby
material. This energy radiated is called ______.

B. Power loss
C. Coupling loss
D. Corona

76. The minimum voltage along a transmission line is 260 V, while the maximum is 390 V.
The SWR is

A. 0.67
B. 1.0
C. 1.2
D. 1.5

77. It occurs whenever a connection is made to or from a transmission line or when two
sections of transmission line are connected together

A. Power loss
B. Coupling loss
D. Resistance loss

78. Which of the following is not a common transmission line impedance?

A. 50 ohms
B. 75 ohms
C. 120 ohms
D. 300 ohms

79. It is a luminous discharge that occurs between the two conductors of a transmission line
when the difference in potential between them exceeds the breakdown voltage of a
dielectric insulator.

A. Resistance loss
B. Corona
D. Power loss

80. Voltage that propagates down the load

A. Reflected voltage
B. Standing wave ratio
C. Incident voltage
D. Reflection voltage

81. Voltage that propagates from the load towards the source

A. Reflected voltage
B. Standing wave ratio
C. Reflection coefficient
D. Incident voltage

82. A transmission line with no reflected power

A. Flat
B. Resistive
C. Non resonant line
D. Any of these

83. It is a vector quantity that represents the ratio of reflected voltage to incident voltage or
the reflected current and the incident current

A. Reflection coefficient
C. Standing wave ratio
D. Traveling waves

84. With a mismatched line, two electromagnetic waves traveling in opposite direction,
present on the line on the same time.

A. Standing wave ratio
B. Reflection coefficient
C. Standing waves
D. Traveling waves

85. The two traveling waves sets up an interference pattern called _______.

A. Standing wave ratio
B. Reflection coefficient
C. Standing waves
D. Traveling waves

86. It is defined as the ratio of the maximum voltage to the minimum voltage or the
maximum current to the minimum current of a standing wave in a transmission line.

A. Standing wave ratio
B. Normalized impedance
C. Reflection coefficient
D. Any of these

87. For a transmission line with an incident voltage of 5V and a reflected voltage of 3V,
determine the reflection coefficient.

A. 0.4
B. 0.6
C. 0.5
D. 0.7

88. A ratio expressing the percentage of incident voltage reflected on a transmission line is
known as the

A. Velocity factor
B. Standing wave ratio
C. Reflection coefficient
D. Line efficiency

89. There is an impedance inversion in every ______.

A. Half wavelength
B. Quarter wavelength
C. Full wavelength
D. Three-eights of a wavelength

90. The characteristic impedance of a transmission line does not depend upon its

A. Length
B. Conductor diameter
C. Conductor spacing
D. None of these

91. ______ are used to match transmission lines to purely resistive loads whose resistance is
not equal to the characteristic impedance of the line.

A. Stub
B. Slotted lines
C. Quarter-wavelength transformer
D. Short circuited lines

92. To match a transmission line with a reactive load _______

A. Use stub matching
B. Use a slotted line
C. Used a Q-section
D. Use an open circuited lines

93. A technique that can be used to locate an impairment in metallic cable

A. TDR
B. Wattmeter
C. Voltmeter
D. SWR meter

94. A pulse is transmitted down a cable that has a velocity of propagation of 0.8c. The
reflected signal is received 1us later. How far down the cable is the impairment?

A. 240 m
B. 15 m
C. 60 m
D. 120 m

95. Using TDR, a transmission line impairment is located 3000m from the source. For a
velocity propagation of 0.9c, determine the time elapsed from the beginning of the pulse
to the reception of the echo

A. 11.11 us
B. 10.12 us
C. 22.22 us
D. 21.14 us

96. A flat conductor separated from a ground plane by an insulating dielectric material

A. Stripline
B. Waveguide
C. Microstrip
D. Coaxial cable

97. A flat conductor sandwich between two ground planes.

A. Stripline
B. Waveguide
C. Microstrip
D. Coaxial cable

98. Indicate the false statement. The SWR on a transmission line is infinity; the line is
terminated in

A. A short circuit
B. A complex impedance
C. An open circuit
D. A pure reactance

99. The most commonly used transmission line is a

A. Two-wire balance line
B. Singe wire
C. Three-wire line
D. Coax

100. A short-circuited half-wavelength line acts like a

A. Parallel resonant circuit
B. Series resonant circuit
C. Oscillator
D. LC circuit

101. A (75-j50)-ohm is connected to a coaxial transmission line of Zo = 75 ohms, at 10
GHz. The best method of matching consists of connecting

A. A short-circuited stub at the load
B. An inductive at the load
C. A capacitance at some specific distance from the load
D. A short-circuited stub at some specific distance from the load

102. The velocity factor of a transmission line

A. Depends on the dielectric constant of the material used
B. Increases in velocity along the transmission line
C. Is governed by the skin effect
D. Is higher for a solid dielectric than for air.

103. Impedance inversion may be obtained with

A. A short-circuited stub
B. An open-circuited stub
C. A quarter-wave line
D. A half-wave line

104. The most desirable reflection coefficient is

A. 0
B. 0.5
C. 1
D. Infinity

105. Short circuited stubs are preferred to open-circuited stub because the latter are

A. More difficult to make and connect
B. Made of a transmission line with different characteristic impedance
D. Incapable of giving a full range of reactance

106. For transmission-line load matching over a range of frequencies, it is best to use a

A. Balun
C. Double stub
D. Single stub of adjustable position

107. The main disadvantage of the two-hole directional coupler is

A. Low directional coupling
B. Poor directivity
C. High SWR
D. Narrow bandwidth

108. To couple a coaxial line to a parallel-wire line, it is best to use a

A. Slotted line
B. Balun
C. Directional coupler
D. Quarter-wave transformer

109. A short-circuited quarter-wavelength line acts like a

A. Parallel resonant circuit
B. Series resonant circuit
C. Oscillator
D. LC circuit

110. If the length of a short-circuited stub is less than a quarter-wavelength but greater than
0, the stub behaves as

A. Inductor
B. Capacitor
C. Resistor
D. Complex

111. The depth of penetration of current density resulting from skin effect

A. Skin depth
B. Wire depth
C. Line depth
D. Medium depth

112. Transmission line must be matched to the load to

A. Transfer maximum voltage to the load
B. Transfer maximum current to the load
D. Transfer maximum power to the load

113. Referred to the dielectric constant of a transmission line material

A. Inductance and capacitance
B. Velocity factor
C. Characteristic impedance
D. Propagation velocity

114. A transmission line containing of two conductors that have equal resistance per unit
length

A. Unbalanced line
B. Open-wire line
C. Balanced line
D. Coaxial cable

115. Which of the following determines the characteristics of a transmission line?

A. Inductance
B. Capacitance
C. Physical dimension
D. Length

116. Category of UTP that was designed for data transmission rates up to 20 Mbps

A. Category 5e
B. Category 4
C. Category 5
D. Category 3

117. Level 2 or category 2 UTP cables comply with IBMs _______ specification.

A. Type 1
B. Type 3
C. Type 2
D. Type 4

118. Level 3 or Category 3 UTP cables should have at least ____ twist per inch.

A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4

119. Which of the following is NOT a color code for Category 5 UTP?

A. Blue/white stripe and blue
B. Orange/white stripe and orange
C. Red/white stripe and red
D. Brown/white stripe and brown

120. Shielded-screen twisted-pair cable or SSTP is also known as ________.

A. Cat 5e
B. Cat 7
C. Cat 6
D. Cat 8

121. An open-circuited transmission line quarter wavelength long is equivalent to

A. Parallel resonant circuit
B. Series resonant circuit
C. Inductive
D. Capacitive

122. A short-circuited transmission line more than quarter-wavelength long but shorter than
half wavelength is equivalent to _______.

A. Series resonant circuit
B. Inductive
C. Capacitive
D. Parallel resonant circuit

123. A short-circuited transmission line less than quarter-wavelength long.

A. Inductive
B. Capacitive
C. Parallel resonant circuit
D. Series resonant circuit

124. The quarter-wavelength transformer line acts as a transformer with a 1:1 turns ratio
when the load resistance is with what relationship with the characteristic impedance of
the quarter-wavelength transformer?

A. Equal
B. Less than
C. Greater than
D. None of these

125. The characteristic impedance of a microstrip is equal to _____ ohms.

A. 50 to 200
B. 25 to 50
C. 100 to 200
D. 50 to 75

126. The quarter-wavelength transformer line acts as a step down transformer when the load
resistance is with what relationship with the characteristic impedance of the quarter-
wavelength transformer?

A. Equal
B. Less than
C. Greater than
D. None of these

127. The typical value of the velocity factor of an open-wire transmission line is

A. 0.8
B. 0.7
C. 0.6
D. 0.9

128. If a transmission line is not terminated in its characteristic impedance, _______ will
develop along the line.

A. Traveling waves
B. Standing waves
C. Surge impedance
D. Infinite impedance

129. If a load and a line have mismatched impedances, power not absorbed by the load will
be _____.

A. Absorbed
B. Rejected
C. Reflected
D. Removed

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS IN
INTRODUCTION TO
COMMUNICATIONS
Electronics Systems and Technologies
By
Melvin C. Arceo

ENCODED BY:
GARCIA, Virginia Nonna H.
1. It is the transmission, reception, and processing of information between two or more
locations using electronic circuits.
a. Electronic communications
b. Electronic transfer
c. Electronic mode
d. Electronic codes

2. The noise produced by a resistor is to be amplified by a noiseless amplifier having a
voltage gain of 75 and a bandwidth of 100 kHz. A sensitive meter at the output reads 240
microvolts rms. Assuming operation of 37 degrees, calculate the resistors resistance.
a. 4 kilo ohms
b. 5 kilo ohms
c. 6 kilo ohms
d. 7 kilo ohms

3. The first electronic communications system was develop in what century?
a. 17
th

b. 19
th

c. 18
th

d. 20
th

4. Who was the first to successfully transmit wireless radio signals through Earths
atmosphere?
a. Samuel Morse
b. Howard Armstrong
c. Lee DeForest
d. Guglielmo Marconi

5. Who invented frequency modulation?
a. Guglielmo Marconi
b. Thomas Watson
c. Alexander Graham Bell
d. Howard Armstrong

6. A component of the electronic communication system that provides a means of
transporting signals from a transmitter to a receiver.
a. Information
b. modulator
c. medium
d. transmitter

7. Calculate the noise power outputs of a 1 kilo ohm resistor at 27 degrees C over a 100-
kHz bandwidth.
a. 4.14 fW
b. 0.414 fW
c. 14.1 fW
d. 141 fW

8. _________ is a collection of electronic devices and circuits that accepts the transmitted
signals from the transmission medium and converts them back to their original form.
a. channel
c. transmitter
d. antenna

9. A signal that carries the information through the system.
a. information
b. modulating signal
c. intelligence
d. carrier

10. A signal that modulates a high-frequency signal or carrier in order to transfer information
from one location to another
a. intelligence
b. modulated signal
c. carrier
d. intelligence or modulated signal

11. Fourier series shows that a sawtooth wave consists of the following except
a. fundamental and subharmonic sine waves
b. a fundamental sine wave and an infinite number of harmonics
c. fundamental and harmonic sine waves whose amplitude decreases with the harmonic
number
d. sinusoidal voltages, some of which are small enough to ignore in practice

12. Determine the noise current for a diode with a forward bias of 1mA over a 1 MHz
bandwidth.
a. 19.8 nA
b. 17.9 nA
c. 12.3 nA
d. 15 nA

13. The process of changing one or more properties of the carrier in proportion with the
information signal?
a. demodulation
b. transmission
c. modulation
d. reception

14. A system where digital pulses are transferred between two points in a communication
system.
a. digital transmission
b. analog transmission
d. analog communications system

15. It is the transmittal of digitally modulated analog carriers between two or more points in a
communication system.
a. analog transmission
c. digital communications
d. digital reception

16. Type of modulation where the carrier amplitude is varied proportional to the information
signal.
a. AM
b. PM
c. FM
d. Pulse modulation

17. In FM, the _________ is varied proportional to the information signal.
a. phase
b. time
c. amplitude
d. frequency

18. A circuit that performs modulation
a. demodulator
b. synthesizer
c. modulator
d. limiter

19. Calculate the signal to noise ratio for a receiver output of 4V signal and 0.48V noise in
dB
a. 18.5 dB
b. 69 dB
c. 25.4 dB
d. 9.25 dB

20. Modulation used is to the following except
a. reduce the bandwidth used
b. separate differing transmission
c. ensure that intelligence may be transmitted over long distance
d. allow the use of practicable antennas

21. It performs the reverse process of modulation and converts the modulated carrier back to
the original information.
a. oscillator
b. demodulator
c. synthesizer
d. mixer

22. Indicate the false statement. The reasons why modulation is necessary in electronic
communications is because:
a. It is extremely difficult to radiate low-frequency signals from antenna in the form of
electromagnetic energy.
b. Information signals often occupy the same frequency band and, if signals from two or
more sources at the same time, they would interfere with each other.
c. To reduce the size of the capacitors and inductors of the tuned circuit.
d. To increase the size of the transmitting and receiving antenna.

23. The process of converting a frequency or band of frequencies to another location in the
total frequency spectrum is called:
a. translation
b. demodulation
c. modulation
d. oscillation

24. An intricate part of electronic communication system because of its up-and-down-
conversion functions as they are transported through a channel.
a. oscillation
b. modulation
c. demodulation
d. translation

25. _________ is simply the number of times a periodic motion occurs in a given unit of time
a. frequency
b. time
c. period
d. phase

26. The difference between the highest and the lowest frequencies contained in the
information.
a. noise
b. bandwidth
c. interference
d. frequency

27. It is a highly theoretical study of the efficient use of bandwidth to propagate information
through electronic communications systems.
a. information capacity
b. information bandwidth
c. information theory
d. information entropy
28. It is the measure of how much information can be transferred through a communications
system in a given period of time.
a. information bandwidth
b. information capacity
c. information density
d. information theory

29. The law that states that the wider the bandwidth and the longer the time of transmission,
a. Information theory
b. Information density law
c. Hartleys law
d. Information entropy law

30. A circuit configuration that involves one wire for the signal and one for the reference or
ground.
a. 2-wire
b. 4-wire
c. 3-wire
d. 1-wire

31. A circuit configuration that involves two for signal and two for reference or ground.
a. 2-wire
b. 4-wire
c. 3-wire
d. 1-wire

32. It is used to match impedances and provide isolation between the two directions of signal
flow.
a. 2-wire
b. hybrid set
c. 4-wire transmission
d. suppressors

33. An interface circuit that is used when a two-wire circuit is connected to a four-wire
circuit, as in long-distance telephone call.
a. suppressors
b. echo limiter
c. codec
d. terminating set

34. An amplifier with a noise figure of 6dB has an input signal-to-noise ratio of 25dB.
Calculate the output signal-to-noise ratio in dB.
a. 31 dB
b. 19 dB
c. 20 dB
d. 25 dB

35. It is the process of combining two or more signals and is an essential process in electronic
communications.
a. oscillation
b. mixing
c. damping
d. modulation

36. _________ occurs when two or more signals combine in a linear device, such as a
passive network or a small-signal amplifier.
a. non-linear mixing
b. linear-phase filtering
c. linear summing
d. bandlimiting

37. One of the following is not a useful quantity for comparing the noise performance of
a. input noise voltage
b. equivalent noise resistance
c. noise temperature
d. noise figure

38. A single-stage amplifier has a 200-kHz bandwidth and a voltage gain of 100 at room
temperature. Assume that the external noise is negligible and that a 1-mV signal is
applied to the amplifiers input. Calculate the output noise voltage if the amplifier has a
5-dB NF and the input noise is generated by a 2-kilo ohm resistor.
a. 56.58 nV
b. 458 uV
c. 595.6 nV
d. 356 uV

39. In a communication system, which of the following reduces the information capacity of
the system.
a. linear-phase filtering
b. mixing
c. bandlimiting
d. modulation

40. _________ occurs when two or more signals are combined in a non-linear device such as
a diode or large-signal amplifier.
a. modulation
b. non-linear summing
c. oscillation
d. non-linear filtering
41. Measuring physical condition of some remote location and transmitting this data for
analysis is the process of
a. Telemetry
b. Instrumentation
c. Modulation
d. Multiplexing

42. It is defined as any undesirable electrical energy that falls within the passband of the
signal.
a. interference
b. noise
c. splatter
d. out-of-band signalling

43. _________ noise that is present regardless of whether there is a signal present or not.
a. atmospheric noise
b. correlated
c. uncorrelated
d. internal

44. A three stage amplifier has an input stage with noise ratio of 5 and power gain of 50.
Stages 2 and 3 have a noise ratio of 10 and power gain of 1000. Calculate the noise figure
for the overall system.
a. 4.55 dB
b. 7.14 dB
c. 6 dB
d. 5.18 dB

45. In communication system, noise is most likely to affect the signal
a. at the transmitter
b. in the channel
c. in the information source
d. at the information

46. Which of the following is not true?
a. HF mixers are generally noisier than HF amplifiers
b. Impulse noise voltage is independent of bandwidth
c. Thermal noise is independent of the frequency at which it is measured.
d. Industrial noise is usually of the impulse type

47. It is a type of noise that is generated outside the device of circuit.
a. shot noise
b. noise voltage
c. thermal noise
d. external noise
48. _________ noise is a naturally occurring electrical disturbances which is commonly
called static electricity.
a. Transit-time noise
b. Extraterrestrial noise
c. Solar noise
d. Atmospheric noise

49. What is the noise whose source is in a category different from that of the other three.
a. solar noise
b. cosmic noise
c. atmospheric noise
d. galactic noise

50. A microwave antenna with an equivalent noise temperature of 25 K is coupled through a
network with an equivalent noise temperature of 30 K to a microwave receiver with an
equivalent noise temperature of 60 K referred to its input. Calculate the noise power at its
input for a 2-MHz bandwidth.
a. 3.15 fW
b. 4.35 fW
c. 2.12 fW
d. 1.24 fW

51. Which of the following is not another name of thermal agitation noise?
a. White noise
b. Pink noise
c. Johnson noise
d. Brown noise

52. Any modification to a stream of carriers as they pass from the input to the output of a
device produces an irregular, random variation is called _________ noise.
a. Transit-time noise
c. Thermal noise
d. Internal noise

53. One of the following types of noise becomes of great importance at high frequencies. It is
the
a. shot noise
b. random noise
c. impulse noise
d. transit-time noise

54. The noise that was first observed in the anode current of a vacuum tube amplifier and was
described mathematically by W. Schottky in 1918.
a. Shot noise
b. Transit-time noise
c. External noise
d. Thermal agitation noise

55. Also known as black-body noise
a. cosmic noise
b. extraterrestrial noise
c. solar noise

56. Also known as deep-space noise
a. solar noise
b. cosmic noise
c. extraterrestrial noise
d. galactic noise

57. _________ noise is noise that is mutually related to the signal and cannot be present in a
circuit unless there is an input signal input.
a. solar noise
b. uncorrelated noise
c. correlated noise
d. noise voltage

58. The square of the thermal noise voltage generated by a resistor is proportional to
a. its resistance
b. its temperature
c. Boltzmanns constant
d. The bandwidth over which it is measured

59. It is a type of distortion that when unwanted harmonics of a signal are produced through a
nonlinear amplification.
a. intermodulation distortion
b. buck-shot
c. splatter
d. harmonic distortion

60. Which of the following is not used for communications
a. X-rays
b. Millimeter waves
c. Infrared
d. Microwaves

61. _________ are integer multiples of the original input signal.
a. interference
b. harmonic
c. fundamental
d. distortion
62. A type of distortion that results from the generation of unwanted sum and difference
frequencies when two or more signals are amplified in a linear device, such as a large-
signal amplifier.
a. harmonic distortion
b. intermodulation distortion
c. interference
d. cross talk

63. A form of noise that is characterized by its capability to disturb or distract.
a. impulse noise
c. solar noise
d. interference

64. A type of noise that is characterized by high-amplitude peaks of short duration in the total
noise spectrum.
a. transit-time noise
b. solar noise
c. thermal noise
d. impulse noise

65. _________ is a figure of merit used to indicate how much the signal-to-noise ratio
deteriorates as a signal passes through a circuit or series of circuits.
b. Q-factor
c. Noise figure
d. S/N ratio

66. The value of resistor creating thermal noise is doubled. The noise power generated
therefore
a. halved
c. doubled
d. unchanged

67. Electromagnetic waves produced primarily by heat are called
a. Infrared
b. Microwaves
c. Shortwaves
d. X-ray

68. Receiving electromagnetic emission from stars is called
a. Astrology
b. Optical astronomy
d. Space surveillance
69. It is a collection of electronic components and circuits designed to convert the
information into a signal suitable for transmission over a given communication medium.
b. medium
c. transmitter
d. mixer

70. It is where the electronic signal is sent from one place to another.
b. transmitter
c. source
d. channel

71. It is a broad general term applied to any form of wireless communication from one point
to another.
b. frequency
c. signal
d. spectrum

72. Collection of electronic components and circuits that accept the transmitted message
from the channel and convert it back into a form understandable by humans.
b. medium
c. transmitter
d. converter

73. It is a random, undesirable, electric energy that enters a communications system via the
communicating medium and interferes with the transmitted message.
a. interference
b. noise
c. distortion
d. fluctuations

74. A system that transmits information about the physical status of the satellite including the
position and temperature.
a. telecommand
b. telemovement
c. television
d. telemetry

75. Regardless of whether information is analog or digital, these signals are referred to as
_________.
b. composite
c. baseband
d. any of these

76. Putting the original voice, video, or digital data directly into the medium is referred to as
_________.
a. baseband transmission
b. composite transmission
d. data transmission

77. It is the process of having a baseband voice, video, or digital signal modify another,
higher-frequency signal.
a. mixing
b. summing
c. heterodyning
d. modulation

78. It is the process of transmitting two or more signals simultaneously over the same
channel.
a. modulation
b. multiplexing
c. summing
d. demodulation

79. The entire range of frequencies is referred to as _________.
a. frequency spectrum
b. signals spectrum
c. electromagnetic spectrum

80. What is the wavelength in meters, if the frequency is 10 MHz?
a. 30
b. 0.3
c. 3
d. 300

81. Musical instruments makes sounds usually in what range?
a. LF
b. VLF
c. VF
d. HF

82. Range of electromagnetic spectrum used in navy to communicate submarines
a. VLF
b. LF
c. HF
d. UHF
83. Frequencies above 1 GHz range is called _________.
a. milliwaves
b. microwaves
c. centiwaves
d. hectowaves

84. The range of long infrared is
a. 0.01 mm to 1000 nm
b. 0.01 mm to 700 nm
c. 1000nm to 700 nm
d. 0.4 um to 0.8 um

85. A radiation that is generally associated with heat.
a. ultraviolet
b. visible light
c. infrared
d. EHF

86. Infrared occupies approximately
a. 0.01 mm to 1000nm
b. 0.01 mm to 700 nm
c. 1000nm to 700 nm
d. 0.4 um to 0.8 um

87. Light is a special type of electromagnetic radiation which has a wavelength range of
a. 0.01 mm to 1000nm
b. 0.01 mm to 700 nm
c. 1000nm to 700 nm
d. 0.4 um to 0.8 um

88. The approximate frequency of a red
a. 8000 Angstrom
b. 800 Angstrom
c. 4000 Angstrom
d. 400 Angstrom

89. It is the portion of electromagnetic spectrum occupied by the signal.
a. spectrum
b. composite
c. bandwidth
d. multiplexed

90. It is the frequency range over which an information signal is transmitted or over which a
receiver or other electronic equipment operate.
a. composite
b. bandwidth
c. summed frequency
d. signals

91. The range of frequencies required to transmit the desired information.
a. channel bandwidth
b. information capacity
c. information bandwidth
d. channel capacity

92. The first complete system of wireless communications was provided by
a. Samuel Morse
b. Guglielmo Marconi
c. James Maxwell
d. Heinrich Hertz

93. Calculate the noise power at the input of a microwave receiver with an equivalent noise
temperature of 45 K. It is fed from an antenna with a 35 K equivalent noise temperature
and operates over a 5-MHz bandwidth.
a. 3.56 fW
b. 1.34 fW
c. 2.98 fW
d. 5.52 fW

94. It is the process of putting information onto a high-frequency carrier for transmission.
a. multiplexing
b. modulation
c. mixing
d. heterodyning

95. It is generally a device that converts energy from one form to another.
a. transformer
b. motor
c. transducer
d. generator

96. Man-made noise occurs randomly at frequencies up to around
a. 100 Hz
b. 300 kHz
c. 200 MHz
d. 500 MHz

97. What is the seventh harmonic of 360 kHz?
a. 2520 kHz
b. 46.08 MHz
c. 3.6 x 10^12 Hz
d. 1980 kHz
98. Atmospheric noise is not a significant factor for frequencies exceeding about _________.
a. 30 MHz
b. 50 MHz
c. 10 MHz
d. 25 MHz

99. Space noise contains less energy below
a. 9 MHz
b. 15 MHz
c. 20 MHz
d. 8 MHz

100. The process of converting a frequency or band of frequencies to another location in the
total frequency spectrum
a. modulation
b. detection
c. frequency translation
d. amplification

101.What is frequency range of EHF?
a. 3 30 GHz
b.30 300 GHz
c. 30 300 MHz
d. 300 3000 MHz

102.Calculate the wavelength in free space corresponding to a frequency of AM radio
a. 300 m
b. 7.5 m
c. 11.1 m
d. 3.25 m

103.When the input power is reduced in half at the output, the signal power is said to be
reduced by:
a. 2 dB
b. 6 dB
c. 4 dB
d. 3 dB

104. A current change that is equal to twice its original value will correspond to a change of
a. 3 dB
b. 9 dB
c. 10 dB
d. 6 dB

105.There are four networks in series. The first network has a gain of 15 dB, the second has
a loss of 4 dB, the third gain of 35 dB, and the fourth a loss of 5 dB. The input of the
first network is +3dBm. What is the output to the last network in mW.
a. 15913.1
b. 19922.9
c. 25118.9
d. 29523.6

106. The PLL is often combined with _________ circuits to produce multiple frequencies.
a. Local oscillator
b. Mixer
c. RF amplifier
d. AF amplifier

107. Flicker noise may be completely ignored above about _________.
a. 500 Hz
b. 350 Hz
c. 225 Hz
d. 300 Hz

108. Determine the noise figure for an equivalent noise temperature of 75 K.
a. 1 dB
b. 3 dB
c. 2 dB
d. 1.25 dB

109.What is the other name for HF?
a. microwaves
b. short waves
c. millimeter waves
d. audio waves

110.It is a resistive network that is used to introduce a fixed amount of attenuation between
a. limiter
b. clipper
c. mixer
d. attenuator

111.A technique used in improving communication when a high peak-to-average power ratio
of atmospheric noise occurs, the receiver is disabled during the duration of these burst.
a. quieting
b. noise blanking
c. limiting
d. mixing

112.It is the ratio of the signal power level to noise power level
a. noise figure
b. signal-to-noise ratio
d. noise improvement factor

113.It is a figure of merit used to indicate how much the signal-to-noise ratio deteriorates as a
signal passes through a circuit or series of circuits.
a. Q-factor
b. signal-to-noise ratio
c. noise factor
d. numerical aperture

114.What is the major contributor of transistor noise?
a. thermal agitation noise
b. pink noise
c. flicker noise
d. shot noise

115.Which of the following is not known as excess noise?
a. pink noise
b. 1/f noise
c. flicker noise
d. brown noise

116.It is the relative measure of the desired signal power to the noise power
a. noise factor
b. signal-to-noise ratio
c. noise figure
d. noise improvement factor

117.Which of the following is a desirable value of signal-to-noise ratio in dB?
a. 0
b. 100
c. 1
d. 50

118.It is the range of frequency in which the upper frequency is double the lower frequency
c. octave
d. none of these

119.Which of the following noise figure is more desirable?
a. 0 dB
b. 100 dB
c. 1 dB
d. infinity

120.The formula used to measure the total noise figure due to amplifiers in cascade is called
_________.
a. Johnsons formula
b. Shannons formula
c. Hartleys formula
d. Friss formula

121.It is defined as to fluctuate between two states or conditions.
a. oscillate
b. synchronization
c. amplify
d. signal generation

122.An oscillator is _________ when the changes in a waveform are continuous and
repetitive and occurs in a periodic rate.
a. locking
b. one-shot
c. triggered
d. self-sustaining

123.A free-running oscillator is also called _________.
a. one-shot
b. triggered
c. locking
d. self-sustaining

124.Oscillators that are not self-sustaining are called _________.
a. free-running
b. feedback
c. triggered
d. regenerative

125.An oscillator that is an amplifier with a feedback loop.
a. signal generator
b. feedback oscillator
c. frequency synthesizer
d. frequency synchronization circuit

126.For a feedback circuit to sustain oscillation, the net voltage gain around the feedback
loop must be unity or greater, and the net phase shift around the loop must be positive
integer multiply of 360 degrees.
a. Barkhausen criterion
b. Butterworth criterion
c. Flywheel effect
d. Feedback criterion

127.A circuit which comprises of a voltage amplifier with an open-loop voltage gain, a
frequency-determining regenerative feedback path with a feedback ratio and either a
summer or subtractor circuit.
a. amplifier
b. closed-loop
c. power source
d. open-loop

128.It is the overall voltage gain of the complete circuit with the feedback loop closed and is
always less than the open-loop voltage gain.
a. feedback ratio
b. closed-loop voltage gain
c. open-loop current gain
d. close-loop current gain

129.It is the transfer function of the feedback network.
a. feedback ratio
b. closed-loop current gain
c. open-loop voltage gain
d. open-loop current gain

130.It is an untuned RC shift oscillator that uses both positive and negative feedback.
a. LC tank circuit
b. Colpitts oscillators
c. Hartley oscillators
d. Wein-Bridge oscillators

131.Its operation involves an exchange of energy between kinetic and potential.
a. Wein-Bridge oscillators
b. LC tank circuit
c. Clapp oscillators
d. Hartley oscillators

132.It is the ability of an oscillator to remain at as fixed frequency and is of primary
importance in a communications system
a. oscillation
b. synchronization
c. frequency stability
d. filtering

133.It is a function of component aging and changes in the ambient temperature and
humidity.
a. short-term stability
b. damping
c. long-term stability
d. filtering

134.It is the study of the form, structure, properties and classifications of crystals
a. Crystallography
b. Stalactitomy
c. Crystallomagraphy
d. Stalagmitophy

135.It deals with lattices, bonding and behaviour of splices of crystal material that have been
cut at various angles with respect to the crystals axes.
a. Crystallography
b. Stalactitomy
c. Crystallomagraphy
d. Stalagmitophy

136. It occurs when oscillating mechanical stresses applied across a crystal lattice structure
generate electrical oscillations and vice-versa.
a. crystal effect
b. photoelectric effect
c. piezoelectric effect
d. solar effect

137.Which of the following crystals is commonly used in microphones?
a. Quartz
b. Rochelle salt
c. Tourmaline

138.Which of the following crystals is often used for frequency control in oscillators?
a. EDT
b. Synthetic quartz
c. Tourmaline
d. Rochelle salt

139.An increase in temperature causes an increase in frequency and a decrease in
temperature causes an increase in frequency.
a. negative temperature coefficient
b. positive temperature coefficient
c. constant temperature coefficient
d. temperature coefficient

140.It is a specially constructed diode whose internal capacitance is enhanced when reverse
biased, and by varying the reverse bias voltage, the capacitance of the diode can be
a. tunnel diode
b. SAW
c. backward diode
d. varactor

141.It is often used when describing varactor diode fabrication.
b. reverse junction
c. barrier junction
d. capacitive junction

142.It is an oscillator circuit that generates well-defined, stable waveforms that can be
externally modulated or swept over a given frequency range.
a. swept generator
b. frequency synthesizer
c. wave generator
d. frequency synchronizer

143.It is a free-running oscillator with a stable frequency of oscillation that depends on an
external timing capacitance, timing resistance, and control voltage.
a. multiplier
b. monolithic controlled oscillator
c. voltage-controlled oscillator
d. phase-locked loop

144.It is defined as the range of frequencies in vicinity of the VCOs natural frequency over
which the PLL can maintain lock with an input signal.
a. capture range
b. lock range
c. bandwidth
d. free-running frequency

145.The voltage-controlled oscillator operates at a set frequency called
a. free-running frequency
b. capture range
c. lock range
d. bandwidth

146.Free-running frequency is also known as _________.
a. capture range
b. lock range
c. tracking range
d. natural

147. Also known as lock range
a. capture range
b. free-running frequency
c. natural frequency
d. tracking range

148. It is defined as the band of frequencies in the vicinity of the natural frequency where the
PLL can establish or acquire lock with an input signal.
a. tracking range
b. capture range
c. lock range
d. hold-in range

149. It is an oscillator with stable frequency of oscillation that depends on an external bias
voltage.
a. multiplier
b. monolithic controlled oscillator
c. voltage-controlled oscillator
d. phase-locked loop

150. Also known as phase comparator
a. phase detector
b. phase-lock loop
c. voltage controlled oscillator
d. frequency synthesizer

151. It means to form an entity by combining parts or elements.
a. oscillate
b. integrate
c. amplify
d. synthesize

152. It is used to generate many output frequencies through the addition, subtraction,
multiplication, and division of a smaller number of fixed frequency sources.
a. power amplifier
b. frequency synchronizer
c. oscillator
d. frequency synthesizer

153. A type of frequency synthesis in which multiple output frequencies are generated by
mixing the outputs from two or more crystal-controlled frequency sources or by dividing
or multiplying the output frequency form a single-crystal oscillator.
a. direct frequency synthesis
b. constant frequency synthesis
c. indirect frequency synthesis
d. multiple frequency synthesis

154. It is the minimum frequency separation between output frequencies for the synthesizer.
a. dynamic range
b. resolution
c. octave

155. Zero beat is also known as _________.
a. phase acquisition
b. loop acquisition
c. push-in acquisition
d. frequency acquisition

156. Capture range is also known as _________.
a. pull-in range
b. lock range
c. acquisition range
d. hold-in range

157. Half of the lock range is equal to _________.
a. capture range
b. hold-in range
c. pull-in range
d. free-running frequency

158. The _________ gain for a PLL is simply the product of the individual gains or transfer
function for the loop.
a. loop
b. capture
c. lock
d. closed

159. Considered as the main source of an internal noise.
a. Flicker
b. Thermal agitation
c. Device imperfection
d. Temperature change

160. What is the first symbol of a radio signal emission having amplitude modulated main
carrier?
a. C
b. B
c. H
d. A

161. The method of determining the bandwidth requirements for any processing system is
referred to as:
a. frequency spectrum
b. frequency analysis
c. spectral analysis
d. bandwidth analysis

162. When two-equal frequencies are mixed together, the result is
a. zero-bias
b. zero-beat
c. zero-modulation
d. off-beat

163. Noise uniformly distributed over the voice frequency band is called _________ noise.
a. impulse
b. quantizing
c. intermodulation
d. white

164. In psophometric noise weighting, one picowatt is equivalent to 800 Hz tone with a
power of
a. -90 dBm
b. -85 dBm
c. -65 dBm
d. none of the above

165. What is the reference tone level for dBa?
a. -90 dBm
b. -82 dBm
c. -67 dBm
d. -85 dBm

166. What is the reference tone level for dBm?
a. -90 dBm
b. -82 dBm
c. -67 dBm
d. -85 dBm

167. At what power level does a 1 kHz tone causes zero interference (144 weighted)?
a. 90 dB
b. 90 dBm
c. -90 dB
d. -90 dBm

168. A tone of _________ Hz causes more interference than do other frequencies, in a voice
channel.
a. 300
b. 1000
c. 3400
d. 4000
169. A power of a standard test tone is normally _________.
a. 0 mW
b. 1 W
c. 1 dB
d. 1 mW

170. The standard test tone has a frequency of _________ Hz.
a. 1000
b. 10
c. 100
d. none of these

171. In an analog voice frequency channel, the unwanted change in phase or frequency
caused by modulation of another signal is;
a. Intrinsic noise
b. white noise
c. intermodulation
d. phase-jitter

172. The kind of noise that is caused by mismatched lines;
a. echo noise
b. impulse noise
c. partition noise
d. intermodulation noise

173. What is the reference tone level for random noise measurement, F1A weighted?
a. -90 dBm
b. -82 dBm
c. -67 dBm
d. -85 dBm

174. A ten times power change in a transmission system is equivalent to:
a. 10 dB
b. 100 dB
c. 20 dB
d. 10 dB

175. If the transmitter output power of 10 watts is doubled, the gain derived is about:
a. 6 dB
b. 4 dB
c. 13 dB
d. noise of the above

176. When the power ratio of the input to output is 1/100, the loss of the circuit, in dB, is
a. 20
b. -20
c. -10
d. 3

177. An antenna which has a power gain of 30 dB would mean it could increase the output of
the transmitter by:
a. 10,000 times
b. 1,000 times
c. 100 times
d. 1 million times

178. In a double-tuned circuit, and peak output with _________ coupling.
a. under
b. over
c. optimum
d. medium

179. The frequency band used by cellular telephones and cellular telephones and mobile
communication services is _________.
a. UHF
b. EHF
c. VHF
d. VLF

180. The radio wavelength known as _________ falls within the medium frequency range.
a. centimetric
b. decametric
c. hectometric
d. myriametric

181. In a double-tuned circuit, maximum bandwidth with _________ coupling
a. under
b. over
c. optimum
d. critical

182. Decreasing the Q of a resonant circuit causes its bandwidth to _________.
a. increase
b. decrease
c. become constant
d. become narrow

183. Most impedance-matching networks are _________ filters, so they eliminate harmonics.
a. high-pass
b. low-pass
c. bandpass
d. bandstop
184. _________ are types of noise generated by equipments that produces sparks.
a. equipment noise
b. atmospheric noise
c. space noise
d. internal noise

185. A high-frequency noise occurs when the time taken by change carriers to cross a
junction is comparable to the period of the signal
a. pink noise
b. transit-time noise
c. white noise
d. flicker noise

186. The electromagnetic spectrum is managed worldwide by the _________ organization.
a. FCC
b. SI
c. ANSI
d. ITU

187. Unwanted mixer output signals are eliminated by a _________.
a. filter
b. multiplexer
c. mixer
d. amplifier

188. The bandwidth of a double-tuned transformer depends upon the degree of _________
between primary and secondary windings.
a. mutual inductance
b. coupling coefficient
c. limiting factor
d. filtering

189. In a double-tuned circuit, minimum bandwidth is obtained with _________ coupling.
a. under
b. over
c. optimum
d. critical

190. A basic circuit of a frequency of a synthesizer is a _________.
a. PLL
b. LC oscillator
c. Crystal oscillator
d. RC oscillator

191. The output frequency of a synthesizer is changed by varying the _________ of the
divider between the VCO and the phase detector.
a. Mixer output
b. IF output
c. Frequency division ratio
d. Voltage division ratio

192. The PLL is often combined with _________ circuits to produce multiple frequencies.
a. Local oscillator
b. Mixer
c. RF amplifier
d. AF amplifier

193. A crystal oscillator has superior _________ over an LC oscillator.
a. amplitude stability
b. frequency stability
c. phase stability
d. voltage stability

194. If a parallel LC circuit is at resonance, increasing C will cause the current to _________
the applied voltage.
b. lag

195. Information sent in the form of coded dots and dashes is called _________ transmission.
a. baudot
b. continuous-wave
c. digital
d. any of these

196. Fixed-frequency or channel operation of a transmitter is obtained by using a _________.
a. LC oscillator
b. RC oscillator
c. crystal oscillator
d. synthesizers

197. Combining a feedback capacitor with the internal capacitance of the transistor forms a
_________ circuit which is used to cancel the self-oscillation.
a. filter
b. tank
c. bridge
d. feedback

198. Untuned RF transformers permit _________ operation over a wide frequency range.
a. narrowband
b. middleband
d. any of these

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS IN
WAVE PROPAGATION
Electronics Systems and Technologies
By
Melvin C. Arceo

ENCODED BY:
GARCIA, Virginia Nonna H.
1. The cumulative sum of the direct, ground-reflected, and surface waves is reflected to as
_________.
a. Space wave
b. Ground wave
c. Sky wave
d. Direct waves

2. The D layer of the ionosphere reflects _________ waves.
a. MF and HF
b. VLF and MF
c. MF and VHF
d. VLF and LF

3. A diversity scheme wherein the same radio signal is repeated or transmitted more than
once.
a. polarization diversity
b. field component diversity
c. time diversity
d. frequency diversity

4. The disadvantage of ground wave propagation is
a. Ground waves require a relatively high transmission power
b. Ground waves are limited to very low, low and medium frequencies requiring large
antennas
c. Ground losses very considerably with surface material
d. Any of these

5. A range of microwave frequencies more easily passed by the atmosphere than the others
is called a
a. window
b. critical frequency
c. gyro frequency range
d. resonance in the atmosphere

6. It is simply the orientation of the electric field vector in respect to the surface of the Earth
a. Polarization
b. Wavefront
c. Rays
d. Power density

7. For an isotropic antenna radiating 100W of power, what is power density 1000m from the
source?
a. 1.99 uW/m^2
b. 7.96 uW/m^2
c. 3.22 uW/m^2
d. 9.17 uW/m^2

8. The ground wave eventually disappears, as moves away from the transmitter, because of
a. interference from the sky wave
b. loss of line-of-sight conditions
c. maximum single hop distance limitations
d. tilting

9. If the electric field is propagating parallel to the surface of the Earth, the polarization is
_________.
a. Circular
b. Vertical
c. Horizontal
d. Elliptical

10. A taxi company uses a central dispatcher, with an antenna at the top of a 15m tower, to
communicate with taxi cabs. The taxi antennas are on the roofs of the cars, approximately
1.5m above the ground. What is the maximum communication distance between the
dispatcher and a taxi?
a. 21 km
b. 30 km
c. 25 km
d. 33 km

