A-1 S.D.E.

[MECHANICAL]

1. A ball is thrown horizontally with the speed 20 m/s from the top of building which is
30 m high. Ignoring air resistance, the time the ball takes to reach the ground is
a) 2.47 s
b) 2.85 s
c) 3.12 s
d) 3.15 s
2. A body of 2 kg mass makes an elastic collision with another body at rest and
afterwards continues moving in the original direction but with one fourth of its
original speed. The mass of the struck body is
a) 0.2 kg
b) 0.6 kg
c) 1.0 kg
d) 1.2 kg
3. Two identical circular discs are released from rest at the top of an inclined plane.
One of them rolls down without slipping, while the other slides down on its flat face.
If friction is absent, which one would reach the bottom first?
a) Both will reach at the same time
b) The disc that slides
c) The disc that rolls
d) Unpredictable
4. The buckling load in a steel column is
a) directly proportional to the slenderness ratio
b) inversely proportional to the slenderness ratio
c) related to the length
d) non-linearly to the slenderness ratio
5. The plane of maximum shear stress has normal stress that is
a) zero
b) maximum
c) minimum
d) none of these
6. Under torsion, brittle materials generally fail
a) along surfaces forming a 45 angle with the longitudinal axis
b) along a plane perpendicular to its longitudinal axis
c) in the direction of minimum tension
d) not in any specific manner
7. Four vertical columns of the same material, height and weight have the same end
conditions. The buckling load will be the largest for a column having the cross-
section of a/an
a) I-section
b) solid square
c) solid circle
d) thin hollow circle

A-2 S.D.E. [MECHANICAL]

8. If failure in shear along 45 planes is to be avoided, then a material subjected to
uniaxial tension should have its shear strength equal to at least
a) tensile strength
b) half the tensile strength
c) compressive strength
d) half the difference between the tensile and compressive strengths
9. If a circular shaft is subjected to a torque T and a bending moment M, the ratio of
the maximum shear stress to the maximum bending stress is
a) 2M/T
b) 2T/M
c) T/2M
d) M/2T
10. Design of shafts made of brittle materials is base on
a) Rankines theory
b) St. Venants theory
c) Guests theory
d) Von Mises theory
11. In gears, interference takes place when
a) pitch of the gear is not the same
b) tip of a tooth of a mating gear digs into the portion between base and root
circles
c) gears do not move smoothly in the absence of lubrication
d) gear teeth are undercut
12. A fixed gear having 100 teeth meshes with another gear having 25 teeth, the centre
lines of both the gears being joined by an arm so as to form an epicyclic gear train.
The number of rotations made by the smaller gear for one rotation of the arm is
a) 3
b) 4
c) 5
d) 6
13. When the axes of the first and last wheels are co-axial, then the train is known as
a) simple train of wheels
b) compound train of wheels
c) reverted gear train
d) epicyclic gear train

14. There are six gears A, B, C, D, E, F, in a compound train. The number of teeth in the
gears is 20, 60, 30, 80, 25 and 75 respectively. The ratio of angular speeds of the
driven (F) to the driver (A) of the drive is
a) 1/8
b) 4/15
c) 1/24
d) 12

A-3 S.D.E. [MECHANICAL]

