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CSIR-UGC NET Model Questions PAPER I

(Questions are provided by M. Jayavardhana Reddy)

1. Which of the following do not form compounds?


(A) Ur �
(B) Xe
(C) He
(D) Kr
2. Which of the following is a living fossil
(A) Gingko biloba
(B) Pinus gerardiana
(C) Archaeopteryx
(D) Ephedra
3. Drug Vinblastin is extracted from
(A) Taxus batata
(B) Catharanthus roseus
(C) Mappia
(D) Arachis australis
4. Electronic configuration of A-12 and B-7. What is the empirical formula of compounds
(A) AB2
(B) A2B2
(C) A2B3
(D) A3B2
5. Which of the following group does not form oxides?
(A) CO, H2O, ZnO2
(B) ZnO2, BaO2, AlO2
(C) Fe3O4, PbO2, BaO
(D) PbO2, BaO, ZnO2
6. The binary expansion of 63
(A) 11111
(B) 111111
(C) 10101
(D) 100100
7. The main reason for water scarcity in India is that
(A) India does not get adequate rainfall
(B) Most rain water runs off and flows in sea
(C) In most places the ground is not porous to recharge the ground water
(D) Water is lost by evaporation due to hot weather.
8. Fossils are likely to be found in
(A) Igneous rocks
(B) Sedimentary rocks
(C) Metamorphic rocks
(D) Meteorites
9. If a is rational and b is irrational
(A) (a+b) must be rational and (a-b) must be rational
(B) a+b may be rational or irrational
(C) a+b must be rational
(D) (a+b) or (a-b) will always be irrational

10. If the earth warms from a mean temp. of 15oC to 20oC the energy radiated by the earth
increases by a
(A) (293/288) �������������
(B) (293/288)2
(C) (293/288)3
(D) (293/288)4

11. C is the real no and the system of linear equations


4 x + 6y = 10
6x + 9y = C has to be solved for x and y. The system has a
(A) Unique solution
(B) Always has infinitely many solutions
(C) Has infinitely many solutions only if c=15
(D) Has infinitely many solutions only if c=15
1. Atmospheric pressure executed on earth is due to
(A) Revolution of the earth
(B) Gravitation pull
(C) Rotation of the earth
(D) Uneven heating of earth
2. Hot spots in India are found in
(A) Western ghats and Eastern Himalayas
(B) Eastern Himalayas and Western Himalayas
(C) Western ghats and Western Himalayas
(D) Eastern ghats and Western Himalayas
3. Binding of Mannose � 6- P to protein lead to its localization to
(A) Lysosome
(B) Golgi body
(C) Plasma membrane
(D) Nucleus
4. Which of the following is Ca-binding protein
(A) Actin
(B) Myosin
(C) Troponin
(D) Tropomyosin
5. How can you calculate λ by using� De brogilee equation
(A) λ = h/2 em
(B) λ = h2/2mev
(C) λ = √h/2emv
�����(D) λ = h/ √2emv
6. Bohr- effect � Borh energy of hydrogen� - 13ev. What is the energy of excited
hydrogen
(A) -3 -2
(B) -6.6
(C) -13
(D) -26
7. What is the resistance between A & B when each has 1 Ώ. (Diagram to be drawn)
(A) 0.5 Ώ
(B) 1 Ώ
(C) 2 Ώ
(D) � Ώ

8. When oil is dissolved in water it forms a layer on top of water. When white light falls on
it, it shows colors. This phenomenon is due to
(A) Polarization of light
(B) Dispersion of light
(C) Refraction of light
(D) Interference of light
9. Which of the following shows sporulation along with social behaviors?
(A) Archebacteria
(B) Bacillus
(C) Actinomycetes
(D) Eubacteria
10. There are two sets; one set has 10 elements; second set=7 elements the ≤ of the following
is true
(A) (SUR) =17
(B) (SUR) ≤ 7
(C) (S∩R) =17
(D) (S∩R) ≤ 7
11. Which of the following is not a programming language.
(A) UNIX
(B) BASIC
(C) PASCAL
(D) FORTRAN
12. Calculate ┴ from B on AC (Diagram to be drawn)�

