PMP Quiz 1

david shillito david litten
PMP Exam Primer Quiz

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A. Familiarizing team members with the project

B. Putting all pieces of a project in a cohesive whole

C. Putting all pieces of a project into a program

D. Assigning all team members their correct tasks
1
Project integration means:
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2
Which of the following models of conflict resolution allows a cooling off period,
but seldom resolves the issue in the long term?
A. Problem solving

B. Withdrawal

C. Forcing

D. Smoothing
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3
Which of the following would not be an organizational process asset?
A. Previous activity lists from projects

B. Project plan templates

C. Strong communications skills

D. Methodology guides
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4
Many defects have been found in a product during testing.
Which tool can help prioritize the problems?
A. Variance analysis

B. Pareto diagram

C. Order of magnitude estimate

D. Control chart
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5
Maslow's Hierarchy of Needs theory concludes that:
A. Psychological needs for growth and fulfilment are not effective motivators

B. Hygiene factors are those that provide physical safety and emotional security

C. The greater the financial reward, the more motivated the workers will be

D. Higher needs cannot be realized until the lower needs are satisfied
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6
Which is one of the most important skills a project manager can have?
A. Influencing skills

B. Communication skills

C. Negotiation skills

D. Problem solving skills
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7
Your project is to build a 20 mile drainage ditch at an estimated cost of $350,000 per
mile. The project management plan shows that the project will be completed in 10
weeks. What is your planned value for the end of the fourth week?
A. $7,000,000

B. $1,400,000

C. $2,800,000

D. $3,500,000
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8
Which of the following describes the Executing process group?
A. Project plans are put into action

B. Project plans are developed

C. Project plans are published

D. Project performance measurements are taken and analyzed
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9
A Responsibility Assignment Matrix (RAM) does not indicate:
A. Project reporting relationships

B. Job roles for team members

C. Who does what on a project

D. Job roles and responsibilities for groups
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10
Resources are estimated against which following project aspect?
A. The elements of scope

B. The work packages

C. Project Office figures

D. The schedule activities
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11
What officially starts the project?
A. The project charter

B. The kickoff meeting

C. The project initiation document

D. The statement of work
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12
Which of the following would be an output of Sequence Activities?
A. Network diagram

B. Discretionary dependencies

C. Mandatory dependencies

D. External dependencies
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13
System integration consists of:
A. Assuring that the pieces of a project come together at the right time

B. Planning for contingencies that may occur throughout the life-cycle of the project

C. The pieces of the project function as an integration unit

D. Answer A and C
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14
When communication links are undefined or broken:

A. The project managers power will decrease

B. The communication management plan should be rewritten

C. Conflict will increase

D. Project work will stop
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15
The business reasons, what is to be done, and how the project supports the
organizations strategy all describe elements of which of the following?
A. Organizational process assets

B. The project statement of work

C. The project charter

D. Tools and techniques of the Initiating processes
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16
Life-cycle costing involves:
A. Calculating the internal rate of return

B. Determining what physical resources will be needed to complete a project

C. Considering the overall costs of a project during and after its completion

D. Assigning a value to each activity on the project
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17
You have set up a contract within your project, with an external software provider. They
are contracted to create the software for the actual cost of development plus a fixed fee
for profit. What type of contract does this represent?
A. Fixed price

B. Cost reimbursable

C. Time and materials

D. Vendor selectable
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18
You need to subcontract a large part of your project.
How will this affect your communications management plan?
A. Performance reports will be more detailed

B. More formal written communications will be required

C. Official communication channels will significantly increase

D. More formal verbal communication will be required
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19
The term describing the amount of time a schedule activity may be delayed before it
affects the early start date of any subsequent schedule activity is called:
A. Slack

B. Free float

C. Lead

D. Float
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20
Project managers spent what percentage of their time communicating?
A. 75%

B. 50%

C. 90%

D. 85%
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21
In a functional organization, power lies primarily with:
A. The Project Office

B. The Project Manager

C. A blend between Functional and Project Managers

D. The Functional Manager
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22
Which would be an appropriate output if you are soliciting bids for a project?
A. Qualified seller lists