15. Aluminium foil used for cooking food and storage sometimes has one shiny surface
and one dull surface. Should the shiny side or the dull side be on the outside when
the food is wrapped for baking and freezing, respectively?
a) shiny side, shiny side
b) dull side, shiny side
c) dull side, dull side
d) shiny side, dull side
16. Thermoplastic materials are those materials which
a) do not become hard with the application of heat and pressure and no
chemical change occurs
b) are flexible and cannot withstand considerable wear under suitable
conditions
c) are flexible and can withstand considerable wear under suitable conditions
d) are formed into shape under heat and pressure and results in a
permanently hard product
17. A solid sphere and a hollow sphere of the same material and size are heated to the
same temperature and allowed to cool in the same surroundings. If the temperature
difference between the body and that of the surroundings is T, then
a) the hollow sphere will cool at a faster rate for all values of T
b) the solid sphere will cool at a faster rate for all values of T
c) both spheres will cool at the same rate for small values of T
d) both spheres will cool at the same rate for all values of T
18. Which of the following material has maximum ductility?
a) Lead
b) Mild steel
c) Copper
d) Nickel
19. Highest thermal conductivity is of
a) steam
b) solid ice
c) melting ice
d) water
20. Thermal boundary layer is a region where
a) convection terms are of the same order of magnitude as dissipation terms
b) convection terms are of the same order of magnitude as conduction terms
c) dissipation is negligible
d) inertia terms are of the same order of magnitude as convection terms
21. The thickness of thermal and hydrodynamic boundary layer is equal if
a) Prandtl Number is less than 1
b) Prandtl Number is equal to1
c) Prandtl Number is greater than 1
d) Prandtl Number is equal to Nusselt Number

A-4 S.D.E. [MECHANICAL]

22. The wavelength of the radiation emitted by a body depends upon
a) the temperature of its surface
b) the nature of its surface
c) the area of its surface
d) all the above factors
23. Absorptivity and reflectivity of a black body are
a) 0 and 0
b) 0 and 1
c) 1 and 0
d) 1 and 1
24. All bodies above absolute zero temperature emit radiation. This statement is
a) Weins law
b) Planks law
c) Prevost theory
d) Stefans law
25. The ratio of specific heats of a gas at constant pressure and constant volume
a) is always constant
b) varies with temperature
c) varies with pressure
d) none of the above
26. In a thermal power plant, coal from the coal handling plant is moved to the boiler
bunker through a
a) bucket conveyor
b) belt conveyor
c) fork lift truck
d) overhead crane
27. A cycle consisting of one constant pressure, one constant volume and two isentropic
processes is known as
a) Otto cycle
b) Carnot cycle
c) Stirling cycle
d) Diesel cycle
28. Production cost refers to prime cost plus
a) factory overheads
b) factory and administration overheads
c) factory, administration and sales overheads
d) factory, administration, sales overheads and profit
29. According to kinetic theory of gases, at absolute zero
a) volume of gas reduces to zero
b) pressure of gas reduces to zero
c) specific heat of molecules reduces to zero
d) kinetic energy of molecules reduces to zero


A-5 S.D.E. [MECHANICAL]

30. In break even analysis, total cost consists of
a) fixed cost + sales revenue
b) fixed cost + variable cost
c) variable cost + sales revenue
d) fixed cost + variable cost + profit
31. The type of layout used for manufacturing steam turbines is
a) fixed position layout
b) variable position layout
c) product layout
d) process layout
32. In all reversible process, entropy of the system
a) increases
b) decreases
c) remains the same
d) none of these
33. The ideal efficiency of simple gas turbine cycle depends upon
a) cut-off ratio
b) pressure ratio
c) both cut-off ratio and pressure
d) none of the above
34. A one tonne refrigerating machine means that
a) one tonne refrigerant is used
b) one tonne is the total mass of machine
c) one tonne of water can be converted into ice
d) one tonne of ice when melts from and at 0 C in 24 hours, the refrigeration
effect is equivalent to 210 kJ/min
35. Dehumidification of air is normally done by
a) heating
b) superheating
c) cooling
d) injecting water
36. In a psychrometric chart, vertical lines indicate
a) wet bulb temperature
b) dew point temperature
c) dry bulb temperature
d) relative humidity
37. In a four stroke cycle, the minimum temperature inside the engine cylinder occurs at
the
a) end of suction stroke
b) beginning of suction stroke
c) beginning of exhaust stroke
d) end of exhaust stroke

A-6 S.D.E. [MECHANICAL]