11. The E layer of the ionosphere aid _________ propagation and reflects _________ waves
a. MF, HF
b. HF, MF
c. LF, MF
d. MF, LF

12. When microwave signals follows the curvature of the earth, it is known as
b. ducting
c. tropospheric scatter
d. ionospheric scatter
13. If the polarization vector rotates 360 degrees as the wave moves one wavelength through
space and field strength is equal at all angles of polarization, the polarization is
_________.
a. Vertically polarized
b. Horizontally polarized
c. Circularly polarized
d. Elliptically polarized

14. _________ travels essentially in a straight line between the transmit and the receive
antennas
a. Direct waves
b. Sky waves
c. Space waves
d. Surface waves

15. Variations brought about the revolution of the earth around the sun
a. weather variation
b. cyclical variation
c. diurnal variation
d. seasonal variation

16. The dielectric strength of air is about 3MV/m. Arching is likely to take place at field
strengths greater than that. What is the maximum power density of an electromagnetic
wave in air?
a. 40 GW/m^2
b. 15.5 GW/m^2
c. 23.9 GW/m^2
d. 18.9 GW/m^2

17. It is a single location from which rays propagate equally in all directions
a. point source
b. omnidirectional source
c. ideal polarization
d. isotropic polarized

18. Diffraction of electromagnetic waves
a. is caused by reflections from the ground
b. arises only with spherical waveforms
c. will occur when the waves pass through a large slot
d. may occur around the edge of a sharp obstacle
19. The critical frequency at a particular time is 11.6MHz. What is the MUF for a
transmitting station if the required angle of incidence for propagation to a desired
destination is 70 degrees?
a. 34 MHz
b. 45 MHz
c. 40 MHz
d. 15.5 MHz

20. The rate at which energy passes through a given surface area in free space is called
_________.
a. capture power
b. capture area
c. captured power density
d. power density

21. A radio wave moves from air (relative permittivity is 1) to glass (relative permittivity is
7.8). Its angle of incidence is 30 degrees. What is the angle of refraction?
a. 10.3 degrees
b. 11.2 degrees
c. 20.4 degrees
d. 0.179 degrees

22. It is the intensity of the electric and the magnetic fields of the electromagnetic wave
propagating in free space
a. field intensity
b. field density
c. power intensity
d. power intensity

23. Radio propagation was predicted mathematically by
a. Heinrich R. Hertz
b. Guglielmo Marconi
c. James Clerk Maxwell
d. Alexander Graham Bell

24. Tropospheric scatter is used with frequencies in the following range
a. HF
b. VHF
c. UHF
d. VLF
25. A point source that radiates power at a constant rate uniformly in all directions.
a. isotropic source
c. point source
d. any of these

26. The transmitting distance with direct waves is limited to short distances and strictly a
function of the _________ of the transmitting and receiving antenna.
a. frequency
b. phase
c. power
d. height

27. One nautical mile is equal to _________ statute miles.
a. 2.12
b. 1.15
c. 2.54
d. 1.90

28. It is the deflection or bending of electromagnetic waves such as radio waves, light or
even sound when the waves cross the boundary line between two mediums with different
characteristics.
a. reflection
b. diffraction
c. refraction
d. dispersion

29. The reduction of power density with distance is equivalent to a power loss.
a. absorption
b. attenuation
c. distance loss
d. power dissipation

30. The signal refracted back from the ionosphere strikes the earth and is reflected back up to
the ionosphere again to be bent and sent back to earth.
a. skip transmission
b. multi-hop transmission
c. multi transmission
d. hop transmission

31. Electromagnetic waves are refracted when they
a. pass into a medium of different dielectric constant
b. are polarized at right angles to the direction of propagation
c. encounter a perfectly conducting surface
d. pass through a small slot in a conducting plane

32. The reduction in power density due to nonfree-space propagation
a. absorption
b. attenuation
c. power dissipation
d. distance loss

33. _________ is the signal that is radiated by the antenna into the atmosphere where it is
bent or reflected back to earth.
a. ground wave signal
b. sky wave signal
c. space wave signal
d. direct waves signal

34. It is a type of fading having different effect different frequencies

35. It is defined as the modulation or redistribution of energy within a wave front as it passes
near the edge of an opaque object.
a. refraction
b. scattering
c. reflection
d. diffraction

36. What type of modulation is primarily used in ground wave propagation?
a. Frequency modulation
b. Amplitude modulation
c. Phase modulation
d. Pulse modulation

37. It states that every point on a given spherical wavefront can be considered as a secondary
point source of electromagnetic waves from which other secondary waves or wavelets are
a. Hertzian principle
b. Maxwells principle
c. Huygens principle
d. Marconis principle

38. Calculate the electric field intensity, in volts per meter, 20 km from a 1-kW source.
a. 3.44 mW/m
b. 7.65 mW/m
c. 8.66 mW/m
d. 1.45 mW/m

39. The absorption of radio waves by the atmosphere depends on
a. their frequency
b. their distance from the transmitter
c. the polarization of waves
d. is always vertical in an isotropic medium

40. Calculate the radio horizon for a 500-ft transmitting antenna and receiving antenna of 20
ft.
a. 23.1 mi
b. 31.2 mi
c. 14.8 mi
d. 37.9 mi

41. Calculate the power received from a 20-W transmitter, 22,000 miles from earth, if the
receiving antenna has an effective area of 1600m^2
a. 4.06 x 10^-12 W
b. 2.03 x 10^-12 W
c. 1.02 x 10^-12 W
d. 0.91 x 10^-12 W

42. As electromagnetic waves travel in free space, only one of the following can happen to
them
a. absorption
b. attenuation
c. refraction
d. reflection
43. Electromagnetic waves travelling within Earths atmosphere is called
a. Space wave
b. Surface wave
c. Terrestrial wave
d. Sky-wave

44. Calculate the power density in watts per square meter (on earth) from a 10-W satellite
source that is 22,000 miles from earth.
a. 3.17 x 10^ -16 W/m^2
b. 6.35 x 10^ -16 W/m^2
c. 2.31 x 10^ -16 W/m^2
d. 1.21 x 10^ -16 W/m^2

45. It is termed used to describe variations in signal strength that occur at the receiver during
this time a signal is being received.
a. skipping
b. attenuation
c. absorption

46. The constant temperature stratosphere is called _________.
a. E-layer
b. S-layer
c. isothermal region
d. ionosthermal region

47. It is the tendency of the sun to have grayish-black blemishes, seemingly at random times
and at random place, on its fiery surface.
a. solar intensity
b. sunspot
c. solar flare
d. solar flux

48. In electromagnetic waves, polarization
a. is caused by reflection
b. is due to the transverse nature of the waves
c. results from the longitudinal nature of waves
d. is always vertical in an isotropic medium

49. It is an earth-guided electromagnetic wave that travels over the surface of the Earth
a. Surface waves
b. Sky waves
c. Direct waves
d. Space waves

50. Frequencies in the UHF range normally propagate by means of
a. Ground waves
b. Sky waves
c. Surface waves
d. Space waves

51. The curvature of the Earth presents a horizon to space wave propagation commonly
called _________.
a. Optical horizon
c. Horizontal horizon
d. Vertical horizon

52. Electromagnetic waves that are directed above the horizon level is called _________.
a. direct waves
b. sky waves
c. space waves
d. surface waves

53. The refracting and reflecting action of the ionosphere and the ground is called
a. sliding
b. skipping
c. hopping
d. boosting

54. An electrical energy that is escaped in free space
a. Electrical signal
b. Electromagnetic waves
c. Magnetic waves
d. Electromagnetism

55. The layer of the ionosphere which farthest from the sun
a. D layer
b. E layer
c. F1 layer
d. F2 layer

56. A condition which manifest itself in the form of double-image distortion
a. running
c. ghosting
d. snowing

57. The D layer of the ionosphere absorbs _________ waves.
a. LF and MF
b. MF and HF
c. HF and VHF
d. VHF and UHF

58. The E layer of the ionosphere is sometimes called _________
a. Kennely-Heavisides
c. E-densed layer
d. Kennely layer

59. It is defined as the higher frequency that can be propagated directly upward and still be
returned to earth by the ionosphere
a. critical angle
b. maximum usable frequency
c. critical frequency
d. virtual height

60. The maximum vertical angle at which electromagnetic waves can be propagated and still
be reflected back by the ionosphere
a. numerical aperture
b. incident angle
c. critical angle
d. refracted angle

61. It is defined as the plane joining all points of equal phase
a. rays
b. electromagnetic wave
c. wavefront
d. isotropic source

62. It is the height above Earths surface from which a reflected wave appears to have been
reflected.
a. virtual height
b. maximum height
c. vertical height
d. horizontal height

63. It is the highest frequency that can be used for sky wave propagation between two
specific points on Earths surface
a. optimum working frequency
b. maximum usable frequency
c. critical frequency
d. maximum frequency

64. The polarization of electromagnetic waves can be determined by the direction of the
a. E field
b. H field
c. propagation
d. both E and H field

65. 85 percent of the maximum usable frequency (MUF) is called _________.
a. maximum usable frequency
b. optimum working frequency
c. critical frequency
d. maximum frequency

66. It is defined as the minimum distance from the transmit antenna that a sky wave at a
given frequency will be returned to earth.
a. skip distance
b. skip zone
c. skip frequency distance
d. skip zone frequency

67. At distance greater than the skip distance, two rays can take different paths and still be
returned to the same point on Earth. The two rays are called lower rays and _________.
a. Pedersen ray
b. Light ray
c. Huygens ray
d. Millers ray

68. Undesired radiated energy from a radio transmitter or in another source.
a. ESD
b. EMI
c. RFI
d. ESI

69. The area between where the surface waves are completely dissipated and the point where
the first sky wave returns to earth is called _________.
a. skip distance
b. skip distance zone
c. optical horizon
d. quiet zone

70. The undesired radiated energy that may cause interference with other electronic
equipment in the vicinity.
a. ESD
b. EMI
c. RFI
d. ESI

71. It is defined as the loss incurred by an electromagnetic wave as it propagates in a straight
line through a vacuum with no absorption or reflection of energy from nearby objects.
a. free-space path loss
b. free space loss
c. path loss
d. any of these

72. To increase the transmission distance of a UHF signal, which of the following should be
done?
a. increase the antenna gain
b. increase antenna height
c. increase transmitter power

73. For a carrier frequency of 6 GHz and a distance of 50 km, determine the free-space path
loss
a. 132 dB
b. 123 dB
c. 142 dB
d. 152 dB
74. A microwave-transmitting antenna is 550 ft high. The receiving antenna is 200 ft high.
The maximum transmission distance is
a. 20 mi
b. 33.2 mi
c. 38.7 mi
d. 53.2 mi

75. Indicate which one of the following term applies to troposcatter propagation
a. SIDs
c. Atmospheric storms

76. Line-of-sight communications is not a factor in which frequency range?
a. VHF
b. UHF
c. HF
d. Microwave

77. VLF waves are used for some types of services because
a. of the low powers required
b. the transmitting antenna are of convenient size
c. they are very reliable
d. affected by the solar cycle

78. Microwave signals propagate by way of the
a. direct wave
b. sky wave
c. surface wave
d. standing wave

79. Indicate which of the following frequencies cannot be used for reliable beyond-the-
horizon terrestrial communications without repeaters:
a. 20 kHz
b. 15 MHz
c. 900 MHz
d. 12 GHz

80. The type of radio wave responsible for long-distance communications by multiple skips
is the
a. ground wave
b. direct wave
c. surface waves
d. sky wave

81. High-frequency waves are
a. absorbed by the F2 layer
b. reflected by the D layer
c. capable of use for long-distance communications on the moon
d. affected by the solar cycle

82. The ionosphere has its greatest effect on signals in what frequency range?
a. 300 kHz to 3 MHz
b. 3 to 30 MHz
c. 30 to 300 MHz
d. above 300 MHz

83. Distances near the skip distance should be used for sky-wave propagation
a. to avoid tilting
b. to prevent sky-wave and upper ray interference
d. so as not to exceed the critical frequency

84. Ground-wave communications is most effective in what frequency range?
a. 300 kHz to 3 MHz
b. 3 to 30 MHz
c. 30 to 300 MHz
d. above 300 MHz

85. The ionosphere causes radio signals to be
a. diffused
b. absorbed
c. refracted
d. reflected

86. Helical antenna are often used for satellite tracking at VHF because of
a. troposcatter
b. superrefraction
c. ionospheric refraction
87. A ship-to-ship communication system is plagued by fading. The best solution seem to use
of
a. a more directional antenna
c. frequency diversity
d. space diversity

88. It is defined as the ratio of the electric field intensity of the reflected wave to that of the
incident wave
a. refractive index
b. numerical aperture
c. reflection coefficient
d. absorption coefficient

89. It is the measure of energy received per unit time, per unit area, per unit frequency
interval.
a. solar intensity
b. sunspot
c. solar flare
d. solar flux

90. A long period with lack of any solar activity
a. El Nio
b. La Nia
c. Maunder period
d. Sunspots

91. As a ground-wave signal moves away from the transmitter, the ground wave eventually
disappears due to the
a. absorption
b. tilting
c. refraction
d. diffraction

92. It is the lowest layer of the atmosphere where all weather disturbances takes place
a. D layer
b. Stratosphere
c. Ionosphere
d. Troposphere

93. It is the lower limit of the range of frequencies that provide useful communication
between two given points by the way of the ionosphere.
a. MUF
b. LUF
c. OWF
d. MMF

94. It is the area that lies between the outer limit of the ground-wave range and the inner edge
of energy return from the ionosphere
a. skip distance
b. skip zone
c. virtual height
d. optical horizon

95. Variations brought about by the rotation of the earth around its axis.
a. cyclical rotation
b. seasonal variation
c. diurnal variation
d. weather variation

96. Ionospheric irregularity caused by solar flares, which are gigantic emissions of hydrogen
from the sun.
a. Sudden ionospheric disturbances
d. Any of these

98. Radio horizon is _________ greater than the optical horizon.
a. one-third
b. four-third
c. two-third
d. twice

99. An increase in temperature with height which gives rise to superrefraction or ducting is
known as _________.
a. height inversion
b. depth inversion
c. temperature inversion
d. ionospheric inversion

100. A region in which superrefraction occurs which is formed in the troposphere when the
layer of cool air becomes trapped underneath a layer of warmer air.
a. duct
b. dielectric area
c. gateway
d. window
101. A range of frequency little attenuated by the atmosphere is called
a. slide
b. door
c. window
d. frame

102. It is defined as either of two acute angles formed by the intersection of the two portions
of the tropospheric scatter beam tangent to the earths surface.
a. critical angle
b. scatter angle
c. backscatter angle
d. sidescatter angle

103. It is a device that permits two different transmitters to operate with a single antenna
a. duplexer
b. diplexer
c. isolator
d. circulator

104. It is a gradual shift in polarization of the signal in the medium.
c. ghosting

directions
a. frequency diversity
b. time diversity
c. angle diversity
d. space diversity
106. The radio wavelength known as _________ falls within the medium frequency range
a. centimetric wave
b. decametric wave
c. hectometric wave
d. myriametric wave

107. The most dense of all ionized layer of the ionosphere
a. E
b. F1
c. F2
d. D

108. The frequency band used as sub-carriers, or signals which carry the baseband
modulating information but in turn modulate another higher-frequency carrier is
_________.
a. LF
b. MF
c. VLF
d. VH

109. The range of frequency band termed as super high frequency (SHF) is within
_________.
a. 30-300 GHz
b. 30-300 MHz
c. 3-30 GHz
d. 300-3000 MHz

110. Electric field that lies in a plane perpendicular to the earths surface.
a. circular polarization
b. vertical polarization
c. horizontal polarization
d. elliptical polarization

111. The magnetic field of an antenna is perpendicular to the earth. The antennas
polarization
a. is vertical
b. is horizontal
c. is circular
d. cannot be determined from the information given

112. The surface wave is effective only at frequencies below about _________ MHz.
a. 30
b. 3
c. 300
d. 0.3

113. What wave propagation are attenuated within a few miles?
a. space
b. sky
c. ground
d. direct

114. What happens to wave velocity as it passes from air to ionosphere?
a. increases
b. decreases
c. remain the same
d. not a factor

115. What wavelength radiations tend to be transmitted entirely between ionosphere and
earth?
a. long
b. short
c. medium
d. millimeter

116. What effect do sunspots have on the ionosphere?
a. makes more rare and regular
b. makes more dense and irregular
c. makes less dense and regular
d. makes less dense and irregular

117. What is a double-hop signal?
a. ground, ionosphere, ground and back to ionosphere
b. ground, ground, ionosphere, and ionosphere
c. ionosphere, ionosphere, ground and ground
d. ionosphere, ground, ionosphere and back to ground

118. What is the major cause of fading?
a. phase difference
b. topographic variation
c. climate
d. ionosphere variation

119. Where is the skip zone?
a. between the sky and the first reflected wave
b. between end of ground and first reflected wave
c. between end of ground and farthest reflected wave
d. between the end of sky to the farthest reflected wave

120. What wave is the same day or night?
a. sky
b. space
c. direct
d. ground

121. Why do HF communications system shift frequencies at different times of day?
a. to take advantage of best reflected signals
b. to conserve the energy used
c. to create diversity
d. to improve noise performance

122. Scatter transmission is used at what frequencies?
a. EHF and VLF
b. HF and VHF
c. VHF and UHF
d. ELF and VLF

123. Over what areas ducts often form?
a. desert
b. water
c. forest
d. mountain

124. Polarization named for _________ component of the wave?
a. static
b. magnetic
c. direction
d. propagation

125. What polarization is employed in an AM broadcasting?
a. horizontal
b. parallel
c. transverse
d. vertical

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS IN
DIGITAL AND DATA
COMMUNICATIONS
Electronics Systems and Technologies
By
Melvin C. Arceo

ENCODED BY:
GIRAO, Edward Joseph D.
1. It is defined as knowledge or intelligence that is communicated between two or more points.
A. Carrier
B. Sideband
C. Information
2. What is the category of data transmission if the binary pulse is maintained for the entire bit
time?
B. Bipolar
C. Unipolar
3. Which medium is most widely used in LANs?
B. Fiber-optic cable
C. Twisted pair
D. Coax
4. These are used for transmission of PCM encoded time-division multiplexed digital signal
A. I carriers
B. E carriers
C. A carriers
D. T carriers
5. Which of the following is not a typical FDM application?
A. telemetry
C. telephone
D. secure communications
6. A LAN device that use to interconnect two networks that use different protocols and formats
A. Gateways
B. Routers
C. Bridges
D. Hubs
7. A pulse modulation technique as the width of a constant amplitude pulse is varied proportional
to the amplitude of the analog signal at the time the signal is sampled.
A. Pulse Width Modulation
B. Pulse Length Modulation
C. Pulse Duration Modulation
D. All of these
8. The FDM telephone systems accommodate many channels by
A. Increasing the multiplexer size
B. Using many final carriers
C. Narrowing the bandwidth of each
D. Using multiple levels of multiplexing
9. It is the transmittal of digitally modulated analog signals (carrier) between two or more points
in a communications system.
A. Digital Modulation
B. Digital Transmission
C. Digital Communications
D. Pulse Modulation
10. Indicate which of the following systems is digital
A. Pulse-position modulation
B. Pulse-code modulation
C. Pulse-width modulation
D. Pulse-frequency modulation
11. Classification of protocol that interprets a frame of data as a group of successive bit
combined into predetermined pattern of fixed length, usually 8 bits each.
A. Character-oriented protocols
B. Byte-oriented protocols
C. Bit-oriented protocol
D. Character and Byte-oriented protocols
12. Dividing the data block by a constant produces a remainder that is used for error detection. It
is called the
A. Vertical redundancy checking
B. Horizontal redundancy checking
C. Block check character
D. Cyclic redundancy check
13. Which of the following is not a benefit of spread spectrum?
A. Jam-proof
B. Security
D. Noise proof
14. Converting analog signals to digital is done by sampling and _________.
A. quantizing
B. companding
C. pre-emphasis
D. mixing
15. It is a process of converting an infinite number of possibilities to a finite number of
conditions
A. Sampling
B. Coding
C. Quantization
D. Aliasing
16. In T1, it is equal to the reciprocal of the sample rate
A. Slot time
B. Transmission time
C. Frame time
D. Bit rate
17. What is the final output of a multiplexer?
A. Baseband
B. Composite baseband
C. Information
D. Composite carrier
18. The baud rate
A. is always equal to the bit transfer rate
B. is equal to the twice the bandwidth of an ideal channel
C. is not equal to the signaling rate
D. is equal to one-half the bandwidth of an ideal channel
19. Bit errors in data transmission are usually caused by
A. equipment failures
B. typing mistakes
C. noise
D. Poor S/N ratio at receiver
20. A digital modulation technique which is a form of constant-amplitude angle modulation
similar to standard frequency modulation except the modulating signal is binary signal that
varies between two discreet voltage levels.
A. QAM
C. PSK
D. FSK
21. Start and stop bits, respectively, are
A. Mark, space
B. Space, mark
C. Space, space
D. Mark, mark
22. It is the processing of analog signals using digital methods and includes bandlimiting and
signals with filters, amplitude equalization, and phase shifting
A. Digital communications
B. Digital signal processing
C. Data communications
D. Carrier recovery method
23. It is a network access method used primarily with LANs configured in a ring topology using
either baseband or broadband transmission formats.
A. Ethernet
B. Token passing
C. Token ring
D. Token bus
24. A small telephone switching system that can be used as a LAN is called
A. Ring
B. WAN
C. UART
D. PBX
25. The most common method used for sampling voice signals in PCM systems.
A. unnatural sampling
B. flat top smpling
C. natural sampling
D. free sampling
26. In PCM, it converts the PAM samples to parallel PCM codes
A. Analog-to-digital Converter
B. Digital-to-analog Converter
C. Pre-emphasis circuit
D. Compander
27. The OSI layer that provides the control functions necessary to establish manage, and
terminate the connections as required to satisfy the user request.
A. Application layer
B. Network layer
C. Session layer
D. Physical layer
28. In PAM demultiplexing, the receiver clock is derived from
B. a highly accurate internal oscillator
C. the PAM signal itself
D. the 60-Hz power line
29. It is also known as digital modulation
A. digital transmission
B. digital sampling
D. data transmission
30. Time-division multiplex
A. can be used with PCM only
B. combines five groups into a supergroup
C. stacks 24 channels in adjacent frequency slots
D. interleaves pulses belonging to different transmissions
31. It is a numerical indication of how efficiently a PCM code is utilized
A. Coding efficiency
B. Companding
C. Pre-emphasis
D. Dynamic Range
32. Type of PCM which is designed to take advantage of the sample-to sample redundancies in
the typical speech waveform
A. Single-bit PCM code
B. Pulse code modulation
C. Differential PCM
D. Data modulation
33. The Basic Rate Interference (BRI) of ISDN has a total bit rate of ______
A. 192 kbps
B. 148 kbps
C. 64 kbps
D. 1.544 Mbps
34. A form of angle-modulated, constant amplitude digital modulation similar to conventional
phase modulation except its input is binary digital signal and there are limited number of output
phase possible
B. PSK
C. FSK
D. QAM
35. The main circuit in a PSN generator is
A. XOR
B. Multiplexer
C. Shift register
D. Mixer
36. The circuit that performs demultiplexing in an FDM is _____
A. Op-amp
B. Bandpass filter
C. Discriminator
D. Subcarrier oscillator
37. _____ defines how a user gets control of the channel so as to allow transmission.
A. channel access
B. collision detection
C. collision avoidance
D. carrier sense
38. The fastest LAN topology is
A. ring
B. bus
C. star
D. square
39. It is a theoretical expectation of the bit error rate in the system
A. probability of errors
B. error detection
C. error control
D. bit error rate
40. It is simply the data rate at which serial PCM bits are clocked out of the PCM encoder onto
the transmission line.
A. line speed
B. baud rate
C. output rate
D. bit rate
41. A quantizing is _____
A. Multiplexer
B. Demultiplexer
C. A/D converter
D. D/A converter
42. Refers to the rate of change of a signal on a transmission medium after encoding and
modulation have occurred
A. baud rate
B. phase shift
C. bit rate
D. frequency deviation
43. The magnitude difference between adjacent steps in quantization is called _____
A. Quantum
B. Step size
C. Resolution
D. Any of these
44. It is a set of rules implementing and governing an orderly exchange of data between layers
of two devices, such as line control units and front-end processors.
B. Network Protocol
C. Pont to Point Protocol
D. File Transfer Protocol
45. A signaling system in which each letter of the alphabet is represented by a different symbol is
not used because
A. it would be too difficult for an operator to memorize
B. it is redundant
C. noise would introduce too many errors
D. too many pulses per letter are required
46. A modulation process that involves conversion of a waveform from analog to digital form by
means of coding
A. PDM
B. PCM
C. PLM
D. PAM
47. What is the bandwidth required to transmit at a rate of 10 Mbps in the presence of a 28-Db
S/N ratio?
A. 1.075 MHz
B. 10 MHz
C. 5 MHz
D. 10.75 MHz
48. The slope of the analog signal is greater than the delta modulator can maintain
B. granular noise
D. peak limiting
49. A scheme in which several channels are interleaved and then transmitted together is known
as
A. frequency division multiplex
B. time-division multiplex
C. a group
D. a supergroup
50. The best frequency demodulator is
A. PLL discriminator
B. Pulse-averaging discriminator
C. Foster-Seeley discriminator
D. Ratio detector
51. What property distinguishes digital radio systems from conventional analog communications
system?
A. the type of carrier used in transmission of data
B. the nature of the modulating signal
C. the type of modulation of data to be used
D. the nature of the transmitter and receiver to be used
52. The circuit switch is a _____ switch.
A. See-through
B. Transparent
C. Vague
D. Opaque
53. A carrier recovery circuit is not needed with
A. FSK
B. BPSK
C. DPSK
D. QAM
54. The Hartley-Shannon theorem sets a limit on the
A. the highest frequency that may be sent over a given channel
B. maximum capacity of a channel with a given noise level
C. maximum number of coding levels in a channel with a given noise level
D. maximum number of quantizing levels in a channel of a given bandwidth
55. The phase relationship between signaling elements for BPSK is the optimum signaling
format and occurs only when two binary signal levels are allowed and when one signal is the
exact negative of the other
A. Antipodal signaling
B. Carrier recovery
C. Squaring loop
D. Phase referencing
56. Pulse-amplitude modulation signals are multiplexed by using
A. Subcarrier
B. Bandpass filters
C. A/D Converters
D. FET switches
57. It is the ratio of the transmission bit rate to the minimum bandwidth required for a particular
modulation scheme.
A. Bandwidth efficiency
B. All of these
C. Information density
D. Spectral efficiency
58. Ethernet is a baseband transmission system designed by _____
A. Thomas Murray and Robert Metcalfe
B. David Boggs and Thomas Murray
C. Thomas Murray and Emile Baudot
D. Robert Metcalfe and David Boggs
59. It is a system where the digital signals are placed directly on the coaxial cable.
B. Baseband
C. CSMA/CD
D. Token ring
60. A basic group B
A. occupies the frequency range from 60 to 108 kHz
B. consists of erect channels only
C. is formed at the group translating equipment
D. consists of five supergroups
61. Which of the following is not primarily a type of data communications?
A. telephone
B. teletype
C. telegraph
D. CW
62. Packets which is self-contained and travels through the network independent of other packets
of the same message by whatever means available.
A. Packet
B. Frame
C. Datagram
D. Data
63. Transmitting the data signal directly over the medium is referred to as
A. baseband
C. ring
D. bus
64. The main reason that serial transmission is preferred to parallel transmission is that?
A. serial is faster
B. serial requires only a single channel
C. serial requires multiple channels
D. parallel is too expensive
65. Which of the following is not a LAN?
A. PBX system
B. Hospital system
C. Office building system
D. Cable TV system
66. A modulation technique where data rates in excess of 56 kbps can be achieved over
telephone circuits
B. Trellis code modulation
C. GSK
D. any of these
67. It is how the primary designates the secondary as a designation or recipient of data.
A. Line turnaround
B. Selection
C. Line control
D. Control protocol
68. It is the process of compressing and expanding and is a means of improving the dynamic
range of a communications system.
A. Pre-emphasis
B. Filtering
C. De-emphasis
D. Companding
69. The supergroup pilot is
A. applied at each multiplexing bay
B. used to regulate the gain of individual repeaters
C. applied at each adjustable equalizer
D. fed in at a GTE
70. The time it takes to transmit one TDM frame is called _____
A. Slot time
B. Frame time
C. Transmission time
D. any of these
71. It is the thermal noise power normalized to 1-Hz bandwidth
A. power density ratio
B. thermal noise
C. noise power density
D. ambient temperature noise
72. It is the procedure used to decide which device has the permission to transmit at any given
time.
A. Flow control
B. Sequence control
C. Line control
D. Frame
73. Any rounded-off errors in the transmitted signal are reproduced when the code is converted
A. Aperture error
B. Quantization error
C. Aperture distortion
74. The biggest disadvantage of PCM is
A. its inability to handle analog signals
B. the high error rate which is quantizing noise introduces
C. its incompatibility with TDM
D. the large bandwidths that are required for it
75. T1 stands for
A. Transmission one
B. Telecommunication one
C. Telex one
D. Transmission line one
76. Involves compression in the transmitter after the input pulse has been converted to a linear
PCM code and then expansion in the receiver prior to PCM coding
A. analog companding
B. A-law companding
C. digital companding
D. u-law companding
77. Mark and space refer respectively to
A. dot and dash
B. message and interval
C. binary 1 and binary 0
D. on and off
78. Variation of biphase that is used for encoding SMPTE (Society of Motion Picture and
Television Engineers) time code data and for recording on video tapes
A. Biphase-M
B. B8Z
C. Manchester
D. UPNRZ
79. Pulse-width modulation may be generated
A. by differentiating pulse-position modulation
B. with a monostable multivibrator
C. by integrating the signal
D. with a free-running multivibrator
80. The ISDN channel D designates _____ which contains control information.
A. Data
B. Flow
C. Control
D. Bearer
81. A transmission of binary data which involves the transmission of two non-zero voltage level
A. Unipolar
B. Polar
C. Bipolar
82. Switching systems
A. improve the efficiency of data transfer
B. are not used in data systems
D. are limited to small data networks
83. It involves converting standard logic levels to a form more suitable to telephone transmission
lines
A. Transmission line encoding
B. Physical line encoding
C. Digital line encoding
D. Multiplexing
84. The primary advantage of digital transmission
A. economical
B. reliability
C. noise immunity
D. efficiency
85. Part of the PCM system that prevents aliasing or foldover distortion
A. Bandpass filter
B. Anti-foldover distortion
C. Anti-aliasing
D. Any of these
86. It is defined as the process of transforming messages or signals in accordance with a definite
set of rules.
A. Quantizing
B. Sampling
C. Coding
D. Decoding
87. The PCM code for each channel occupies a fixed time slot called
A. Frame time
B. Baud
C. Transmission line
D. Epoch
88. The building block of a parity or BCC generator is _____.
A. Shift register
B. XOR
C. 2-to-4 level converter
D. UART
89. An IC that contains A/D and D/A converters, companders, and parallel-to-serial converters is
called a
A. Codec
B. Data converter
C. Multiplexer
D. Modem
90. Data Communications refers to the transmission of
A. voice
B. video
C. computer data
D. all of above
91. The number of amplitude, frequency, or phase changes that take place per second is known
as the
A. data rate in bits per second
B. frequency of operation
C. speed limit
D. baud rate
92. The basic modulator and demodulator circuits in PSK are
A. PLLs
B. Balanced modulators
C. Shift registers
D. Linear summers
93. What is the result if the input of ADC is changing while performing vonersion?
A. Aperture error
C. Aliasing
D. Aperture distortion
94. Information capacity is convenient to express as
A. baud
B. bits
C. dot length
D. bits per second or bps
95. Which medium is the least susceptible to noise?
B. fiber-optic cable
C. twisted pair
D. coax
96. The RS-232 interface
A. interconnects data sets and transmission circuits
B. uses several different connectors
C. permits custom wiring of signal lines to the connector pins as desired
D. all of the above
97. The ISDN channel B designates _____
A. Bearer
B. Data
C. Control
D. Flow
98. Data transmission of the character at a time with start and stop bits is known as what type of
transmission?
A. asynchronous
B. serial
C. synchronous
D. parallel
99. Sampling technique that when the tops of the sample pulses retain their natural shape during
the sample interval
A. unnatural sampling
B. flat top sampling
C. natural sampling
D. free sampling
100. A modem converts
A. Analog signals to digital
B. Digital signals to analog
C. Digital signals to analog and vice-versa
D. none of these
101. It is a large scale integration chip designed for use in telecommunication industry for private
branch exchanges, central office switches, digital handsets and digital echo suppressors.
A. Vocoder
B. Modem
C. Codec
D. Muldem
102. What is the type of mastergroup used for low-capacity microwave systems?
A. A600
B. U600
C. L600
D. L400
103. An FDM hierarchy which is formed by frequency-division multiplexing five groups
containing 12 channels each for a combined bandwidth of 240 kHz
A. Supergroup
B. Group
C. Mastergroup
D. Jumbogroup
104. The result whenever the sampling rate is less than the twice the highest audio frequency
A. peak limiting
C. alias
D. quantizing noise
105. The most critical and difficult part of receiving a direct-sequence spread spectrum is
A. Frequency synthesis
B. Synchronism
C. PSN code generation
D. Carrier recovery
106. An FDM hierarchy which is formed by frequency-division multiplexing 10 supergroups
together for a combined capacity of 600 voice band message channels
A. Supergroup
B. Group
C. Mastergroup
D. Jumbogroup
107. It is the transmittal of digital signals between two or more points in a communications
system.
A. digital transmittal
B. digitals communications
D. data communications
108. It is logically equivalent to making telephone call through the DDD network except no
A. Normal call
B. Completed call
C. Logical call
D. Virtual call
109. It is a proposed network designed by major telephone companies in conjunction with the
ITU-T with the intent of providing worldwide telecommunications support for voice, data, video,
and facsimile information within the same network.
A. ISDN
C. ATM
D. Ethernet
110. Full duplex operation
A. requires two pairs of cables
B. can transfer data in both directions at once
C. requires modem at both ends of the circuit
D. all of these
111. The most widely used data communications code is
A. Morse
B. ASCII
C. Baudot
D. EBCDIC
112. Ten bit errors in two million transmitted. The bit error rate is
A.

B.

C.

D.