B. Change requests

C. Procurement contract award

D. Contracts
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23
Which of the following should be false for the project plan?
A. Used to manage project execution

B. Distributed to stakeholders in accordance with the communications management
plan

C. A formal document

D. Approved by all stakeholders
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24
The project manager has the greatest influence over quality in which process?
A. Quality Planning

B. Quality Control

C. Perform Quality Assurance

D. Quality Change Control
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25
A project is all of the following except:
A. Interrelated activities

B. Strategic to the company

C. Has never been done by this company before

D. Progressively elaborated
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26
What does the standard deviation tell you about a data set?
A. How far apart the data points are within the population

B. The specification limits of the population

C. The mean of the median

D. How diverse the population is
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27
A complex project will fit best in what type of organization?
A. Matrix

B. Functional

C. Cross-functional

D. Balanced
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28
While executing the project plan, you discover that a component was missed during
planning. The project schedule is not in danger and the component is not absolutely
critical for go-live. What should you do?
A. Appeal to the project sponsor for guidance

B. Return to the planning processes for the new component

C. Reject the component as it would introduce an unacceptable risk

D. Treat the component as a new project
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29
Your original project plan showed a total cost of $900,000, taking four months in total.
It is now two months into the project, and the earned value is $400,000.
What is the Budgeted At Completion?
A. $800,000

B. $390,000

C. $900,000

D. $650,000
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30
The most important input into Estimate Activity Resources is:
A. The constraints and assumptions

B. The project charter

C. The activity list

D. The cost estimates
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31
Which of the following techniques is used in Define Scope?
A. WBS templates

B. Inspection

C. Expert judgement

D. Project selection methods
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32
The procurement management plan provides:
A. The types of contracts to be used for the items being procured

B. A description of the procurement options

C. A formal description of how risks will be balanced between the contracts

D. Template for the contracts being used
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33
You are nearing the finish of a five year contract with a companies' project. Having been
involved closely with every aspect, you are keen to use much of the work breakdown
structure information as a template for future contracts with other organizations. You did
not need to sign a non-disclosure agreement. What is the most appropriate action to take
in this situation?
A. Do not use the work breakdown structure under any circumstances as it
would be illegal

B. Use the work breakdown structure as you are not bound by any agreement
under the law

C. Do not use the work breakdown structure without the organizations permission

D. Use the work breakdown structure, but do not share it with others
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34
You are to convey some complex and detailed information to the project stakeholders.
What is the best method for this?
A. Written

B. Diagrammatic

C. Vertical-based

D. Verbal
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35
Performance reviews are held to:
A. Correct the project managers mistakes

B. To assess project status or progress

C. Provide answers for upper management-level questions

D. To appraise the project costs and cost trends of the project
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36
The person on a project with limited authority who handles some communication and
ensures tasks are completed on time is called:
A. The project managers assistant

B. The project leader

C. Project coordinator

D. The sponsor
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37
The Create WBS process has the following purpose apart from one.
Which one of the following is false?
A. To define the baseline for project performance

B. To document the relationship between the product and the business need

C. To help facilitate roles and responsibilities

D. To increase the accuracy of estimates
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38
You have created a project scope statement and a work breakdown structure.
What is the next step to be taken?
A. Create the activity list

B. Determine the critical path

C. Create a network diagram

D. Develop the schedule
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The Critical Path of this diagram is:
39
A. Start A B H I Finish

B. Start D E H I Finish
Start
A
3 days
D
4 days
E
1 days
H
3 days
C
2 days
I
4 days
Finish
F
5 days
G
7 days
C. Start F G I Finish

D. Start A B C I Finish
B
2 days
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40
A minor change to the project has been requested that will have no impact to the
schedule. How should the project manager respond?
A. Evaluate the impact of the change on the other project constraints

B. Submit the change request to the customer for approval

C. Deny the change to help prevent scope creep

D. Authorize the change quickly to ensure that the schedule can remain unaffected
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41
You have received a report indicating that your overall schedule performance index is
1.65 What is your interpretation of this information?
A. You are earning $0.67 of the value back into your project for every $1.00 you planned
to earn