38. Which property is measured in Zeroth Law of Thermodynamics?
a) Pressure
b) Temperature
c) Entropy
d) Density
39. The amount of heat required to raise the temperature of a unit mass of gas through
one degree at constant volume is called
a) kilo Joule
b) specific heat at constant volume
c) specific heat at constant pressure
d) none of these
40. In a coupling rod of a locomotive, each of the four pairs is a __________ pair.
a) turning
b) rolling
c) sliding
d) screw
41. The acceleration of a particle at any instant has two components i.e. radial
component and tangential component. These two components will be
a) inclined at 45
b) opposite to each other
c) parallel to each other
d) perpendicular to each other
42. Property of material due to which it can be rolled or hammered into thin sheets is
called
a) fatigue
b) brittleness
c) ductility
d) malleability
43. First product of the blast furnace in the process of converting iron ore into useful
metal by reduction, is called
a) wrought iron
b) cast iron
c) pig iron
d) steel
44. According to Stefan's law, the total radiation from a black body per second per unit
area is directly proportional to the _______ power of the absolute temperature.
a) First
b) Second
c) Third
d) Fourth
45. If carbon present in cast iron is mostly in the free state, it is called
a) molten cast iron
b) white cast iron
c) grey cast iron
d) none of these


A-7 S.D.E. [MECHANICAL]

46. Dispatching
a) prescribes the sequence of operations to be followed
b) determines the programme for the operations
c) regulates the progress of job through various processes
d) is concerned with the starting of processes
47. PERT requires
a) single time estimate
b) double time estimate
c) triple time estimate
d) none of the above
48. Which of the following statement is wrong?
a) The heat transfer in liquid and gases takes place according to convection.
b) The thermal conductivity of solid metals increases with rise in temperature
c) The amount of heat flow through a body is dependent upon the material of
the body.
d) Logarithmic mean temperature difference is not equal to the arithmetic
mean temperature difference.
49. Tolerance are specified
a) to obtain desired fits
b) to obtain high accuracy
c) to have proper allowance
d) because it is not possible to manufacture in size exactly
50. A master gauge is a/an
a) new gauge
b) international reference standard
c) gauge used by experienced technicians
d) standard gauge for checking accuracy of gauges used on shop floors
51. The purpose of chaplets is to
a) ensure directional solidification
b) support the cores inside a mould to overcome vertical movement of the core
due to buoyancy
c) provide efficient venting
d) function as lower and upper part of the moulding box.
52. Which of the following items does not form an ingredient of the moulding sand?
a) clay
b) water
c) silica
d) sulphur
53. Pipes subjected to high pressures are generally made by
a) pressure die-casting
b) extrusion
c) centrifugal casting
d) shell-mould casting

A-8 S.D.E. [MECHANICAL]

54. In Fe-Carbon diagram, the microstructure at 0.8 % C is called
a) Eutectic
b) Hypo-eutectoid
c) Eutectoid
d) Hyper-eutectoid
55. In silica structure the silicon-oxygen bond is
a) Covalent
b) Partly covalent and partly ionic
c) Weak molecular
d) Metallic
56. In Oxy-Acetylene Flame there are three types of flames formed. Which flame does
not belong to this group?
a) Neutral Flame
b) Reducing Flame
c) Oxidizing Flame
d) Plasma Flame
57. In Gas Metal Arc Welding following shielding gases are used. Which one of them is
the newest entrant?
a) Helium
b) Argon
c) Carbon dioxide and oxygen
d) Mixture of all the above gases

58. A kinematic link is :
a) A fixed body not connected to any other part
b) A resistant body or an assembly of resistant bodies which go to make a part or
parts of a machine connecting other parts which have motion relative to it.
c) A resistant body or an assembly of resistant bodies which go to make a part or
parts which have no motion relative to it.
d) An independent body having no relative motion with other parts
59. A steel with 0.7% C, 18% W, 4% Cr and 1% Va, is called
a) Stainless steel
b) Armour steel
c) Stellite
d) High speed steel
60. A cell structure of BCC has
a) 1 atom
b) 2 atoms
c) 3 atoms
d) 4 atoms
61. A cell structure of FCC has
a) 1 atom
b) 2 atoms
c) 3 atoms
d) 4 atoms