113. It is a type of FSK where the mark and space frequencies are synchronized with the input
binary rate
A. QFSK
B. GFSK
C. CPFSK
D. GSK
114. A form of digital modulation similar to PSK except the digital information is contained in
both the amplitude and the phase of the transmitted carrier.
B. FSK
C. QAM
D. PSK
115. For a 16-PSK and a transmission system with a 10 kHz bandwidth, determine the maximum
bit rate
A. 40,000 bps
B. 80,000 bps
C. 20,000 bps
D. 16,000 bps
116. It is an empirical record of a systems actual bit error performance.
A. probability of error
B. error detection
C. error control
D. bit error rate
117. It is a function of the carrier-to-noise power ration and the number of possible encoding
conditions used
A. probability of error
B. error detection
C. error control
D. bit error rate
118. It is used to compare two or more digital modulation systems that use different transmission
rates, modulation scheme or encoding techniques
A. Energy per bit-to-noise power density ratio
B. Noise power density
C. power density ratio
D. carrier-to-noise ratio
119. Indicate which of the following is not a binary code.
A. Morse
B. Baudot
C. CCITT-2
D. ARQ
120. To permit the selection of 1 out of 16 equiprobable events, the number of bits required is
A. 2
B. log 16 base 10
C. 8
D. 4
121. The type of modulation most often used with direct-sequence spread spectrum is
A. QAM
B. SSB
C. FSK
D. PSK
122. Indicate the false statement. In order to combat noise,
A. the channel bandwidth may be increased
B. redundancy may be used
C. the transmitted power may be increased
D. the signaling rate may be reduced
123. Which of the following is not commonly used method of error detection?
A. Parity
B. BCC
C. CRC
D. redundancy
124. Quantizing noise occurs in
A. time-division multiplex
B. frequency-division multiplex
C. pulse-code modulation
D. pulse width modulation
125. In order to reduce quantizing noise, one must
A. increase the number of standard amplitudes
B. send pulses whose sides are more nearly vertical
C. use an RF amplifier in the receiver
D. increase the number of samples per second
126. Companding is used
A. to overcome quantizing noise in PCM
B. in PCM transmitters, to allow amplitude limiting in the receivers
C. to protect small signals in PCM from quantizing distortion
D. in PCM receivers, to overcome impulse noise
127. Transmitting data as serial binary words is called _____.
A. digital communications
B. quantizing
C. PAM
D. PCM
128. Emphasizing low-level signals and compressing higher-level signals is called
A. quantizing
B. companding
C. pre-emphasis
D. sampling
129. Which circuit is common to both frequency-hopping and direct-sequence spread spectrum
transmitters?
A. Correlator
B. Frequency synthesizer
C. PSN code generator
D. Sweep generator
130. One of the most important aspect of any communication system because its costly and
limited
A. bandwidth
B. equipments
C. time
D. personnel
131. It consist essentially of sampling analog information signals and then converting those
samples into discreet pulses of transporting the pulses from a source to destination over a
physical transmission medium
A. pulse modulation
B. amplitude modulation
C. frequency modulation
D. digital modulation
132. He is credited with inventing PCM in 1937
A. N.S. Kapany
B. A.H. Reeves
C. E.H. Alpine
D. A.C.S. Van Heel
133. Data communications uses
A. analog methods
B. digital methods
C. either of these
D. neither of these
134. An integrated circuit that performs the PCM encoding and decoding functions
A. Codec
B. Modem
C. Muldem
D. Digital-to-analog converter
135. A synchronous transmission usually begins with which character?
A. SYN
B. STX
C. SOH
D. ETB
136. A theorem that establishes the minimum sampling rate that can be used for a given PCM
systems
A. Nyquist sampling theorem
B. Nyquist minimum bandwidth
C. Nyquist minimum bandwidth
D. Any of these
137. Sixteen different levels (symbols) are used to encode binary data. The channel bandwidth is
36 MHz. the maximum channel capacity is
A. 187 Mbps
B. 72 Mbps
C. 288 Mbps
D. 2.176 Gbps
138. Assigning PCM codes to absolute magnitudes
A. Coding
B. Quantizing
C. Sampling
D. Any of these
139. A popular PC protocol is
A. Parity
B. Xmodem
C. CRC
D. LRC
140. It is the ratio of the largest possible magnitude to the smallest possible magnitude that can
be decoded by the digital-to-analog converter in the receiver
A. Coding efficiency
B. Companding
C. Pre-emphasis
D. Dynamic range
141. Devices used for digitizing speech signals only
A. codec
B. muldem
C. vocoders
D. modem
142. What is the minimum bandwidth required to transmit 56 kbps binary signal with no noise?
A. 14 kHz
B. 56 kHz
C. 28 kHz
D. 112 kHz
143. Type of PCM that uses single-bit PCM code to achieve digital transmission of analog
signals
B. Pulse code modulation
C. Differential modulation
D. Delta modulation
144. It is a delta modulation system where the step size of the Digital-to-Analog converter is
B. Pulse code modulation
C. Differential modulation
D. Delta modulation
145. A QAM modulator does not use _____
A. XNOR
B. Bit splitter
C. Balanced modulator
D. 2-to-4 level converter
146. It is a form of phase-division multiplexing where two data channels modulate the same
carrier frequency that is shifted 90 degrees in phase.
A. PSK
B. FSK
C. QAM
147. One eight0bit PCM code is called ______
A. FDM frame
B. TDM time slot
C. TDM frame
D. FDM time slot
148. It is a communication system that uses digital pulse rather than analog signals to encode
information
A. Digital carrier system
B. Digital baseband system
C. Digital service system
149. A special device that upgrades signals from one level to a higher level of the hierarchy in
multiplexing
A. Muldem
B. Vocoder
C. Modem
D. Codec
150. A transmission of binary data which involves the transmission of only a single non-zero
voltage level.
A. Unipolar
B. Polar
C. Bipolar
151. If the active time of the binary pulse is less than 100% of the bit time
B. Bipolar
C. Unipolar
152. It is a popular type of line encoding that produces a strong timing component for clock
recovery and does not cause wandering
A. Digital biphase
B. diphase
C. Manchester code
D. Any of these
153. Statistical TDMs are also called
A. Intelligent TDMs
B. Asynchronous TDM
C. Stat mux
D. Any of these
154. A chip that combines the codec and filter functions in the same LSI chip
A. Monolithic
B. Combo chip
C. Film IC
D. Hybrid chip
155. It is the basic building block of FDM hierarchy
A. Character channel
C. Message channel
D. Information capacity
156. It is the next higher level in the FDM hierarchy above the basic message channel and
consequently is the first multiplexing step for combining message channels
A. Supergroup
B. Group
C. Mastergroup
D. Jumbogroup
157. It is the modulating signal in a communications system
B. Baseband
C. Carrier
D. Any of these
158. What type of mastergroup that can be further multiplexed and used for higher-capacity
A. A600
B. U600
C. L600
D. L400
159. It is essentially the same with FDM, where several signals are transmitted using different
carriers, occupying non-overlapping bands of frequency and wavelengths.
A. Time division multiplexing
B. Wave division multiplexing
C. Space division multiplexing
D. Frequency division multiplexing
160. In order to separate channels in the TDM receiver, it is necessary to use
A. AND gates
B. bandpass filters
C. differentiation
D. integration
161. To separate channels in an FDM receiver, it is necessary to use
A. AND gates
B. bandpass filters
C. differentiation
D. integration
162. In FDM, multiple signals
A. transmit at different times
B. share a common bandwidth
C. use multiple channels
D. modulate one another
163. Frequency modulation in FDM usually accomplished with a
A. reactance modulator
B. varactor
C. VCO
D. PLL
164. Which of the following is not a common LAN medium?
B. twisted pair
C. fiber-optic cable
D. coax
165. A mainframe computer connected to multiple terminals and PCs usually uses which
configuration?
A. bus
B. ring
C. star
D. tree
166. How many voice channels are there in supermaster group?
A. 300
B. 900
C. 3600
D. 10800
167. In a PAM/TDM system, keeping the multiplexer and DEMUX channels step with one
another is done by a
A. clock recovery circuit
B. sync pulse
C. sampling
D. sequencer
168. It is the process of volume compression before transmission and expansion after detection.
A. pre-emphasis
B. de-emphasis
C. coding
D. companding
169. Which of the following is correct?
A. The bit rate may be greater than the baud rate
B. The baud rate may be greater than the bit rate
C. The bit and baud rate are always the same
D. The bit and baud rates are not related
170. Function of data link protocol that coordinates the rate at which data are transported over a
link and generally provides an acknowledgement mechanism that ensures that data are received
in the destination.
A. Flow control
B. Line discipline
C. Polling
D. Selection
171. A classification of protocol, which is a discipline for a serial-by-bit information transfer
over data communications channel.
A. Message oriented
B. Bit-oriented protocol
C. Clock oriented protocol
D. Asynchronous protocol
172. A LAN device that interconnects two or more device running identical internetwork
protocols.
A. Bridges
B. Gateways
C. Switches
D. Routers
173. The magnitude of a quantum in quantization of PCM codes.
A. Maximum decodable voltage
B. Dynamic range
C. Resolution
D. Coding level
174. It comprises of either a single L600 mastergroup or up to three U600 mastergroups
A. Message channel
C. Baseband channel
D. Wide channel
175. It is a multiplexing system similar to conventional time-division multiplexing except that it
was developed to be used with optical fibers
A. SONET
B. Frame relay
C. ATM
D. X.25
176. Higher order TDM levels are obtained by
A. dividing pulse widths
B. using the a-law
C. using u-law
D. forming supermastergroups
177. Results when the sample exceeds the highest quantization interval
B. Quantization error
C. Quantization noise
D. Granular noise
178. The event which marked the start of the modern computer age was
A. design of the ENIAC computer
B. development of Hollerith code
C. development of the transistor
D. development of disk drives for data storage
179. A forward error correcting code corrects errors by
A. requiring partial transmission of the entire signal
B. requiring retransmission of the entire signal
C. requiring no part of the signal to be transmitted
D. using parity to correct the errors in all cases
180. The carrier used with a BPSK demodulator is
A. Generated by an oscillator
B. The BPSK signal itself
C. Twice the frequency of the transmitted carrier
D. Recovered from the BPSK signal
181. Digital signals
A. do not provide a continuous set of values
B. represent values as discrete steps
C. can utilize decimal or binary systems
D. all of these
182. Each signal in an FDM signal
A. modulates the main carrier
B. modulates the final carrier
C. is mixed with all the others before modulation
D. serves as a subcarrier
183. In digital modulation, if the information signal is digital and the amplitude of the carrier is
varied proportional to the information signal.
A. Quartenary Shift Keying (QAM)
B. Phase Shift Keying (PSK)
C. Frequency Shift Keying (FSK)
184. Slow speed modems
A. FSK
B. BPSK
C. QPSK
D. QAM
185. The data rate for IEEE 802.11b is _____.
A. 10 Mbps
B. 1.544 Mbps
C. 2.048 Mbps
D. 11 Mbps
186. Type of analog companding used in the United States and Japan
A. log-PCM companding
B. A-law companding
C. u-law companding
D. any of these
187. A rule of procedure that defines how data is to be transmitted is called
A. handshake
B. error-detection
C. data specifications
D. protocol
188. A longitudinal redundancy check produces
A. block check character
B. parity bit
C. CRC
D. error correction
189. Multiplexing is the process of
A. Several signal sources transmitting simultaneously to a receiver on common frequency
B. Sending the same signal over multiple channels to multiple destinations
C. Transmitting multiple signals over multiple channels
D. Sending multiple signals simultaneously over a single channel
190. What is the relationship of bit rate and baud in QPSK and 8-PSK?
A. bit rate is greater than baud
B. bit rate is always less than the baud
C. bit rate is never greater than the baud
D. bit rate is slightly less than the baud
191. A common method of achieving carrier recovery for BPSK
A. Trellis code
B. Bandwidth efficiency
C. Squaring loop
D. Carrier recovery
192. What is the relationship of bit rate and baud in FSK and PSK?
A. greater than
B. slightly greater than
C. less than
D. equal
193. The modulation used in FDM telephone system is
A. AM
B. FM
C. SSB
D. PSK
194. In digital modulation, a diagram which is similar to phasor diagram except that the entire
phasor is not drawn and only the peaks of the phasor are shown
A. constellation diagram
B. Venn diagram
C. phasor diagram
D. schematic diagram
195. Digital signals may be transmitted over the telephone network if
A. their speed is low enough
B. they are converted to analog first
C. they are ac instead of dc
D. they are digital only
196. Most FDM telemetry system use
A. AM
B. FM
C. SSB
D. PSK
197. In TDM, multiple signals
A. share a common bandwidth
B. modulate subcarriers
C. are sampled at high speeds
D. take turns transmitting
198. It is highly theoretical study of efficient use of bandwidth to propagate information through
electronic communications system
A. information capacity
B. data communications
C. information theory
D. information technology
199. Another name for parity is
A. Vertical redundancy check
B. Block check character
C. Longitudinal redundancy check
D. Cyclic redundancy check
200. It is the process of gathering data on some particular phenomenon without the presesnce of
human monitors
A. Telemetry
B. Telecommand
C. Telecommunications
D. Remote control
201. A convenient technique for determining the effects of the degradations introduced into the
pulses as they travel to the regenerator.
A. Standing wave ratio
B. Eye patterns
C. Reflection coefficient
D. Any of these
202. Spread spectrum stations sharing a band are identified by and distinguished from one
another
A. PSN code
B. Frequency of operation
C. Clock rate
D. Modulation type
203. The ASCII code has
A. 4 bits
B. 5 bits
C. 7 bits
D. 8 bits
204. The first file transfer protocol designed to facilitate transferring data between two personal
computers over the public switched telephone network
A. X modem protocol
B. Y modem protocol
C. Z modem protocol
D. BLAST
205. For a single-channel PCM system with a sample rate of 6000 samples per second and a
seven-bit compressed PCM code, what is the line speed?
A. 21,000 bps
B. 42,000 bps
C. 14,000 bps
D. 12,000 bps
206. It is often used to compare the performance of one digital modulation technique to another
A. Bandwidth efficiency
B. Spectral efficiency
C. Information density
D. All of these
207. It is the process of extracting a phase-coherent reference carrier from a receiver signal
A. Phase referencing
B. Trellis code
C. Squaring loop
D. any of these
208. It is the measure of how much information can be propagated through a communication
system and is a function of a bandwidth of the transmission line
A. information theory
B. information capacity
C. information technology
D. digital communications
209. In delta modulation, the modulator is sometimes called _____.
210. The code which provides for parity checks is
A. Baudot
B. ASCII
C. CCITT-2
D. EBCDIC
211. Form of multiplexing that constitutes propagating signals from different cables that sre
contained within the same trench
A. Wavelength division multiplexing
B. Wave division multiplexing
C. Space division multiplexing
D. Frequency division multiplexing
212. For an 8-PSK system, operating with an information bit rate of 24 kbps, determine the
bandwidth efficiency
A. 8 bits/cycle
B. 2 bits/cycle
C. 3 bits/cycle
D. 4 bits/cycle
213. Element of a PCM system that periodically samples the analog input signal and converts
those samples to a multilevel PAM signal
A. Bandpass filter
B. Sample-and-hold circuit
C. Analog-to-digital converter
D. Digital-to-analog converter
214. It is the ratio of the average carrier power to the thermal noise power
A. Signal-to-noise ratio
B. Noise figure
C. Noise factor
D. Carrier-to-noise ratio
215. A form of switching which is hold and forward
A. Packet switching
B. Message switching
C. Circuit switching
D. Digital switching
216. It can be used to categorize the type of transmission
A. Duty cycle
B. Companding
C. Coding efficiency
D. Dynamic range
217. Type of multiplexing where multiple sources that originally occupied the same frequency
spectrum are each converted to a different frequency band and transmitted simultaneously over a
single transmission medium.
A. FDM
B. ATM
C. TDM
218. It is a solicitation sent from the primary to a secondary to determine if the secondary has
data to transmit
A. Selection
B. Polling
C. Error control
D. Master control
219. Function of data link control that specifies the means of detecting and correcting
transmission errors
A. Error control
B. Selection
C. Protocol
D. Synchronization
220. The Hartley law states that
A. the maximum rate of information transmission depends on the channel
bandwidth
B. the maximum rate of information depends on the depth of modulation
C. redundancy is essential
D. only binary codes may be used
221. It represents the number of independent symbols that can be carried through a system in a
given unit of time.
A. information theory
B. information capacity
C. information technology
D. digital communications
222. The Shannon-Hartley law
A. refers to distortion
B. defines the bandwidth
C. describes signaling rates
D. refers to noise
223. The most basic digital symbol used to represent information
A. bit
B. baud
C. bits per second
D. any of these
224. Function of data link protocol that coordinates hop-to-hop data delivery where a hop maybe
a computer, a network controller or a network-connecting device such as router.
A. Flow control
B. Error control
C. Line discipline
D. Selection
A. Amplitude modulation only
B. QPSK only
C. AM plus QPSK
D. AM plus FSK
226. The most common modulation system used for telegraphy is
A. frequency-shift keying
B. two-tone modulation
C. pulse-code modulation
D. single-tone modulation
227. It is used to encode the minimum amount of speech information necessary to reproduce a
perceptible message with a fewer bits that those needed by a conventional encoder/decoder
A. codec
B. muldem
C. vocoders
D. modem
228. It is the transmission of information in any form from one source to one or more destination
A. Modulation
B. Multiplexing
C. Encoding
D. Decoding
229. A form of switching which is stored and forward
A. Packet switching
B. Message switching
C. Circuit switching
D. Digital switching
230. In digital modulation, it is similar to standard amplitude modulation except there is only two
amplitudes possible
A. frequency shift keying
B. quartenary amplitude modulation
C. amplitude shift keying
D. phase shift keying
231. The technique of using modulation and FDM to transmit multiple data channels of a
common medium is known as
A. baseband
C. ring
D. bus
232. Which of the following is not a benefit of companding
A. minimizes noise
B. minimizes number of bits
C. minimizes quantizing error
D. minimizes signal bandwidth
233. Transmissions from multiple sources occur in the same facility but not at the same time
A. Time Division Multiplexing
B. Frequency Division Multiplexing
C. Wave Division Multiplexing
D. Space Division Multiplexing
234. A 9600-baud rate signal can pass over the voice grade telephone line if which kind of
modulation is used?
A. BPSK
B. QPSK
C. DPSK
D. QAM
235. Indicate which of the following pulse modulation systems is analog
A. PCM
B. PWM
C. Differential PCM
D. Delta
236. The modulation system inherently most noise-resistant is
A. SSB, suppressed carrier
B. frequency modulation
C. pulse-position modulation
D. pulse-code modulation
237. It is simply the number of bits transmitted during one second and expressed in bits per
second
A. baud
B. bits
C. bit rate
D. pulse repetition rate
238. It is the most prevalent encoding technique used for TDM signals
A. PAM
B. PLM
C. PPM
D. PCM
239. The characters making up the message in a synchronous transmission are collectively
referred to as the data
A. set
B. sequence
C. block
D. collection
240. A virtual circuit which is logically equivalent to a two-point dedicated private-line circuit
except slower
A. Switched Virtual Circuit
B. Permanent Virtual Circuit
C. Switched Leased Circuit
D. Permanent Leased Circuit
241. To a conventional narrowband receiver, a spread spectrum signal appears to be like
A. Noise
C. A jamming signal
D. An intermittent connection
242. It is a low-quality video transmission for use between non-dedicated subscribers
A. Digital phone
B. Picturephone
C. Cameraphone
D. Cellphone with camera
243. Pulse code modulation is preferred to PAM because of its
A. resistance to quantizing errror
B. simplicity
C. lower cost
D. superior noise immunity
244. A CRC generator uses which component?
A. balanced modulator
B. shift register
D. multiplexer
245. A signaling element is sometimes called
A. information
B. data
C. symbol
D. intelligence
246. Which of the following words has the correct parity bit? Assume odd parity. The last bit is
the parity bit.
A. 1111111 1
B. 1100110 1
C. 0011010 1
D. 0000000 0
247. It is a digital interface that provides the physical connection to the digital carrier network
A. Modem
B. Codec
C. Muldem
D. DSU/CSU
248. It is the only digitally encoded modulation technique that is commonly used for digital
transmission
A. PAM
B. PCM
C. PLM
D. PPM
249. The most common circuit used for demodulating binary FSK signals
A. phase locked loop
B. Foster-Seeley discriminator
C. varactor
D. phase shift method
250. A digital modulation technique also known as on-off keying
A. PSK
B. FSK
C. QUAM
D. OOK

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS IN
MISCELLANEOUS TOPICS
Electronics Systems and Technologies
By
Melvin C. Arceo

ENCODED BY:
GIRAO, Edward Joseph D.
1. It is the provision of voice communication using Internet Protocol (IP) technology, instead of
A. VOIP
B. Bluetooth
C. WIFI
D. WIMAX
2. Bluetooth enabled electronic devices connect and communicate wirelessly through short-
range, ad hoc networks known as _____.
A. nanonet
B. scatternet
C. piconet
D. netnet
3. Each device can simultaneously communicate with up to ______ other devices with a single
piconet.
A. 8
B. 5
C. 10
D. 7
4. The core specification version of Bluetooth that uses Enhanced Data Rate (EDR)
A. Version 1.0
B. Version 2.0
C. Version 1.2
D. Version 2.1
5. Bluetooth technology operates in the _____ band.
A. ISM
B. C band
C. MSI
D. Ku band
6. Bluetooth technology operates in the band
A. 2.4 to 2.485 GHz
B. 2.42 to 2.44 GHz
C. 2.48 to 2.52 GHz
D. 2.3 to 2.45 GHz
7. The hopping rate of Bluetooth is
A. 1000 hops/sec
B. 1600 hops/sec
C. 1500 hops/sec
D. 2500 hops/sec
8. Technology used by Bluetooth designed to reduce interference between wireless technologies
sharing the 2.4 GHz spectrum
A. AFH
B. DSSS
C. OFDM
D. FHSS
9. The signal hops among ______ frequencies at 1 MHz intervals to give a high degree of
interference immunity
A. 80
B. 78
C. 81
D. 79
10. Class 3 radios used for Bluetooth technology have a range of up to
A. 1 ft
B. 2 ft
C. 3 ft
D. 4 ft
11. Class 2 radios used for Bluetooth most commonly found in mobile devices have a range of
______.
A. 10 ft
B. 20 ft
C. 15 ft
D. 30 ft
12. Class 1 radios used primarily in industrial use cases have a range of
A. 100 meters
B. 25 meters
C. 10 meters
D. 50 meters
13. Bluetooth technology uses ______ of power.
A. 2.6 mW
B. 2.5 mW
C. 2,8 mW
D. 2.7 mW
14. What is the data rate used by Bluetooth technology using version 1.2 specification?
A. 1 Mbps
B. 2 Mbps
C. 3 Mbps
D. 4 Mbps
15. What is the data rate used by Bluetooth technology using version 2.0 + EDR specification?
A. 1 Mbps
B. 3 Mbps
C. 2 Mbps
D. 4 Mbps
16. Bluetooth technology has built-in security such as _____ bit encryption
A. 64
B. 16
C. 32
D. 128
17. The symbol rate for Bluetooth is
A. 1 Mega symbol per sec
B. 3 Mega symbol per sec
C. 2 Mega symbol per sec
D. 4 Mega symbol per sec
18. In satellite communications, for an angle of inclination 0f 63.4 degrees, the rotation of the
line of apsides is ____ degrees
A. 0
B. 5
C. 15
D. 3
19. An international agreement initially mandated that all satellites placed in the Clarke or
Geosynchronous orbit must be separated by at least
A. 22,300 mi
B. 3400 mi
C. 1833 mi
D. 5544 mi
20. The radiation pattern of earth coverage antennas of satellites have a beamwidth of
approximately ______.
A. 15 degrees
B. 17 degrees
C. 10 degrees
D. 11 degrees
21. ______ is a new nonvoice value added service that allows information to be sent and
received across a mobile telephone network.
A. WiFi
B. Wimax
C. GPRS
D. HSCSD
22. Theoretical maximum speeds of up to _____ kbps are achievable with GPRS using all _____
timeslots at the same time.
A. 64, 8
B. 171.2, 8
C. 128, 7
D. 183.5, 7
23. It is the latest standard of MPEG under development that will support download and
execution of multimedia applications.
A. MPEG-21
B. MPEG-A
C. MPEG-7
D. MPEG-E
24. A new standard line of MPEG standard called multimedia application format is _____.
A. MPEG-A
B. MPEG-C
C. MPEG-B
D. MPEG-D
25. MPEG standard on which such products as Digital Television set top boxes and DVD are
based
A. MPEG-1
B. MPEG-4
C. MPEG-2
D. MPEG-7
26. MPEG standard on which such products as Video CD and MP3 are based
A. MPEG-1
B. MPEG-7
C. MPEG-21
D. MPEG-3
27. MPEG standard for multimedia for the fixed and mobile web
A. MPEG-1
B. MPEG-4
C. MPEG-2
D. MPEG-7
28. MPEG standard for description and search of audio and visual content.
A. MPEG-1
B. MPEG-7
C. MPEG-21
D. MPEG-3
29. The MPEG standard for the Multimedia Framework
A. M3W
B. MPEG-4
C. MPEG-7
D. MPEG-21
30. Coding of moving pictures and associated audio for digital storage media at up to about 1.5
Mbps.
A. MPEG-3
B. MPEG-2
C. MPEG-4
D. MPEG-1
31. Used in MPEG to remove spatial correlation.
A. Discrete Shine Transform
B. Discreet Cosine Transform
C. Discreet Secant Transform
D. Discreet Cosecant Transform
32. MPEG-4 builds on the proven success on one of the following fields
A. Digital television
B. Interactive multimedia
C. Interactive graphics applications
D. Any of these
33. The maximum effective power allowed for RFID is _____.
A. 0.5 watt
B. 3 watts
C. 1 watt
D. 0.25 watt
34. The use and operation of RFIDs shall be allowed in the following frequency bands except:
A. 13.533-13.567 MHz
B. 2446-2454 MHz
C. 918-920 MHz
D. 254-365 MHz
35. _____ are radio systems based on local area networking solutions that require higher data
rates and consequently greater bandwidth for new multimedia applications spectrum
requirements
A. WIFI
B. HiperLAN
C. WIMAX
D. VOIP
36. _____ refers to the determination of the position, velocity and/or other characteristics of an
object, or the obtaining of information relating to these parameters, by means of the propagation
A. position determination
C. velocity determination
D. range determination
37. Radio microphones has power of _____ mW or less.
A. 20
B. 40
C. 30
D. 50
38. _____ referred to as wireless microphones or cordless microphones, are small, low power,
unidirectional transmitters designed to be worn on the body, or hand held, for the transmission of
sound over short distances for personal use.
A. directional microphone
B. parabolic microphone
D. spy microphone
39. _____ are intended to carry data in suitable transporters, generally known as tags, and to
retrieve data, by hand- or manine-readable means, at a suitable time and place to satisfy
particular application needs.
A. RFID
B. HiperLan
C. transponder tags
D. bluetooth
40. _____ also referred to as dedicated short-range communications for transport information
and control systems are systems providing data communication between two or more road
vehicles and between road vehicles and the road infrastructure for various information-based
travel and transport applications, including automatic toll-collection, route and parking guidance,
collision avoidance and similar applications.
A. RTTY
B. TICS
C. RTTT
41. _____ for use with implanted medical devices, like pacemakers, implantable defibrillators,
nerve stimulators, and other types of implanted devices.
A. MICS
B. TICS
C. AIDS
D. PACER
42. What is the frequency band for biomedical devices?
A. 40.66-40.70 MHz
B. 13.90-14.40 MHz
C. 50.44-51.09 MHz
D. 32.10-33.89 MHz
43. The electric field intensity of biomedical devices?
A. 1000 V/m at 3m
B. 10 V/m at 3m
C. 100 V/m at 3m
D. 1 V/m at 3m
44. _____ refers to the use of radio communication devices for the transmission of signals to
initiate, modify or terminate functions of equipment at a distance.
A. telemetry
B. wireless application
C. telecommand
45. The data rate used by IEEE 802.11b
A. 11 Mbps
B. 55 Mbps
C. 54 Mbps
D. 12 Mbps
46. The operating frequency of IEEE 802.11b
A. 2.4 GHz
B. 5.5 GHz
C. 5 GHz
D. 2.5 GHz
47. The operating frequency of IEEE 802.11a
A. 2.5 GHz
B. 5 GHz
C. 5.5 GHz
D. 2.1 GHz
48. The data rate of IEEE 802.11a
A. 55 Mbps
B. 53 Mbps
C. 54 Mbps
D. 50 Mbps
49. _____ is a standards-based wireless technology that provides high-throughput broadband
connections over long distances.
A. Wimax
B. Wibro
C. Wifi
D. Winar
50. _____ is a wireless broadband technology being developed by the Korean telecoms industry.
A. Wimax
B. Wibro
C. Wifi
D. Winar
51. What is the operating frequency of Wibro?
A. 2.1 GHz
B. 2.3 GHz
C. 2.2 GHz
D. 2.4 GHz
52. What is the base station data throughout for Wibro?
A. 30 to 50 Mbps
B. 40 to 60 Mbps
C. 50 to 70 Mbps
D. 60 to 80 Mbps
53. The maximum radius for Wibro is ____.
A. 2 km
B. 3 km
C. 4 km
D. 5 km
54. _____ is a published specification set of high level communication protocols designed to use
small, low-power digital radios based on the IEEE 802.15.4 standard for wireless personal area
networks.
A. bluetooth
B. wpan
C. zigbee
D. wlan
55. In a Zigbee network, a single device that controls the network is called _____.
A. master
B. server
C. coordinator
D. pointer
56. Devices being controlled in a zigbee network are known as _____.
A. end devices
B. clients
C. slaves
D. beggars
57. The modulation scheme used by IEEE 802.11b
A. OFDM
B. CCK
C. QPSK
D. FDM
58. The modulation scheme used by IEEE 802.11a
A. OFDM
B. CCK
C. QPSK
D. FDM
59. The World Wide Web or WWW was invented in the year _____.
A. 1991
B. 1990
C. 1989
D. 1995
60. He invented the World Wide Web or WWW
A. Karel Capek
B. Tim Berners-Lee
C. Jon Von Neumann
D. Bill Gates
61. The number of satellites used by GLONASS
A. 30
B. 26
C. 24
D. 31
62. A 3G technology that delivers broadband-like data speeds to mobile devices.
A. EDGE
B. HSCSD
C. VOIP
D. 3GSM
63. ADSL has maximum distance of _____.
A. 16,000 feet
B. 8,000 feet
C. 18,000 feet
D. 12,000 feet
64. ______ is an implementation of ADSL that automatically adjusts the connection speed to
adjust for the quality of the telephone line.
B. SDSL
D. HDSL
65. A type of DSL that was developed to support exceptionally high-bandwidth applications such
as High-Definition Television (HDTV).
A. VDSL
B. SDSL
D. XDSL
66. A method for moving data over regular phone lines which is much faster than a regular
phone connection and the wires coming into the subscribers premises are the same copper wires
used for regular phone service.
A. VOIP
B. DSL
C. Cable Internet
D. POTS
67. What is the IEEE designation for Bluetooth?
A. 802.15
B. 802.14
C. 802.10
D. 802.16
68. The IEEE designation for wireless LAN
A. 802.12
B. 802.13
C. 802.5
D. 802.11
69. The IEEE designation for broadband wireless network
A. 802.16
B. 802.15
C. 802.14
D. 802.13
70. The file extension for jpeg
A. .jpg
B. .jpe
C. .jfif
D. any of these
71. In SMS, the number of characters being sent in the network is _____ when Latin alphabet is
used.
A. 80
B. 160
C. 65
D. 100
72. In SMS, the number of characters being sent in the network is _____ when non-Latin
alphabet is used.
A. 50
B. 60
C. 70
D. 80
73. It is an enhancement of data services of all current GSM networks, it allows you to access
nonvoice services at 3 times faster
A. GPRS
B. HSCSD
C. VOIP
D. 3GSM
74. A language derived from HTML especially for wireless network characteristics.
A. Delphi
B. PHP
C. Pearl
D. WML
75. The founding father of the Internet
A. Tim Burners-Lee
B. Vinton Gray Cerf
C. Jon Von Neumann
D. Carel Kapek
76. What term is used by in asynchronous transfer mode (ATM) system to describe a byte?
A. harmonic
B. octet
C. actave
D. bit
77. The relative permittivity of silicon is _____
A. 11.7
B. 1.17
C. 1.18
D. 11.8
78. One of the following is NOT classified as a Customer Premises Equipment (CPE) by the
NTC.
A. Automatic Teller Machine
B. Videophone Terminal Equipment
C. VSAT
D. ISDN Terminal Equipment
79. Zigbee network layer supports the following topologies except:
A. tree
B. bus
C. star
D. mesh
80. An Internet Messaging service can be either _____.
A. user-based or company based
C. network-based or device-based
D. feature-based or attachment-based
81. The level of ____ within an IM program brings up the issue of privacy.
A. users signed up
C. technology
D. presence awareness
82. One reason behind the success of the Internet is the fact that it is built on _____.
A. open standard
B. user trust
C. safe architecture
D. solid ground
83. Which of the following is not an additional revenue opportunity offered by advance
messaging services?
A. electronic commerce
C. targeted marketing
D. taxes
84. ADSL increases existing twisted-pair access capacity by _____.
A. twofold
B. threefold
C. thirtyfold
D. fiftyfold
85. What appears to be the practical limit for analog modems over a standard telephone?
A. 33 kbps
B. 28.8 kbps
C. 24 kbps
D. 19.2 kbps
86. Which of the parameters will need to be incorporated into next generation billing solutions to
calculate new 3G charges?
A. number of packets
B. location
C. quality of service
D. any of these
87. Which of the following is not considered as 3G service?
A. streaming video
B. wireless voice
C. interactive shopping
D. on-line banking and stock trading
88. ATM timing requirements feature _____ elements.
A. 3
B. 4
C. 32
D. 64
89. All are required for broadband media services delivery over IP except:
A. high bandwidth
C. a narrowband connection
D. DSL
90. All are network components for broadband media services except
A. video server
B. catv box
C. set-top box
D. video encoder
91. A Cable Modem Termination System (CMTS) provides an Ethernet network with a
geographic reach of up to _____.
A. 1 mile
B. 10 miles
C. 100 miles
D. any of these
92. The upstream data channel specification requirement for cable modem feature which of the
following?
A. 64 and 256 QAM formats
B. data rates from 320 kbps to 10 Mbps
C. 6 MHz-occupied spectrum that coexists with other signals in the cable plant
D. all of the above
93. DWDM enables different formats, such as ______, to be transmitted over the optical layer.
A. IP and ATM
B. ATM and SONET
C. SONET and SDH
D. all of the above
94. Future DWDM terminals will have the capacity to transmit _____ volumes of an
encyclopedia in one second.
A. 90
B. 250
C. 1500
D. 90000
95. DWDM allows the transmission of _____ over the optical layer.
A. voice and e-mail
B. multimedia and video
C. data
D. all of the above
96. Which of the following is expected to take the largest share of the three DSL varieties?
A. SDSL
B. HDSL
D. IDSL
97. Which of the following standards defines procedures and message sequences used for fax
communications?
A. T.10
B. T.30
C. T.37
D. T.38
98. The _____ is a particular set of standards that allows the internetworking of products from
different vendors. It usually embodies a fiber-optic ring that will permit transmission in both
directions.
A. local-area network (LAN)
B. wide-area network (WAN)
C. synchronous optical network (SONET)
D. common channel signaling network
99. H.255 can be defined as _____.
A. media stream control
B. control signaling
C. call signaling
D. media stream transport
100. H.245 can be defined as _____.
A. media stream control
B. control signaling
C. media stream transport
101. H.323 can be defined as _____.
A. multimedia services over B-ISDN
B. multimedia services over guaranteed QoS networks
C. multimedia services over packet networks
D. multimedia services over SCN
102. H.320 can be defined as _____.
A. multimedia services over B-ISDN
B. multimedia services over guaranteed QoS networks
C. multimedia services over packet networks
D. multimedia services over ISDN
103. One of the major advances that result from implementing intelligent networks is that _____.
A. computers no longer have control over the network
B. wide-area service outages are much less likely
C. services can be adapted to user needs more efficiently
D. service providers are now limited to a single equipment provider
104. The development of the intelligent network places increased emphasis on a consistent
_____.
A. switch model
B. network model
C. intelligence model
D. call model
105. How many layers are there to the PCS air resistance?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
106. What is the maximum possible number of characters in a PCS message?
A. 64
B. 256
C. 1021
D. 239
107. Signaling units are broken up into units of how many bits?
A. 8
B. 16
C. 32
D. 64
108. Two digital signals whose transitions occur at almost the same rate are _____.
A. asynchronous
B. synchronous
C. plesiochronous
D. none of these
109. Which of the following are not basic SONET network elements?
A. switch interference
B. digital loop carrier
C. service control point
110. Higher-order SDH cross-connects route what entity?
A. 1.5 Mbps
B. ATM cells
C. management data channels
111. Scrambling is used in SDH for which reason?
A. to randomize the bit sequence for better transmission performance
B. to reduce the power consumption of equipment
C. to allow for upgrade to higher bit rates
D. to prevent unauthorized access
112. FDMA allocated ____ users per channel.
A. 1
B. 3
C. 6
D. 10
113. The G.723.1 specification for audio codecs, recommended by the VoIP Forum, requires:
A. 6.3 kbps
B. 7.9 kbps
C. 8.4 kbps
D. 10.4 kbps
114. ITUs H.320 standard defines the protocols for transporting voice, data and video over;
A. PSTN
B. ISDN networks
C. the public internet
D. GSM network
115. Which of the following is not a layer in the WAP gateway stack?
A. WDP
B. context manager
C. TCP
D. WSP
116. Queries to the HLR are performed to find the location of the serving MSC in _____.
A. TDMA
B. CDMA
C. GSM
D. all of the above
117. The SMSC delivers messages directly to the _____.
A. HLR
B. VLR
C. MSC
D. BSC
118. Which of the following pairs of technologies use IS-41?
A. GSM and TDMA
B. CDMA and GSM
C. TDMA and CDMA
D. all of the above
119. Which of the following technologies has significant advantages in medium-density and
high-density population areas because it is capable of carrying higher levels of traffic, provides
better voice quality, and can transmit data at higher rates?
A. GSM
B. PCS
C. CT-2
D. DECT
120. IS-41 is a standard currently being embraced by wireless providers because it encourages
_____.
A. increased network capabilities
B. paging
C. roaming
D. all of the above

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS IN
CELLULAR TELEPHONY
Electronics Systems and Technologies
By
Melvin C. Arceo

ENCODED BY:
LAQUI, Louise Ruelyn J.
1. Base station transmitter output power of Improved Mobile System (IMTS)

A.100-W to 200-W range
B. 200-W to 300-W range
C. 150-W to 400-W range
D. 300-W to 400-W range

2. The chipping rate of WCDMA (UMTS)

A. 3.84 Mcps
B. 3.6484 Mcps
C. 1.25 Mcps
D. 1.22 Mcps

3. A technique that divides the group of channels into smaller groupings or segments of
mutually exclusive frequencies; cell sites, which are within the reuse distance is assigned
their own segment of the channel group

A. sectoring
B. dualization
C. partitioning
D. segmentation

4. The actual voice channel where mobile users communicate directly with other mobile
or wireline subscriber through the base station

A. control channel
B. forward channel
C. reverse channel
D. voice channel

5. Supervisory Audio Tones(SAT) have the following frequencies except:

A. 5940 Hz
B. 5970 Hz
C. 6000 Hz
D. 6030 Hz

6. Each cell site contains a

A. Repeater
B. Control computer
C. Direct-link to a branch exchange
D. Touch-tone processor

7. A class II mobile phone using AMPS has an ERP of

A. -6dBW
B. -4dBW
C. 2dBW
D. 6dBW

8. The wideband designation in Wideband-CDMA (WCDMA) denotes a bandwidth of

A. 2.5 MHz
B. 3 MHz
C. 4.5 MHz
D. 5MHz

9. An automobile travels at 60km/hr. Find the time between fades in the car uses a PCS
phone at 1900 MHz.

A. 2.4 ms
B. 3.4 ms
C. 4.7 ms
D. 5.1 ms

10. A cellular system is capable of coping with handoffs once every 2 minutes. Suppose this
system is in the city with maximum car speeds of 65km/hr. What is the maximum cell

A. 1.08 km
B. 3 km
C. 5 km
D. 2 km

11. How wide is the spectrum bandwidth of a single GSM carrier?

A. 16 kHz
B. 200 kHz
C. 100 kHz
D. 50 kHz

12. Changing the time order of digital information before transmission to reduce the effect of
burst errors in the channel.

A. progression
B. interleaving
C. epoch
D. raking

13. The bandwidth of WCDMA is ___ times larger than GSM.

A. 5
B. 15
C. 20
D. 25

14. It is the process in which the same set of frequencies can be allocated to more than one
cell, provided that the cells are separated by a sufficient distance

A. frequency reuse
B. handoff
C. clustering

15. A connection is momentarily broken during the cell-to-cell transfer is called ______.

A. hard handoff
B. soft handoff
C. medium handoff
D. light handoff

16. Transmission from mobile stations to the base stations is called

17. It is a database in the PCS network that stores information about the user, including home
subscription information and what supplementary services the user is subscribed to.

A. visitor location register
B. home location register
C. equipment identification register
D. authentication register

18. Determine the transmit power for a CDMA mobile unit that is receiving a signal from the
base station at 100 dBm

A. 12 dBm
B. 24 dBm
C. 36 dBm
D. 14 dBm

19. When transmitting digital information, voice transmission is inhibited, this is called
______.

A. quieting
B. muting
C. blank-and-burst
D. any of these

20. A metropolitan area of 1000 square km is to be covered by cells with a radius of 2 km.
How many cell sites would be required, assuming hexagonal cells?

A. 72
B. 73
C. 74
D. 75

21. Refers to a land station in a maritime mobile services

A. coast station
B. maritime station
C. coast earth station
D. ship earth station

22. Class of orthogonal spreading coded used in CDMA communication.

A. Color code
B. Walsh code
C. PCS code
D. CDMA

23. In a spread spectrum system, the tendency for a stronger signals to interfere with the
reception of weaker signals.

A. near-far field
B. near-far effect
C. direct-sequence

24. Macrocells have base stations transmit power between _____.

A. 3W to 7W
B. 1W to 6W
C. 2W to 8W
D. 0.1W to 5W

25. It is when the area of a cell, or independent component coverage areas of a cellular
system, is further divided, thus creating more cell areas.

A. cell splitting
B. cell clustering
C. cell partitioning
D. cell sectoring

26. It is when a mobile unit moves from one cell to another from one company's service area
to another company's service area.

A. roaming
B. handoff
C. handover
D. paging

27. It is a 34-bit binary code that represents the 10-digit telephone number

A. electronic serial number
B. system identification
C. digital color code
D. mobile identification number

28. The bandwidth of WCDMA is __ times larger than CDMAone.

A. 4
B. 5
C. 6
D. 7

A. 870.36 MHz
B. 870.63 MHz
C. 870.96 MHz
D. 870.69 MHz

30. In mobile wireless communication, the radio equipment and the propagation path

A. FSL
B. air interface
D. mobile interface

31. The signaling fone may be transmitted on the voice channel during a call in what
frequency?

A. 25 kHz
B. 20 kHz
C. 15 kHz
D. 10 kHz

32. Station in the mobile service not intended to be used while in motion.

A. base station
B. fixed station
C. coast station
D. land station

33. In the GSM system, a "smart card" containing all user information, which is inserted into
the phone before use.

A. IMSI
B. IMEI
C. IMTS
D. SIM

34. Determine the number of channels per cluster of a cellular telephone area comprised of
10 clusters with seven cells in each cluster and 10 channels in each cell.

A. 70 channels per cluster
B. 700 channels per cluster
C. 7000 channels per cluster
D. 7 channels per cluster

35. Determine the channel capacity if 7 macrocells with 10 channels per cell is split into 4
minicells

A. 120 channels per area
B. 360 channels per area
C. 280 channels per area
D. 460 channels per area

36. Technique of spread spectrum that breaks message into fixed-size blocks of data with
each block transmitted in sequence except on the different carrier frequency.

B. time-division multiplexing
C. frequency-hopping
D. direct sequence

37. A base and mobile is separated by 5 km. What is the propagation time for a signal
traveling between them?

A. 14.5 usec
B. 18.9 usec
C. 20.8 usec
D. 16.7 usec

38. A digital identification associated with a cellular system

A. MIN
B. ESN
C. SAT
D. SIM

39. A new regulation issued by the National Telecommunications Commission providing for
the guideline for mobile personal communication having a global coverage using
satellite.

A. NMT
B. GMPCS
C. GSM
D. TACS

40. The following are the typical cluster size except

A. 3
B. 7
C. 12
D. 15

41. Provides a centralized administration and maintenance point for the entire network end
interfaces with the public telephone network through the telephone wireline voice trunks

A. PSTN
B. MTSO
C. central offices
D. MSC

42. It is a digital telephone exchange located in the MTSO that is the heart of a telephone
system

A. mobile switching center
B. electronic switching center
C. gateway switching center
D. electronic mobile switching center

43. A database in the PCS network that stores information pertaining to the identification and
type of equipment that exist in the mobile unit.

A. visitor location register
B. home location register
C. equipment identification register
D. authentication register

44. When a signal from a mobile cellular unit drops below a certain level, what action
occurs?

A. The unit is "handed off" to a closer cell.
B. The call is terminated.
C. The MTSO increases power level.
D. The cell site switches antenna.

45. A method of transmitting data on AMPS cellular telephone voice channels that are
temporary unused.

A. cellular digital packet data
B. digital color code
C. control mobile attenuation code
D. electronic serial code

46. A vehicle travels through a cellular system at 100 km per hour. Approximately how often
will handoffs occur if the cell radius is 10 km.

A. 12 min
B. 14 min
C. 16 min
D. 18 min

47. In the GSM system, a telephone number that is unique to a given user, worldwide.

A. IMTS
B. IMEI
C. IMSI
D. SIM

48. An area divided into hexagonal shapes that fit together to form a honeycomb pattern is
called ______.

A. cluster
B. transport area
C. cell
D. area of responsibility

49. Determine the channel capacity of a cellular telephone area comprised of twelve
macrocell with ten channels per cell

A. 12 channels per area
B. 120 channels per area
C. 1200 channels per area
D. 12000 channels per area

50. Transmission from base stations to mobile stations is called ____.

51. The output power of a cellular radio is controlled by the

A. user or caller
B. cell site
C. called party
D. MTSO

52. EDGE channel size is about

A. 250 kHz
B. 200 kHz
C. 150 kHz
D. 100 kHz

53. A switching facility connecting cellular telephone base stations to each other and to the
public switched telephone network.

A. MTSO
B. MSC
C. VLR
D. AuC

54. A radio land station in the land mobile service

A. land station
B. ship earth station
C. base station
D. mobile station

55. Transmission of brief text messages, such as pages or e-mail, by cellular radio or PCS.

A. SMS
B. MMS
C. paging
D. raking

56. The point when the cell reaches maximum capacity occurs when the number of
subscribers wishing to place a call at any given time equals the number of channels in the
cell

A. saturation
B. blocking traffic
D. any of these

57. In IS-41 standard, it is a process where the mobile unit notifies a serving MTSO of its
presence and location through a base station controller.

A. dependent registration
B. autonomous registration
C. air interface
D. BTS to BSC interface

58. Cellular telephones use which operation?

A. simplex
B. half-duplex
C. full-duplex
D. triplex

59. A receiver capable of receiving several versions of the same signal with different arrival
times and combining the received versions into a single signal with better quality

A. scanners
C. mobile subscriber unit
D. mobile stations

60. In CMTS, the most important database for GSM is ____.

A. VLR
B. HLR
C. BTS
D. AUC

61. In CMTS, the number of duplex voice channels for AMPS is ____.

A. 676
B. 285
C. 395
D. 790

62. A geographic cellular radio coverage area containing three of more group of cells

A. cluster
B. cell
D. MSC/VLR area

63. A flawless cell-to-cell transfer is called ____.

A. hard handoff
B. soft handoff
C. heavy handoff
D. light handoff

64. The bit length of System Identification (SID)

A. 32
B. 15
C. 10
D. 8

65. The RF power output of a transmitter in a cellular mobile telephone system authorized by
NTC for use in the Philippines.

A. 20.5 dBm
B. 31.5 dBm
C. 34.8 dBm
D. 22.1 dBm

66. A class III mobile phone using AMPS has an ERP of

A. 4 W
B. 1.6 W
C. 600 mW
D. 1.4 W

67. ____ is measuring the propagated field strength over the projected service area.