B. You are earning $1.65 of value back into your project for every $1.00 you spend

C. You are earning value into your project at 1.65 times the rate you had planned

D. You are spending $1.56 for every dollar you planned to spend at this point in the
schedule
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42
You are currently bidding on a lucrative, large and complex project with tight key dates
and challenging milestones. After detailed planning involving your team, you are
convinced the required work and scope cannot be done within these deadlines. Your
boss does not agree, and is worried if you don't agree to the dates, we will lose the
contract. What should you do?
A. Agree to the dates the customer has requested

B. Adhere to the estimates your team has made

C. Ask your boss to make the commitment on your behalf

D. Appeal to the buyer for additional time to estimate
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43
All of the following are outputs of the Perform Integrated Change Control
process except for which one?
A. Project scope statement updates

B. Validated defect repair

C. Approved corrective actions

D. Requested changes
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44
The sender of a message is responsable for:
A. Ensuring the receiver agrees with the message

B. Presenting the message in the most agreeable manner

C. Scheduling communication exchange

D. Confirming that the message is understood
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45
Which following process uses the techniques of scatter diagrams, flowcharts, control
charts, run diagrams, and inspection?
A. Perform Quality Execution

B. Perform Quality Definition

C. Perform Quality Control

D. Quality Planning
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46
A benefit-cost ratio of 2.5 tells you that:
A. The project cannot cover its costs

B. The payback period will be two and one half years

C. The project will cost more than twice the revenue it produces

D. The project will yield revenue that is 2.5 times its cost
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47
The Project Scope Statement is typically:
A. Progressively elaborated

B. Issued by senior management

C. A definitive list of all the work and only the work to be done on the project

D. Defined before the functional specification
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48
A. Milestone Chart

B. Network diagram

C. Gantt chart

A. Fishbone diagram
Which of the following is not and example of a type of schedule report?
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49
Which of the following statements is true regarding Close Project?
A. Close Project is performed after Contract Closure

B. Close Project occurs at the end of the project only

C. Close Project occurs at the end of the project phase only

D. Close Project occurs at the end of a project phase and at the end of the project
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50
Which of the following is false regarding the contract change control system?
A. It should be defined in the contract

B. It is part of the integrated change control system

C. It should include contract dispute resolution procedures

D. It is primarily used during the Contract Administration process
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51
Inspections are also called each of the following except for which one?
A. Reviews

B. Audits

C. Assessment

D. Walkthroughs
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52
Which of the following is a negative team role?
A. Gate keeper

B. Devils advocate

C. Initiator

D. Information seeker
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53
A project is defined as:
A. A process of considerable scope that implements a plan

B. An endeavour which is planned, executed, and controlled; performed by people; and
constrained by limited resources

C. A temporary endeavour undertaken to create a unique product or service

D. An objective-based effort of a temporary nature
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54
What is the difference between a Milestone Chart and a Gantt Chart?
A. A milestone chart is a project plan and a Gantt chart is not

B. A milestone chart shows interdependencies between activities

C. A Gantt chart is a project plan and a milestone chart is not

D. A milestone chart shows only major events, while a Gantt chart
shows more information
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55
___________________ must be measured regularly to identify variance from the plan
A. Project Performance

B. Schedule progress

C. Cost and schedule

D. Stakeholder requirements
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56
Which one of the following is not needed for creating the project budget?
A. Cost management plan

B. Work breakdown structure

C. Activity cost estimates

D. Deliverables
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57
Evaluation criteria are used to:
A. Measure conformance to quality

B. Select a qualified seller

C. Determine if a project should be undertaken

D. Determine if a project should be undertaken
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58
The communications management plan:
A. Should always be highly detailed

B. Should include performance reports

C. Should include the projects major milestones

D. Should detail what methods should be used to gather and store information
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59
A project kick-off meeting is usually conducted to:
A. Setup project team and announce the project manager assignment

B. Build up the team spirit

C. To draft project charter

D. Define project scope and develop WBS
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60
You must choose between two projects Project A has an NPV of $150,000, and Project Y
with an NPV of 325,000. What is the opportunity cost of choosing Project Y?
A. $87,5000