A-9 S.D.E. [MECHANICAL]

62. That thermodynamic system in which only energy and no mass can transfer across
its boundry is called
a) Open system
b) Closed system
c) Isolated system
d) Non- flow system
63. Which one of the following is extensive property?
a) Specific volume
b) Volume
c) Density
d) Temperature
64. Which one of the following is an intensive property?
a) Volume
b) Mass
c) Pressure
d) Weight
65. Absolute pressure P (abs), gauge pressure P (gauge) and atmospheric pressure
p(atm) are correctly related as given below
a) P(atm) = P (abs) + P (gauge)
b) P (abs) = P (atm) + P (gauge)
c) P (gauge) = P (abs) + P (atm)
d) P (atm) = P (abs) / P (gauge)
66. The process in which there is no heat transfer between a system and its
surroundings is called
a) Isothermal process
b) Polytropic process
c) Isentropic process
d) Constant pressure or isobaric process
67. An engine which is operating between two temperature limits of 500 K and 300 K
can have a maximum possible efficiency of
a) 20 %
b) 40 %
c) 60 %
d) 100 %
68. A refrigerator and a heat pump are operating between same temperature limits. If
the coefficient of performance of heat pump is 6, what will be coefficient of
performance of the refrigerator?
a) 5
b) 6
c) 7
d) It cannot be definitely stated

A-10 S.D.E. [MECHANICAL]

69. In petrol engine, compression ratio is generally
a) 2 to 6
b) 6 to 10
c) 10 to 14
d) 14 to 22
70. In diesel engine, the compression ratio is generally
a) 2 to 6
b) 6 to 10
c) 10 to 14
d) 14 to 22
71. The moment of inertia of a filled rectangular area with a base width b and height h
is
a) bh
3

12
b) b
3
h
12
c) bh
3

3
d) b
2
h
2

12
72. If a ladder weighing 250N is placed against a smooth vertical wall having coefficient
of friction between it and floor as 0.3, than the maximum force of friction available
at the point of contact between the ladder and the floor is
a) 25 N
b) 35 N
c) 50 N
d) 75 N
73. Pressure vessels may be termed thin if the ratio of the wall thickness to the radius of
the shell is less than
a) 1
5
b) 1
10
c) 1
15
d) 1
20
74. Closed packed hexagonal space lattice is found in
a) Aluminium
b) Tungsten
c) Zinc
d) None of these

A-11 S.D.E. [MECHANICAL]



75. In a Hartnell governor if a spring of greater stiffness is used, the governor will be
a) Less sensitive
b) More sensitive
c) Unaffected by sensitivity
d) Isochronous
76. The Cam follower generally used in automobile engines is
a) Knife edge follower
b) Flat faced follower
c) Spherical faced follower
d) Roller follower
77. Glass is an example of an amorphous solid which can be characterized as
a) a malleable solid
b) a very viscous fluid
c) a crystal-like structure
d) a good conductor
78. A material is said to be allotropic if it has
a) Fixed structure at all temperatures
b) Different crystal structures at different temperatures
c) Atoms distributed in random pattern
d) None of the above
79. Which of the following statement is NOT true for twist drill?
a) The chips are automatically driven out
b) There are two flutes
c) The point angle is 90
o

d) For the tapered shank commonly morse taper is used
80. In a single point turning operation of steel with a cemented carbide tool the
exponent in Taylor's tool life equation is 0.25. If the cutting speed is halved, the tool
life will be
a) 2 times
b) 4 times
c) 8 times
d) 16 times
81. In which of the following fit the largest permitted shaft diameter is smaller than the
diameter of the smallest hole?
a) Interference fit
b) Clearance fit
c) Transition fit
d) None of the above
82. The volume of air sucked by the compressor during its suction stroke is called
a) Free air delivery
b) Swept volume
c) Compressor capacity
d) None of these
A-12 S.D.E. [MECHANICAL]