D. none of these

68. Transmission of data in two directions on a channel by using different time slots for each
directions.

A. time-division multiplexing
B. time-division multiple access
C. time-division duplexing
D. time-division

69. When the cluster size is reduced with a constant cell size, what happens to the total
channel capacity?

A. decreases
B. increases
C. stays constant
D. depends on the number of cell cites

70. The transfer of a mobile unit from one base station's control to another base station's
control

A. handoff
B. paging
C. roaming
D. dualization

71. What is the frequency deviation of AMPS?

A. 12 kHz
B. 6 kHz
C. 3 kHz
D. 18 kHz

72. The bit length of Digital Color Code (DCC)

A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5

73. A transmit channel has a frequency of 837.6 MHz. The receive channel frequency is

A. 729.6 MHz
B. 837.6 MHz
C. 867.6 MHz
D. 882.6 MHz

74. A frequency-hopping spread-spectrum system hops to each of 100 frequencies every 10
seconds. How long does it spread on each frequency?

A. 0.2 sec/hop
B. 0.4 sec/hop
C. 0.3 sec/hop
D. 0.1 sec/hop

75. What is the transmission rate of a GSM cellular system?

A. 128 kbps
B. 240 kbps
C. 64 kbps
D. 270 kbps

76. A card with an embedded integrated circuit that can be used for functions such as storing
subscriber information for a PCS system.

A. smart card
B. SIM
C. Intelligent card
D. Credit card

77. It is a means of avoiding full-cell splitting where the entire area would otherwise need to
be segmented into smaller cells.

A. segmentations
B. dualization
C. sectoring
D. splitting

78. A channel used for transferring control and diagnostic information between mobile users
and a central cellular telephone switch through the base stations.

A. forward channel
B. voice channel
C. control channel
D. reverse channel

79. It is the provision of voice communication using internet protocol technology, instead of

A. WAP
B. GPRS
C. VOIP
D. WIFI

80. Determine the total number of channel capacity of a cellular telephone area comprised of
10 clusters with seven cells in each cluster and 10 channels in each cell.

A. 7 channels
B. 70 channels
C. 700 channels
D. 7000 channels

81. Technique used in spread spectrum that adds a high-bit rate pseudorandom code to a low
bit rate information signal to generate a high-bit rate pseudorandom signal closely
resembling noise that contains both the original data signal and pseudorandom noise.

A. direct-sequence
B. frequency-division multiplexing
C. frequency hopping
D. CDMA

82. Refers to the first generation of local loop system in telecommunication technology

A. TACS
B. DECT
C. Analog cellular
D. GSM

83. An information sent by the base station in a cellular radio system set the power level of
the mobile transmitter.

A. cellular digital packet data
B. digital color code
C. control mobile attenuation code
D. electronic serial code

84. A 32-bit binary code permanently assigned to each of the mobile unit

A. supervisory audio tone
B. station class mark
C. electronic serial number
D. visitor location register

85. It serves as central control for all users within that cell

A. base stations
B. antennas
C. transceivers
D. mobile subscriber units

86. What modulation technique is used by Advanced Mobile Phone System (AMPS)

A. WBFM
B. VSB
C. NBFM
D. FSK

87. A database in the PCS network that stores information about subscribers in a particular
MTSO serving area

A. international mobile subscriber identification
B. visitor location register
C. home location register
D. authentication register

88. In cellular phone, a memory location that stores the telephone number(s) to be used on
the system.

A. EPROM
B. UVPROM
C. EEPROM
D. NAM

89. A province in the Philippines has an area 2000 sq. kms. It has to be covered by a cellular
mobile telephone service using cells with a radius of 3 kms. Assuming hexagonal cells,
find the number of cell sites needed.

A. 100
B. 500
C. 166
D. 145

90. The modulation technique used by GSM cellular system.

A. QAM
B. Phase Shift Keying
C. Gaussian Minimum Shift Keying
D. Frequency Shift Keying

91. Microcells have base stations transmit power between ____.

A. 0.4W to 0.7W
B. 1W to 6W
C. 0.5W to 8W
D. 0.1W to 1W

92. Determine the receive carrier frequencies for AMPS channel 3 and channel 991

A. 870.09 MHz and 869.04 MHz
B. 879.09 MHz and 859.04 MHz
C. 869.09 MHz and 870.04 MHz
D. 869.04 MHz and 870.09 MHz

93. Decreasing co-channel interference while increasing capacity by using directional
antenna is called ____.

A. clustering
B. splitting
C. partitioning
D. sectoring

94. Soft handoff normally takes ____ of time delay.

A. 400 ms
B. 300 ms
C. 200 ms
D. 100 ms

95. Component of a cellular telephone network that manages each of the radio channels at
each site.

A. base station controllers
B. base transceiver stations
C. mobile switching center
D. mobile telephone switching center

96. The bit length of Station Class Mark (SCM).

A. 4
B. 5
C. 8
D. 10

97. The master control center for a cellular telephone system is the

A. Cell site
B. MTSO
C. Central office
D. Branch office

98. The maximum frequency deviation of an FM cellular transmitter is

A. 6 kHz
B. 12 kHz
C. 30 kHz
D. 45 kHz

99. A receiver channel has a frequency is 872.4 MHz. to develop an 82.2 MHz IF, the
frequency synthesizer must apply an local oscillator signal of ____ (The local oscillator is
usually higher than the receive frequency)

A. 790.2 MHz
B. 827.4 MHz
C. 954.6 MHz
D. 967.4 MHz

100. A class I mobile phone using AMPS has an ERP of

A. 6 dBW
B. 2 dBW
C. -2 dBW
D. -6 dBW

101. A mobile telephone service using trunked channels but not cellular nature

A. IMTS
B. MTSO
C. IMSI
D. IMEI

102. The GSM cellular radio system uses GMSK in a 200-kHz, with a channel data
rate of 270.833 kbps. Calculate the frequency shift between mark and space in kHz?

A. 135.4165
B. 153.6514
C. 315.4651
D. 513.1654

103. A cellular system is capable of coping with a handoffs once every 2 minutes.
What is the maximum cell radius if the system must be capable of working with cars
traveling at highway speed of 120 km/hr?

A. 3 km
B. 1 km
C. 4 km
D. 6 km

104. Radio communication operation service between mobile and land stations or
between mobile stations.

A. land mobile
B. land mobile satellite service
C. mobile service
D. maritime mobile service

105. A multiple access technique used in GSM cellular system.

A. FDMA
B. CDMA
C. TDMA
D. TACS

106. This is the Nordic analog mobile radio telephone system originally used in
Scandinavia

A. NMT
B. GSM
C. PCN
D. PCS

107. The combination of the mobile cellular phone and the cell-site radio equipment is
known as

B. base transceiver station
C. air interface
D. base station controller

108. The duplex frequency of GSM

A. 40 MHz
B. 80 MHz
C. 120 MHz
D. 30 MHz

109. The channel separation of GSM channel

A. 270 kHz
B. 200 kHz
C. 120 kHz
D. 60 kHz

110. The number of control channels for AMPS

A. 25
B. 23
C. 21
D. 19

111. The modulation technique used audio signal for TACS

A. FM
B. FSK
C. TFSK
D. QAM

112. Speech coding rate for GSM

A. 80 kbps
B. 25 kbps
C. 21 kbps
D. 13 kbps

113. Number of channels for GSM

A. 333
B. 666
C. 124
D. 248

114. It is a database that contains information about the identity of mobile equipment
that prevents calls from stolen, unauthorized, or defective mobile stations.

A. Equipment Identity Register
B. Authentication Center
C. Home Location Register
D. Visitor Location Register

115. It provides all the control functions and physical links between the MSC and BTS

A. OSS
B. OMC
C. MSC
D. BSC

116. It is the functional entity from which the operator monitors and controls the
mobile communication system.

A. Operation and Maintenance System
B. Mobile Switching Center
C. Gateway Mobile Switching Center
D. Operation and Support System

117. A node in the switching system of GSM that provides integrated voice, fax and
data messaging.

A. Gateway Mobile Switching Center
B. Mobile Service Node
C. GSM Internetworking Unit
D. Message Center

118. It is a node in the switching system of GSM that handles mobile intelligent
network services.

A. Message Center
B. Gateway Mobile Switching Center
C. Mobile Service Unit
D. Mobile Switching Center

119. The modulation scheme used for NADC

A. NFSK
B. Quarterwavelength Shifted QPSK
C. GFSK
D. Trellis coding

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS IN
SATELLITE
COMMUNICATIONS
Electronics Systems and Technologies
By
Melvin C. Arceo

ENCODED BY:
LAQUI, Louise Ruelyn J.
1. It is a celestial body that orbits around a planet.

A. Primary body
B. Satellite
C. Heavenly bodies
D. Quasars

2. It is a position and timing service that is available to all GPS users on a continuous,
worldwide basis with no direct charge.

A. PPI
B. PPS
C. SPS
D. SSP

3. The geometric shape of a non-circular orbit of a satellite is ____.

A. Ellipse
B. Parabolic
C. Hyperbolic
D. Paraboloid

4. The circuit that provides channelization in a transponder is the

A. Mixer
B. Local oscillator
C. Bandpass filter
D. HPA

5. The three axes referred to the three-axis attitude stabilization are; except

A. Pitch
B. Yaw
C. Roll
D. Speed

6. A ground station is operating to a geostationary satellite at a 5 degrees angle of elevation.
Calculate the round-trip time between ground station to satellites in a geostationary orbit.

A. 456.45 ms
B. 275.58 ms
C. 137.79 ms
D. 126.89 ms

7. The escape velocity of the earth is approximately

A. 30,000 km/hr
B. 25,000 mi/hr
C. 35,000 m/s
D. 25,000 km/hr

8. A satellite radio repeater is called ____.

A. Repeater
B. Transponder
C. Satellite
D. Mixer

9. Calculate the angle of declination for an antenna using a polar mount at a latitude of 45
degrees.

A. 3.2 degrees
B. 1.3 degrees
C. 4.2 degrees
D. 6.81 degrees

10. The time transfer accuracy used with reference to the Universal Transmitter Mercator
Grid is ____.

A. UTC
B. UTMG
C. GMT
D. UTM

11. It is caused by the inertia of the satellite balanced by the earths gravitational pull.

A. Centrifugal force
B. Centripetal force
C. Speed
D. Earths rotation

12. In satellites, it includes control mechanism that support the payload operation.

A. Bus
C. Ground segment
D. Space segment

13. A satellite transmitter operates at a 4 GHz with a transmitter power of 7W and an antenna
gain of 40 dBi. The receiver has antenna gain of 30 dBi, and the path length is 40,000
km. calculate the signal strength at the receiver.

A. -88 dBm
B. -98 dBm
C. -77 dBm
D. -79.8 dBm

14. The satellite subsystem that monitors and controls the satellite is the

A. Propulsion system
B. Power subsystem
C. Communications subsystem
D. Telemetry, tracking, and command subsystems

15. Standard positioning service has time transfer accuracy to Universal Transfer Mercator
Grid within ____.

A. 140 nanoseconds
B. 340 nanoseconds
C. 230 nanoseconds
D. 530 nanoseconds

16. A satellite remains in orbit because the centrifugal force caused by its rotation around the
Earth is counterbalanced by Earths ____.

A. Centripetal force
B. Inertia
C. Gravitational pull
D. Speed

17. A TVRO installation for use with C-band satellite (download frequency at 4 GHz), has a
diameter of about 3.5 meters and an efficiency of 60%. Calculate the gain.

A. 41 dB
B. 19 dB
C. 29 dB
D. 9 dB

18. Which of the following is not a typical output from the GPS receiver?

A. Latitude
B. Speed
C. Altitude
D. Longitude

19. The law that states that a satellite will orbit a primary body following an elliptical path.

A. 1
st
law of Kepler
B. 2
nd
law of Kepler
C. 3
rd
law of Kepler
D. 4
th
law of Kepler

20. Telephone communication takes place between two earth stations via a satellite that is
40,000 km from each station. Suppose Bill, at station 1, asks a question and Sharon, at
station 2, answers immediately, as soon as she hears the question. How much time
elapses between the end of Bills question and the beginning of Sharons reply, as heard
by Bill?

A. 0.26 sec
B. 3.2 sec
C. 0.52 sec
D. 1.6 sec

21. In GPS, it is accomplished by manipulating navigation message orbit data (epsilon)
and/or the satellite clock frequency (dither).

A. Selective availability
D. Two dimensional reporting

22. The modulation normally used with digital data is

A. AM
B. FM
C. SSB
D. QPSK

23. Keplers 2
nd
law is known as

A. Law of gravity
B. Law of areas
C. Newtons law of motion
D. Harmonic law

24. A receiving antenna with a gain of 40 dB looks at a sky with a noise temperature of 15 K.
the loss between the antenna and the LNA input, due to the feedhorn is 0.4 dB, and the
LNA has a noise temperature of 40K. Calculate the G/T?

A. 13.4 dB
B. 39 dB
C. 20.6 dB
D. 11.2 dB

25. The operational satellites of Navstar GPS are revolving around Earth in ____ orbital
planes.

A. 4
B. 3
C. 5
D. 6

26. Keplers 3
rd
law is also known as

A. Law of gravity
B. Law of areas
C. Newtons law of motion
D. Harmonic law

27. The basic technique used to stabilize a satellite is

A. Gravity-forward motion balance
B. Spin
C. Thruster control
D. Solar panel orientation

28. Calculate the length of the path to a geostationary satellite from an earth station where the
angle of elevation is 30 degrees.

A. 55 x 10^3 km
B. 13 x 10^3 km
C. 23 x 10^3 km
D. 39 x 10^3 km

29. Navstar GPS is a ____.

A. LEO
B. MEO
C. HEO
D. GEO

30. The satellite is orbiting in the same direction as the Earths rotation and at angular
velocity greater than that of the Earth.

B. Synchronous
D. Asynchronous

31. Find the orbital period of the satellite in a circular orbit 500 km above the Earths surface

A. 1.6 hrs
B. 3.2 hrs
C. 2.4 hrs
D. 6.4 hrs

32. Satellite orbiting in the opposite direction as the Earths rotation and at angular velocity
less than that of the Earth

A. Asynchronous
B. Synchronous

33. A transponder that demodulates the baseband signals and then demodulates a carrier is
known as ____ transponder.

A. Single-conversion
B. Double-conversion
C. Regenerative
D. Degenerative

34. Low Earth Orbit (LEO) satellite orbits around the earth at a height of approximately
____.

A. 3000 miles
B. 1000 miles
C. 575 miles
D. 370 miles

35. Power amplification in a transponder is usually provided by

A. klystron
B. TWT
C. Transistor
D. Magnetron

36. Which of the following clocks is developed for Galileo satellite?

A. Cesium Atomic Frequency Standard
B. Rubidium Atomic Frequency Standard
C. Ruby Atomic Frequency Standard
D. Hydrogen Frequency Standard

37. Master control station of GPS is located in ____.

B. California
D. New York

38. Medium Earth Orbit (MEO) satellite orbits around the earth at a height approximately
____.

A. 3,000 miles to 6,000 miles
B. 4,000 miles to 8,000 miles
C. 6,000 miles to 12,000 miles
D. 8,000 miles to 10,000 miles

39. A satellite stays in orbit because the following two factors are balanced

A. Satellite weight and speed
B. Gravitational pull and inertia
C. Centripetal force and speed
D. Satellite weight and the pull of the moon and sun

40. A ____ circuit in the transponder performs the frequency conversion.

A. HPA
B. Mixer
C. Local oscillator
D. LPA

41. Geosynchronous satellites are high-altitude earth-orbit satellites with heights about ____.

A. 22,300 miles
B. 21,000 miles
C. 8,000 miles
D. 10,400 miles

42. The input circuit to a transponder is the ____.

A. BPF
B. HPA
C. LPA
D. Any of these

43. The access scheme used by GPS

A. FDMA
B. OFDMA
C. TDMA
D. CDMA

44. The point in an orbit which is located farthest from earth

A. Perigee
B. Apogee
C. Line of apsides
D. Point of shoot

45. Using very narrow beamwidth antennas to isolate signals on the same frequency is
known as ____.

A. Spatial isolation
B. Footprint
C. Frequency reuse
D. Boresight

46. The point in an orbit which is located closest to Earth

A. Point of shoot
B. Apogee
C. Line of apsides
D. Perigee

47. The most popular satellite frequency range is 4 to 6 GHz and is called the ____ band.

A. C
B. L
C. Ka
D. Ku

48. All satellites rotate around the earth in an orbit that forms a plane that passes through the
center of gravity of earth called ____.

A. Focus
B. Geocenter
C. Orbit
D. Center

49. In satellite communications, the type of modulation used in voice and video signals is

A. AM
B. FM
C. SSB
D. QPSK

50. In satellite communications, type of orbit which is virtually all orbits except those travel
directly above the equator or directly over the North or the South poles.

A. Equatorial orbit
B. Polar orbit
C. Geosynchronous orbit
D. Inclined orbit

51. A common up-converter and down-converter IF insatelite communications is

A. 36 MHz
B. 40 MHz
C. 70 MHz
D. 500 MHz

52. It is the angle between the earths equatorial plane and the orbital plane of the satellite
measured counterclockwise.

A. Angle of elevation
B. Angle of azimuth
C. Angle of inclination
D. Angle of tetrahedron

53. Which of the following types of HPA is not used in earth stations?

A. TWT
B. Klystron
C. Transistors
D. Magnetron

54. Galileo satellites mass is ____.

A. 880 kg
B. 675 kg
C. 900 kg
D. 540 kg

55. The point where a polar or inclined orbit crosses the equatorial plane traveling from north
to south

A. Ascending node
B. Line of nodes
C. Descending node
D. Diagonal nodes

56. The receive GCE system in an earth station performs what function/s

A. Modulation and multiplexing
B. Up conversion
C. Demodulation and demultiplexing
D. Down conversion

57. The term generally associated with the table showing the position of a heavenly body on
the number of dates in a regular sequence.

A. Astronomical almanac
B. Smith
C. Ephemeris
D. Space reporting

58. The point where a polar or inclined orbit crosses the equatorial plane traveling from south
to north.

A. Ascending node
B. Descending node
C. Diagonal node
D. Inclined node

59. The line joining the ascending and descending node is called ____.

A. Line of apsides
B. Line of nodes
C. Line of shoot
D. Any of these

60. When the satellite rotates in an orbit directly above the equator, usually in circular
pattern. This type of orbit is called ____.

A. Polar orbit
B. Synchronous orbit
C. Geosynchronous satellite
D. Equatorial orbit

61. The Navstar GPS satellite system was declared fully operational as of ____.

A. April 17, 1995
B. April 24, 1995
C. April 27, 1995
D. April 10, 1995

62. The HPAs in most satellites are

A. TWTs
B. Vacuum tubes
C. Klystrons
D. Magnetrons

63. The physical location of a satellite is determined by its

A. Distance from the earth
B. Latitude and longitude
C. Reference to the stars
D. Position relative to the sun

64. When the satellite rotates in a path that takes it over the north and south poles in an orbit
perpendicular to the equatorial plane. This type of orbit is called ____.

A. Inclined orbit
B. Polar orbit
C. Geosynchronous orbit
D. Diagonal orbit

65. The azimuth angles and the angle of elevation is collectively known as ____.

A. Antennas look angles
B. Antennas see angles
C. Antennas keep angles
D. Antennas satellite angles

66. The point on the surface of the Earth directly below the satellite.

A. Satellite point
B. Latitude
C. Longitude
D. Subsatellite point

67. It is the vertical angle formed between the direction of travel of an electromagnetic wave
radiated from an earth station antenna pointing directly toward a satellite and the
horizontal plane.

A. Angle of depression
B. Angle of inclination
C. Angle of elevation
D. Angle of azimuth

68. The unique number used to encrypt the signal from that of the GPS satellite.

A. SV
B. UV
C. PRN
D. ESN

69. The minimum acceptable angle of elevation

A. 6 degrees
B. 4 degrees
C. 5 degrees
D. 7 degrees

70. It is the horizontal angular distance from a reference direction either the southern or
northern most point of the horizon.

A. Angle of elevation
B. Latitude
C. Longitude
D. Azimuth

71. It is defined as the horizontal pointing angle of an earth station antenna.

A. Angle of inclination
B. Azimuth angle
C. Latitude
D. Longitude

72. Determines the farthest satellite away that can be seen looking east or west of the earth
stations longitude

B. Optical horizon
C. Terrestrial limits
D. Limits of visibility

73. The spatial separation of a satellite is between ____.

A. 3 to 6 degrees
B. 1 to 2 degrees
C. 5 to 8 degrees
D. 8 to 16 degrees

74. The geographical representation of a satellite antennas radiation pattern is called a ____.

A. Field intensity
B. Footprint
D. Polarization

75. The GPS satellite identification which is assigned according to the order of the vehicles
launch.

A. SV
B. EV
C. PRN
D. ESN

76. The smallest beam of a satellite that concentrates their power to very small geographical
areas.

A. Hemispherical beam
B. Global beam
C. Spot beam
D. Any of these

77. Satellites radiation pattern that typically target up to 20% of the Earths surface.

A. Hemispherical beam
B. Global beam
C. Spot beam
D. Any of these

78. The key electronic component in a communications satellite is the

A. Telemetry
B. Command and Control system
C. On-board computer
D. Transponder

79. The radiation pattern that has a satellites antenna beamwidth of 17 degrees and are
capable of covering approximately 42% of the earths surface.

A. Hemispherical beam
B. Earth beam
C. Spot beam
D. Any of these

80. The first active satellite

A. Moon
B. Sputnik I
C. Score
D. Echo

81. Sputnik I transmitted telemetry information for

A. 1 week
B. 21 days
C. 15 days
D. 30 days

82. The US counterpart of Sputnik I

A. Syncom
B. Telstar
C. Echo
D. Explorer I

83. Explorer I lasted for ____.

A. 5 months
B. 6 months
C. 12 months
D. 2 months

84. Navstar GPS satellite grouping that can operate continuously for 180 days between

A. Block III
B. Block IIa
C. Block II
D. Block IIR

85. It was the first artificial satellite used for relaying terrestrial communications

A. Score
B. Explorer I
C. Sputnik I
D. Syncom I

86. Which of the following satellite rebroadcast President Eisenhowers 1958 Christmas
message?

A. Telstar I
B. Telstar II
C. Echo
D. Score

87. The satellite or space segment of Navstar GPS is consist of ____ operational satellites.

A. 30
B. 24
C. 14
D. 20

88. It was the first satellite to accomplish transatlantic transmission.

A. Courier
B. Echo
C. Telstar
D. Syncom

89. It is the first transponder-type satellite

A. Telstar I
B. Sputnik I
C. Syncom
D. Courier

90. The first active satellite to simultaneously receive and transmit radio signals.

A. Telstar I
B. Telstar II
C. Intelsat
D. Syncom

91. The satellite communications channel in a transponder are defined by the

A. LNA
B. Bandpass filter
C. Mixer
D. Input signals

92. The satellite that was damaged by radiation from a newly discovered Van Allen Belts and
consequently lasted for two weeks.

A. Telstar I
B. Telstar II
C. Intelsat
D. Syncom

93. As the height of a satellite orbit gets lower, the speed of the satellite

A. Increases
B. Decreases
C. Remains the same
D. None of the above

94. The satellite that was lost in space in its first attempt to place it in a geosynchronous
orbit.

A. Syncom I
B. Telstar I
C. Telstar II
D. Courier

95. Intelsat I which was the first commercial telecommunications satellite is called ____.

A. Domsat
B. Molniya
C. Early bird
D. Courier

96. Block II Navstar GPS satellites can operate for approximately ____ between the
receiving updates and corrections from the control segment of the system.

A. 5.5 days
B. 3.5 days
C. 6 days
D. 7 days

97. The angle of inclination of a satellite in polar orbit is nearly ____.

A. 45 degrees
B. 90 degrees
C. 30 degrees
D. 60 degrees

98. It is the time it takes earth to rotate back to the same constellation

A. Revolution
B. Rotation
C. Sidereal period
D. Year

99. Satellites with orbital pattern like Molniya are sometimes classified as

A. LEO
B. MEO
C. GEO
D. HEO

100. The process of maneuvering a satellite within a preassigned window is called

A. Satellite keeping
B. Station controlling
C. Station keeping
D. Satellite controlling

101. Navstar GPS satellite grouping capacble of detecting certain error conditions, then
automatically transmitting a coded message indicating that it is out of service.

A. Block I
B. Block IIa
C. Block II
D. Block IIR

102. Galileo Satellites has a lifespan of ____.

A. > 12 years
B. > 15 years
C. > 20 years
D. > 25 years

103. The height of a satellite in a synchronous equatorial orbit is

A. 100 mi
B. 6800 mi
C. 22,300 mi
D. 35,860 mi

104. An orbit that is 36,000 km away from the geocenter of the earth is called

A. Geosynchronous orbit
B. Clarke orbit
C. Clarke belt
D. Any of these

105. The main function of a communications satellite is as

A. Repeater
B. Reflector
C. Beacon
D. Observation platform

106. Navstar GPS grouping intended to be used only for self testing.

A. Block I
B. Block III
C. Block II
D. Block IIR

107. It is the direction of maximum gain of the earth station antenna

A. Footprint
B. Boresight
C. Angle of elevation
D. Angle of azimuth

108. A circular orbit around the equator with 24-h period is called

A. Elliptical orbit
B. Geostationary orbit
C. Polar orbit
D. Transfer orbit

109. A classification of satellite that uses the angular momentum of its spinning body
to provide roll and yaw stabilization.

A. Roll stabilizer satellite
B. Yaw stabilizer satellite
C. Spinner stabilizer satellite
D. Three-axis stabilizer satellite

110. Most satellites operate in which frequency band?

A. 30 to 300 MHz
B. 300 MHz to 3 GHz
C. 3 to 30 GHz
D. Above 300 GHz

111. The method of assigning adjacent channels different electromagnetic polarization
is called

A. Frequency reuse
B. Polarization
C. Multi-accessing
D. Interference

112. It implies that more than one user has an access to one or more radio channels

A. Co-channel interference
B. Satellite multi-accessing
C. Frequency reuse
D. Diversity

113. The main power sources for a satellite are

A. Batteries
B. Solar cells
C. Fuel cells
D. Thermoelectric generators

114. A type of satellites multiple-accessing method that allows all users continuous
and equal access of the entire transponder bandwidth by assigning carrier frequencies on
a temporary basis using statistical assignment process.

A. TDMA
B. FDMA
C. DAMA
D. CDMA

115. Batteries are used to power all satellite subsystems

A. All the time
B. Only during emergencies
C. During eclipse periods
D. To give the solar arrays a rest

116. The highly accurate timing clocks onboard the GPS satellite.

A. Plutonium clocks
B. Cesium atomic clocks
C. Hydrogen clocks
D. Fossil clocks

117. It is defined as the art or science of plotting, ascertaining, or directing the course
of movement.

A. Ranging
B. Detection
D. Driving

118. Galileo satellite system is positioned in ____.

A. 5 circular orbits
B. 3 circular orbits
C. 2 circular orbits
D. 6 circular orbits

119. The maximum height of an elliptical orbit is called the

A. Perigee
B. Apex
C. Zenith
D. Apogee

120. The most ancient and rudimentary method of navigation is ____.

A. Wandering
C. Piloting

121. The jet thrusters are usually fired to

A. Main attitude
B. Put the satellite into transfer orbit
C. Inject the satellite into the geosynchronous orbit
D. Bring the satellite back to earth

122. A method of navigation where direction and distance are determined from
precisely timed sightings of celestial bodies, including the stars and the moon.

123. Navstar satellite takes approximately ____ hours to orbit Earth.

A. 20
B. 6
C. 12
D. 18

124. A method of navigation where it fixes a position or direction with respect to
familiar, significant landmarks such as railroad tracks, water towers, barns, mountain
peaks and bodies or water.

C. Wandering
D. Piloting

125. How can multiple earth stations share a satellite on the same frequencies?

A. Frequency reuse
B. Multiplexing
C. Mixing
D. They cant

126. A navigation technique that determines position by extrapolating a series of
measured velocity increments.

A. Piloting
B. Wandering

127. A geostationary satellite

A. Is motionless in space (except for its gain)
B. Is not really stationary at all, but orbits the Earth within a 24-hr period
C. Appears stationary over the Earths magnetic pole
D. Is located at a height of 35,800 km to ensure global coverage

128. The average elevation of Navstar GPS satellite is ____ statue miles above the
Earth.

A. 6724
B. 7689
C. 5978
D. 9476

129. Most commercial satellite activity occurs in which band(s)

A. L
B. C and Ku
C. X
D. S and P

130. Indicate the correct statement regarding satellite communications

A. If two earth stations do not face a common satellite, they should communicate via a
double-satellite hop.
B. Satellites are allocated so that it is impossible for two earth stations not to face the
same satellite.
C. Collocated earth stations are used for frequency diversity.
D. Satellite earth station must have as many receive chains as there are carriers
transmitted to it.

131. Satellite used for intercontinental communications are known as

A. Comsat
B. Domsat
C. Marisat
D. Intelsat

132. Identical telephone numbers in different parts of the country are distinguished by
their

A. Language digits
B. Access digits
C. Area codes
D. Central office codes

133. The GPS satellites has an angle of elevation at the ascending node of ____ with
respect to the equatorial plane.

A. 30 degrees
B. 55 degrees
C. 50 degrees
D. 45 degrees

134. Telephone traffic is measured

A. With echo cancellers
B. By the relative congestion
C. In terms of the grade of service
D. In erlangs

135. Indicate which of the following is not a submarine cable

A. TAT-7
B. INTELSAT V
C. ATLANTIS
D. CANTAT 2

136. The typical bandwidth of a satellite band is

A. 36 MHz
B. 40 MHz
C. 70 MHz
D. 500 MHz

137. The operational satellites of Navstar GPS are revolving around Earth in orbital
planes are approximately ____ degrees apart with ____ satellites in each plane.

A. 60, 4
B. 30, 5
C. 50, 5
D. 40, 3

138. Indicate which of the following is an American domsat system

A. INTELSAT
B. TELSTAR
C. COMSAT
D. INMARSAT

139. Which of the following is not usually a part of a transponder?

A. LNA
B. Mixer
C. Modulator
D. HPA

140. Who is the oldest man in space?

A. John Glenn
B. Neil Armstrong
C. Yuri Gagarin
D. Edwin Aldrin

141. It refers to the satellite orientation with respect to the earth.

A. Satellites attitude
B. Satellite position
C. Satellite location
D. Satellite orbit

142. Precise positioning service has time transfer accuracy to UTC within

A. 100 nanoseconds
B. 300 nanoseconds
C. 200 nanoseconds
D. 400 nanoseconds

143. The fully deployed Galileo satellite system consists of ____ satellites.

A. 27 operational + 3 active spares
B. 26 operational + 4 active spares
C. 28 operational + 2 active spares
D. 25 operational + 5 active spares

144. Galileo satellite is ____.

A. Medium Earth Orbit (MEO)
B. Low Earth Orbit (LEO)
C. Geosynchronous Earth Orbit (GEO)
D. Highly Elliptical Orbit (HEO)

145. Galileo satellites are at circular planes at ____ altitude above Earth.

A. 23,500 mi
B. 36,500 km
C. 35,800 mi
D. 23,222 km

146. Galileo satellites are inclined at the orbital planes of ____ with reference to the
equatorial plane.

A. 64 degrees
B. 17 degrees
C. 56 degrees
D. 34 degrees

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS IN
ANTENNA
Electronics Systems and Technologies
By
Melvin C. Arceo

ENCODED BY:
LORENZO, Luer Breech B.
1) It is a metallic conductor system capable of radiating and capturing electromagnetic energy.
a) transmission lines
b) antenna
c) waveguides

2) A directional antenna with two or more elements is known as
a) folded dipole
b) ground plane
c) loop
d) array

3) The ratio of the focal length to the diameter of the mouth of the parabola is called _____.
a) aperture
b) focal point
c) foci
d) major axis

4) The impedance of a dipole is about
a) 50-ohm
b) 73-ohm
c) 93-ohm
d) 300-ohm

5) A special type if transmission lint that consists of a conducting metallic tube through which
high-frequency electromagnetic energy is propagated.
a) medium
b) microstrip
c) stripline
d) waveguide

6) Calculate the angle of declination for an antenna using a polar mount at a latitude of 45
degrees.
a) 3.2 degrees
b) 1.3 degrees
c) 4.2 degrees
d) 6.81 degrees

7) The cone angle of the flare angle of a conical horn antenna is approximately
a) 55 degrees
b) 45 degrees
c) 40 degrees
d) 50 degrees

8) Electrical energy that has escaped into free space in the form of transverse electromagnetic
waves
b) frequency
c) signal
d) wavelength

9) The length of the ground plane vertical at 146 MHz is
a) 1.6 ft.
b) 1.68 ft.
c) 2.05 ft.
d) 3.37 ft.

10) Using a small reflector to beam waves to the larger parabolic reflector is known as
a) focal feed
b) horn feed
c) cassegrain feed
d) coax feed

11) The plane parallel to the mutually perpendicular line in the electric and magnetic fields is
called _____
a) wavefront
b) point source
c) isotropic source
d) rays

12) What is the beamwidth of a parabolic antenna with a diameter of 5 meters and an operating
frequency to 10 GHz?
a) 0.5 degrees
b) 0.675 degrees
c) 0.348 degrees
d) 3.48 degrees

13) The horizontal radiation pattern of a dipole is a
a) circle
b) figure of eight
c) clover leaf
d) narrow beam

14) The size of the antenna is inversely proportional to _____
a) frequency
b) power
d) wavelength

15) A popular half-wavelength antenna is the
a) ground plane
b) end-fire
c) collinear
d) dipole

16) Calculate the gain of a parabolic antenna using a 2.5-m radius dish operating at 10 GHz.
a) 166.673 dB
b) 83.7 dB
c) 52.2 dB
d) 45.6 dB

17) It is the ratio of the radiated to the reflected energy

18) The feed mechanism in a parabolic antenna that radiates the electromagnetic energy
a) primary antenna
b) reflectors
c) secondary antenna
d) focal point

19) It is a polar diagram representing field strengths or power densities at various angular
relative to an antenna
a) sidelobe
b) front lobe

20) For a transmit antenna with a radiation resistance of 72 ohms, an effective antenna resistance
of 8 ohms, a directivity gain of 20 and an input power of 100W, determine the antenna gain.
a) 12.55 dB
b) 10.43 dB
c) 11.21 dB
d) 9.78 dB

21) The radiation pattern plotted in terms of electric field strength or power density
c) absolute front lobe pattern
d) absolute sidelobe pattern

22) Calculate the characteristic impedance of a quarter-wavelength section used to connect a
300-ohm antenna to a 75-ohm line
a) 150 ohms
b) 120 ohms
c) 130 ohms
d) 110 ohms

23) Plots of field strength or power density with respect to the value at a reference point
a) absolute frontlobe pattern
c) relative frontlobe pattern

24) What must be the height nof a vertical radiator one-half wavelength high if the operating
frequency is 1100 kHz?
a) 120 m
b) 136 m
c) 115 m
d) 124 m

25) Lobes adjacent to the front lobe
a) diagonal lobes
b) side lobes
c) front lobes
d) back lobes

26) Lobes in a directional exactly opposite of the front lobe
a) side lobes
c) front lobes
d) back lobes

27) Calculate the efficiency of an antenna that has a radiation resistance of 73 ohms and an
effective dissipation resistance of 5 ohms.
a) 98.3 %
b) 93.6 %
c) 90.7 %
d) 95.5 %

28) The line bisecting the major lobe, or pointing from the center of the antenna in the direction
of maximum radiation is called _____.
a) line of shoot
b) diagonal shoot
c) bisecting shoot
d) antenna shoot

29) The ammeter connected at the base of a Marconi antenna has a certain reading. If this reading
is increased 2.77 times, what is the increase in output power?
a) 3.45
b) 1.89
c) 2.35
d) 7.67

30) Refers to a field pattern that is close to the antenna
a) induction field
b) far field
d) capture field

31) A half-wave dipole is driven a 5-W signal at 225MHz. A receiving dipole 100 km. Calculate
a) 23.5 pW
b) 7.57 pW
c) 5.64 pW
d) 1.26 pW

32) It is the resistance that, if it replaced the antenna, would dissipate exactly the same amount of
a) directivity gain
b) antenna efficiency
d) antenna resistance

33) What is the effective radiated power of a television broadcast station if the output of the
transmitter is 1000W, antenna transmission line loss is 50W, and the antenna power gain is 3.
a) 1250 W
b) 2370 W
c) 2130 W
d) 2850 W

34) It is the ratio of the power radiated by an antenna to the sum of the power radiated and the
power dissipated.
b) coupling resistance
c) antenna efficiency
d) antenna beamwidth

35) It is the ratio of the power radiated by the antenna to the total input power.
a) antenna efficiency
b) reflection coefficient
c) standing wave ratio

36) If a 500-kHz transmitter of a constant power produces field strength of 100 V/m at a
distance of 100 mil from the transmitter, what would be the field strength at a distance of 200
mi from the transmitter?
a) 45V/m
b) 100 V/m
c) 50 V/m
d) 35 V/m

37) An antenna that transmits or receives equally well in all directions is said to be ______.
a) omnidirectional
b) bi-directional
c) unidirectional

38) It is the ratio of the power density radiated in a particular direction to the power density
radiated to the same point by a reference antenna, assuming both antennas are radiating the
same amount of power.
a) power gain
b) directive gain
c) total gain
d) system gain

39) If the field intensity of 25 mV/m develops 2.7 V in a certain antenna, what is its effective
height?
a) 110 m
b) 100 m
c) 98 m
d) 108 m

40) The magnetic field of an antenna is perpendicular to the earth. The antennas polarization
______.
a) is vertical
b) is horizontal
c) is circular
d) cannot be determined from the information given

41) If the power of a 500-kHz transmitter is increased from 150W to 300W, what would be the
percentage change in field intensity at a given distance from the transmitter?
a) 141 %
b) 150 %
c) 100 %
d) 133 %

42) It is the same with directive gain except that the total power fed to the antenna is used and the
antenna efficiency is taken into account.
a) system gain
b) power gain
c) directive gain
d) total gain

43) A ship-radio telephone transmitter operates on 2738 kHz. At a certain point distant from the
transmitter, the 2738-kHz signal is measured field at 147 mV/m, the second harmonic field at
the same decibels, how much has the harmonic emission been attenuated below the 2738-
kHz fundamental?
a) 43.2 dB
b) 51.2 dB
c) 35.1 dB
d) 25.1 dB

44) It is the equivalent power that an isotropic antenna would have to radiate to achieve the same
power density in the chosen direction at a given point as another antenna.
a) EIRP
b) ERP
c) IRL
d) RSL

45) When energy is applied to the antenna at a point of high-circulating current.
a) voltage-fed antenna
b) power-fed antenna
c) current-fed antenna
d) impedance-fed antenna

46) For a transmitter antenna with a power gain of 10 and an input power of 100W, determine the
EIRP in watts.
a) 30 dBW
b) 40 dBW
c) 50 dBW
d) 20 dBW

47) If the energy is applied at the geometrical center of antenna, the antenna is said to be
________.
a) center-fed
b) end-fed
c) quarterwave-fed
d) halfwave-fed

48) For a transmit antenna with a power gain of 10 and an input power of 100W, determine the
power density at a point 10 km from the transmit antenna
a) 0.574 W/m
2

b) 0.796 W/m
2

c) 1.24 W/m
2

d) 0.981 W/m
2

49) For a transmit antenna with a radiation resistance of 72 ohms, an effective antenna resistance
of 8 ohms, a directive gain of 20 and an input power of 100W, determine the antenna
efficiency.
a) 90 %
b) 96 %
c) 98 %
d) 96 %

50) The field surrounding the antenna do not collapse their energy back into the antenna but
rather radiate it out into space.
a) induction field
b) near field
d) magnetic field

51) For receive power density of 10W/m
2
and a receive antenna with a capture area of 0.2 m
2
,
determine the captured power.
a) 0.5 W
b) 2 W
c) 1 W
d) 1.5 W

52) The property of interchangeability for the transmitting and receiving operations is known as
_____.
a) efficiency
b) accuracy
c) reciprocity
d) polarization

53) The length of a doublet at 27 MHz is _____.
a) 8.67 ft.
b) 17.3 ft.
c) 18.2 ft.
d) 34.67 ft.