B. $175,000

C. $78,000

D. $150,000
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61
Which organization has set the de facto standards for project management techniques?
A. PMBOK

B. PMI

C. PMA

D. PMO
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62
Your company merges with another who already have a similar product to the one which
your current project is developing. It is decided to terminate your project. What is the
first thing a project manager should do?
A. Obtain a written project termination

B. Perform the Close Project or Phase process

C. Make sure your lessons learned are communicated to the manager of the existing
product

D. Perform a Comparative Product Analysis
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63
The process of identifying, documenting, and assigning roles, responsibilities, and
reporting relationships for a project is called:
A. Staff Management Planning

B. Organizational Breakdown

C. Project Organization Techniques

D. Develop Human Resource Plan
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64
A project is considered successful when _______________________
A. The project sponsor announces the project completion

B. The product of the project has been manufactured

C. The project meets or exceeds the expectations of the stakeholders

D. The product is handed over to operations to handle all outstanding project aspects
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65
The key function of the project managers job in Project Integration is:
A. Problem solving and decision-making between project sub-systems

B. Making key decisions about resource allocation

C. Communicating with people of various backgrounds

D. Minimizing conflict to promote team unity
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66
The goal of duration compression is to:
A. Reduce time by reducing risk on the project

B. Reduce cost on the project

C. Reduce the schedule without changing the scope

D. Reduce the scope by eliminating non-critical functionality from the project
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67
Which of the following statements concerning contract type is correct?
A. A fixed price contract contains the most risks for the buyer

B. Cost re-imbersable contracts offer sellers the highest profit potential

C. Lump sum contracts offer sellers the greatest profit potential

D. Unit price contracts are illegal in many jurisdictions
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68
The activity list should include:
A. A subset of all schedule activities

B. All of the schedule activities defined on the project

C. A superset of the schedule activities for this and any related projects

D. The schedule activities on the project that are on the critical path
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69
The Delphi Method is best suited for:
A. Decision-making

B. Cost Control

C. Overhead rate estimating

D. Team discussions
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70
The fact that a product must be tested before it can be installed, is an example of:
A. External dependency

B. Natural dependency

C. Discretionary dependency

D. Mandatory dependency
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71
Which of the following is not a type of contract?
A. Fixed-price

B. Time and materials

C. Cost-revisable

D. Cost-reimbursable
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72
Which process repairs deliverables?
A. Monitor and Control Project Work

B. Integrated Change Control

C. Perform Quality Assurance

D. Direct and Manage Project Execution
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73
The amount of authority a project manager possesses can be related to ______________
A. Key stakeholders influence on the project

B. The project managers communication skills

C. The organizational structure

D. The amount of authority the project managers manager has
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74
Which of the following fits the definition for benchmarking?
A. Comparing actual or planned results to those of other projects

B. Comparing planned value with earned value

C. Comparing planned results to actual results

D. Statistical sampling of results and comparing them to the plan
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75
During which project management process are risk and stakeholders ability to influence
project outcomes the highest at the beginning of the process?
A. Planning

B. Executing

C. Initiating

D. Monitoring and Controlling
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76
Which projected payback period below is the most desirable?
A. 3 years

B. 52 weeks

C. 24 months

D. 1000 days
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77
Responsibility for quality management ultimately lies with:
A. Functional manager

B. Project team

C. The project manager

D. Quality team
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78
Which two processes are tightly linked when performing a project , and are often used at
the same time?
A. Perform Quality Assurance and Manage Project Team

B. Perform Quality control and Verify Scope

C. Scope Planning and Cost Planning

D. Direct and Manage Project Execution and Acquire Project Team
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79
At which stages of the life-cycle will risk be identified?
A. Initiation

B. Planning

C. Execution

D. All phases
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80
The most important factor in project integration is:
A. Effective communication

B. Team buy-in on the project plan

C. A clearly defined scope

D. Timely corrective action

PMP Quiz 1

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david shillito david litten

PMP Exam Primer Quiz

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