83. Heat is mainly transferred by conduction, convection and radiation in
a) condensation of steam in a condenser
b) insulated pipes carrying hot water
c) refrigerator freezer coil
d) boiler furnaces
84. The natural draught is produced by:
a) Steam jet
b) Centrifugal fan
c) Chimney
d) None of the above
85. Knocking tendency in I.C. engines decreases with increase in
a) Intake temperature
b) Engine speed
c) Coolant temperature
d) Engine load
86. Which of the following is NOT an advantage of the pre combustion chamber?
a) Moderate rate of pressure rise
b) Less sensitive to ignition quality of fuel
c) Fuel injection pressure is not critical
d) Larger thermal efficiency
87. Indicated horse power of an I.C. engine decreases if
a) Area of piston increases
b) Number of cylinders increases
c) Mean effective pressure decreases
d) Rotational speed increases
88. Which of the following is NOT correct for Diesel engine?
a) It is a compression ignition engine
b) It uses the heat of compression to initiate ignition
c) It is less efficient than petrol engine of the same power
d) None of the above
89. If the compression ratio of an Auto Cycle is 6, its air standard efficiency is
a) 48.8 %
b) 51.1 %
c) 63.5 %
d) 68.4 %
90. The object of producing draught in a boiler is
a) to provide an adequate supply of air for the fuel combustion
b) to exhaust the gases of combustion from the combustion chamber
c) to discharge the gases of combustion
d) all of the above
91. The flow through a nozzle is regarded as
a) Constant flow
b) Constant pressure flow
c) Isothermal flow
d) Isentropic flow
A-13 S.D.E. [MECHANICAL]


92. The value of reheat factor varies from

a) 1.02 to 1.06
b) 1.08 to 1.10
c) 1.2 to 1.6
d) 1.6 to 2

93. The steam leaves the nozzle at a
a) High pressure and a low velocity
b) High pressure and a high velocity
c) Low pressure and a low velocity
d) Low pressure and a high velocity

94. Which of the following decreases during sensible cooling of air?
a) Wet bulb temperature
b) Dry bulb temperature
c) Relative humidity
d) Specific humidity

95. A refrigeration system
a) Removes heat from a low temperature body and delivers it to a high
temperature body
b) Removes heat from a high temperature body and delivers it to a low
temperature body
c) Rejects energy to a low temperature body
d) None of the above

96. In a psychrometric process the sensible heat added is 30 kJ/s and the latent heat
added is 20 kJ/s. The sensible heat factor for the process will be
a) 0.3
b) 0.6
c) 0.67
d) 1.5

97. If T
1
= temperature at which the working system receives heat and T
2
= temperature
of cooling water and T
3
= evaporator temperature, then the C.O.P. of an absorption
type refrigerator is given by
a) T
1
(T
2
T
3
)
T
3
(T
1
T
2
)

b) T
3
(T
1
T
2
)
T
1
(T
2
T
3
)

c) T
1
(T
1
T
2
)
T
3
(T
2
T
3
)

d) T
3
(T
2
T
3
)
T
1
(T
1
T
2
)

A-14 S.D.E. [MECHANICAL]

98. Which of the following is NOT the desired property of the refrigerant?

a) The boiling temperature should be low
b) The latent heat of vaporization should be high
c) The specific heat of liquid should be high
d) It should be non toxic

99. Refrigerant R134 a is a

a) HFC
b) CFC
c) HCFC
d) None of these

100. Which of the following statement is not correct in a vapour compression system
during the exchange of energy?

a) Compressor requires work
b) During condensation the heat is given to the refrigerator
c) During evaporation heat is absorbed by the refrigerant
d) No exchange of energy during throttling process
*******