54) Refers to the orientation of the electric field radiated from an antenna.
a) efficiency
b) beamwidth
c) polarization
d) accuracy

55) At frequencies below 2 MHz, what type of antenna is usually used?
a) Marconi antenna
b) Hertzian antenna
c) Herzt antenna
d) Elementary doublet

56) The angular separation between two half-power points in the major lobe of the antennas
a) bandwidth
b) polarization
c) efficiency
d) beamwidth

57) Hertz antenna are predominantly used with frequencies above
a) 3 MHz
b) 4 MHz
c) 5 MHz
d) 2 MHz

58) Defined as the frequency range over which antenna operation is satisfactory.
a) beamwidth
b) channel
c) bandwidth
d) baseband

59) One of the following is not a omnidirectional antenna.
a) half-wave dipole
b) log-periodic
c) discone
d) marconi

60) The point on the antenna where the transmission line is connected is called _____.
a) center feed
b) end feed
c) feedpoint
d) voltage feed

61) A popular vertical antenna is the _____.
a) collinear
b) dipole
c) ground plane

62) The discone antenna is
a) a useful direction-finding antenna
b) used as a radar receiving antenna
c) circularly polarized like other circular antennas
d) useful as a UHF receiving antenna

63) The feedpoint presents and ac load to the transmission line called
a) antenna output impedance
b) antenna input impedance
c) feedpoint impedance
d) center feed impedance

64) A helical antenna is used for satellite tracking because of its
a) circular polarization
b) maneuverability
d) good front to back ratio

65) The simplest type of antenna
a) elementary doublet
b) half-wave dipole
c) quarterwave dipole
d) 5/8 wavelength dipole

66) Zoning is used with a dielectric antenna in order to
a) reduce the bulk of the lens
b) increase the bandwidth of the lens
c) permit pin-point focusing
d) correct the curvature of the wavefront from a horn that is too short

67) It is an electrically short dipole.
a) short dipole
b) quarterwave dipole
c) half-wave dipole
d) yagi antenna

68) Cassegrain feed is used with parabolic reflector to
a) increase the gain of the system
b) increase the bandwidth of the system
c) reduce the size of the main reflector
d) allow the feed to be placed at a convenient point

69) The half-wave dipole is generally referred to as ______.
a) Yagi antenna
b) Hertzian antenna
c) Marconi antenna
d) Hertz antenna

70) Top loading is sometimes used with an antenna in order to increase its
a) effective height
b) bandwidth
c) beamwidth
d) input capacitance

71) What is the directivity of a Hertz antenna?
a) 1.64
b) 2.18
c) 2.15
d) 1.75

72) The standard reference antenna for the directive gain is the _____.
a) infinitesimal dipole
b) isotropic antenna
c) elementary doublet
d) half-wave dipole

73) An antenna which is one-quarter wavelength long, mounted vertically with the lower end
either connected directly to ground or grounded through the antenna coupling network.
a) loop antenna
b) hertzian antenna
c) monopole antenna
d) turnstile antenna

74) An antenna that is circularly polarized is the
a) helical
b) small circular loop
c) parabolic reflector
d) Yagi-Uda

75) It is a wire structure placed below the antenna and erected above the ground.
a) ground plane
b) counterpoise
c) ground lines
d) top hat

76) Which of the following terms does not apply to the Yagi-Uda array
a) good bandwidth
b) parasitic elements
c) folded dipole
d) high gain

77) It effectively cancels out the capacitance component of the antenna input impedance.
a) ground plane
b) top hat
d) shunt capacitance

78) Indicate which of the following reasons for the use of an earth mat with antennas is false:
a) impossibility of a good ground conduction
b) provision of an earth for the antenna
c) protection of personnel working underneath
d) improvement of the radiation pattern of the antenna

79) A metallic array that resembles a spoke wheel placed at the top of an antenna, it increases the
shunt capacitance to ground reducing the overall antenna capacitance.
c) series capacitance
d) series inductors

80) Indicate the antenna that is not wideband;
a) discone
b) folded dipole
c) helical
d) Marconi

81) It is formed when two or more antenna elements are combined to form a single antenna.
a) antenna elements
b) antenna arrays
c) driven elements
d) parasitic elements

82) One of the following is not a reason for the use of an antenna coupler:
a) to make the antenna look resistive
b) to provide the output amplifier with the correct load impedance
c) to discriminate against harmonics
d) to prevent reradiation of local oscillators

83) It is an individual radiator, such as half or quarter-wave dipole
a) antenna element
b) antenna array
c) reflector
d) director

84) Indicate which of the following reasons for using counterpoise with antennas is false:
a) impossibility of a good ground connection
b) protection of personnel working underneath
c) provision of an earth for the antenna
d) rockiness of the ground itself

85) Type of antenna element that is directly connected to the transmission lines and receives
from or is driven by the source.
a) driven array
b) parasitic array
c) driven element
d) parasitic element

86) Which of the following antennas is best excited from a waveguide?
a) biconical
b) horn
c) helical
d) discone

87) Type of antenna element that is not connected to the transmission lines.
a) parasitic array
b) driven array
c) parasitic array
d) parasitic element

88) One of the following is very useful as a multiband HF receiving antenna. This is the:
a) conical horn
b) folded dipole
c) log-periodic
d) square loop

89) A parasitic element that is longer than the driven element from which it receives energy.
a) driven element
b) director
c) parasitic element
d) reflector

90) One of the following consists of nonresonant antennas.
a) rhombic antenna
b) folded-dipole antenna
c) end-fire antenna

91) A parasitic element that is shorter than its associated driven element.
a) redirector
b) director
c) reflector
d) parasitic element

92) An ungrounded antenna near the ground.
a) acts as a single antenna near the ground
b) is unlikely to need an earth mat
c) acts as an antenna array
d) must be horizontally polarized

93) It is a non resonant antenna capable of operating satisfactory over a relatively wide
bandwidth, making it ideally suited for HF transmission.
a) turnstile antenna
b) loop antenna
c) rhombic antenna
d) discone antenna

94) A wide-bandwidth multielement driven array is the _____.
a) end-fire
b) log-periodic
c) yagi
d) collinear

95) It is a linear array antenna consisting of a dipole and two or more parasitic elements: one
reflector and one director.
b) end-fire antenna
c) yagi-uda antenna
d) phased array antenna

96) An antenna which is consists of a cone that is truncated in a piece of circular waveguide.
a) pyramidal horn antenna
b) circular horn antenna
c) rectangular horn antenna
d) conical horn antenna

97) Which antenna has a unidirectional radiation pattern and gain?
a) dipole
b) ground plane
c) yagi
d) collinear

98) An antenna formed by placing two dipoles at right angles to each other, 90 degrees out of
phase.
a) discone antenna
b) turnstile antenna
c) bicone antenna
d) 5/8 wavelength shaped

a) omnidirectional
b) bi-directional
c) unidirectional
d) clover-leaf shaped

100) What is the bandwidth ratio of log-periodic antenna?
a) 10:1
b) 5:1
c) 20:1
d) 1:10

101) Which beam width represents the best antenna directivity
a) 7 degrees
b) 12 degrees
c) 19 degrees
d) 28 degrees

102) It is a ration of the highest to the lowest frequency over which n antenna will satisfactoru
operate.
a) channel ratio
b) bandwidth ratio
c) reflection ratio
d) dynamic range

103) An antenna has a power gain of 15. The power applied to the antenna is 32 W. The
a) 15 W
b) 32 W
c) 120 W
d) 480 W

104) It is simply a single-turn coil of wire that is significantly shorter than one wavelength and
carries RF current.
a) turnstile antenna
b) loop antenna
c) rhombic antenna
d) long-wire antenna

105) A coax has an attenuation of 2.4 dB per 100 ft. The attenuation of 275 ft.
a) 2.4 dB
b) 3.3 dB
c) 4.8 dB
d) 6.6 dB

106) It is a group of antennas or group of antenna arrays that when connected together,
function as a simple whose beamwidth and direction can be changed electronically withour
having to physically move any of the individual antennas or antenna elements within the
array.
a) end fire antenna
c) phased array antenna
d) log-periodic antenna

107) Conductors in multielement antennas that do not receive energy directly from the
transmission line are known as ______.
a) parasitic element
b) driven element
c) the boom
d) receptor

108) It is a broad VHF or UHF antenna that is suited for applications for which radiating
circular rather than horizontal or vertical polarized electromagnetic waved are required
a) discone antenna
b) bicone antenna
c) log-periodic antenna
d) helical antenna

109) Mode of propagation of helical antennas where electromagnetic radiation is in the
direction at right angles to the axis of the helix.
a) normal mode
b) axial mode
c) helix mode
d) helical mode

110) Mode of propagation of helical antennas where radiation of the antenna in the axial
direction and produces a broadband relatively directional pattern
a) helical mode
b) normal mode
c) axial mode
d) helix mode

111) In a Yagi antenna, maximum direction of radiation is toward the
a) director
b) driven element
c) reflector
d) sky

112) It is defined as the ratio of the antenna maximum gain in the forward direction to its
maximum gain in its backward direction.
a) side-to-back ratio
b) front-to-side ratio
c) back-to-side ratio
d) front-to-back ratio

113) The horizontal radiation pattern of a vertical dipole is a _____.
a) figure of eight
b) circle
c) narrow beam
d) clover leaf

114) An antenna that provides extremely high gain and directivity and very popular for
a) helical antenna
b) parabolic antenna
c) hyperbolic antenna
d) log-periodic antenna

115) Part of a parabolic antenna that houses the primary antenna which radiates
electromagnetic waves toward the reflector.
a) feed mechanism
b) focal point
c) center feed
d) feed antenna
116) It is a passive device that simply reflects the energy radiated by the feed mechanism into
a concentrated, highly directional emission in which the individual waved are all in phase
with each other.
a) director
b) parabolic segment
c) reflector
d) feed mechanism

117) The energy near the edge of the parabolic dish that does not reflect but rather is diffracted
around the edge of the dish.
a) spillover
b) corona
c) dissipated power
d) copper loss

118) Determines the angular aperture of the reflector, which indirectly determines how much
the primary radiation is reflected by the parabolic dish.
a) numerical aperture
b) V number
c) aperture number
d) aperture angle

119) For a 2-m diameter parabolic reflector with 10W of power radiated by the feed
mechanism operating at 6 GHz with transmit antenna efficiency of 55 % and an aperture
efficiency of 55 % determine the beamwidth.
a) 1.25 degrees
b) 2.25 degrees
c) 1.5 degrees
d) 1.75 degrees

120) Type of lead mechanism where the primary radiating source is located just behind a small
opening at the vertex of the paraboloid rather than at the focus.
a) cassegrain feed
b) center feed
c) horn feed
d) antenna feed

a) omnidirectional
b) unidirectional
c) figure of eight
d) bi-directional

122) Which is properly terminated antenna?
a) dipole
b) marconi
c) hertz
d) rhombic

123) An example of a Marconi antenna is _____.
a) quarter wave vertical tower
b) collinear
c) yagi
d) rhombic

124) At the ends of a half-wave antenna, what values of current and voltage exist compared to
the remainder of the antenna?
a) minimum voltage and maximum current
b) minimum voltage and minimum current
c) equal voltage and current
d) maximum voltage and minimum current

125) Radiation resistance is the ratio of ______.
a) radiated power to antenna center current
b) radiated power to the square of the antenna center current
c) voltage to any point of the antenna
d) square of voltage to thesquare of current at any point in the antenna

126) Consists of basic antenna connected to a transmission line plus one or more additional
conductors
a) parasitic array
b) directors
c) driven array
d) reflectors

127) Which of the following is not a driven array
a) yagi
c) collinear
d) end fire

128) What is used to determine phase difference between two broadcast antennas?
a) a phase monitor
b) a frequency monitor
c) an amplitude monitor
d) a power monitor

129) In antennas, which gives more forward gain?
a) reflector
b) driven element
c) parasitic element
d) director

130) Which of the following is longer?
a) director
b) reflector
c) driven element
d) parasitic element

131) Which is closer to the driven element?
a) parasitic element
b) driven element
c) director
d) reflector

132) How much do they differ in length from a half-wavelength?
a) 5%
b) 10%
c) 15%
d) 20%

133) How much move feed-point impedance does a folded-dipole have than normal dipole?
a) two times as much
b) three times as much
c) four times as much
d) five times as much

134) How is it possible to produce 70-ohm twin lead?
a) by folding more parasitic element
b) by manufacturing
c) by increasing the radiation resistance
d) by increasing the length of the antenna

135) With similar size parabolic, plane reflector, and corner-reflector beams, which has greates
gain?
a) plane reflector
b) parabolic
c) corner-reflector beam
d) V-beam

136) With similar size, which has the narrowest lobes?
a) parabolic
b) V-beam
c) corner-reflector beam
d) plane reflector

137) Why would the wires of V beam be closer together when used on higher frequencies?
a) main lobe lays further to wire
b) main lobe lays closer to wire
c) secondary lobes closer to wire
d) secondary lobes further to wire

138) How is the V-beam made unidirectional?
a) impedance terminated
b) capacitive terminated
c) inductive terminated
d) resistor terminated

139) Why might a rhombic be better than a V-beam?
a) it is resistor terminated
b) more acreage needed
c) less acreage needed
d) it is unidirectional

140) Why is it usual rhombic nor frequency-sensitive?
a) unidirectional
b) terminated with its characteristic impedance
c) less acreage required
d) main lobe is greater than back lobe

141) In what direction is the null of small diameter loop in relation to the plane of the loop?
a) 45 degrees angle
b) 180 degrees angle
c) 360 degrees angle
d) 90 degrees angle

142) When is a loop unidirectional?
a) when horizontal
b) when vertical
c) when circular
d) when unidirectional

143) Why are verticals sometimes top-loaded?
a) to resonate on high frequency
b) to decrease the electrical length
c) to resonate on low frequency
d) to look better

144) Why is pi-network superior to direct coupling to an antenna?
b) better frequency response
d) reduce power dissipation

145) Why might L networks be used between an antenna and transmission line?
a) step impedance up
b) step impedance down

146) Why are antenna ammeters often shorted out or disconnected from the antenna expect
a) to replace it with dummy
b) not to interfere with transmission
c) for proper reception of signals
d) to protect from lightning

147) Device to split transmission line current to two or more antenna towers
a) splitter
b) coupler
c) isolator
d) phasor circuit

148) What method can be used to determine the feed-point impedance of a vertical antenna?
a) resistance substitution
b) impedance matching
c) dissipated resistance measurement
d) grounding the antenna

149) In what unit is field intensity measured/
a) volts
b) amperes
c) watts/m
d) mV/m

150) How fast does low-frequency field strength attenuate?
a) directly proportional to distance
b) inversely proportional to distance
c) directly proportional to time
d) inversely proportional to time

151) Under what condition might a harmonic of a transmission be heard at a distant point
when the fundamental cannot be?
a) when the carrier is weak
b) when fundamental is too weak
c) when harmonics are weak
d) when the harmonics are amplified

152) Field gain can be measured in ______.
a) volts
b) dB
c) ohms
d) both volts and dB

153) What is involved in the ERP of an antenna?
a) input power times field gain
b) input power squared times field gain
c) output power times field gain
d) output power squared times field gain

154) Why do ground radials assure constant feed-point impedance?
a) virtual ground constant in any weather
b) ensure strength of signals
c) produce a signal image
d) creates good ground

155) What feed requirements must be met to produce a circular radiation pattern when using
two crossed dipoles?
a) feed 180degrees apart electrically
b) feed 45 degrees apart electrically
c) feed 360 degrees apart electrically
d) feed 90 degrees apart electrically

156) A section which would be a complete antenna by itself
a) bay
b) reflector
c) paraboloid
d) hyperboloid

157) In what range of frequencies are most omnidirectional horizontally polarized antennas
used?
a) VHF and UHF
b) HF and VHF
c) UHF and HF
d) LF and MF

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS IN
MICROWAVE
COMMUNICATIONS
Electronics Systems and Technologies
By
Melvin C. Arceo

ENCODED BY:
LORENZO, Luer Breech B.
1) IF repeaters are also called

2) It is the difference between the nominal output power of a transmitter and the minimum input
a) RSL
b) IRL
c) system gain
d) FSL

3) A phenomenon whereby the frequency of a reflected of a reflected signal is shifted if there is
relative motion between the source and reflecting object.
a) Doppler effect
b) Hall effect
c) Marconi effect
d) Maxwell effect

4) A ferrite is
a) a nonconductor with magnetic properties
b) an intermetallic compound with particularly good conductivity
c) an insulator which heavily attenuates magnetic fields
d) a microwave semiconductor invented by Faraday

5) The primary purpose of the helix in a traveling-wave tube is to
a) prevent the electron beam from spreading in the long tube
b) reduce the axial velocity of the RF field
d) reduce the noise figure

6) The attenuator is used in the travelling-wave tube to
a) help bunching
b) prevent oscillations
c) prevent saturation
d) increase the gain

7) A magnetron is used only as
a) amplifier
b) oscillator
c) mixer
d) frequency multiplier

8) A backward-wave oscillator is based on the
a) rising-sun magnetron
b) crossed-field amplifier
c) coaxial magnetron
d) traveling-wave tube

9) Stripline and microstrip transmission lines are usually made with
a) coax
b) parallel lines
c) twisted pair
d) PCBs

10) Which of the following is not a microwave tube?
a) Traveling-wave tube
b) Cathode-ray tube
c) Klystron
d) Magnetron

11) Indicate which is not true. Compared with other types of radar, phased array radar has the
a) very fast scanning
b) ability to track and scan simultaneously
c) circuit simplicity
d) ability to track many targets simultaneously

12) Given the frequency and dimensions of 5 GHz and 7 cm by 9 cm respectively, the beam of
the pyramidal horn is about ______.
a) 27 degrees
b) 53 degrees
c) 60 degrees
d) 80 degrees

13) The diameter of a parabolic reflector should be at least how many wavelengths at the
operating frequency?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 5
d) 10

14) A type of microwave repeater where the received RF carrier is down-converted to an IF
frequency, amplified filtered and further demodulated to baseband.
a) RF repeater
b) IF repeater
c) baseband repeater

15) In order to reduce cross-sectional dimensions, the waveguide to use is
a) circular
b) ridged
c) rectangular
d) flexible

16) Indicate which one of the following applications or advantages of radar beacons is false:
a) target identification
c) very significant extension of the maximum range
d) more accurate tracking enemy targets

17) Refers to more than one transmission path or method of transmission available between
a) diversity
b) polarization
c) efficiency
d) accuracy

18) A solution to the blind speed problem is to
a) change the Doppler frequency
b) vary the RF
c) use monopulse
d) use MTI

19) A direct path that exist between the transmit and receive antennas
a) LOS
b) direct waves
c) space waves
d) terrestrial waves

20) The function of the quartz delay line in an MTI radar is to
a) help in subtracting a complete scan from the previous scan
b) match the phase of the coho and the stalo
c) match the phase of the coho and the output oscillator
d) delay a sweep so that the next sweep can be subtracted from it

21) Type of diversity where it modulates two different RF carrier frequencies with the same IF
intelligence, then transmitting both RF signals to a given destination.
a) polarization diversity
c) space diversity
d) frequency diversity

22) The coho in MTI radar operates at the
a) intermediate frequency
b) transmitted frequency
d) pulse operation frequency

23) Which type of diode does not ordinarily operate with reverse bias?
a) Varactor
b) IMPATT
c) Snapp-off
d) Tunnel

24) What happens when a horn antenna is made longer?
a) gain increases
b) beam width decreases
c) bandwidth increases
d) bandwidth decreases

25) A pyramidal horn used at 5 GHz has an aperture that is 7 cm by 9 cm. The gain is about
a) 10.5 dB
b) 11.1 dB
c) 22.6 dB
d) 35.8 dB

26) Type of diversity where the output of the transmitter is fed to two or more antennas that are
physically separated by an appreciable wavelengths
b) wavelength diversity
c) space diversity
d) hybrid diversity

27) The Doppler effect is used in (indicate the false statement)
a) moving-target plotting on the PPI
b) the MTI system

28) A type of diversity where a single RF carrier is propagated with two different
electromagnetic polarization.
a) space diversity
b) wavelength diversity
c) polarization diversity
d) hybrid diversity

29) The A scope displays
a) the target position and range
b) the target range, but not position
c) the target position, but not range
d) neither range nor position, but only velocity

30) The glass tube of a TWT may be coated with aquadag to
a) help focusing
b) provide attenuation
c) improve bunching
d) increase gain

31) Type of diversity which consists of a standard frequency diversity path where the two
transmitter/receiver pair at one end of the path are separated from each other and connected
to different antennas that are vertically separated as in space diversity
b) wavelength diversity
c) space diversity
d) hybrid diversity

a) it does not give the target velocity
b) it does not give the target range
c) a transponder is required at the target
d) it does not give the target position

33) The combination of the frequency, space, polarization and receiver diversity into one system
a) hybrid diversity
c) space diversity
d) wavelength diversity

34) If the target cross section is changing, the best system for accurate tracking in
a) lobe switching
b) sequential lobing
c) conical switching
d) monopulse

35) The multicavity klystron
a) is not good low-level amplifier because of noise
b) has a high repeller voltage to ensure a rapid transmit time
c) is not suitable for pulse operation
d) needs a long transmit time through the buncher cavity to ensure current modulation

36) An arrangement that avoids a service interruption during periods of deep fades or equipment
failures.
a) service switching arrangement
b) protection switching arrangement
c) interruption switching arrangement
d) equipment switching arrangement

37) A type of attenuator where attenuation is accomplished by insertion of a thin card of resistive
material through a slot in the top of a waveguide
a) flap attenuator
b) vane attenuator
c) slot attenuator
d) directional coupler

38) After a target has been acquired, the best scanning system for tracking is
a) nodding
b) spiral
c) conical
d) helical

39) A duplexer is used
a) to couple two different antennas to a transmitter without mutual interference
b) to allow the one antenna to be used for reception or transmission without mutual
interference
c) to prevent interference between two antennas when they are connected to a receiver
d) to increase the speed of pulses in pulsed radar

40) Type of protection switching arrangement where each working radio channel has a dedicated
backup or spare channel
a) hot swap
b) hot backup
c) hot standby
d) hot diversity

41) If a return echo arrives after the allocated pulse interval,
a) it will interfere with the operation of the transmitter
c) it will not be received
d) the target will appear closer than it really is

42) Points in the microwave system baseband signals either originate or terminate
a) terminator
b) terminal stations
c) terminating equipment
d) terminal equipment

43) A half wavelength, closed section of a waveguide that acts as a parallel resonant circuit is
known as _____.
a) half-wave section
b) cavity resonator
c) LCR circuit
d) directional couple

44) Decreasing the volume of a cavity causes its resonant frequency to
a) increase
b) decrease
c) remains the same
d) drop to zero

45) The IF bandwidth of a radar receiver is inversely proportional to the
a) pulse width
b) pulse repetition frequency
c) pulse interval
d) the target will appear closer than it really is

46) Which of the following devices are not being used in microwave power amplifier?
a) klystron tubes
b) traveling wave tubes
c) IMPATT
d) magnetron

47) Which is not true? A high PRF will
a) make the returned echoes easier to distinguish from noise
b) make the target tracking easier with conical scanning
c) increase the maximum range
d) have no effect on the range resolution

48) It is a unidirectional device often made up of ferrite material used in conjunction with a
channel-combining network to prevent the output from interfering with the output of another
transmitter
a) circulator
b) magic tee
c) isolator
d) rat race

49) Which is not true about the following: Flat-topped rectangular pulses must be transmitted in
a) allow a good minimum range
b) make the returned echoes easier to distinguish from the noise
c) prevent frequency changes in the magnetron
d) allow accurate range measurements

50) The power that leaks out of the back and sides of the transmit antenna interfering with the
signal entering with the signal entering the input of a nearby receive antenna.
a) ringaround
d) turnaround

51) Which of the following is not true: The radar cross section of a target
a) depends on the frequency used
b) may be reduced by special coating of the target
c) depends on the aspect of a target, if this nonspherical
d) is equal to the actual cross-sectional area for small targets

52) It is a general term applied to the reduction in signal strength at the input to a receiver
b) attenuation
c) absorption
d) ghosting

53) Indicate which of the following cannot be followed by the word waveguide
a) elliptical
b) flexible
c) coaxial
d) ridged

54) If the ratio of the antenna diameter to the wavelength in a radar system is high, this will result
in (indicate the false statement)
a) large maximum range
b) good target discrimination
c) difficult target acquisition
d) increased capture area

55) High-power TWTs are replacing what in microwave amplifiers?
a) MESFETs
b) Magnetrons
c) Klystrons
d) IMPATT diodes

56) The most widely used microwave antenna is a
a) half-wave dipole
b) quarter-wave probe
c) single loop
d) horn

57) Applies to propagation variables in the physical radio path which affect changes in path loss
between the transmitter at one station and its normal receiver at the other station.
a) ghosting
b) absorption
c) attenuation

58) If the antenna diameter in a radar system is increased by a factor of 4, the maximum range
will be increased by a factor of
a) square root of 2
b) 2
c) 4
d) 8

59) If the peak transmitted power in a radar system is increased by a factor of 15, the maximum
range will be increased by a factor of
a) 2
b) 4
c) 8
d) 16

60) Varactor and step-recovery diodes are widely used in what type of circuit?
a) amplifier
b) oscillator
c) frequency multiplier
d) mixer

61) It is defined as line loss incurred by an electromagnetic wave as it propagates in a straight
line through a vacuum with no absorption or reflection of energy from nearby objects.
a) IRL
b) FSL
c) RSL
d) Eb/No

62) For proper operation, a magnetron must be accompanied by a
a) cavity resonator
b) strong electric field
c) permanent magnet
d) high dc voltage

63) A police radar speed trap functions at a frequency of 1.024 GHz in direct line with your car.
The reflected energy from your car is shifted 275 Hz in frequency. Calculate the speed in
miles per hour?
a) 60 mph
b) 70 mph
c) 80 mph
d) 90 mph

64) It is the ratio of the wideband carrier to the wideband noise power
a) carrier to noise ratio
b) signal to noise ratio
c) energy per bit per noise density ratio
d) noise figure

65) What is the duty cycle of a radar pulse if the pulse width is 1s, the pulse repetition rate is
900, and the average power is 18 W?
a) 0.09 %
b) 0.99 %
c) 0.90 %
d) 1.00 %

66) A microwave tube amplifier uses an axial magnetic field and a radial electric field. This is
the
a) reflex klystron
b) coaxial magnetron
c) traveling-wave magnetron
d) CFA
67) Figure of merit used to indicate how much the signal-to-noise ratio deteriorates as a signal
passes through a circuit or series of circuits
a) noise factor
b) signal to noise ratio
c) carrier to noise ratio
d) dynamic range

68) What is the peak power of a radar pulse if the pulse width is 1s, the pulse repetition rate is
900, and the average power is 18 W?
a) 10 kW
b) 15 kW
c) 20 kW
d) 30 kW

69) The point where the antenna is mounted with respect to the parabolic reflector is called the
a) focal point
b) center
c) locus
d) tangent

70) The operating frequency of klystron and magnetrons is set by the
a) cavity resonators
b) DC supply voltage
c) inputsignal frequency
d) Number of cavities

71) Using a small reflector to beam waves to the larger parabolic reflector is known as
a) focal feed
b) horn feed
c) cassegrain feed
d) coax feed

72) If the noise figures and gains of each of the amplifiers in cascade is 3 dB and 10 dB
respectively. What is the total noise figure?
a) 2.12 dB
b) 3.24 dB
c) 1.24 dB
d) 4.23 dB

73) One of the following is unlikely to be used as a pulsed device
a) multicavity klystron
b) BWO
c) CFA
d) TWT

74) Calculate the maximum ambiguous range for a radar system with PRT equal to 400s.
a) 13.8 mi
b) 43.5 mi
c) 16.4 mi
d) 32.8 mi

75) When electromagnetic waves are propagated in a waveguide
a) they travel along the broader walls of the guide
b) they are reflected from the walls but do not travel along them
c) they travel through the dielectric without the walls
d) they travel along all four walls of the waveguide

76) What is the distance in nautical miles to a target if it takes 123 s for a radar pulse to travel
from the radar antenna to the target, back to the antenna, and be displayed on the PPI scope?
a) 10 nmi
b) 5 nmi
c) 20 nmi
d) 15 nmi

77) Waveguides are used mainly for microwave signals because
a) they depend on straight-line propagation which applies to microwaves only
b) losses would be too heavy at lower frequencies
c) there are no generators powerful enough to excite them at lower frequencies
d) they would be too bulky at lower frequencies

78) Calculate the coupling of a directional coupler that has 70 mW into the main guide and 0.35
mW out the secondary guide.
a) 13 dB
b) 23 dB
c) 33 dB
d) 10 dB

79) The wavelength of a wave in a waveguide
a) is greater than in free space
b) depends only on the waveguide dimensions and the free space wavelength
c) is inversely proportional to the phase velocity
d) is directly proportional to the group velocity

80) A rectangular waveguide is 1 cm by 2 cm. Calculate the cutoff frequency
a) 3.5 GHz
b) 15 GHz
c) 7.5 GHz
d) 4 GHz

81) The main difference between the operation of transmission liners and waveguides is that
a) the latter is not distributed, like transmission lines
b) the former can use stubs and quarter-wave transformers, unlike the latter
c) transmission lines use the principal mode of propagation, and therefore do not
suffer from low-frequency cut-off
d) terms such as impedance matching and standing-wave ratio cannot be applied to
waveguides

82) The useful power of the transmitter that is contained in the radiated pulses is termed as
______.
a) rms power
b) rated power
c) peak power
d) average power

83) In radars, echoes that are produced when the reflected beam is strong enough to make a
second trip
a) double range echoes
b) double frequencies echoes
c) second return echoes
d) second time around echoes

84) Indicate the false statement. Compared with equivalent transmission lines, 3 GHz
waveguides
a) are less lossy
b) can carry higher powers
c) are less bulky
d) have lower attenuation
85) The range beyond which targets appear as second return echoes is called
a) maximum range
b) maximum unambiguous range
c) maximum usable range
d) any of these

86) When a particular mode is excited in a waveguide, there appears an extra electric component,
in the direction of propagation. The resulting mode is
a) transverse electric
b) transverse magnetic
c) longitudinal
d) transverse-electromagnetic

87) In radars, echoes that arrive after the transmission of the next pulse are called _____.
a) second return echoes
b) second time around echoes
c) multiple time around echoes
d) any of these

88) When electromagnetic waves are reflected at an angle from a wall, their wavelength along
the wall is
a) the same as the free space
b) the same as the wavelength perpendicular to the wall
c) shortened because of the Doppler effect
d) greater than in the actual direction of propagation

89) A radar mile is equivalent to
a) 2000 mi
b) 2000 m
c) 2000 yd
d) 2000 km

90) As a result of reflections from a plane conducting wall, electromagnetic waves acquire an
apparent velocity of light in space
a) velocity of propagation
b) normal velocity
c) group velocity
d) phase velocity

91) In radars, the time between pulses is called ______.
a) rest time
b) duration time
c) delay time
d) propagation time

92) Indicate the false statement. When the free-space wavelength of a signal equals the cutoff
wavelength of the guide
a) the group velocity of the signal becomes zero
b) the phase velocity of the signal becomes infinite
c) the characteristic impedance of the guide becomes infinite
d) the wavelength within the waveguide becomes infinite

93) In radars, the duration of the pulse is
a) duty cycle
b) pulse width
c) pulse amplitude
d) pulse cycle

94) A signal propagated in a waveguide has a full wave electric intensity change between two
further walls, and no component of the electric field in the direction of propagation. The
mode is
a) TE11
b) TE10
c) TM22
d) TE20

95) In radars, the number of the pulses transmitted per second is called
a) pulse repetition frequency
b) pulse repetition time
c) pulse repetition phase
d) pulse number of repetition

96) Which of the following is incorrect? The dominant mode of propagation is preferred with
rectangular waveguides because
a) it leads to the smallest waveguide dimensions
b) the resulting impedance can be matched directly to coaxial lines
c) it is easier to excite than other modes
d) propagation of it without any spurious generation can be ensured
97) It is a mean of employing radio waves to detect and locate objects such as aircraft, ships and
land masses.
a) detectors
c) repeaters
d) beacons

98) A choke flange may be used to couple two waveguides
a) to help the alignment of the waveguides
b) because it is simpler than any other join
c) to compensate for discontinuities at the join
d) to increase the bandwidth of the system

99) The resonant frequency of a cavity may be varied by changing any of these parameters
except:
a) cavity volume
b) cavity inductance
c) cavity capacitance
d) cavity resistance

100) In order to couple two generators to a waveguide system without coupling them to each
other, which could not be use?
a) rat-race
b) E-plane T
c) hybrid ring
d) magic T

101) A type of tee so-named because of the side arms shunting the E field for the TE modes,
which is analogous to voltage in the transmission lines
a) magic tee
b) rat tee
c) series tee
d) shunt tee

102) Which one of the following waveguide tuning components is not easily adjustable?
a) screw
b) stub
c) iris
d) plunger

103) What type of waveguide is widely used?
a) circular
b) ridged
c) flexible
d) rectangular

104) A piston attenuator is a
a) vane attenuator
b) waveguide below cutoff
c) mode filter
d) flap attenuator

105) Waveguides act as _____.
a) low-pass filter
b) bandpass filter
c) high-pass filter
d) band-stop filter

106) Cylindrical cavity resonators are not used with klystron because they have
a) a Q that is too low
b) a shape whose resonant frequency is too difficult to calculate
c) harmonically related resonant frequencies
d) too heavy losses

107) In waveguides, if no component of the E field is in the direction of propagation the mode
is said to be
a) TE
b) TM
c) TEM
d) TME

108) A directional coupler with three or more holes is sometimes used in preference to the
two-hole coupler
a) because it is more efficient
b) to increase coupling of the signal
c) to reduce spurious mode generation
d) to increase the bandwidth of the system

109) The smallest free-space wavelength that is just unable to propagate in the waveguide
a) cutoff wavelength
b) cutoff frequency
c) cutoff waveguide length
d) cutoff phase

110) It is the minimum frequency of waves that can propagate through the waveguide
a) cutoff frequency
b) cutoff wavelength
c) cutoff phase
d) cutoff waveguide length

111) A common application of magnetrons is in
b) Satellites
d) TV sets

112) In waveguides, it is the velocity at which the wave changes phase
a) waveguide velocity
b) group velocity
c) phase velocity
d) total velocity

113) The maximum power that may be handled by a ferrite component is limited by the
a) curie temperature
b) saturation magnetization
c) line width
d) gyromagnetic resonance

114) In waveguides, it is the velocity at which the wave propagates
a) phase velocity
b) group velocity
c) total velocity
d) waveguide velocity

115) A PIN diode is
a) a metal semiconductor point-contact diode
b) a microwave mixer diode
c) often used as a microwave detector
d) suitable for use as a microwave switch

116) A common omnidirectional microwave antenna is the
a) horn
b) parabolic reflector
c) helical
d) bicone

117) The output of a helical antenna is
a) vertically polarized
b) horizontally polarized
c) circularly polarized
d) linearly polarized

118) For some applications, circular waveguides may be preferred to rectangular ones because
of
a) the smaller the cross section needed at any frequency
b) lower attenuation
c) freedom from spurious modes
d) rotation of polarization

119) A helical antenna is made up of a coil and a
a) director
b) reflector
c) dipole
d) horn

120) In a klystron amplifier, velocity modulation of the electron beam is produced by the
a) collector
b) catcher cavity
c) cathode
d) buncher cavity

121) Increasing the diameter of a parabolic reflector causes which of the following:
a) decreased beamwidth
b) increased gain
c) none of the above
d) decreased beamwidth and increased gain

122) For low attenuation, the best transmission medium is
a) flexible waveguide
b) ridged waveguide
c) rectangular waveguide
d) coaxial line

123) Low-power Gunn diodes are replacing
a) Reflex klystron
b) TWTs
c) Magnetrons
d) Varactor diodes

124) One of the reasons why vacuum tubes eventually fail at microwave frequencies is that
their
a) noise figure increases
b) transmit time becomes too short
c) shunt capacitive reactances becomes too large
d) series inductance reactances becomes too small

125) A rectangular waveguide has a width of 1 inch and a height of 0.6 inch. Its cutoff
frequency is
a) 2.54 GHz
b) 3.0 GHz
c) 5.9 GHz
d) 11.8 GHz

126) The TWT is sometimes preferred to the multicavity klystron amplifier, because the
former
a) is more efficient
b) has a greater bandwidth
c) has a higher number of modes
d) produces higher output power

127) The most common cross section of a waveguide is a
a) square
b) circle
c) triangle
d) rectangle

128) The cavity magnetron uses strapping to
a) prevent mode jumping
b) prevent cathode back-heating
c) ensure bunching
d) improve the phase-focusing effect

129) Signal propagation in a waveguide is by
a) electrons
b) electric and magnetic fields
c) holes
d) air pressure

130) The dominant mode in most waveguides is
a) TE 0,1
b) TE 1,2
c) TM 0,1
d) TM 1,1

131) Periodic permanent-magnet focusing is used with TWTs to
a) allow pulsed operation
b) improve electron bunching
c) avoid the bulk of electromagnet
d) allow coupled-cavity operation at the highest frequencies

132) A popular microwave mixer diode is the
a) Gunn
b) Varactor
c) Hot carrier
d) IMPATT

133) A magnetron whose oscillating frequency is electronically adjustable over a wide range is
called a
a) coaxial magnetron
b) dither-tune magnetron
c) frequency-agile magnetron
d) VTM

134) The main benefit of using microwave is
a) lower-cost equipment
b) sampler equipment
c) greater transmission distances
d) more spectrum space for signals

135) Which diode is a popular microwave oscillator?
a) IMPATT
b) Gunn
c) Varactor
d) Schottly

136) Which of the following is not a disadvantage of microwave?
a) higher cost equipment
b) line-of-sight transmission
c) conventional components are not usable
d) circuits are more difficult ro analyze

137) Which of the following is a microwave frequency?
a) 1.7 MHz
b) 750 MHz
c) 0.98 MHz
d) 22 GHz

138) In a TWT, the electron beam, is density-modulated by a
a) Permanent magnet
b) Modulation transformer
c) Helix
d) Cavity resonator

139) Which of the following is not a common microwave application?
c) telephone
d) spacecraft communications

140) Indicate the false statement. Transit time in microwave tubes will be reduced if
a) the electrodes are brought closer together
b) a higher node current is used
c) multiple or coaxial loads are used
d) the anode voltage is made larger

141) Coaxial cable is not widely used for long microwave transmission lines because of its
a) high loss
b) high lost
c) large size

142) The main advantage of the TWT over a klystron for microwave amplification is
a) lower cost
b) smaller size
c) higher power
d) wider bandwidth

143) A magnetic field is used in the cavity magnetron to
a) prevent anode current in the absence of oscillations
b) ensure that the oscillations are pulsed
c) help in focusing the electron beam, thus preventing spreading
d) ensure that the electrons will orbit around the cathode

144) A waveguide has a cutoff frequency of 17 GHz. Which of the signals will not be passed
by the waveguide?
a) 15 GHz
b) 18 GHz
c) 22 GHz
d) 25 GHz

145) When the electric field in a waveguide is perpendicular to the direction of wave
propagation, the mode is said to be
a) vertical polarization
b) transverse electric
c) horizontal polarization
d) transverse magnetic

146) The TWT is sometimes preferred to the magnetron as a radar transmitter output tube
because it is
a) capable of longer duty cycle
b) a more efficient amplifier
d) less noisy

147) A magnetic field is introduced into a waveguide by a
a) probe
b) dipole
c) stripline
d) capacitor

148) A reflex klystron is used as a/n
a) amplifier
b) oscillator
c) mixer
d) frequency multiplier

149) Indicate the false statement: Manganese ferrite may be used as a
a) circulator
b) isolator
c) garnet
d) phase shifter

150) Indicate the false statement. Klystron amplifiers may use intermediate cavities to
a) prevent oscillations that occur in two-cavity klystron
b) increase the bandwidth of the device
c) improve the power gain
d) increase the efficiency of the klystron

151) What are limits of microwaves?
a) 1 25,000 GHz
b) 1 50,000 GHz
c) 1 75,000 GHz
d) 1 100,000 GHz

152) The following transmission lines are used for microwave frequencies, except:
a) waveguide
c) coax
d) stripline

153) How much must a waveguide be?
a) over a half-wave
b) over a quarterwave
c) over a wavelength
d) over three-fourths of a wavelength

154) How high must a waveguide be?
a) over a wavelength
b) over a quarter wave
c) over a half wave
d) over two wavelengths

155) What is the designation of the lowest-frequency microwave band?
a) V band
b) X band
c) Ku band
d) L band

156) What is the designation of the highest-frequency microwave band?
a) R band
b) Ka band
c) V band
d) L band

157) What is reduced by using choke flanges?
a) refraction
b) reflection
c) absorption
d) cancellation

158) What is the name of the microwave transmission line that is used in printed circuits?
a) microstrip
b) coax
d) twisted pair

159) Where is the resistive load placed in a directional coupler?
a) front end of the primary
b) front end of the secondary
c) back end of the primary
d) back end of the secondary

160) One of the following is a type of bolometer
a) calorimeter
b) thermocouple
c) barreter
d) carreter

161) Why are bolometers not used to detect modulation?
a) thermal sluggishness
b) inefficiency
c) less accurate
d) less precise

162) The advantage of a resonant cavity over a hairpin tank?
a) lesser Q
b) wider bandwidth
c) higher Q
d) efficiency

163) What type of coupling is used between a waveguide and a waveguide wavemeter?
a) loop antenna
b) quarterwave antenna
c) hole
d) E probe

164) Which microwave tube has a repeller?
a) TWT
b) Klystron
c) Magnetron
d) BWO

165) Which microwave tube has a series of cavities?
a) magnetron
b) klystron
c) TWT
d) BWO

166) Which microwave tube has a helix
a) klystron
b) magnetron
c) multicavity klystron
d) BWO

167) Which microwave tube has a horseshoe magnet?
a) magnetron
b) klystron
c) TWT
d) BWA

168) What is the advantage of a gridless klystron
a) power input
b) gain
c) attenuator
d) power output

169) Which vacuum tube do you think oscillate at the highest frequency
a) Magnetron
b) Gunn
c) Klystron
d) BWO

170) How would a balun be used to change 200 ohms to 50 ohms?
a) use a higher turns ratio
b) use a higher frequency
c) reverse it
d) use low frequency

171) How could a balun change 100 ohms to 900 ohms
a) use 3:1 turns ratio
b) use 1:3 turns ratio
c) use 9:1 turns ratio
d) use 1:9 turns ratio

172) How high a frequency can transistor generate?
a) above 10 GHz
b) above 5 GHz
c) above 2 GHz
d) above 7.8 GHz

173) What is the microwave application of a varactor?
a) mixer
b) frequency multiplier
c) demodulator
d) demultiplexer

174) What diode does better than varactor in microwave frequencies?
a) step recovery
b) tunnel
c) PIN
d) Gunn

175) The following diodes can generate microwave AC except:
a) Tunnel
b) LSA
c) IMPATT
d) Magnetron

176) For what are PIN diodes used in microwave?
a) mixers
b) modulators
c) oscillators
d) amplifier

177) What is the other name for LSA diodes?
a) negative resistance
b) bulk-effect
c) tunneling effect
d) time-space

178) What is the advantage of LSA over a Gunn Diode?
a) more efficient
b) higher power
c) less noise
d) higher frequency

179) What is wrong with the term Gunn Diode?
a) not a gun
b) not a semiconductor
c) not a diode
d) should be spelled with single n

180) What is important property do ferrites have which is used as a switch?
b) resonance absorption
c) magnetic properties
d) high curie temperature

181) Which is used in circulators?
a) resonance absorption
b) magnetic properties
c) ion resonance

182) What is the advantage of using a circulator with two transmitter and two receivers?
a) many antennas
b) less interference
c) easy coupling
d) one antenna only

183) To what must the fourth port be connected in a tunnel diode amplifier?
a) resistor
b) inductor
c) capacitor
d) impedance

184) To what must the third port be connected in a multiplexer circulator
a) reflecting short circuit
b) absorbing short circuit
c) reflecting open circuit
d) absorbing open circuit

186) In what distance unit are marine radars calibrated?
a) statute miles
b) kilometers
c) nautical miles
d) feet

187) What time unit is the equivalent of a radar mile?
a) 12.3 microseconds
b) 6.8 microseconds
c) 4.5 microseconds
d) 7.1 microseconds

188) In what frequency band does marine radar operate?
a) 9.5 GHz S band
b) 3 GHz X band
c) 9.5 GHz Ku band
d) 3 GHz S band

189) To what two circuits would a radar timer circuit feed signals?
a) modulator and mixer
b) amplifier and circulator
c) modulator and circulator
d) amplifier and modulator

190) What is the target display on a CRT called?
a) crosshair
b) blip
c) center spot
d) round

191) What is the main bang on a PPI radar set?
a) blip
b) center spot
c) bearing
d) round

192) What is the ability to separate adjacent equidistant targets called?
a) bearing resolution
b) narrow bandwidth
c) high frequency
d) shorter wavelength

193) What is the approximate rotational rate of a radar antenna?
a) 20 rpm
b) 5 rpm
c) 25 rpm
d) 10 rpm

194) How is radar CRTs differ from TV?
a) square
b) round
c) rectangular
d) trapezoidal

195) What circuits make up the radar transmitter?
a) multivibrator
b) trapezoidal oscillator
c) sinewave generator
d) blocking oscillator

196) What type of oscillator determines the PRR?
a) blocking
b) pulse
c) square
d) blocking or pulse

197) What other circuit might be used as an oscillator that determines the PRR?
a) trapezoidal generator
b) unbalanced multivibrator
c) bistablemultivibrator
d) sinewave generator

198) Why are hydrogen-gas thyratrons used in radar?
a) fast-ionize
b) cheaper
c) accurate
d) efficient

199) What is the other name for a pulse-forming network in radars?
a) tuned circuit
b) oscillators
c) delay line
d) capacitive circuits

200) What determines the PRR in odd-time radar sets?
a) tuned circuit frequency
b) oscillator frequency
c) spark gap speed
d) MOPA transmitter time

201) What is used to carry RF energy from magnetron to antenna in a radar set?
a) helix
b) parallel wireline
c) coax
d) waveguide

202) What is the method of illuminating a parabolic reflector with RF?
a) horn
b) cassegrain
c) helix
d) coax

203) How would a radar reflector be parabolic-shaped
a) circularly
b) vertically
c) horizontally
d) none of these

204) In what way are radar emissions similar to microwave ovens?
a) can transmit
c) can cook
d) can transceiver

205) To what tube is a dc keep-alive voltage applied?
a) Oscillator
c) Circulator
d) Isolator

206) In radar, if the mixer diode burns out, what are replaced?
a) tube
b) mixer
c) antenna
d) diode

207) What is the cavity between magnetron and mixer cavity called?
a) ATR
b) TR
c) Transmit

a) 20 MHz and lower
b) 10 MHz and higher
c) 30 MHz or higher
d) 10 MHz and lower

a) klystron
b) magnetron
c) LSA
d) TWT

a) Gunn diode
b) Tunnel diode
c) Hot carrier diode
d) Step recovery diode

211) What does an ATR tube aid?
a) transmitting
b) receiving
c) both transmitting and receiving
d) neither transmitting and receiving

212) To what is the AFC voltage applied in a klystron?
a) cathode
b) grid
c) plate
d) any of these

213) Sea return is the control that desentisizes a radar receiver for _____
a) 5 10 microseconds
b) 15 20 microseconds
c) 10 15 microseconds
d) 20 25 microseconds

214) In radars, how is blooming prevented?
a) limit modulation
b) video signal
c) limit the carrier signal
d) limit the audio signal

215) How is brilliance controlled in radars?
a) audio gain
b) IF gain
c) RF gain
d) video gain

216) How is sensitivity limited in radars?
a) RF gain
b) video gain
c) audio gain
d) IF gain

217) How much intensifying pulse is used in radars?
a) Just enough to produce light flicker on screen
b) should be high to produce light flicker on screen
c) should be low to produce light flicker on screen
d) any amount of intensifying pulse will do

218) If echo signals are developed as negative pulses, to what part of the CRT would they be
a) anode
b) grid
c) cathode
d) 2
nd
grid

219) What starts the range-marker circuit ringing in radars?
a) intensifying pulse
b) IF gain
c) AC signal
d) Carrier signal

220) Why is a selsyn pair not too successful for radar antenna synchronization?
b) variable lag angle
c) constant lag angle

221) What is fed to the rotor of a selsyn motor?
a) power-line AC
b) DC source
c) A pulsating DC
d) None

222) What is fed to the rotor selsyn generator?
a) none
b) power-line AC
c) DC source
d) A pulsating DC

223) What is fed to a control transformer rotor?
a) A pulsating DC
b) power-line AC
c) DC source
d) none

224) What is used to indicate the bow of the ship on the CRT?
a) tail flash
b) body flash
d) none

225) When is an echo box used on ships?
a) testing only
b) direction finding
c) auto alarm
d) ship detection

226) What qualification must a person have before he is eligible to make repairs to a radar set?
a) NTC endorsement
c) repair endorsement

a) shows only moving target
b) shows stationary target
c) shows both moving and stationary target
d) produce blips with stationary targets

228) How would Doppler radar give speed indications?
b) correct RF carrier output
c) switch amplitude detector
d) calibrate discriminator output

229) What is another application of Doppler radar?
a) distance between radar and stationary target
b) ground speed indicator
c) ground missile indicator
d) enemy base station

230) Why are signal nulls used in Radio Direction Finders work?
a) sharper than maximums
b) sharper than minimums
c) duller than maximums
d) duller than minimums

231) How many are signal nulls in one loop rotation Radio Direction Finders?
a) 3
b) 4
c) 5
d) 2

232) Under what conditions do the horizontal portions of a loop pick up difference currents in
RDF?
a) ground waves
b) sky waves
c) space waves
d) direct waves

233) The method of balancing a loop used in RDF?
a) Capacitor to ground
b) Capacitor to sense antenna
c) Sense antenna to one side of loop
d) Any of these

234) For what are unidirectional readings used in loops for RDF?
a) resolve a 180 degrees ambiguity
b) resolve a 90 degrees ambiguity
c) resolve a 360 degrees ambiguity
d) resolve a 270 degrees ambiguity

235) What kind of antenna is a sense antenna used in RDF?
a) circular
b) vertical
c) horizontal
d) any of these

236) In RDF, what happens to a radio wave path as it moves outward across a coastline as less
than 90 degrees?
a) bends away from the shore
b) travels along the shore
c) bends towards shore
d) travels across the shore

237) What is the result of antenna effect in RDF?
a) rotated 90 degrees
b) nulls shift
c) decreases land effect
d) coastline refraction

238) What is the result of re-radiation of signals in RDF?
a) great circle error
b) non-opposite minimums
c) polarization errors
d) nulls shifted

239) What causes night effect in direction finding?
a) ground plus space wave
b) sky plus space wave
c) ground plus sky waves
d) ground wave alone

240) At what time of the day is direction finder bearings least accurate
a) sunset
b) sunrise
c) mid-day
d) sunset and sunrise

241) At what angles are quadrantal errors maximum in direction finding
a) 45 degrees
b) 90 degrees
c) 180 degrees
d) 270 degrees

242) How are quadrantal errors corrected?
a) 330 degrees
b) 360 degrees
c) 315 degrees
d) 215 degrees

243) How is it that none of the 120-550 kHz ADF circuits are tuned to the desired station?
a) narrowband amplifiers
c) IF amplifiers
d) Mixers

244) What is the only hand-tuned circuit in the ADF?
a) 3125-kHz signal local oscillator
b) 4125-kHz signal local oscillator
c) 2182-kHz signal local oscillator
d) 2230-kHz signal local oscillator

245) What forms the error signal that actuates the ADF servo-motor?
a) 75-Hz carrier
b) 114-Hz carrier
c) 114-Hz sideband
d) 75-Hz sideband

246) Which ADF antenna is used for manual operation?
a) parabolic antenna
b) loop antenna
c) half-wave dipole
d) helical antenna

a) loop antenna
b) sense antenna
c) quarterwave antenna
d) parabolic antenna

248) What is heard by earphones in the ADF?
a) 3 kHz beat
b) 1 kHz beat
c) 2 kHz beat
d) 5 kHz beat

249) If two bearing are determined from a radio beacon or station over a period of a few
minutes, what else must be known to determine the ships position?
a) speed
b) elapses time
c) ships course
d) any of these

250) What important point regarding-loop RDF system maintenance?
a) insulation at top of loop
b) clean moving contacts
c) oil bearing of loop
d) any of these

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS IN
TELEPHONY AND
FACSIMILE
Electronics Systems and Technologies
By
Melvin C. Arceo

ENCODED BY:
RIVERA, Billy Joe S.
1. The simplest and most straightforward form of telephone service is called

A. Public switch telephone network
B. Mobile telephone switching office
C. Plain and old telephone service
D. Central office service

2. _______ are local telephone switches equipped with SS7-compatible software and terminating

A. switching points
B. service points
C. point codes
D. service switching points

3. A PABX is normally connected to the central office via an interface device called

A. branch exchange unit
B. subscriber loop unit
C. foreign exchange unit
D. local exchange unit

4. The most widely used fax standard is

A. group 1
B. group 2
C. group 3
D. group 4

5. The modern Touch-tone telephone is called

A. 600-type telephone set
B. 2500-type telephone set
C. 2800-type telephone set
D. 1500-type telephone set

6. Signals that provides call status information, such as busy or ringback signals

A. supervising
B. hybriding
C. controlling
D. ringing

7. A signal sent back to the calling party at the same time the ringing signal is sent to the called
party

A. busy signal
B. ringing signal
C. ringback signal
D. dial tone

8. It is comprised of two or more facilities, interconnected in tandem, to provide a transmission
path between a source and a destination

A. telephone line
B. telephone set
C. telephone circuit
D. telephone trunk

9. The drum diameter of a facsimile machine is 90.2 mm and the scanning pitch is 0.2 mm per
scan. Find the index of cooperation according to CCITT

A. 451
B. 2.22 x 10^-3
C. 1417
D. 144

10. It is the ratio in dB of the power of a signal at that point to the power the same signal would
be 0-dBm at any point in the transmission system

A. data level
B. baseband level
C. voice level
D. transmission level

11. It is an indirect method of evaluating the phase delay characteristics of the circuit

A. phase delay distortion
B. envelope delay distortion
C. non-linear distortion
D. linear distortion

12. It is characterized by high-amplitude peaks of short duration having an approximately flat
frequency response

A. crosstalk
B. interference
C. impulse noise
D. drop out

13. It is the presence of one or more continuous, unwanted tones within the message channels,
the tones are often caused by crosstalk or cross modulation between adjacent channels in a
transmission system due to system nonlinearities.

A. multiple-frequency interference
B. single-frequency interference
C. co-channel interference
D. desensitizing

14. That portion of the local loop that is strung between the poles

A. aerial
B. distribution cable
C. feeder cable
D. twisted-pair

15. It is the primary cause of attenuation and phase distortion on a telephone circuit

A. local line
B. local loop
C. subscriber loop
D. any of these

16. It is simply the frequency response of a transmission medium referenced to a 1004-Hz test
tone

A. attenuation distortion
B. differential gain
C. 1004-Hz deviation
D. any of these

17. The time delay measured in angular units, such as degrees or radians is called __________

A. propagation time
B. phase delay
C. holding time
D. system delay time

18. It is a communications term that indicates the presence of a signal power comparable to the
power of an actual message transmission

A. dynamic range
C. node
D. reference

19. It is any device used to originate and terminate calls and to transmit and receive signals into
and out of the telephone network

A. instrument
B. station equipment
C. station
D. any of these

20. Exchanges connected directly to the local loops are called ______________

A. central office
B. local exchange
C. exchange offices
D. any of these

21. It provides functionality of communicating with the voice switch by creating the packets or
signal units necessary for transmission over the SS7 network

A. switching points
B. service points
C. point codes
D. service switching points

22. In a 4-wire telephone set connection, (used to connect telephone set to central office
switching) the green coded wire is used _______________

A. as ground wire
B. to transmit the signal
C. to receive the signal from the far end
D. as a spare or for special purpose applications

23. A technique where the called subscriber is served by any other central office, the switching
equipment will have to transfer the digit dialed to the called switching equipment.

A. loop signaling
B. step-by-step switching
C. interoffice calling
D. duplex signaling

24. Electromagnetic coupling between two or more physically interconnected transmission
media is what type of crosstalk?

A. coupling crosstalk
B. transmission crosstalk
C. linear crosstalk
D. non-linear crosstalk
25. The number of dedicated lines used to interconnect 100 parties

A. 99 lines
B. 1250 lines
C. 4950 lines
D. 3450 lines

26. Class of switching office which is the local exchange where the subscriber loops terminated

A. Class 5
B. Class 4C
C. Class 3
D. Class 1

27. The maximum intelligibility of voice frequency is between

A. 2000 and 3000 Hz
B. 1000 and 3000 Hz
C. 2500 and 4000 Hz
D. 1000 and 2500 Hz

28. It is the state of the telephone when it is idle.

A. on-hook
B. off-hook
C. semi-hook
D. hook-in

29. Type of loop signaling which is widely used in new switching systems to supervise trunks
between two central offices.

A. battery and ground pulsing
B. reverse battery signaling
C. loop pulsing
D. duplex signaling

30. Printed documents to be transmitted by fax are converted into a baseband electrical signal by
the process of

A. reflection
B. scanning
C. modulation
D. light variations

31. The transmission speed of group 4 fax is
A. 4800 baud
B. 9600 baud
C. 56 kbps
D. 192 kbps

32. It is a distortion formed if SSB is used where the information bandwidth is greater than half
of the carrier frequency.

A. near-far effect
B. hauffman effect
C. kendall effect
D. herringbone effect

33. It is simply an unshielded twisted pair transmission line consisting of two insulated
conductors twisted together.

A. local loop
B. local line
C. subscriber loop
D. any of these

34. It is an audible signal comprised of two frequencies: 350 Hz and 440 Hz

A. dial tone
B. ringback signal
C. busy tone
D. call waiting tone

35. It enables the destination station of a telephone call to display the name of the telephone
number of the calling party before the telephone is answered.

A. conference call
B. call wait
C. call forwarding
D. caller id

36. The largest cable used in a local loop, usually 3600 pair of copper wires placed underground
or in conduit.

A. feeder cable
B. distribution cable
C. drop wire
D. drop-wire cross-connect cables

37. A weighting technique that assumes a perfect receiver only, therefore its weighting curve
corresponds to the frequency response of the ear only.
A. relative noise weighting
B. above relative noise weighting
C. C-message noise weighting
D. psophometric noise weighting

38. The difference between the absolute delays of all frequencies.

A. relative phase delay
B. phase delay distortion
C. absolute phase delay
D. phase distortion

39. A special type of line conditioning that sets the minimum requirements for signal-to-noise
ratio a nonlinear distortion.

A. A-type line conditioning
B. B-type line conditioning
C. C-type line conditioning
D. D-type line conditioning

40. It is a form of incidental phase modulation a continuous uncontrolled variations in the zero
crossings of a signal.

A. crosstalk
B. co-channel interference
C. phase jitter
D. spikes

41. A type of crosstalk which is a direct result of nonlinear amplification in analog
communications system

A. linear crosstalk
B. transmittance crosstalk
C. nonlinear crosstalk
D. coupling crosstalk

42. The operator of the telephone instrument

A. subscriber
B. destination
C. source
D. terminal

43. It is a system of sensors, switches and other electronic and electrical devices that allow
subscriber to give instructions directly to the switch without having to go through the operator.

A. manual switching system
B. automated switching system
C. common switching system
D. crossbar switching system

44. Toll offices are connected to other toll offices with _____________

A. intertoll trunks
B. intratoll trunks
C. interoffice trunks
D. intraoffice trunks

45. The highest ranking office in the DDD network in term of size of the geographical area
served and the trunk options available.

A. End office
B. Sectional center
C. Regional center
D. Toll center

46. He invented the automatic line selector, which led to the automatic telephone system.

A. Alexander Bain
B. Alexander Graham Bell
C. Thomas Edison
D. Almon Strowger

47. It allows customers to change to a different service and still keep the same phone number

A. changing
B. porting
C. transporting
D. portability

48. By definition, speech power is equal to v.u. reading minus ___________

A. 1.8 dB
B. 4 dB
C. 1.4 dB
D. 3 dB

49. When the telephone set is in the ____________ state, a direct current from the central office
(CO) flows through the transmitter and receiver of the handset.

A. on-hook
B. off-hook
C. semi-hook
D. hook-in

50. Type of loop signaling which involves opening and closing the loop to dial to or through the
central office.

A. ear and mouth
B. duplex
C. loop pulsing
D. interoffice calling

51. When the image at the receiving end of a facsimile transmission is elongated vertically,

A. the transmitter IOC is less than the receiver IOC
B. the transmitter IOC is greater than the receiver IOC
C. the transmitter IOC is equal to the receiver IOC
D. the IOC is not a factor

52. In FM fax, the frequencies for black and white are

A. 1500 and 2300 Hz
B. 2200 and 1500 Hz
C. 1300 and 2400 Hz
D. 1070 and 1270 Hz

53. It is a measure of the faithful reproduction of scanned prints in a facsimile communications.

A. fidelity
B. contrast
C. legibility
D. chroma

54. The feedback signals that help prevent the speaker from talking too loudly.

A. busy tone
B. ringback tone
C. dial tone
D. sidetone

55. It is the exchange of signaling messages between switching machines

A. loop signaling
B. station signaling
C. interoffice signaling
D. pulse signaling

56. A signal sent from the switching machine back to the calling station whenever the system
cannot complete call because of equipment unavailability.

A. busy tone
B. call waiting tone
C. fax tone
D. congestion tone

57. The final length of cable pair that terminates at the SNI

A. aerial
B. drop wire
C. distribution cable
D. cross-connect cables

58. It is the difference in circuit gain experienced at a particular frequency with respect to the
circuit gain of a reference frequency.

A. dynamic range
B. absorption distortion
C. attenuation distortion

59. In telephone systems, a special type of line conditioning that pertains to line impairments for
which compensation can be made with filters and equalizers.

A. A-line conditioning
B. B-line conditioning
C. C-line conditioning
D. D-line conditioning

60. An envelope delay distortion test on a basic telephone channel indicated that an 1800-Hz
carrier experienced the minimum absolute delay of 400 us. The maximum envelope delay for a
basic telephone channel is 1750 us within the frequency range 800 Hz to 2600 Hz. What is the
maximum envelope delay?

A. 2150 microsec
B. 2550 microsec
C. 3000 microsec
D. 3400 microsec

61. In SS7 signaling points, codes that are carried in signaling messages exchanged between
signaling points to identify the source and destination of each message

A. signaling points
B. service points
C. switching points
D. point codes

62. Stage of the step-by-step switching system that is composed of switches to complete the
connection to the called subscriber.

A. line equipment
B. switch train
C. connectors
D. switching network

63. ____________ is the switching system that is a branch of the local central office.

A. local exchange
B. branch exchange
C. subscriber loop
D. line

64. Most fax printers are of which type?

A. Impact
B. Thermal
C. Electrosensitive
D. Laser xerographic

65. Aside from tip and ring used in local loops the third wire when used is called __________.

A. reserve
B. sleeve
C. ground
D. none of these

66. Acknowledgement and status signals that ensure the process necessary to set up and
terminate a telephone call are completed in an orderly and timely manner,

A. call progress tones and signals
B. call waiting tones and signals
C. incoming call tones and signals
D. call termination tones and signals

67. POCSAG stands for

A. Post Office Code Standardization Advisory Group
B. Post Office Code System Advisory Group
C. Paging Operation Code Standardization Advisory Group
D. Paging Operation Code System Advisory Group
68. The location where individual cable pairs within a distribution cable are separated and
extended to the subscribers location on a drop wire

A. feeder cable and distribution cable
B. drop wire and aerial cable
C. distribution cable and drop-wire cross-connect cables
D. distribution cable and aerial cable

69. In telephone systems, a special type of line conditioning that specifies the maximum limit for
attenuation distortion and envelope delay distortion.

A. A-line conditioning
B. B-line conditioning
C. C-line conditioning
D. D-line conditioning

70. A the receiver, the phase difference at the different carrier frequencies is called _________.

A. envelope delay distortion
B. phase delay
C. envelope delay
D. propagation time

71. It is a sudden, random changes in the phase of the signal. They are classified as temporary
variations in the phase of the signal lasting longer than 4 ms.

A. phase hits
B. phase jitter
C. interference
D. distortion

72. Circuits that are designed and configured for their use only and often referred to as private
circuits or dedicated circuits.

A. switched circuits
B. leased circuits
C. virtual circuits
D. switched virtual circuits

73. It is a programmable matrix that allows circuits to be connected to one another.

A. circuit switch
B. tap switch
C. equipment switch
D. cross switch

74. Interstate long distance telephone calls require a small telephone office called _________.

A. sectional office
B. regional office
C. toll office
D. end office

75. A call that cannot be completed because the necessary trunk circuits or switching paths are
not available.

A. blocking
B. holding
C. storing
D. none of these

76. A mandate that requires all telephone companies to support the porting of telephone number.

A. national number portability
B. regional number portability
C. local number portability
D. sectional number portability

77. The connection between the telephone and the central offices switching equipment.

A. subscriber loop
B. relay circuits
C. line sensors
D. supervisory relay

78. An exact reproduction of a document or picture provided at the receiving end.

A. television
B. telecommunication
C. facsimile transmission
D. mobile communication

79. What type of graphics are commonly transmitted by radio fax?

A. Newspaper text
B. Architectural drawings
C. Cable movies
D. Satellite weather photos

80. It is comprised of a transmitter, receiver, an electrical network for equalization, associated
circuitry to control sidetone levels and to regulate signal power and necessary signaling circuitry.

A. telephone
B. television
C. facsimile
D. computer

81. Early paging system uses what modulation technique?

A. pulse modulation
B. amplitude modulation
C. phase modulation
D. frequency modulation

82. A device that serves as a demarcation point between local telephone company responsibility
and subscriber responsibility for telephone service.

A. standard network interface
B. subscriber line interface card
C. system network architecture
D. network interface card

83. It is the actual time required for a particular frequency to propagate from a source to a
destination through a communications channel.

A. relative phase delay
B. phase delay distortion
C. absolute phase delay
D. phase distortion

84. It is a sudden, random change in the gain of the circuit resulting in a temporary change in the
signal level.

A. spikes
B. gain hits
C. jitter
D. echo

85. A typical echo suppressor suppresses the returned echo by how much?

A. 10 dB
B. 30 dB
C. 45 dB
D. 60 dB

86. In telephony, functions that supply and interpret control and supervisory signals needed to
perform the operation

A. calling functions
B. maintenance functions
C. signaling functions
D. transmission functions

87. It is a central location where subscribers are interconnected, either temporarily or on a
permanent basis.

A. central offices
B. exchange offices
C. exchanges
D. any of these

88. It is simply a path between two subscribers and is comprised of one or more switches, two
local loops or possibly one or more trunk circuits.

A. way
B. route
C. path
D. mode

89. It defines the procedures and protocols necessary to exchange information over the PSTN
using a separate digital signaling network to provide wireless and wireline telephone call setup,
routing and control.

A. any of these
B. common channel signaling system no. 7
C. SS7
D. C7

90. In a 4-wire telephone set connection, (used to connect telephone set to central office
switching) the red coded wire is used __________.

A. as ground wire
B. to transmit the signal
C. to receive the signal from the far end
D. as a spare or for special purpose applications

91. The connection between two central offices

A. line
B. trunk
C. loop
D. signaling

92. In facsimile, the length of time required to transmit a document
A. propagation time
B. transmission rate
C. holding time
D. transmission time

93. It is a combination of passive components that are used to regulate the amplitude and
frequency response of the voice signals.

A. equalizer circuit
B. balanced transformer
C. balanced modulator
D. hybrid network

94. A signal that is sent from the switching machine back to the calling station whenever the
called telephone number is off-hook.

A. dial tone signal
B. ringback signal
C. busy signal
D. off-hook signal

95. A smaller version of the feeder cable containing less wire pairs.

A. aerial
B. drop wire
C. feeder cable
D. distribution cable

96. It is a parameter equivalent to TLP except that it is used as a reference for data transmission.

A. transmission level point
B. data level point
C. voice level point
D. baseband transmission point

97. He developed the first instrument that transmitted music over a wire

A. Philipp Reis
B. Antonio Meucci
C. Thomas Edison
D. Almon Strowger

98. It is used to convert two-wire circuits to four-wire circuits which is similar to hybrid coil
found in standard telephone sets.

A. balanced transformer
B. hybrid circuits
C. balanced modulator
D. hybrid transformers

99. A switchboard with four digits can accommodate how many telephone numbers?

A. 1,000
B. 10,000
C. 100,000
D. 9999

100. The trunk circuits that are terminated in tandem switches are called

A. tie trunks
B. tandem trunks
C. office trunks
D. exchange trunks

101. The class of switching office that provides service to small groups of class 4 offices within a
small area of state.

A. Class 1
B. Class 4
C. Class 2
D. Class 3

102. A device used to measure speech volume

A. volume unit meter
B. volume milliammeter
C. volume pulse meter
D. volume intensity meter

103. The communications between two or three central offices is called

B. trunk
C. interoffice calling
D. loop

104. In telephony, the -48V dc voltage was used rather than ac voltages because

A. to prevent power supply hum
B. to allow service to continue in the event of power outage
C. because people are afraid of ac
D. all of these
105. Category of signaling message that indicates a request of service, such as going off-hook or
ringing in the destination telephone

A. dial tone
B. signaling
C. supervising

106. Occurs in coherent SSBSC systems, such as those using frequency division multiplexing
when the received carrier is not reinserted with the exact phase relationship to the received signal
as the transmit carrier possessed.

A. phase delay distortion
B. phase jitter distortion
C. phase intercept distortion
D. all of these

107. It is simply the dedicated cable facility used to connect an instrument at a subscribers
station to the closest telephone office.

A. subscriber lines
B. local loops
C. subscriber loops
D. any of these

108. A telephone call completed within a single local exchange is called

A. intraoffice call
B. intraexchange call
C. intraswitch call
D. any of these

109. Type of Class 4 toll center usually had only outward operator service or perhaps no operator
service at all.

A. Class 2
B. Class 4P
C. Class 1
D. Class 3

110. In a 4-wire telephone set connection, (used to connect telephone set to office central
switching) the yellow coded wire is used _______________.

A. as ground wire
B. to transmit the signal
C. to receive the signal from the far end
D. as a spare or for special purpose applications

111. When the image at the receiving end of a facsimile transmission us elongated horizontally,

A. the transmitter IOC is less than the receiver IOC
B. the transmitter IOC is greater than the receiver IOC
C. the transmitter IOC is equal to the receiver IOC
D. the IOC is not a factor

112. It is a special balanced transformer used to convert a two-wire circuit into a four-wire
circuit and vice-versa.

A. equalizer circuit
B. balanced transformer
C. balanced modulator
D. hybrid network

113. It is a method originally used to transfer digits in the telephone set to the local switch.

A. tone dialing
B. dial pulsing
C. battery and ground pulsing
D. reverse battery pulsing

114. It is the time required to propagate a change in an AM envelope through a transmission
medium

A. envelope delay distortion
B. phase delay
C. envelope delay
D. propagation time

115. It is the primary source of transmission errors in data circuits

A. impulse noise
B. crosstalk
C. gain hits
D. interference

116. It eliminates the echo by electrically subtracting it from the original signal rather than
disabling the amplifier in the return circuit.

A. echo suppressors
B. echo limiters
C. echo cancellers
D. any of these
117. In telephony, functions that involve the actual transmission of a subscribers messages and
any necessary control signals.

A. transmission functions
B. signaling functions
C. maintenance functions
D. calling functions

118. The first computer-controlled central office switching system used in PSTN

A. No.7 ESS
B. No.2 ESS
C. No.5 ESS
D. No. 1 ESS

119. It is an exchange without a local loops connected to it

A. double office
B. tandem office
C. exchange office
D. local office

120. The 5-class switching hierarchy is a __________ scheme that establishes an end-to-end
route mainly through trial and error.

A. interleaved switching
B. progressive switching
C. point-to-point switching
D. step-by-step switching

121. The frequency range of maximum voice energy is between

A. 150 and 300 Hz
B. 300 and 3400 Hz
C. 250 and 500 Hz
D. 100 and 300 Hz

122. The oldest of the automatic switching system

A. manual switching
B. step-by-step
C. common control
D. Electronic

123. Group 3 fax used which modulation?

A. QAM
B. FSK
C. Vestigial sideband AM
D. FM

124. Signals that provides information in the form of announcements, such as number changed to
another number, a number no longer in service, and so on

B. ringing
C. controlling
D. supervising

125. The switch closure in an off-hook condition causes a range of dc current to flow on the
loop, what is that range of current?

A. 23 mA to 50 mA
B. 15 mA to 30 mA
C. 10 mA to 20 mA
D. 20 mA to 80 mA

126. These are unused sections of cables that are connected in shunt working cable pair, such as
a local loop. They are used for party lines to connect to the same local loop.

A. cross-connect loop
B. drop wire tap
C. bridge tap
D. wire tap

127. The time delay encountered by a signal as it propagates from a source to a destination is
called ____________.

A. propagation time
B. phase delay
C. holding time
D. system delay time

128. It is the decrease in gain of more than 12 dB lasting longer than 4 ms and is a characteristics
of temporary open circuit conditions and are generally caused by deep fades in radio facilities or
by switching delays.

A. echo
B. jitter
C. gain hits
D. dropouts

129. It is similar to the local loop except that it is used to interconnect two telephone offices.

A. trunk lines
B. subscriber loop
C. local lines
D. subscriber lines

130. Calls that are placed between two stations that are connected to different local exchanges.

A. interoffice calls
B. interswitch calls
C. interexchange calls
D. any of these

131. _________ is defined as a momentary on-hook condition that causes loop making and
breaking from the telephone set dialer toward the central office.

A. dial tone
B. dial pulsing
C. on-hook
D. off-hook

132. In facsimile technology, it is a number derived from the width-height ratio.

A. numerical aperture
B. scanning spot
C. index of cooperation
D. cut-off frequency

133. In RJ-11, the RJ stands for

A. Recommended Jack
B. Released Jack
C. Registered Jack

134. A cross-connect point used to distribute the larger feeder cable into smaller distribution
cables

A. SLIC
B. serving area interface
C. LATA
D. cross-connect cabinet

135. The process used to improve a basic telephone channel is called

A. line turnaround
B. line conditioning
C. line sensing
D. line improvement

136. In telephony, functions that identify and connect subscribers to a suitable transmission path

A. transmission functions
B. signaling functions
C. switching functions
D. calling functions

137. The telephone switching plan that allows a certain degree of route selection when
establishing a phone call.

A. NPA
B. switching hierarchy
C. toll hierarchy
D. interoffice hierarchy

outside of the network, and transfer of SS7 messages to other signaling points within the
network.

A. point codes
B. signaling points
C. service points
D. switching points

139. The connection between the subscriber and his own particular central office.

A. trunk
B. line
C. signaling
D. pulsing

140. It is a measure of how well we can distinguish closely spaced objects or identify small items
on a print.

A. resolution
B. legibility
C. contrast
D. hue

141. It is the exchange of signaling messages over local loops between stations and telephone
company switching machines
A. loop signaling
B. station signaling
C. interoffice signaling
D. pulse signaling

142. Modern paging system uses what modulation technique?

A. FSK and QPSK
B. PSK and QAM
D. FSK and PSK

143. The talker hears a returned portion of the signal as an echo, what is the round-trip time of
delay for an echo to quite annoying?

A. 15 msec
B. 25 msec
C. 35 msec
D. 45 msec

144. When subscriber initiates a long distance calls, the local exchange connects the caller to the
toll office through a facility called ________.

A. interoffice toll trunk
B. intraoffice toll trunk
C. interoffice exchange trunk
D. intraoffice exchange trunk

145. Range of speech power

A. 100 1000 uW
B. 10 100 uW
C. 10 1000 uW
D. 1000 10000 uW

146. Which resolution produces the best quality fax?

A. 96 lpi
B. 150 lpi
C. 200 lpi
D. 400 lpi

147. Facsimile standards are set by the

A. FCC
B. DOD
C. CCITT
D. IEEE

148. Telephone set component placed directly across the tip and ring to alert the designation
party of an incoming call

A. transmitter
C. ringer
D. dialer

149. The reference frequency of a typical voice-band circuit is typically around _________.

A. 1500 Hz
B. 1300 Hz
C. 1700 Hz
D. 1800 Hz

150. The most versatile and popular crossbar switch was __________.

A. #4YB
B. 5#YB
C. #5XB
D. #5ZB

151. A telephone service that uses a common 800 area code regardless of the location of the
destination.

A. wide area telephone service
B. local area telephone service
C. metropolitan area telephone service
D. personal area telephone service

152. A device that combines the transmitter and the receiver to operate over the same wire pair.

A. balancing network
B. diaphragm
C. hybrid
D. relay

153. Group 2 fax that uses fax standard is

A. SSB
B. FSK
C. Vestigial sideband AM
D. PSK
154. A signal sent from the central office to a subscriber whenever there is an incoming call

A. busy signal
B. ringing signal
C. ringback signal
D. dial tone

155. It is defined as the optimum level of a test tone on a channel at some point in a
communications system.

A. transmission level point
B. data level point
C. voice level point
D. baseband transmission point

156. A type of crosstalk which is caused by inadequate control of the frequency response of the
transmission system, poor filter design, or poor filter performance.

A. single-channel crosstalk
B. transmittance crosstalk
C. linear crosstalk
D. coupling crosstalk

157. Class of switching office that could provide service to geographical regions varying in size
from part of the state to all of several states, depending on population density.

A. sectional center
B. end office
C. regional center
D. toll center

158. By definition, speech power is equal to v.u. reading minus 1.4 dB plus log of N, where N is

A. The number of lines used
B. The number of transmitters used
C. The number of persons speaking
D. The number of listeners listening

159. The most commonly used light sensor in a modern fax machine is a

A. Phototube
B. Phototransistor
C. Liquid-crystal display
D. Charged coupled device

160. Systems that are simplex wireless communications systems designed to alert subscribers of
awaiting messages

A. paging
B. searching
C. texting
D. calling

161. It can be defined as any disturbance created in a communications channel by signals in
other communications channel.

A. crosstalk
B. interference
C. hits
D. jitter

162. Type of Class 4 toll center which provides human operators for both outward and inward
calling service.

A. Class 4P
B. Class 5
C. Class 4C
D. Class 1

163. A type of signaling was developed as an alternative to loop signaling.

A. ear and mouth
B. duplex
C. loop pulsing
D. interoffice calling

164. Signals that provide the routing information, such as calling and called numbers.

A. routing
B. calling
C. controlling

165. Phase jitters occur at what frequency?

A. less than 300 Hz
B. more than 300 Hz
C. more than 400 Hz
D. more than 300 Hz but less than 400 Hz

166. 10 or more subscribers connected in a central office exchange using same local loop
A. wire tapping
B. party lines
C. eaves dropping lines
D. monitor lines

167. He designed and built the first transmitter and receiver for a telephone set.

A. Alexander Graham Bell
B. Alexander Bain
C. Antonio Meucci
D. Philipp Reis

168. If a switching machine is set to accept pulses at a rate of 10 pulses per second with a 60%
break, find the make interval of the switch.

A. 60 ms
B. 100 ms
C. 40 ms
D. 25 ms

169. How many point-to-point links are required to connect 50 telephones together?

A. 2255
B. 1225
C. 2250
D. 1552

170. The first commercial switchboard was installed in

A. Connecticut
B. Boston
C. Pennsylvania
D. Washington

171. Where is a fax scanner found?

A. at the end of fax signals
B. at origin of fax signals
C. at receive end of fax system
D. at the input of a fax transmitter

172. What is the standard scanning LPI rates?

A. 120
B. 25
C. 400
D. 195

173. What tone is used to start fax?

A. 400 Hz
B. 100 Hz
C. 300 Hz
D. 500 Hz

174. What tone is used to stop fax?

A. 450 Hz
B. 500 Hz
C. 150 Hz
D. 250 Hz

175. What tones carry map information using facsimile?

A. 1300 Hz and 2400 Hz
B. 2400 Hz and 2500 Hz
C. 1200 Hz and 2400 Hz
D. 1500 Hz and 2300 Hz

176. The following frequencies are developed using 1.8 kHz used for scanner in facsimile,
except:

A. 300 Hz
B. 100 Hz
C. 450 Hz
D. 60 Hz

177. To what is the output of a scanner fed in fax?

A. transmitter
C. mixer
D. oscillator

178. Basically, in facsimile, what is a scanner helix?

A. clear sided drum with one turn scratch
B. clear sided drum with two turn scratch
C. opaque sided drum with one turn scratch
D. opaque sided drum with two turn scratch

179. A recorder helix in facsimile?
A. insulated drum with one turn wire
B. opaque drum with one turn scratch
C. clear sided with one turn wire
D. insulated drum with one turn scratch

180. In fax, the following are scanner signals where the switcher switch in except:

A. 300 Hz
B. phasing signal
C. 90 Hz
D. map signals

181. With what type transmitter is fax transmitted on HF?

A. AM
B. FM
C. PM
D. SSB

182. With what type transmitter is fax transmitted on VHF?

A. FM
B. PM
C. SSB
D. AM

183. The helix wire forms one end of the circuit of facsimile; what forms the other?

A. insulated wire
B. drum
D. transmit circuit

184. What emf is required across the circuit in facsimile to form a dark spot?

A. 40 V
B. 60 V
C. 25 V
D. 70 V

185. In a facsimile recorder what is used to make 1,500-Hz ac stronger than 2300 Hz?

A. non-linear slope filter
B. linear slope filter
C. active slope filter
D. passive slope filter
186. In a recorder of facsimile, what is used to generate 60-Hz ac?

A. 3.0 kHz oscillator and logic gates
B. 2.4 kHz mixer and logic gates
C. 3.0 kHz oscillator and logic divider
D. 2.4 kHz oscillator and logic divider

187. If the tuning meter reads full scale, what would this indicate in facsimile?

A. 1300 signal
B. 2400 signal
C. 1400 signal
D. 1500 signal

188. If the tuning meter reads midscale, what would this indicate in facsimile?

A. average
B. mistuned
C. peak
D. minimum

189. If the tuning meter reads low-scale, what would this indicate in facsimile?

A. 1500 signal
B. 1700 signal
C. 2300 signal
D. 2400 signal

190. Why is the blade an endless loop in facsimile?

A. wears faster
B. wears slower
C. wears average speed
D. never wears

191. What should bring the left margin of the map to the left side of the paper in the recorder of
facsimile?

A. map signals
B. phasing signals
C. automatic switch
D. 90 Hz

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS IN
FIBER OPTICS
Electronics Systems and Technologies
By
Melvin C. Arceo

ENCODED BY:
RIVERA, Billy Joe S.
1. A device that was constructed from mirrors and selenium detectors that transmitted sound
waves over a beam of light.

A. lightphone
B. photophone
C. cameraphone
D. walletphone

2. Which fiber-optic system is better?

A. 3 repeaters
B. 8 repeaters
C. 11 repeaters
D. 20 repeaters

3. What is the frequency limit of a copper wire?

A. approximately 0.5 MHz
B. approximately 1.0 MHz
C. approximately 40 GHz
D. none of the above

4. They were granted patents for scanning and transmitting television images through uncoated
fiber cables.

A. Baird and Hansel
B. Bockham and Kao
C. Kapron and Keck
D. Maiman and Schawlow

5. The product of the bit rate and distance of a fiber-optic system is 2 Gbits-km/s. What is the
maximum rate at 5 km?

A. 100 Mbits/s
B. 200 Mbits/s
C. 400 Mbits/s
D. 1000 Gbits/s

6. Approximately what is the frequency limit of the optical fiber?

A. 20 MHz
B. 1 MHz
C. 100 MHz
D. 40 GHz

7. They experimented with light transmission cables through bundle of fibers and lead to the
development of flexible fiberscope.

A. Townes, Schawlow and Kao
B. Maiman, Kao and Bockham
C. Maurer, Kapron and Keck
D. Van Heel, Hopkins and Kapany

8. Photodiodes operate properly with

A. forward bias
B. reverse bias
C. neither forward nor reverse bias
D. either forward or reverse bias

9. He coined the term fiber optics in 1956.

A. Kapany
B. Kao
C. Bockham
D. Keck

10. They wrote a paper describing how it was possible to use stimulated emission for amplifying
light waves (laser) as well as microwaves (maser).

A. Theodore Maiman
B. KC Kao and GA Bockham
C. Charles Townes and Arthur Schawlow
D. Kapron, Keck and Maurer

11. The scientist who built the first optical maser

A. Charles Townes
B. GA Bockham
C. Theodore Maiman
D. ACS Van Heel

12. A single fiber can handle as many voice channels as

A. a pair of copper conductors
B. a 1500-pair cable
C. a 500-pair cable
D. a 1000-pair cable

13. They proposed a new communication medium using cladded fiber cables.

A. Kao and Bockham
B. Maiman, Kao and Bockham
C. Kapron, Keck and Maurer
D. Maiman and Schawlow

14. An incident ray can be defined as

A. a light ray reflected from a flat surface
B. a light directed toward a surface
C. a diffused light ray
D. a light ray that happens periodically

15. Developed an optical fiber with losses less that 2 dB/km

A. Kao and Bockham
B. Maiman, Kao and Bockham
C. Maiman and Schawlow
D. Kapron, Keck and Maurer

16. The band of light frequencies that are too high to be seen by the human eye.

A. Ultraviolet
B. Visible light
C. Infrared
D. Yellow

17. Which of the following is the fastest light sensor?

A. PIN photodiode
B. Photovoltaic diode
C. Photodiode
D. Avalanche photodiode

18. Range of infrared

A. 360 nm to 440 nm
B. 670 nm to 10^3 nm
C. 110 nm to 240 nm
D. 770 nm to 10^6 nm

19. The term dispersion describes the process of

A. separating light into its component frequencies
B. reflecting light from a smooth surface
C. the process by which light is absorbed by an uneven rough surface
D. light scattering
20. The band of light frequencies to which human eye will respond

A. Infrared
B. Visible light
C. Ultraviolet
D. Cosmic ray

21. Laser light is very bright because it is

A. pure
B. white
C. coherent
D. monochromatic

22. Which of the following is the fastest light sensor?

A. PIN photodiode
B. Photovoltaic diode
C. Photodiode
D. Avalanche photodiode

23. Range of wavelength of visible light

A. 670 nm to 10^3 nm
B. 440 nm to 540 nm
C. 110 nm to 240 nm
D. 390 nm to 770 nm

24. The band of light frequencies that are too low to be seen by the human eye

A. Infrared
B. X-rays
C. Visible
D. Ultraviolet

25. Which of the following terms best describes the reason that light is refracted at different
angles?

A. Photon energy changes with wavelength
B. Light is refracted as a function of surface smoothness
C. The angle is determined partly by a and b
D. The angle is determined by the index of the materials

26. Range of wavelengths of ultraviolet

A. 670 nm to 10^3 nm
B. 440 nm to 540 nm
C. 110 nm to 240 nm
D. 10 nm to 390 nm

27. Single frequency light is called

A. pure
B. intense
C. coherent
D. monochromatic

28. The coating in a fiber helps protect fiber from moisture, which reduces the possibility of the
occurrence of a detrimental phenomenon called

A. static fatigue
B. mechanical fatigue
C. stress fatigue
D. coating fatigue

29. The term critical angle describes

A. the point at which light is refracted
B. the point at which light becomes invisible
C. the point at which light has gone from the refractive mode to the reflective mode
D. the point at which light has crossed the boundary layers from one index to another

30. The ratio of the speed of light in air to the speed of light in another substance is called

A. speed factor
B. index of reflection
C. index of refraction
D. speed gain

31. The three essential types of fiber commonly used today except:

B. Plastic core and glass cladding
C. Glass core and glass cladding (SCS)
D. Glass core and plastic cladding (PCS)

32. What phenomenon will result if the glass fiber is exposed to long periods of high humidity?

A. stress fatigue
B. core corrosion
C. stress corrosion
33. The law that states When visible light of high frequency electromagnetic radiation
illuminates a metallic surface, electrons are emitted is known as ____________.

A. Einstein law of photon
B. Marconis law
C. Maxwells law
D. Planks law

34. Both LEDs and ILDs operate correctly with

A. forward bias
B. reverse bias
C. neither forward nor reverse bias
D. either forward or reverse bias

35. Any energy above the ground state is called ___________.

A. normal state
B. above-ground state
C. excited state
D. spontaneous state

36. The process of decaying from one energy level to another energy level is called __________.

A. Spontaneous emission
B. Excited emission
C. Absorption
D. Any of these

37. The process of moving from one energy level to another is called ____________.

A. Spontaneous emission
B. Excited emission
C. Absorption
D. Spontaneous decay

38. Most fiber optic light sources emit light in which spectrum?

A. visible
B. infrared
C. ultraviolet
D. X-ray

39. A packet of energy which is equal to the difference between the two energy levels.

A. Photons
B. Electronvolt
C. Quantum
D. Quanta

40. It is the science of measuring only light waves that are visible to the human eye.

B. Photometry
C. Ophthalmology
D. Optometry

41. The refractive index number is

A. a number which compares the transparency of a material with that of air
B. a number of assigned by the manufacturer to the fiber in question
C. a number which determines the core diameter
D. a term describing core elasticity

42. It is a science of measuring light throughout the entire electromagnetic spectrum

B. Photometry
C. Ophthalmology
D. Optometry

43. Which light emitter is preferred for high-speed data in a fiber-optic system?

A. incandescent
B. LED
C. neon
D. laser

44. Light intensity is generally described in terms of __________ and measured in _________.

A. Luminous flux density; Lumens per unit area
B. Luminous flux intensity; Lumens per unit area
C. Luminous flux density; Lumens per unit volume
D. Luminous flux intensity; Lumens per unit volume

45. In radiometric terms, it measures the rate at which electromagnetic waves transfer light
energy

B. Optical impedance
C. Optical illusion
D. Optical power
46. It is described as the flow of light energy past a given point in a specified time

B. Optical impedance
C. Optical illusion
D. Optical power

47. The term single mode and multimode are best described as

A. a number of fibers placed into fiber-optic cable
B. the number of voice channels each fiber can support
C. the number of wavelengths each fiber can support
D. the index number

48. Optical power is sometimes called __________.

49. In refraction that occurs in air/glass interfaces, among the visible light, which is bent the
most?

A. red
B. violet
C. yellow
D. green

50. Fiber-optic cables with attenuation of 1.8, 3.4, 5.9 and 18 dB are linked together. The total
loss is

A. 7.5 dB
B. 19.8 dB
C. 29.1 dB
D. 650 dB

51. In refraction that occurs in air/glass interfaces, among the visible light, which is the bent the
least?

A. violet
B. blue
C. red
D. orange

52. Ratio of the velocity of propagation of a light ray in free space to the velocity of propagation
of a light ray in free space in a given material.

A. refractive index
B. standing wave ratio
C. velocity factor
D. propagation velocity

53. It is the angle at which the propagating ray strikes the interface with respect to the normal.

A. refracted angle
B. incident angle
C. reflected angle
D. critical angle

54. It is the angle formed between the propagating ray and the normal after the ray has entered
the second medium.

A. angle of incidence
B. angle of reflection
C. propagation angle
D. angle of refraction

55. Between silicon and gallium arsenide, which has the greatest index of refraction?

A. Gallium arsenide
B. Neither of silicon nor gallium arsenide
C. Silicon
D. They are equal

56. A fiber-optic cable has a loss of 15dB/km. The attenuation in a cable 1000 ft long is

A. 4.57 dB
B. 9.3 dB
C. 24 dB
D. 49.2 dB

57. Medium 1 is a glass (n1=1.5) and medium 2 is an ethyl alcohol (n2=1.36). For an angle of
incidence of 30 degrees, determine the angle of refraction.

A. 44.5 degrees
B. 14.56 degrees
C. 33.47 degrees
D. 75 degrees

58. The minimum angle of incidence at which the light ray may strike the interface of two media
and result in an angle of refraction of 90 degrees or greater.

A. optimum angle
B. angle of refraction
C. refracted angle
D. critical angle

59. The higher the index number

A. the higher the speed of light
B. the lower the speed of light
C. has no effect on the speed of light
D. the shorter the wavelength propagation

60. The maximum angle in which external light rays may strike the air/glass interface and still
propagate down the fiber.

A. Acceptance cone half-angle
B. Acceptance cone
C. Critical angle
D. Angle of incidence

61. It is the figure of merit used to measure the magnitude of the acceptance angle.

A. acceptance angle
B. numerical aperture
C. index profile
D. refractive index

62. The effect of a large magnitude of the numerical aperture

A. The amount of external light the fiber will accept is greater.
B. The amount of external light the fiber will accept is less.
C. The amount of modal dispersion will be less.
D. The amount of chromatic dispersion will be greater.

63. Only one path for light rays to take down the fiber

A. Multimode
B. Step-index
C. Single mode

64. More than one path for light rays to take down the fiber

A. Multimode
B. Step-index
C. Single mode

65. The three major groups of the optical system are

A. the components, the data rate and the response time
C. the transmitter, the cable and the receiver
D. the source, the link and the detector

66. Infrared light has a wavelength that is

A. less than 400 nm
B. more than 700 nm
C. less than 700 nm
D. a little over 400 nm

67. How many modes possible with a multimode step-index with a core diameter of 50 um, a
core refractive index of 1.6, a cladding refractive index of 1.584, and a wavelength of 1300 nm.

A. 456
B. 213
C. 145
D. 372

68. It is a graphical representation of the magnitude of the refractive index across the fiber.

A. mode
B. index profile
C. numerical aperture
D. refractive index

69. A type of index profile of an optical fiber that has a central core and outside cladding with a
uniform refractive index

A. multimode
C. step-index
D. single mode

70. A type of index of an optical fiber that has no cladding and whose central core has a non-
uniform refractive index.

B. multimode
C. single mode
D. step-index

71. Results in reduction in the power of light wave as it travels down the cable.

A. power loss
B. absorption loss
C. resistive loss
D. heat loss

72. Which of the following is not a factor in cable light loss?

A. reflection
B. absorption
C. scattering
D. dispersion

73. It is analogous to power dissipation to copper cables, impurities in the fiber absorb the light
and covert it to heat.

A. power loss
B. absorption loss
C. resistive loss
D. heat loss

74. It is caused by valence electrons in the silica material from which the fiber are manufactured.

A. ion resonance absorption
B. infrared absorption
C. ultraviolet absorption
D. visible light absorption

75. It is a result of photons of light that are absorbed by the atoms of the glass core molecule.

A. ion resonance absorption
B. infrared absorption
C. ultraviolet absorption
D. visible light absorption

76. It is caused by hydroxide ions in the material

A. visible light absorption
B. infrared absorption
C. ultraviolet absorption
D. ion resonance absorption
77. Which type of fiber-optic cable has the least modal dispersion?

A. single-mode step-index
B. multimode step-index

78. For a single mode optical cable with 0.25dB/km loss, determine the optical power 100km
from a 0.1-mW light source.

A. -45 dBm
B. -15 dBm
C. -35 dBm
D. -25dBm

79. Light rays that are emitted simultaneously from an LED and propagated down an optical
fiber do not arrive at the far end of the fiber at the same time results to

A. intramodal dispersion
B. pulse length dispersion
C. modal dispersion
D. wavelength dispersion

80. Chromatic dispersion can be eliminated by __________.

A. using a monochromatic light source
B. using a very small numerical aperture fiber
D. using a very sensitive photodetector

81. Type of bend that occurs as a result of differences in thermal contraction rates between the

A. Macrobending
B. Microbending

82. These bends are caused by excessive pressure and tension and generally occur while fiber are
bent during handling or installation.

A. microbending
B. macrobending
D. kinks

83. As light is coupled in a multiport deflective device, the power is reduced by

A. 1.5 dB
B. 0.1 dB
C. 0.5 dB
D. 0.001 dB

84. It is caused by the difference in the propagation time of light rays that take different paths
down the fiber.

A. modal dispersion
B. microbending
C. Rayleigh scattering
D. chromatic dispersion

85. How can modal dispersion reduced entirely?

A. Use a graded index fiber
B. Use a single-mode fiber
C. Use a monochromatic light source
D. Use a very sensitive light detector

86. It indicates what signal frequencies can be propagated through a given distance of fiber
cable.

A. Bandwidth Distance Product
B. Pulse width dispersion
C. Rise time
D. Cutoff frequency

87. For a 300-m optical fiber cable with a bandwidth distance product of 600 MHz-km,
determine the bandwidth.

A. 5 GHz
B. 1 GHz
C. 2 GHz
D. 3 GHz

88. For an optical fiber 10 km long with a pulse spreading constant of 5 ns/km, determine the

A. 5 Mbps and 10 Mbps
B. 10 Mbps and 5 Mbps
C. 10 Mbps and 20 Mbps
D. 20 Mbps and 10 Mbps

89. What is the spectral width of a standard LED?

A. 20 to 40 nm
B. 30 to 50 nm
C. 10 to 30 nm
D. 40 to 60 nm

90. What is the spectral width of an ILD?

A. 0.1 nm to 1 nm
B. 2 nm to 5 nm
C. 1 nm to 3 nm
D. 3 nm to 4 nm

91. When connector losses, splice losses and coupler losses are added, what is the limiting
factor?

A. source power
B. fiber attenuation
C. connector and splice loss
D. detector sensitivity

92. A pn-junction diode emits light by spontaneous emission

A. LED
B. APD
C. PIN
D. Zener diode

93. Which type of fiber optic cable is best for very high speed data?

A. single-mode step-index
B. multimode step-index

94. A measure of conversion efficiency of a photodetector.

A. Efficiency
B. Responsivity
C. Dark current
D. Spectral response

95. The leakage current that flows through a photodiode with no light input

A. dark voltage
B. dark impedance
C. dark power
D. dark current

96. The time it takes a light induced carrier travel across the depletion region of the
semiconductor.

A. dispersion
B. response time
D. transit time

97. The range of wavelength values that a given photodiode will respond.

A. spectral response
B. permeance
C. dark current
D. reluctance

98. The term responsivity as it applies to a light detector is best described as

A. the time required for the signal to go from 10 to 90 percent of maximum amplitude
B. the ratio of the diode output current to the input optical power
C. the ratio of the input power to output power
D. the ratio of output current to input current

99. The minimum optical power a light detector can receive and still produce a usable electrical
output signal.

A. light responsivity
B. light sensitivity
C. light collectivity
D. illumination

100. Type of lasers that uses a mixture of helium and neon enclosed in glass tube.

A. gas lasers
B. solid lasers
C. semiconductor lasers
D. liquid lasers

101. Type of lasers that use organic dyes enclosed in glass tube for an active medium.

A. liquid lasers
B. plasma lasers
C. neon lasers
D. ruby lasers

102. A popular light wavelength fiber-optic cable is

A. 0.7 micrometer
B. 1.3 micrometer
C. 1.5 micrometer
D. 1.8 micrometer

103. Type of lasers that use solid, cylindrical crystals such as ruby

A. solid lasers
B. ILD
C. gas lasers
D. liquid lasers

104. Type of lasers that are made from semiconductor ph-junctions commonly called ILDs

A. semiconductor lasers
B. liquid lasers
C. plasma lasers
D. gas lasers

105. Which of the following is not a common application of fiber-optic cable?

A. computer networks
B. long-distance telephone system
C. closed-circuit TV
D. consumer TV

106. Total internal reflection takes place if the light ray strikes the interface at an angle with what
relationship to the critical angle?

A. less than
B. greater than
C. equal to
D. zero

107. Loss comparisons between fusion splices an mechanical splices

A. 1:10
B. 10:1
C. 20:1
D. 1:20

108. The operation of a fiber-optic cable is based on the principle of
A. refraction
B. reflection
C. dispersion
D. absorption

109. Which of the following is not a common type of fiber-optic cable?

A. single-mode step-index
D. multimode step-index

110. Cable attenuation is usually expressed in terms of

A. loss per foot
B. dB/km
C. intensity per mile
D. voltage drop per inch

111. Which cable length has the highest attenuation?

A. 1 km
B. 2 km
C. 95 ft
D. 500 ft

112. The mechanical splice is best suited for

A. quicker installation under ideal condition
B. minimum attenuation losses
C. field service conditions
D. situations in which cost of equipment is not a factor

113. The upper pulse rate and information-carrying capacity of a cable is limited by

A. pulse shortening
B. attenuation
C. light leakage
D. modal dispersion

114. The core of a fiber-optic cable is made of

A. air
B. glass
C. diamond
D. quartz
115. The core of fiber-optic cable is surrounded by

A. wire braid shield
B. Keviar
D. plastic insulation

116. The speed of light in plastic compared to the speed of light in air is

A. less
B. more
C. the same
D. zero

117. Which of the following is not a major benefit of a fiber-optic cable?

A. immunity from interference
B. no electrical safety problems
C. excellent data security
D. lower cost

118. EMD is best described by which statement?

A. 70 percent of the core diameter and 70% of the fiber NA should be filled with light.
B. 70 percent of the fiber diameter and 70% of the cone of acceptance should be filled with
light.
C. 70 percent of input light should be measured at the output.
D. 70 percent of the unwanted wavelengths should be attenuated by the fiber.

119. The main benefit of light wave communications over microwaves or any other
communications media are

A. lower cost
B. better security
C. wider bandwidth
D. freedom from interface

120. Which of the following is not a part of the optical spectrum?

A. infrared
B. ultraviolet
C. visible color
D. x-rays

121. The wavelength of a visible extends from

A. 0.8 to 1.6 um
B. 400 to 750 nm
C. 200 to 660 nm
D. 700 to 1200 nm

122. Single-mode step-index cable has a core diameter in the range of

A. 100 to 1000 micrometer
B. 50 to 100 micrometer
C. 2 to 15 micrometer
D. 5 to 20 micrometer

123. Refraction is the

A. bending of light
B. reflection of light waves
C. distortion of light waves
D. diffusion of light waves

124. Which of the following cables will have the highest launch power capability?

A. 50/125/0.2
B. 85/125/0.275
C. 62.5/125/0.275
D. 100/140/0.3

125. Which type of fiber-optic cable is the most widely used?

A. single-mode step-index
B. multimode step-index

126. The term power budgeting refers to

A. the cost of cable, connectors, equipment and installation
B. the loss of power due to defective components
C. the total power available minus the attenuation losses
D. the comparative costs of fiber and copper installations

127. It refers to the abrupt of change in refractive index from core to clad

A. step index
D. half step index

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS IN
AMPLITUDE
MODULATION
Electronics Systems and Technologies
By
Melvin C. Arceo

ENCODED BY:
SANTOLLO, Dan Alvin
1. The process of impressing a low frequency information signals onto a high-frequency carrier
signal is called _____.
a. demodulation
b. oscillation
c. modulation
d. amplification
2. A silicon varactor diode exhibits a capacitance of 200pF at zero bias. If it is in parallel with a
60-pF capacitor and a 200-uH inductor, calculate the range of resonant frequency as the diode
varies through a reverse bias of 3 to 15V.
a. 679kHz to 2.13MHz
b. 966kHz to 1.15MHz
c. 355kHz to 3.12MHz
d. 143 kHz to 4.53MHz
3. A process where the received signal is transformed into its original form.
a. demodulation
b. damping
c. amplification
d. oscillation
4. It is the process of changing the amplitude of a relative high frequency carrier signal in
proportion with the instantaneous value of the modulating signal.
a. frequency modulation
b. digital modulation
c. phase modulation
d. analog modulation
5. Most of the power in an AM signal is in the
a. carrier
b. upper sideband
c. lower sideband
d. modulating signal
6. Amplitude modulation is the same as
a. linear mixing
b. analog multiplexing
c. signal summation
d. multiplexing
7. The shape of the amplitude-modulated wave is called ______.
a. sidebands
b. modulating signal
c. envelope
d. carrier signal
8. In a diode modulator, the negative half of the AM wave is supplied by
a. tuned circuit
b. transformer
c. capacitor
d. inductor
9. It is a term used to describe the amount of amplitude change present in an AM waveform.
a. coefficient of modulation
b. any of these
c. depth of modulation
d. modulation index
10. When the modulation index in an AM wave is greater than one it will cause _______.
a. any of these
b. splatter
c. overmodulation
d. buck-shot
11. The ideal value of modulation index in AM.
a. 1
b. 0
c. 100
d. infinity
12. When the amplitude of the information in an AM modulator is equal to zero, what is the
value of the modulation index?
a. 1
b. 0
c. 100
d. infinity
13. Amplitude modulation can be produced by
a. having the carrier vary a resistance
b. having the modulating signal vary a capacitance
c. varying the carrier frequency
d. varying the gain of the amplifier
14. When the modulation index is equal to zero, the total transmitted power is equal to
________.
a. one of the sidebands
b. carrier
c. double sidebands
d. an AM wave
15. When the modulation takes place prior to the output element of the final stage of the
transmitter, prior to the collector of the output transistor in a transistorized transmitter, this is
called ______.
a. high-level modulation
b. low-level modulation
c. zero-modulation
d. constant modulation
16. A circuit that monitors the received signal level and sends a signal back to the RF and IF
amplifiers to adjust their gain automatically.
a. automatic phase control
b. automatic gain control
c. automatic frequency control
d. automatic volume control
17. When the modulation takes place in the final element of the final stage where the carrier
signal is at its maximum amplitude, it is called _____.
a. constant modulation
b. zero-modulation
c. low-level modulation
d. high-level modulation
18. If a superheterodyne receiver is tuned to a desired signal at 1000kHz and its conversion
(local) oscillator is operating at 1300kHz, what would be the frequency of an incoming signal
that would possibly cause image reception?
a. 1600 kHz
b. 2300 kHz
c. 1250 kHz
d. 3420 kHz
19. When modulation requires a much higher amplitude modulating signal to achieve a
reasonable percent modulation, this is called
a. high-level modulation
b. low-level modulation
c. zero-modulation
d. constant modulation
20. Amplitude modulators that vary the carrier amplitude with the modulating signal by passing
it through an attenuator work on principle of
a. rectification
b. resonance
c. variable resistance
d. absorption
21. A circuit which function is to raise the amplitude of the source signal to a usable level while
producing minimum nonlinear distortion adding as little thermal noise as possible.
a. power amplifier
b. non-linear amplifier
c. buffer amplifier
d. preamplifier
22. A circuit that has a low-gain, high-input impedance linear amplifier which is used to isolate
the oscillator from the high-power amplifiers.
a. power amplifier
b. bandpass filter
c. signal driver
d. buffer amplifier
23. With high-level transmitters, which of the following is not a primary function of the
modulator circuit?
a. it provides the capacity necessary for modulation to occur
b. it serves as a final amplifier
c. it serves as a frequency up-converter
d. it serves as a mixer
24. It is a form of amplitude distortion introduced when positive and negative alternations in the
AM modulated signal are not equal.
a. phase shift
b. carrier shift
c. amplitude variations
d. frequency shift
25. A carrier is simultaneously modulated by two sine waves with modulation indices of 0.3 and
0.4, the total modulation index
a. is 1
b. cannot be calculated unless the phase relations are known
c. is 0.5
d. is 0.7
26. The component used to produce AM AT very high frequencies is a
a. varactor
b. thermistor
c. cavity resonator
d. PIN diode
27. It is also known as upward modulation
a. carrier shift
b. amplitude variations
c. frequency shift
d. phase shift
28. Also known as downward modulation
a. carrier shift
b. amplitude variations
c. frequency shift
d. phase shift
29. It is a form of amplitude modulation where signals from two separate information sources
modulate the same carrier frequency at the same time without interfering with each other.
a. QPSK
b. QUAM
c. PSK
d. FSK
30. A receiver has a dynamic range of 81 dB. It has 0.55nW sensitivity. Determine the maximum
allowable input signal.
a. 59 mW
b. 69 mW
c. 79 mW
d. 88 mW
31. The information sources modulate the same carrier after it has been separated into two carrier
signals are at 90 degrees out of phase with each other.
a. QPSK
b. QUAM
c. PSK
d. FSK
32. Demodulating quadrature AM signal requires a carrier recovery circuit to reproduce the
original carrier frequency and phase and two balanced modulators to actually demodulate the
signals. This is called ________.
a. asynchronous detection
c. synchronous detection
33. Quadrature amplitude modulation is also known as ________.
a. phase division multiplexing
b. phase division modulation
c. phase amplitude multiplexing
d. phase angle modulation
34. Amplitude modulation generated at a very low voltage or power amplitude is known as
a. high-level modulation
b. low-level modulation
c. collector modulation
d. minimum modulation
35. It is the first stage of the receiver and is therefore often called the receiver front end.
a. mixer
b. RF section
c. local oscillator
d. IF stage
36. In an SSB transmitter, one is most likely to find a
a. class C audio amplifier
b. tuned modulator
c. class B RF amplifier
d. class A RF output amplifier
37. The section of the receiver than down-converts the received RF frequencies to intermediate
frequencies.
a. RF section
b. local oscillator
c. power amplifier
d. mixer
38. The circuit that demodulates the AM wave and converts it to the original information signal.
a. power amplifier
b. local oscillator
c. detector
d. IF section
39. A collector modulator has a supply voltage of 48V. The peak-to-peak amplitude of the
modulating signal for 100 percent modulation is
a. 24V
b. 48V
c. 96V
d. 120V
41. The noise reduction ratio achieved by reducing the bandwidth is called
a. dynamic range
b. noise figure
c. bandwidth efficiency
d. bandwidth improvement
42. It is the minimum RF signal level that can be detected at the input to the receiver and still
produce a usable demodulated information signal.
a. selectivity
b. sensitivity
c. Q-factor
d. bandwidth
43. For ideal AM, which of the following is true
a. m = 0
b. m = 1
c. m < 1
d. m > 1
46. It is defined as the difference in decibels between the minimum input level necessary to
discern the signal and the input level that will overdrive the receiver and produce distortion.
a. dynamic range
b. noise figure
c. bandwidth efficiency
d. bandwidth improvement
47. It is the input power range over which the receiver is useful.
a. dynamic range
b. noise figure
c. bandwidth efficiency
d. bandwidth improvement
48. It is defined as the output power when the RF amplifier response is 1-dB less than the ideal
linear gain response.
a. 1-dB compression point
b. 1-dB threshold point
c. 1-dB shoot-off point
d. 1-dB pinch-off point
49. It is the measure of the ability of a communications system to produce, at the output of the
receiver, an exact replica of the original source information.
a. sensitivity
b. threshold
c. selectivity
d. fidelity
50. A SSB signal generated around a 200-kHz carrier. Before filtering, the upper and lower
sidebands are separated by 200 Hz. Calculate the filter Q required to obtain 40-dB suppression.
a. 1500
b. 1900
c. 2500
d. 2000
51. The predominant cause of phase distortion.
a. overmodulation
b. buffering
c. filtering
d. clipping
52. It is the total phase shift encountered by a signal and can generally be tolerated as long as all
frequencies undergo the same amount of phase delay.
a. differential phase shift
b. absolute phase shift
c. relative phase shift
d. integrated phase shift
53. ________ occurs when different frequencies undergo different phase shifts and may have a
detrimental effect on the complex waveform.
a. differential phase shift
b. absolute phase shift
c. relative phase shift
d. integrated phase shift
54. What is the minimum AM signal needed to transmit information
a. carrier plus sidebands
b. carrier only
c. one sideband
d. both sidebands
55. The circuit that recovers the original modulating information from an AM signal is known as
a
a. modulator
b. demodulator
c. mixer
d. crystal set
56. __________ occurs when the amplitude-versus-frequency characteristics of a signal at the
output of a receiver cover from those in the original information signal.
a. frequency distortion
b. digital distortion
c. phase distortion
d. amplitude distortion
57. The circuit used to produced modulations called
a. modulator
b. demodulator
c. variable gain amplifier
d. multiplexer
58. It is the result pf non-uniform gain in amplifiers and filters.
a. harmonic distortion
b. amplitude distortion
c. frequency distortion
d. phase distortion
59. It is a result of harmonic and intermodulation distortion and is caused by non-linear
amplification.
a. amplitude distortion
b. phase distortion
c. harmonic distortion
d. frequency distortion
60. The most commonly used amplitude demodulator is the
a. diode mixer
b. balanced modulator
c. envelope detector
d. crystal filter
61. It is a special case of intermodulation distortion and a predominant cause of frequency
distortion.
a. second-order intercept distortion
b. phase distortion
c. third-order intercept distortion
d. first-order intercept distortion
62. A display of signal amplitude versus frequency is called the
a. time domain
b. frequency spectrum
c. amplitude modulation
d. frequency domain
63. It is a parameter associated with frequencies that fall within the passband of the filter.
a. coupling loss
b. diffusion loss
c. insertion loss
d. filter loss
64. A circuit that generates the upper and lower sidebands but no carrier is called
a. amplitude modulator
b. diode detector
c. class C amplifier
d. balanced modulator
65. Vestigial sideband modulation (C3F) is normally used for
a. HF point-to-point communications
66. It is generally defined as the ratio of the power transferred to a load with a filter in the circuit
to the power transferred to a load without a filter.
a. distortion loss
b. insertion loss
c. filter loss
d. harmonic loss
67. The modulation index of an AM wave is changed from 0 to 1. The transmitted power is
a. unchanged
b. halved
c. doubled
d. increased by 50 percent
68. The inputs to a balanced modulator are 1MHz and a carrier of 1.5 MHz. The outputs are
a. 500kHz and 1.5MHz
b. 2.5MHz and 1.5MHz
c. 1.5MHz and 500kHz
d. 500kHz and 2.5MHz
69. It is an indication of the reduction the signal-to-noise ration as a signal propagates through
a. noise figure
b. equivalent noise temperature
c. noise factor
d. signal-to-noise ratio
70. Types of receivers where the frequencies generated in the receiver and used for demodulation
are synchronized to oscillator frequencies generated in the transmitter.
a. coherent
b. asynchronous
c. non-coherent
d. none of these
71. Types of receiver where either no frequencies are generated in the receiver of the frequencies
used for demodulation are completely independent form the transmitter's carrier frequency.
a. synchronous
b. coherent
c. asynchronous
d. any of these
72. A widely used balanced modulator is called the ________.
a. diode bridge circuit
b. full-wave bridge rectifier
c. lattice modulator
d. balanced bridge modulator
73. Non-coherent detection is also known as ________.
a. frequency detection
b. noise detection
c. phase detection
d. envelope detection
74. It is one of the earliest type of AM receiver
a. TRF
b. transistorized
c. superhet
d. Armstrong
a. their bandwidth is inconsistent and varies with center frequency when tuned over a
wide range of input frequencies
b. it is unstable due to the large number of RF amplifiers all tuned to the same center
frequency
c. their gains are not uniform over a very wide frequency range
d. it is very complex to construct
76. In a diode ring modulator, the diode acts like
a. variable resistors
b. switches
c. rectifiers
d. variable capacitors
77. It means to mix two frequencies together in a non-linear device or to translate on frequency
to another using non-linear mixing.
a. oscillation
b. heterodyne
c. modulation
d. amplification
78. An AM transmitter antenna current is measured with no modulation and found to be 2.6
amperes. With modulation, the current rises to 2.9 amperes. The percentage modulation is
a. 35%
b. 70%
c. 42%
d. 89%
79. Its primary purpose is to provide enough initial bandlimiting to prevent a specific unwanted
a. detector
b. predetector
c. preselector
d. mixer
80. It function is to reduce the noise bandwidth of the receiver and provides initial step
toward reducing the overall receiver bandwidth to the minimum bandwidth required to pass the
information signals.
a. preselector
b. detector
c. mixer
d. predetector
81. The output of a balanced modulator is
a. AM
b. FM
c. SSB
d. DSB
82. What is the first active device encountered by the received signal in the receiver?
a. mixer
b. RF amplifier
c. local oscillator
d. detector
83. The IF section is also known as
a. bandpass filters
b. IF strip
c. IF filter
d. intermediate filters
84. The detector in an AM receiver is known as
a. audio detector
b. power detector
c. first detector
d. amplitude limiter
85. A carrier of 880kHz is modulated by a 3.5 kHz sine wave. The LSB and USB are,
respectively
a. 873 and 887kHz
b. 876.5 and 883.5kHz
c. 883.5 and 876.5kHz
d. 887 and 873kHz
86. The most commonly used filter in SSB generators uses
a. LC networks
b. mechanical resonators
c. crystals
d. RC networks and op-amps
87. Its purpose of the detector section is to convert the IF signals back to the original source
information.
a. mixer
b. audio amplifier
c. converter
d. detector
88. It means that the two adjustments are mechanically tied together so that a single adjustment
will change the center frequency of the preselector, at the same time, change the oscillator
frequency.
a. high-side injecting
b. low-side injecting
c. gang tuning
d. local oscillator tracking
89. In a low-level AM system, amplifiers following the modulated stage must be
a. linear devices
b. harmonic devices
c. class C amplifiers
d. nonlinear devices
90. When the local oscillator is tuned above the radio frequency, it is called
a. local oscillator tracking
b. low-side injection
c. gang tuning
d. high-side injection
91. The equivalent circuit of a quartz us a
a. series resonant circuit
b. parallel resonant circuit
c. none of these
d. series and parallel resonant circuit
92. It is the ability of the local oscillator in a receiver to oscillate either above or below the
selected radio frequency carrier by an amount equal to the intermediate frequency throughout the
a. tracking
b. mixing
c. heterodyning
d. tuning
93. The difference between the actual local oscillator frequency and the desired frequency is
called ________.
a. mixing error
b. gang error
c. tracking error
d. quantizing error
94. What technique is used to prevent tracking error?
a. using RLC circuit
b. using tuned circuit
c. using three-point tracking
d. using ganged capacitors
95. a crystal lattice filter has a crystal frequencies pf 27.5 and 27.502MHz. The bandwidth is
approximately
a. 2kHz
b. 3kHz
c. 27.501MHz
d. 55.502MHz
96. ___________ is any frequency other than selected radio frequency carrier that, if allowed to
enter a receiver and mix it with local oscillator, will produce a cross-product frequency that is
equal to the intermediate frequency
a. image frequency
b. intermediate frequency
c. aliasing frequency
d. ghost
97. It is a equivalent to a second radio frequency that will produce an IF that will interfere with
the IF from the desired radio frequency.
a. aliasing frequency
b. image frequency
c. interference
d. intermediate frequency
98. An SSB generator has a sideband filter centered at 3.0MHz. The modulating signal is 3kHz.
To produce both upper and lower sidebands, the following carrier frequencies must be produced:
a. 2.7 and 3.3MHz
b. 3.3 and 3.6MHz
c. 2997 and 3003kHz
d. 3000 and 3003kHz
99. It is a numerical measure of the ability of the preselector to reject the image frequency.
a. image frequency rejection ratio
b. noise figure
c. numerical aperture
d. signal-to-noise ratio
100. _________ occurs when a receiver picks up the same station at two nearby points on the
a. spurious pointing
b. under coupling
c. double spotting
d. optimal coupling
101. In the phasing method of SSB generation, one sideband is cancelled due out to
a. phase shift
b. sharp selectivity
c. carrier suppression
d. phase inversion
102. It is caused by poor front-end selectivity or inadequate image frequency rejection.
a. optimal coupling
b. double spotting
c. spurious pointing
d. under coupling
103. It is a high-gain, low noise, tuned amplifier that, when used is the first active encountered
a. mixer
b. local oscillator
c. RF amplifier
d. detector
104. It is a high performance microwave receiver at the input stage. In the RF section of optimize
their noise figure.
a. high-power amplifier
b. low noise amplifier
c. buffer amplifier
d. local oscillator
105. A balanced modulator used to demodulates a SSB signal is called
a. transponder
b. product detector
c. converter
d. modulator
106. Which of the following is not the other name of a balanced modulator?
a. balanced mixer
b. product detector
c. product modulator
d. none of these
107. ________ amplifiers are relatively high gain tuned amplifiers that are very similar to RF
amplifiers, except that it operates over a relatively narrow, fixed frequency band.
a. IF amplifiers
b. low-noise amplifiers
c. buffer amplifiers
d. high-power amplifier
108. Type of tuned circuit where both the primary and secondary sides of the transformer are
tuned tank circuits
a. RLC tuned circuit
b. double-tuned circuit
c. single-tuned circuit
d. LC tuned circuit
109. Frequency translation is done with a circuit called _______.
a. summer
b. multiplier
c. filter
d. mixer
110. Low noise RF amplifiers use what type biasing?
a. class A
b. class B
c. class AB
d. class C
111. Its purpose is to down-convert the incoming radio frequencies to intermediated frequencies.
a. local oscillator
b. RF amplifier
c. detector
d. mixer
112. It is a non-linear amplifier similar to modulator, except that the output is turned to different
between the RF and local oscillator frequencies.
a. RF amplifier
b. local oscillator
c. mixer
d. detector
113. Mixing for frequency conversion is the same as
a. rectification
b. AM
c. linear summing
d. filtering
114. The most common technique used for coupling IF amplifiers
a. resistive coupling
b. inductive coupling
c. capacitive coupling
d. direct coupling
115. When the modulation index of an AM wave doubled, the antenna current is also doubled.
The AM system being used is
a. single-sideband, full carrier (H3E)
b. vestigial sideband (C3F)
c. single sideband, suppressed carrier (J3E)
d. double sideband, full carrier (A3E)
116. The ability of a coil to induce a voltage within its own windings is called
a. mutual inductance
b. coefficient coupling
c. self- inductance
d. inductance
117. If the carrier of a 100 percent modulated AM wave is suppressed the precentage power
saving will be
a. 50
b. 150
c. 100
d. 66.66
118. The ability of one coil to induce a voltage in another coil is called _________.
a. coefficient coupling
b. mutual inductance
c. inductance
d. self-inductance
119. Which of the following cam be used as a mixer?
a. balanced modulator
b. FET
c. diode modulator
d. all of the above
120. It is the ratio of the secondary flux to primary flux
a. Q factor
b. coefficient coupling
c. self-inductance
d. coefficient of modulation
121. Type of coupling where the secondary voltage is relatively low and the bandwidth is
narrow.
a. tight coupling
b. optimum coupling
c. loose coupling
d. critical coupling
122. An AM signal, transmitted information is contained within the
a. carrier
b. modulating signal
c. sidebands
d. envelope
123. Typer of coupling which has high gain and a broad bandwidth
a. optimum coupling
b. tight coupling
c. double coupling
d. loose coupling
124. It is the point where the reflected resistance is equal to primary resistance and the Q of the
primary tank circuit is halved and the bandwidth doubled.
a. critical coupling
b. tight coupling
c. loose coupling
d. optimum coupling
125. The desired output from a mixer is usually selected with a
a. phase-shift circuit
b. crystal filter
c. resonant circuit
d. transformer
126. It is caused by the reactive element of the reflected impedance being significant enough to
change the resonant frequency of the primary tuned circuit.
a. optimum coupling
b. critical coupling
c. double peaking
127. IF transformers come as specially designed tuned circuits in groundable metal packages
called _______.
a. IF cans
b. IF container
c. IF strip
d. IF tetrapack
128. The AM detector is sometimes called _______.
a. first detector
b. third detector
c. second detector
d. fourth detector
129. The mixer is sometimes called _________.
a. first detector
b. third detector
c. second detector
d. fourth detector
130. The two inputs to a mixer are the signal to be translated and a signal from
a. modulator
b. filter
c. antenna
d. local oscillator
131. AM demodulator is commonly called _________.
a. phase detector
b. peak detector
c. frequency detector
d. transistor detector
132. A type of detector that detects the shape of the input envelope
a. peak detector
b. phase detector
c. diode detector
d. shape detector
133. The ratio of the peak modulating signal voltage to the peak carrier voltage is referred to as
a. voltage ratio
b. decibels
c. modulation index
d. mix factor
134. A circuit that automatically increases the receiver gain for weak RF input levels and
automatically decreases the receiver gain when a strong RF signal is received.
a. automatic volume control
b. automatic frequency control
c. automatic gain control
d. automatic phase control
135. Which is not a type of AGC?
a. simple AGC
b. forward AGC
c. delayed AGC
d. complex AGC
136. The value Vmax and Vmin as read from AM wave on an oscilloscope are 3.0 and 2.8. The
percentage of modulation is
a. 10 percent
b. 41.4 percent
c. 80.6 percent
d. 93.3 percent
137. Amplitude modulation is used for broadcasting because
a. it is more noise immune than other modulation systems
b. compared to other systems it requires less transmitting power
c. its use avoids receiver complexity
d. no other modulation system can provide the necessary bandwidth for high fidelity
138. Type of AGC that prevents the AGC feedback voltage from reaching the RF or IF
amplifiers until the RF level exceeds a predetermined magnitude.
a. forward AGC
b. delayed AGC
c. complex AGC
d. simple AGC
139. A circuit with a purpose to quiet a receiver in the absence of a received signal.
a. automatic gain control
b. automatic frequency control
c. squelch circuit
d. automatic volume control
140. A section of a audio stage of a receiver that removes sporadic, high amplitude noise
transients of short duration, such as impulse noise.
a. squelch circuit
b. clampers
c. clippers
d. peak detector
141. A circuit that detects the occurrence of a high-amplitude, short duration noise spike then
mutes the receiver by shutting off a portion of the receiver of the duration of the pulse.
a. squelch circuit
b. limiter
c. clamper
d. blanking circuit
142. The opposite modulation is
a. reverse modulation
b. downward modulation
c. unmodulation
d. demodulation
143. For good imag-frequency rejection, what is the desired value of the intermediate frequency?
a. relatively low IF
b. very low IF
c. relatively high IF
d. very high IF
144. With high-gain selective amplifiers that are stable and easily neutralized. what is the desired
value of intermediate frequency?
a. low IF
b. medium IF
c. high IF
d. very high IF
145. It is defined as the ratio of the demodulated signal level at the output receiver to the RF
signal level at the input to the receiver.
b. figure of merit
146. It is the process of modifying the characteristic of one signal in accordance with some
characteristic of another signal.
a. multiplexing
b. mixing
c. modulation
d. summing
147. The imaginary line on the carrier waveform of the amplitude modulated signal is called
__________.
a. sidebands
b. envelope
c. spurious emission
d. information
148. Indicate the false statement regarding the advantages of the phase cancellation method of
obtaining SSB over the filter method is false:
a. more channel space available
b. transmitter circuits must be stable, giving better spectrum
c. the signal is more noise resistant
d. much less power is required for the same signal strength
149. Indicate which one of the following advantages of the phase cancellation method of
obtaining SSB over the filter method is false:
a. switching from one sideband to the other simpler
b. it is possible to generated SSB at any frequency
c. SSB with lower audio frequencies present can be generated.
d. There are more balanced modulators, therefore the carrier is suppressed better
150. The most commonly used filters is SSB generation are
a. mechanical
b. RC
c. LC
d. low-pass
152.One of the following cannot be used to remove the unwanted sideband in SSB. This is the
a. filter system
b. phase-shift method
c. third method
d. balanced modulator
153. R3E modulation is sometimes used to
a. allow the receiver to have a frequency synthesizer
b. simplify the frequency stability problem in reception
c. reduce the power that must be transmitted
d. reduce the bandwidth required for transmission
154. To provide two or more voice circuits with the same carrier, it is necessary to use
a. ISB
b. carrier reinsertion
c. SSB with pilot carrier
d. Lincomplex
155. A type of AGC is similar to conventional AGC except that the receive signal is monitored
closer to the front end of the receiver and the correction voltage is fed forward to the IF
amplifiers
a. ISB
b. delayed AGC
c. complex AGC
d. simple AGC
156. Having an information signal change some characteristics of a carrier signal is called
a. multiplexing
b. modulation
c. duplexing
d. linear mixing
157. A circuit that compensates for minor variations in the received RF signal level
a. automatic volume control
b. automatic frequency control
c. automatic gain control
d. automatic phase control
158. Which of the following is not true about AM?
a. the carrier amplitude varies
b. the carrier frequency remains constant
c. the carrier frequency changes
d. the information signal amplitude changes the carrier amplitude
159. A modulator circuit performs what mathematical operation on its two inputs?
b. multiplication
c. division
d. square root
160. If m is greater than 1, what happens?
a. normal operation
b. carrier drops to 0
c. information signal is distorted
161. The outline of the peaks of a carrier has the shape of modulating signal and is called
_______.
a. trace
b. wave shape
c. envelope
d. carrier variation
162. Overmodulation occurs when
a. Vm > Vc
b. Vm < Vc
c. Vm = Vc
d. Vm = Vc = 0
163. The new signal produced by modulation are called __________.
a. spurious emission
b. harmonics
c. intermodulation products
d. sidebands
164. An AM signal has a carrier power of 5W, the percentage of modulation is 80 pecent. The
total power sideband is _________.
a. 0.8 W
b. 1.6 W
c. 2.5 W
d. 4.0 W
165. For 100 percent modulation, what percentage of power is in each sideband
a. 25 percent
b. 33.3 percent
c. 50 percent
` d. 100 percent
166. An AM transmitter has a percentage of modulation of 88, the carrier power is 440 W. The
power in one sideband is
a. 85 W
b. 110 W
c. 170 W
d. 610 W
167. An AM signal without the carrier is called ______.
a. SSB
b. vestigial sidebands
c. FM signal
d. DSB
168. It is a form of amplitude modulation in which the carrier is transmitted at full power, but
only one of the sidebands is transmitted.
a. SSBFC
b. SSBSC
c. SSBRC
d. ISB
169. With single-sideband full carrier, 100% modulation would mean a carrier power of how
many percent of the total transmitted power?
a. 80%
b. 20%
c. 50%
d. 40%
170. It is a form of amplitude modulation in which the carrier is suppressed and one of the
sidebands removed
a. SSBFC
b. ISB
c. vestigial sideband
d. SSBSC
171. It is a form of amplitude modulation in which one sideband is totally removed and the
carrier voltage is reduced to approximately 10% of its unmodulated amplitude
a. inderpendent sideband
b. SSBFC
c. SSBRC
d. SSBSC
172. It is a form of amplitude modulation in which a single carrier frequency is independently
modulated by two different modulating signal.
a. vestigial sideband
b. DSBFC
c. independent sideband
d. SSBFC
173. It is a form of amplitude modulation in which the carrier and one complete sideband are
transmitted, but only part of the second sideband is transmitted.
a. independent sideband
b. vestigial sideband
c. DSBFC
d. SSBSC
174. It is the rms power developed at the crest of the modulation envelope of SSBSC.
a. carrier power
b. total transmitted power
c. sideband power
d. peak envelope power
175. Which of the following is not true about single-sideband transmission?
a. power is conserved
c. bandwidth is conserved
d. tuning is easy
176.A circuit that produces a double sideband suppressed carrier signal is called ____________.
a. filter
b. mixer
c. demodulator
d. balanced modulator
177. A balanced modulator is sometimes called _________.
a. balanced ring modulator
b. balanced resistor modulator
c. balanced lattice modulator
d. any of these
178. A type of filter that receives electrical energy, converts it to mechanical vibrations and then
converts the vibrations back to electrical energy at its output.
a. crystal filter
b. mechanical filter
c. LC filter
d. SAW filter
179. A type of filter that uses acoustic energy rather than electromechanical energy to provide
excellent performance for precise bandpass filtering.
a. SAW filter
b. RC filter
c. mechanical filter
d. crystal filter
180. The difference between the IF and the BFO frequencies is called _________.
a. information signal
b. beat frequency
c. carrier signal
d. heterodyned signal
181. It is a circuit which is a narrowband PLL that tracks the pilot carrier in the composite
SSBRC receiver signal and uses the recovered carrier to regenerate coherent local oscillator
frequencies in the synthesizer.
a. beat frequency oscillator
b. mechanical filter
c. local oscillator
d. carrier recovery circuit
182. A system that provides narrowband voice communications for land mobile services with
nearly the quality achieved with FM systems and do it using less than one-third the bandwidth.
a. SSBSC
b. DSBFC
c. ACSSB
d. SSBAC
183. It is a process of combining transmissions from more than one source and transmitting them
over a common facility such as metallic or optical fiber cable or a radio-frequency channel.
a. buffering
b. modulation
c. multiplexing
d. demultiplexing
184. It is an analog method of combining two or more analog sources that originally occupied
the same frequency band in such a manner that the channels do not interfere with each other.
a. ATM
b. FDM
c. TDM
d. WDM
185. It is a multiplexing method that uses double-sideband suppressed-carrier transmission to
combine two information sources into a single composite waveform.
a. QM
b. WDM
c. TDM
d. FDM
186. Single-sideband transmitters are rated in _________.
a. rms power
b. dc power
c. average power
d. peak envelope power
187. In an SSB transmitter, one is most likely to find a __________.
a. class C audio amplifier
b. tuned modulator
c. class B RF amplifier
d. class A RF output amplifier
188. Indicate in which one of the following only one sideband is transmitted:
a. H3E
b. A3E
c. B8E
d. C3F
189. One of the following cannot be used to remove the unwanted sideband in SSB. This is the
a. filter system
b. phase-shift method
c. third method
d. balanced modulator
190. R3E modulation is sometimes used to
a. allow the receiver to have a frequency synthesizer
b. simplify the frequency stability problem in reception
c. reduce the power that must be transmitted
d. reduce the bandwidth required for transmission
191. To provide two or more voice circuits with the same carrier, it is necessary to use
a. ISB
b. carrier reinsertion
c. SSB with pilot carrier
d. Lincomplex
192. The main advantage of SSB over standard AM or DSB is
a. less spectrum is used
b. simpler equipment is used
c. less power is consumed
d. a higher modulation percentage
193. In SSB, which sideband is the best to use?
a. upper
b. lower
c. neither
d. depends upon the use
194. The output of an SSB transmitter with a 3.85 MHz carrier and a 1.5 kHz sine wave
modulating tone is
a. a 3.8485 MHz sine wave
b. a 3.85 MHz sine wave
c. 3.85, 3.8485 and 3.8515 MHz sine waves
d. 3848.5 and 3851.5 MHz sine waves
195. An SSB transmitter produces a 400 V peak to peak signal across a 52 ohm antenna load.
The PEP output is
a. 192.2 W
b. 384.5 W
c. 769.2 W
d. 3077 W
196. The output power of SSB transmitter is usually expressed is terms of
a. average power
b. RMS power
c. peak to peak power
d. peak envelope power
197. An SSB transmitter has a PEP rating of 1 kilowatts. The average output power is in the
range of
a. 150 to 450 W
b. 100 to 300 W
c. 250 to 333 W
d. 3 to 4 kW
198. In amplitude modulation technique, the unmodulated carrier is referred to as having___..
a. 100% modulation
b. 0% modulation
c. 50% modulation
d. overmodulated
199. What is the process in radio communication where the information or intelligent signal is at
lower frequency is put unto higher radio frequency for transmission to receiving station?
a. detection
b. mixing
c. modulation
d. demodulation
200. Which of the following signals is suppressed by balanced modulator circuit?
a. 1st IF signal
b. carrier signal
c. harmonics
d. 2nd IF signal

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS IN
ANGLE MODULATION
Electronics Systems and Technologies
By
Melvin C. Arceo

ENCODED BY:
SANTOLLO, Dan Alvin
1. He developed the first successful FM radio system
a. B.E.Alpine
b. N.S. Kapany
c. E.H. Armstrong
d. A.C.S. Van Heel
2. Results whenever the phase angle of sinusoidal wave is varied with respect to time
a. angle modulation
b. digital modulation
c. amplitude modulation
d. pulse modulation
3. In the spectrum of a frequency -modulated wave
a. the carrier frequency disappears with a large modulation index
b. the amplitude of any sideband depends on the modulation index
c. the total number of sidebands depends on the modulation index
d. the carrier frequency cannot disappear
4.What is the frequency swing of an FM broadcast transmitter when modulated 60%
a. 60 kHz
b. 45 kHz
c. 30 kHz
d. 25 kHz
5. Varying the frequency of a constant -amplitude carrier directly proportional to the amplitude
to the modulating signal at a rate equal to the frequency of the modulating signal
a. amplitude modulation
b. angle modulation
c. phase modulation
d. frequency modulation
6. The amount of frequency deviation from the carrier center frequency in an FM transmitter is
proportional to what characteristic of the frequency signal?
a. amplitude
b. frequency
c. phase
d. shape
7. It is a modulation where the angle of a wave carrier is varied from its reference value
a. amplitude modulation
b. angle modulation
c. analog modulation
d. digital modulation
8. Both FM and PM are types of what kind of modulation?
a. amplitude
b. phase
c. angle
d. duty cycle
9. Varying the phase of a constant amplitude carrier displacement proportional to the amplitude
of the modulating signal at a rate equal to the frequency of the modulating signal.
a. amplitude modulation
b. angle modulation
c. phase modulation
d. frequency modulation
10. The difference between phase and frequency modulation
a. is purely theoretical because they are the same in practice
b. is too great to make the two systems compatible
c. lies in the poorer audio responses of phase modulation
d. lies in the different definitions of the modulation index
11. The relative angular displacement of the carrier phase in radians with respect to the reference
phase is called __________.
a. phase deviation
b. carrier deviation
c. frequency deviation
d. information deviation
12. If the amplitude of the modulating signal decreases, the carrier deviation
a. increases
b. decreases
c. remains constant
d. goes to zero
13. On an FM signal, maximum deviation occurs at what point on the modulating signal?
a. zero-crossing points
b. peak positive amplitudes
c. peak negative amplitude
d. both peak positive and negative amplitudes
14. The amount of oscillator frequency increase and decrease around the carrier frequency is
called _________.
a. frequency deviation
b. phase shift
c. intelligence frequency
d. baseband
15. The relative displacement of the carrier frequency in hertz in respect to its unmodulated value
is called _____________.
a. frequency deviation
b. phase deviation
c. information deviation
d. carrier deviation
16. A pre-emphasis circuit provides extra noise immunity by
a. boosting the bass frequencies
b. amplifying the higher audio frequencies
c. preamplfying the whole audio band
d. converting the phase modulation to FM
17. It is the instantaneous change in phase of the carrier at a given instant of time and indicates
how much phase of the carrier is changing with respect to its reference phase.
a. instantaneous frequency
b. instantaneous frequency deviation
c. instantaneous phase
d. instantaneous phase deviation
18. Calculate the amount of frequency deviation caused by a limited noise spike that still cause
an undesired phase shift of 35 degrees when the input frequency is 5kHz.
a. 2.40kHz
b. 3.05kHz
c. 1.29kHz
d. 4.45kHz
19. Which of the following determines the rate of carrier deviation?
a. intelligence frequency
b. frequency deviation
c. carrier frequency
20. It is the precise phase of the carrier at a given instant of time
a. instantaneous phase deviation
b. instantaneous phase
c. instantaneous frequency deviation
d. instantaneous frequency
21. In PM, a frequency shift occurs while what characteristic of the modulating signal is
changing?
a. shape
b. phase
c. frequency
d. amplitude
22. In FM, it is a device that in which amplitude variations are derived in response to frequency
or phase variations
a. detector
b. discriminator
c. demodulator
23. Maximum frequency deviation of a PM signal occurs at
a. zero-crossing points
b. peak positive amplitudes
c. peak negative amplitude
d. peak positive and negative amplitude
24. Since noise phase-modulates the FM wave, as the noise sideband frequency approaches the
carrier frequency, the noise amplitude
a. remains constant
b. is decreased
c. is increased
d. is equalized
25. It is the instantaneous change in frequency of the carrier and is defined as the first time
derivative of the phase deviation
a. instantaneous frequency
b. instantaneous frequency deviation
c. instantaneous phase
d. instantaneous phase deviation
26. Since noise phase- modulates the FM wave, as the noise sideband frequency approaches the
carrier frequency, the noise amplitude
a. remains constant
b. is decreased
c. is increased
d. is equalized
27. It is the precise frequency of the carrier at a given instant of time is defined as the first time
derivative of the instantaneous phase.
a. instantaneous frequency
b. instantaneous frequency deviation
c. instantaneous phase
d. instantaneous phase deviation
28. It is the output-versus-input transfer functions for modulators which give the relationship
between the output parameter changes in respect to specified changes in the input signal.
a. frequency deviation
b. deviation sensitivity
c. transconductance curve
d. phase deviation
29. When the modulating frequency is doubled, the modulation index is halved, and the
modulating voltage remains constant. The modulation system is
a. amplitude modulation
b. phase modulation
c. frequency modulation
d. any of the above
30. In PM, carrier frequency deviation is not proportional to:
a. modulating signal amplitude
b. carrier amplitude and frequency
c. modulating signal frequency
d. modulator phase shift
31. To compensate for increases in carrier frequency deviation with an increase in modulating
signal frequency, what circuit is used between the modulating signal and phase modulator?
a. low-pass filter
b. high-pass filter
c. phase shifter
d. bandpass filter
32. Indicate which one of the following is not an advantage of PM over AM:
a. better noise immunity is provided
b. lower bandwidth is required
c. the transmitted power is more useful
d. less modulating power is required
33. With phase modulation, the maximum frequency deviation occurs during what value of the
modulating signal?
a. positve peak value
b. rms value
c. negative peak value
d. zero crossings
34. With frequency modulation, maximum frequency deviation occurs _____ of the modulation
signal.
a. positive peak value
b. both positive and negative peak value
c. negative peak value
d. zero crossings
36. With phase modulation, peak phase deviation is called _________.
a. modulation index
b. frequency deviation
c. phase deviation
d. instantaneous phase
37. The FM produced by PM is called
a. FM
b. PM
c. indirect FM
d. indirect PM
a. local oscillator operates below the signal frequency
b. mixer input must be tuned to the signal frequency
c. local oscillator frequency is normally double the OF
d. RF amplifier normally works at 455kHz above the carrier frequency
39. If the amplitude of the modulating signal applied to a phase modulator is constant, the output
signal will be
a. zero
b. the carrier frequency
c. above the carrier frequency
d. below the carrier frequency
a. squelch
b. variable sensitiivity
c. variable selectivity
d. double conversion
41. The peak-to-peak frequency deviation is sometimes called __________.
a. phase deviation
b. peak phase deviation
c. carrier swing
d. instantaneous frequency
42. A 100MHz carrier is deviated 50 kHz by 4kHz signal. The modulation index is
a. 5
b. 8
c. 12.5
d. 20
43. With angle modulation, it is defined as the ratio of the frequency deviation actually produced
to the maximum frequency deviation allowed by law stated in percent form.
a. modulation index
b. percent modulation
c. frequency deviation
d. phase deviation
44. In a broadcast FM system, the input S/N = 4. Calculate the worst case S/N at the output if the
receiver's internal noise effect is negligible.
a. 19.8:1
b. 21.6:1
c. 23:1
d. 15:1
45. It is a circuit in which the carrier is varied in such a way that its instantaneous phase is
proportional to the modulating signal.
a. frequency modulators
b. amplitude modulators
c. phase modulators
d. mixers
46. In a ratio detector
a. the linearity is worse than in a phase discriminator
b. stabilization against signal strength variations is provided
c. the output is twice that obtainable from the similar phase discriminator
d. the circuit is the same as in a discriminator, except that the diodes are reversed
47. The maximum deviation of an FM carrier is 2kHz by a maximum modulating signal of
400Hz. The deviation ratio is
a. 0.2
b. 5
c. 8
d. 40
48. The unmodulated carrier is a single-frequency sinusoid commonly called _________.
a. unrest frequency
b. rest frequency
c. frequency-modulated frequency
d. carrier frequency
49. It is a circuit in which the carrier is varied in such a way that its instantaneous phase is
proportional to the integral of the modulating signal
a. phase modulator
b. phase deviator
c. amplitude deviator
d. frequency modulator
50. The typical squelch circuit
a. cuts off an audio amplifier when the carrier is absent
b. eliminates the RF interference when the signal is weak
c. cuts off an IF amplifier when the AGC is maximum
d. cuts off an IF amplifier when the AGC is minimum
51. Frequency modulators are also known as _________.
a. phase deviators
b. frequency deviators
c. phase modulators
d. amplitude deviators
52. A 70 kHz carrier has a frequency deviation of 4 kHz with a 1000Hz signal. What is the
bandwidth of the FM signal?
a. 4kHz
b. 7kHz
c. 10 kHz
d. 28 kHz
53. The controlled oscillator synthesizer is sometimes preferred to the direct one because
a. it is simpler piece of equipment
b. its frequency stability is better
c. it does not require crystal oscillators
d. it is relatively free of spurious frequencies
54. A system with a differentiator followed by an FM modulator is called
a. PM modulator
b. FM modulator
c. PM demodulator
d. FM demodulator
55. The image frequency of a superheterodyne receiver
a. is created within the receiver itself
b. is due to insufficient adjacent channel rejection
c. is not rejected by the IF tuned circuits
d. is independent of the frequency to which the receiver is tuned
56. A system with FM demodulator followed by an integrator
a. PM modulator
b. PM demodulator
c. FM modulator
d. FM demodulator
57. A system with an integrator followed by a PM modulator
a. PM modulator
b. FM modulator
c. PM demodulator
d. FM demodulator
58. An FM transmitter has a maximum deviation of 12kHz and a maximum modulating
frequency of 12 kHz. The bandwidth by Carson's rule is
a. 24kHz
b. 33.6kHz
c. 38.8kHz
d. 48kHz
59. A system with PM demodulator followed by a differentiator
a. PM modulator
b. FM modulator
c. PM demodulator
d. FM demodulator
60. A receiver has poor IF selectivity. It will therefore also have poor
a. blocking
b. double-spotting
c. diversity reception
d. sensitivity
61. Three point tracking is achieved with
a. variable selectivity
c. double spotting
d. double conversion
62. He mathematically proved that for a given modulating signal frequency a frequency-
modulated wave cannot be accommodated in a narrower bandwidth than an amplitude modulated
wave.
a. R.C. Alpine
b. E.H. Armstrong
c. J.R. Carson
d. J.J. Thomson
63. The maximum allowed deviation of the FM sound signal in TV is 25 kHz. If the actual
deviation is 18kHz, the percent modulation is
a. 43 percent
b. 72 percent
c. 96 percent
d. 139 percent
64. The local oscillator of a broadcast receiver is tuned to a frequency higher than the incoming
frequency
a. to help the image frequency rejection
b. to permit easier tracking
c. because otherwise an intermediate frequency could not be produced
d. to allow adequate frequency coverage without switching
65. Which of the following is not a major benefit of FM over AM?
a. greater efficiency
b. noise immunity
c. capture effect
d. lower complexity and cost
66. Low-index FM systems are also known as __________.
a. wideband FM
b. narrowband FM
c. commercial FM
d. medium FM
67. For high-index signal, a method of determining the bandwidth is called ________ approach
a. quasi-stationary
b. quasi-movement
c. quasi-deviation
d. any of these
68. When a receiver has a good blocking performance, this means that
a. it does not suffer from double-spotting
b. its image frequency rejection is poor
c. it is unaffected by AGC derived from a nearby transmission
d. its detector suffers from burnout
69. He established a general rule to estimate the bandwidth for all angle-modulated system
regardless of the modulation index.
a. R.C. Alpine
b. E.H. Armstrong
c. J.R. Carson
d. J.J. Thomson
70. An AM receiver uses a diode detector for demodulation. This enables it satisfactority to
a. single-sideband, suppressed carrier
b. single-sideband, reduced carrier
c. independent sideband
d. single-sideband, full carrier
71. The primary disadvantage of FM is its
a. higher cost and complexity
b. excessive use of spectrum space
c. noise susceptibility
d. lower efficiency
72. A rule that approximates the bandwidth necessary to transmit an angle-modulated wave as
twice the sum of the peak frequency deviation and the highest modulating frequency.
a. Carson's rule
b. Shannon's rule
c. Hartley's law
d. Hartley-Shannon law
73. It is the worst case modulation index and is equal to the maximum peak frequency deviation
divided by the maximum modulating signal frequency
a. peak phase deviation
b. frequency deviation
c. deviation ratio
d. signal to noise ratio
74. The receiver circuit that rids FM noise is the
a. modulator
b. demodulator
c. limiter
d. low-pass filter
75. The phenomenon of a strong FM signal dominating a weaker signal on a common frequency
is referred to as the
a. capture effect
b. blot out
c. quieting factor
d. domination syndrome
76. The highest side frequencies form one channel are allowed to spill over into adjacent
channels producing an interference known as _________.
a. co-channel interference
c. splatter
d. overmodulation
77. A pre-emphasis is usually a ________.
a. high-pass filter
b. band-stop filter
c. low-pass filter
d. bandpass filter
78. Frequency modulation transmitters are more efficient because their power is increased by
what type of amplifier?
a. class A
b. class B
c. class C
d. all of the above
79. Noise interferes mainly with modulating signals that are
a. sinusoidal
b. non-sinusoidal
c. low frequencies
d. high frequencies
80. A de-emphasis is usually a _________.
a. high pass filter
b. band-stop filter
c. low-pass filter
d. bandpass filter
81. A pre-emphasis is a __________.
a. integrator
b. differentiator
c. either integrator or differentiator
d. neither integrator or differentiator
82. A de-emphasis is a _____________.
a. integrator
b. differentiator
c. either integrator or differentiator
d. neither integrator or differentiator
83. Pre-emphasis circuit boost what modulating frequencies before modulation?
a. high frequencies
b. mid-range frequencies
c. low frequencies
d. all of the above
84. The primary disadvantage of direct PM
a. relatively unstable LC oscillators must be used to produce carrier frequency which
prohibits using crystal oscillators
b. relatively high frequency deviations and modulation indices are easily obtained due to
the fact that the oscillators are inherently unstable.
c. crystal oscillators are inhrently stable and therefore more difficult for them to
achieve high phase deviations and modulation indices
d. carrier oscillator is isolated form the actual modulator circuit and therefore can be
stable source.
85. It is an angle modulation in which the frequency of the carrier is deviated by the modulating
signal
a. direct PM
b. PM
c. indirect FM
d. any of these
86. One of the following is a method of performing frequency up conversion
a. heterodyning
b. amplification
c. modulation
d. none of these
87. A pre-emphasis circuit is a
a. low-pass filter
b. high-pass filter
c. phase shifter
d. bandpass filter
88. Pre emphasis is compensated for the receiver by a
a. phase inverter
b. bandpass filter
c. high-pass filter
d. low-pass filter
89. A circuit that compares the frequency of the noncrystal carrier oscillator to a crystal reference
oscillator and then produces a correction voltage proportional to the difference between the two
frequencies
a. AFC
b. squelch circuit
c. AGC
d. heterodyning circuit
90. A frequency selective device whose output voltage is proportional to the difference between
the input frequency and its resonant frequency
a. modulator
b. squelch circuit
c. frequency discriminator
d. FM transmitters
91. Allows FM receiver to differentiate between two signals received with the same frequency
but different amplitudes
a. flywheel effect
b. amplitude limiting
c. noise immunity
d. capture effect
92. If an FM transmitter employs one doubler, one tripler, and one quadrupler, what is the carrier
frequency swing when the oscillator frequency swing is 2kHz?
a. 24 kHz
b. 48 kHz
c. 14 kHz
d. 12 kHz
93. The cut-off frequency of pre-emphasis and de-emphasis circuits is
a. 1 kHz
b. 2.122 kHz
c. 5 kHz
d. 75 kHz
94. Which of the following is not a disadvantage of angle modulation?
a. wide bandwidth
b. complex
c. high cost
d. less noise
95. In FM receivers, which of the following rejects the image frequency?
a. preselector
b. detector
c. IF amplifier
d. mixer
96. In FM receivers, which of the following provides most gain and selectivity of the receiver?
a. detector
b. RF amplifier
c. local oscillator
d. IF amplifier
97. Another name for Voltage Variable Capacitor is
a. PIN diode
b. varactor diode
c. snap diode
d. hot carrier diode
98. The depletion region in a junction diode forms what part of a capacitor?
a. plates
c. package
d. dielectric
99. Which of the following removes the information from the modulated wave in FM receivers?
a. amplifiers
b. mixer
c. speakers
d. discriminator
100. The final IF amplifier in FM receivers is sometimes called ___________.
a. tuned amplifier
b. limiter
c. passband filter
d. any of these
101. _________ are frequency-dependent circuits designed to produce an output voltage that is
proportional to the instantaneous frequency at its output
b. PM demodulators
c. FM demodulators
102. Increasing the reverse bias on a varactor diode will it cause its capacitance to
a. decrease
b. increase
c. remains the same
d. drop to zero
103. The capacitance of a varactor diode is in what general range?
a. pF
b. nF
c. uF
d. F
104. Which of the following is the simplest form of tuned-circuit frequency discriminator?
a. Foster-Seeley discriminator
b. Ratio detector
c. slope detector
d. PLL detector
105. It is simply two single-ended slope detectors connected in parallel and fed 180 degrees out
phase.
a. Foster-Seeley discriminator
c. balanced slope generator
d. PLL detector
106. The frequency change in crystal oscillator produced by a varactor diode is
a. zero
b. small
c. medium
d. large
107. A phase modulator varies the phase shift of the
a. carrier
b. modulating signal
c. modulating voltage
d. sideband frequency
108. Which of the following tuned-circuit frequency discriminator is relatively immune to
amplitude variations in its input signal?
a. ratio detector
b. slope detector
c. balanced slope detector
109. In FM demodulators, it is also called coincidence detector
b. PLL demodulator
c. Foster-Seely discriminator
d. ratio detector
110. The widest phase variation is obtained with ________.
a. RC low-pass filter
b. RC high-pass filter
c. LR low-pass filter
d. LC resonant circuit
111. An FM receiver provides 100dB of voltage gain prior to the limiter. Calculate the receiver's
sensitivity if the limiter's quieting for an FM receiver is 300mV?
a. 4.5 uV
b. 3.0 uV
c. 2.1 uV
d. 1.3 uV
112. The small frequency change produced by a phase modulator can be increased by using
___________.
a. amplifier
b. mixer
c. frequency multiplier
d. frequency divider
113. In FM receiver, limiters produce a constant-amplitude output of all signals above a
prescribed minimum input level called _________.
a. threshold voltage
b. capture level
c. quieting level
d. any of these
114. The inherent ability of FM to diminish the effects of interfering signals is called _______.
a. capture effect
b. noise suppression
115. A crystal oscillator whose frequency can be changed by an input voltage is called _______.
a. VCO
b. VXO
c. VFO
d. VHF
116. Which oscillators are preferred for carrier generators because of their good frequency
stability?
a. LC
b. RC
c. LR
d. crystal
117. Which of the following frequency demodulators requires an input limiter?
a. Foster-Seely discriminator
b. Pulse-averaging discriminator
d. PLL
118. Provides a slight automatic control over the local oscillator circuit and compensates for its
drift that would otherwise cause a station to become detuned.
a. AGC
b. AFC
c. VVC
d. VCO
119. ________ of an FM receiver is the maximum dB difference signal strength between two
received signals necessary for the capture effect to suppress the weaker signal.
a. capture effect
b. capture gain
c. capture ratio
d. capture loss
120. When two limiter stages are used, there is called ___________.
a. double limiting
b. two-time limiting
c. reserve limiting
d. ratio limiting
121. Which discriminator averages pulses in a low-pass filter?
a. ratio detector
b. PLL
d. pulse-averaging discriminator
122. Which of the frequency demodulator is considered the best overall?
a. ratio detector
b. PLL
d. pulse-averaging discriminator
123. One of the prominent advantage of FM over PM is
a. FM requires frequency multipliers to increase the modulation index and frequency
deviation to useful levels
b. the voltage controlled oscillators of FM can be directly modulated and produce
outputs with high frequency deviations and high modulation
c. the modulation index of FM is independent of the modulating signal frequency
d. FM offers better signal-to-noise performance than PM
124. What special speaker is used for low frequency?
a. baffle
b. base
c. tweeter
d. woofer
125. Each speaker assembly at the receiver reproduces exactly the same information
a. monophonic
b. multiphonic
c. stereophonic
d. any of these
126. In a pulse averaging discriminator, the pulse are produced by a(n)
a. astable multivibrator
b. zero-crossing detector
c. one-shot
d. low-pass filter
127. A reactance modulator looks like a capacitance of 35pF in parallel with the oscillator-tuned
circuit whose inductance is 50 uH and capacitance is 40 pF. What is the center frequency of the
oscillator prior to FM?
a. 1.43 MHz
b. 2.6 MHz
c. 3.56 MHz
d. 3.8 MHz
128. The frequency of an SCA channel subcarrier is _______.
a. 38 kHz
b. 15 kHz
c. 67 kHz
d. 53 kHz
129. The L-R stereo channel in FM broadcasting is between
a. 50 Hz to 15 kHz
b. 60 kHz to 74 kHz
c. 23 kHz to 53 kHz
d. 20 Hz to 20 kHz
130. An FM demodulator that uses a differential amplifier and tuned circuits to convert
frequency variations into voltage variations is the
b. Foster-Seeley discriminator
c. differential peak detector
d. phase-locked loop
131. The output amplitude of the phase detector in a quadrature detector is proportional to
a. pulse width
b. pulse frequency
c. input amplitude
d. the phase shift value at center
132. The output to a PLL is 2MHz. In order for the PLL to be locked. The VCO output must be
a. 0 MHz
b. 1 MHz
c. 2 MHz
d. 4 MHz
133. With stereo transmission, the maximum frequency deviation is
a. 75 kHz
b. 15 kHz
c. 25 kHz
d. 3 kHz
134. The L + R stereo channel occupies _________.
a. 50 Hz to 15 kHz
b. 60 kHz to 74 kHz
c. 23 kHz to 53 kHz
d. 20 Hz to 20 kHz
135. The band of frequencies over which a PLL will acquire or recognize an input signal is
called the
a. circuit bandwidth
b. capture range
c. band of acceptance
d. lock range
136. The three primary frequency bands are allocated by FCC for two-way FM radio
communications except:
a. 132 MHz to 174 MHz
b. 450 MHz to 470 MHz
c. 806 MHz to 947 MHz
d. 1026 MHz to 1035 MHz
137. The maximum frequency deviation for two-way transmitters is typically
a. 25 kHz
b. 5 kHz
c. 75 kHz
d. 3 kHz
138. Decreasing the input frequency to be locked PLL will cause the VCO output to
a. decrease
b. increase
c. remains constant
139. The range of frequencies over which a PLL will track input signal variations is known as
the
a. circuit bandwidth
b. capture range
c. band of acceptance
d. lock range
140. The maximum modulating signal frequency for two-way transmitter is typically
a. 3 kHz
b. 5 kHz
c. 15 kHz
d. 75 kHz
141. Over a narrow range of frequencies, the PLL acts like a
a. low-pass filter
b. bandpass filter
c. tunable oscillator
d. frequency modulator
142. The output of a PLL frequency demodulator is taken from the
a. low-pass filter
b. VCO
c. phase detector
d. none of these
143. The primary advantage of FM over AM
a. capture effect
b. noise immunity
c. FM can use class C amplifiers
d. FM is more efficient
144. The usual cutoff frequency of pre-emphasis and de-emphasis in broadcast FM?
a. 50 Hz
b. 75 Hz
c. 2122 Hz
d. 3183 Hz
145. The maximum deviation for narrowband FM?
a. 2500
b. 5
c. 1.67
d. 75
146. Which of the following is best frequency demodulator in use?
a. Foster-Seeley discriminator
b. ratio detector
c. slope detector
d. PLL
147. The range of frequencies over which the PLL will capture an input signal is known as
________.
a. lock range
b. capture range
c. bandwidth
d. sidebands
148. Type of FM demodulator that is widely used in TV audio demodulators
a. ratio detector
c. PLL
d. pulse-averaging discriminator
149. A variation of Foster-Seeley discriminator widely used in oldr TV receiver designs
a. ratio detector
b. PLL
d. crosby modulator
150. The range of frequencies over which a PLL will track an input is called
a. lock range
b. capture range
c. track range
d. driving range
151. What is the maximum deviation for monoaural TV sound
a. 25 kHz
b. 75 kHz
c. 50 kHz
d. 125 kHz
152. What is the maximum deviation for stereo TV sound?
a. 25 kHz
b. 75 kHz
c. 50 kHz
d. 125 kHz
153. In FM stereo broadcasting, the L + R signal
a. double-sideband modulates a subcarrier
b. modulates the FM carrier
c. frequency modulates a subcarrier
d. is not transmitted
154. In FM stereo broadcasting, the L - R signal
a. double-sideband modulates a subcarrier
b. modulates the FM carrier
c. frequency modulates a subcarrier
155. The SCA signal if used in FM broadcasting is transmitted via
a. a 19 kHz subcarrier
b. a 38 kHz subcarrier
c. a 67 kHz subcarrier
d. the main FM carrier
156. Which of the following is considered as an indirect method of generating FM?
a. reactance modulator
b. balanced modulator
c. varactor diode modulation
d. armstrong system
157. In an FM system, if the modulation index is doubled by halving the modulating frequency,
what will be the effect on the maximum deviation?
a. remains the same
b. doubles
c. decrease by 1/2
d. increase by 1/4
158. Determine from the following the common use of DSB in broadcast and
telecommunication.
a. satellite communications
b. FM/TV stereo
c. two-way communications
d. telephone systems
159. Phase modulation emission type
a. F3F
b. G3E
c. F3E
d. F3C
160. The range of frequencies over which a PLL will cause the input of the VCO signals to
remain synchronized is known as the _________ range.
a. capture
b. lock
c. acquisition
d. any of these
161. If the PLL input is zero, the VCO will operate at its ____________ frequency.
a. free-running
b. natural
c. operating
d. any of these
162. Since a PLL will only respond to signals over a narrow frequency range, it acts likes a
________.
a. low-pass filter
b. high-pass filter
c. bandpass filter
d. bandstop filter
163. In a PLL demodulating an FM signal, the VCO output is an exact reproduction of the
___________.
a. modulating signal
b. carrier signal
c. carrier amplitude
d. VCO output
164. In a PLL demodulating an FM signal, the VCO output is an exact reproduction of the
________.
a. FM input
b. VCO input
c. modulating signal
d. error signal
165. After the IF stages have been aligned, the next state to align in FM receiver is
a. local oscillator
b. limiter stage
c. RF amplifier
d. mixer stage
166. The modulation system used for telegraphy is
a. frequency-shift keying
b. two-tone modulation
c. purse-code modulation
d. single-tone modulation
167. What is emission F3F?
a. Facsimile
b. RTTY
c. modulated CW
d. television
168. What is a frequency discriminator?
a. a circuit for filtering two closely adjacent signals
b. a circuit for detecting FM signals
c. an FM generator
d. an automatic bandswitching circuit
169. Type of radio communication transmission utilizing frequency modulation technique
a. television video
c. single sideband HF transmission
d. television audio
170. Why was FM first developed?
a. to compete with AM
b. to overcome noise
c. to increase listeners
d. to supplement AM
171. To what feature of the modulating tone is FM deviation proportional?
a. amplitude
b. frequency
c. phase
d. phase shift
172. Which of the following is not a basic filed of FM?
b. TV video
c. mobile communications
173. Under what condition would a 1 kHz AF signal produce a single pair of FM sidebands?
a. wideband
c. TV audio FM
d. narrowband FM
174. What deviation is considered 100% for FM broadcast stations?
a. 75 kHz
b. 220 kHz
c. 270 kHz
d. 75 kHz or 220 kHz
175. In FM broadcasting, what is the highest required modulating frequency?
a. 75 kHz
b. 50 kHz
c. 25 kHz
d. 15 kHz
176. In FM broadcasting, what is the lowest required modulating frequency?
a. 50 Hz
b. 30 Hz
c. 10 Hz
d. 5 Hz
177. What is the disadvantage of slope detection of FM>
a. no discrimination against noise
b. less AF distortion
c. less AF out
d. no filtering of carrier
178. What is the unction of the dc that comes out of the dc amplifier in a PLL-type FM detector?
a. carrier signal
b. filter signal
c. error signal
d. phase signal
179. What is the function of the dc that comes out of the dc amplifier in a PLL-type FM
detector?
a. oscillators
b. AF signal
c. RF signal
d. carrier signal
180. Why should discriminators be tuned for a straight characteristic S-curve?
a. less AF distortion
b. greater AF out
c. less RF out
d. less RF distortion
181. What band for high-Q coils be more desirable for stagger-tuned-type discriminator
transformer?
a. wide
b. intermediate
c. interfacing
d. narrow
182. In a Foster-Seeley circuit, the AF output voltage is ________.
a. varying DC
b. varying AC
183. In a stagger-tuned discriminator, the AF output voltage is _________.
a. varying DC
b. varying AC
184. In a ratio detector, the AF output voltage is
b. varying AC
d. varying DC
185. In a gated-beam detector, the AF output voltage is _________.
b. varying AC
c. varying DC
186. Which of the following discriminator circuits require limiters ahead of them?
b. foster-seeley discriminator
c. slope detector
d. stagger-tuned
187. Which of the following discriminator circuits provide an automatic gain control voltage?
a. ratio detector
b. balanced slope detector
d. stagger-tuned detector
188. Which of the following discriminator circuits has its diodes in series?
a. ratio
c. round-travis detector
d. slope detector
189. To what frequency must the gated-beam quadrature circuit be tuned in a TV receiver?
a. 10.7 MHz
b. 455 kHz
c. 70 MHz
d. 4.5 MHz
190. To what frequency must the gated-beam quadrature circuit be tuned in an FM broadcast
a. 4.3 MHz
b. 10.7 MHz
c. 11 MHz
d. 4.8 MHz
192. With what FM detectors would AGC be an advantage?
a. foster-seeley detector
b. ratio detector
d. phase-locked loop
193. What is the reason for using pre-emphasis?
a. increase amplitude
b. reduce carrier shift
c. amplify RF signal
d. reduce noise reception
194. What are the two types of stages in an FM receiver that differ from those in an AM
a. limiting IF and detectors
b. oscillators and IF amplifiers
c. mixers and RF amplifiers
d. local oscillators and mixers
195. What special circuits are used in a squelch system that can follow changing noise levels?
a. noise amplifiers
b. rectifier
c. dc amplifier
d. any of these
196. Why might FM be better than AM for mobile ________.
a. better coverage
b. not affected by solar cycles
c. reduce flutter
d. not absorbed by ionosphere
197. What is the order of circuit alignment in an FM receiver?
a. discriminator, limiters, IF, mixer and RF
b. RF, limiters, IF, mixer and discriminator
c. limiters, mixer, RF, discriminator and IF
d. RF, mixer, RF, IF, limiters and discriminator
198. What is the another name for the reactance-tube modualtor?
a. Crosby
b. Foster-Seeley
c. Round Travis
d. Messier
199. What effect would be produced if a small inductance were used in plasce of the 50 pF
capacitance in the reactance-tube modulator?
a. the circuit becomes resistive
b. reactance modulator looks like an inductive circuit
c. reactance modulator looks like Xc
d. any of these
200. The following are significant circuits in the AFC system except:
a. crystal
b. mixer
c. IF
d. filter
201. Besides the reactance-tube modulator, what is another method of producing direct FM?
a. armstrong modulator
b. voltage variable capacitor
d. slug indicator
202. What is the advantage of PM?
a. can use crystal oscillator
b. uses more multistage
d. simplicity
203. What was the first broadcast FM system called?
a. Arc transmitter
b. MOPA
c. Armstrong
d. crystal
204. Why are limtiers used in FM transmitters?
a. any of these
b. clip noise peaks
c. prevent overdrive of discriminators
d. prevent overdeviation
205. Why are limiters used in FM receivers?
a. provide better noise performance
b. clip noise peaks
c. prevent overdrive of discriminators
d. any of these
206. What signals might feed into an FM broadcast station audio control console?
a. microphones
b. turntables
c. remote lines
d. any of these