(A) 12/5
(B) 3/4
(C) 12/6
(D) 1/2

13. Which of the following is a logistic growth curve.(Diagram to be drawn)


���������������
b
b
d

��������������������������������������
��������������������������������������
��������������������������������������
��������������������������������������
��������������������������������������
��������������������������������������
��������������
��������������������������������������
��������������������������������������
��������������������������������������
������������ �
(A) b
(B) a
�����������(C) c
�����������(D) d

14. If a part of bacterial genome is doubled it is called as


(A) Amphidiploid
(B) Merodiploid
(C) Endodiploid
(D) Polyploid
15. Asymmetric reciprocal cross occurs in
(A) Sex linked inheritance
(B) Polygenic inheritance
(C) Genes interaction
(D) Independent assortment
16. How are chromosomes of yeast and protozoa observed
(A) Electron microscopy
(B) Pulse gel electrophoresis
(C) Light microscopy and staining
(D) Fixed gel electrophoresis
17. Which organelle is involved in conversion of fat to carbohydrate in seeds
(A) Glyoxysomes
(B) Peroxisomes
�����������(C) Golgi bodies
�����������(D) Mitochondria
18. Dosage compensation in Drosophila is achieved by
(A) Hypoactivation of both X chromosomes
(B) Hyperactivation of Y chromosome
(C) Hyperactivation of maternal chromosome
(D) Hyperactivation of paternal chromosome
19. Which of the following is under permanent control of central legislation
(A) National parks
(B) Zoos
(C) Game parks
(D) Wild life sanctuaries
20. Programmed cell death in plants is due to
(A) Hypersensitivity
(B) Systemic resistance
(C) Photorespiration
(D) Closure of stomata
21. Helper T cells can be differentiated from suppressor T cells by
(A) CD4
(B) CD8
(C) CD2
(D) C40
22. The first cell affected by angiogenesis of cancer is
(A) Platelets
(B) Stem cells
(C) Endothelial cells
(D) Lymphocytes
23. Difference between Deer and antelopes is
(A) Deer shed their antlers every year
(B) Male and female have antlers
(C) Deers are gregarious
(D) Only male deer have antlers
24. Currently the polar ice sheets are approximately 3 km thick. If the thickness of the ice
sheets doubles, conservation of angular momentum predicts that the duration of the day
will
(A) Increase
(B) Decrease
(C) Not be affected
(D) Double
25. A true breeding tall plant is crossed to a true breeding dwarf plant. The progeny are all
tall. In the following generation, out of 80 plants 5 are short and 75 tall. This suggest that
height is controlled by
(A) 1 gene
(B) 2 gene
(C) 3 gene
(D) 4 gene
26. �The figure shows page gel-electro phoresis of a Klinefelter�s patient (XXY). The non
disjunction occurs in paternal chromosome. The sex chromosomes are derived from
������ Paternal I
��������������������Paternal II
�������������������Maternal
���������������� Klinefelter�s Patient
�����������
�����(A) Maternal ���������������(B)
Paternal II �������������(C) Paternal
�����������������(D) Maternal and Paternal II
27. Earnest Mayer contributed to which of the following concepts
(A) Biological species concept
(B) Ecological species
(C) Population ecology
(D) Genetic drift
28. Which of the following represents the increasing order of urine concentration by
following organisms
(A) Beaver, Humans, sand rat
(B) Beaver, sand rat, human
(C) Human, sand rat, Beaver
(D) Sand rat beaver human
29. Taiga biome � temperature and rainfall range
(A) -5 to 15oc, 50-150 cm
(B) +5 to 15oc, 50-100 cm
(C) +5 to 15oc,
(D) -5 to 15oc, 50-300 cm
30. Systemic lupus erthymatous is which of the following disease
(A) Autoimmune disease
(B) Immunodeficiency disease
(C) Bacterial diseases
(D) Inborn error of metabolism
31. Selection which occurs in a population which has a normal distribution for variations of a
particular phenotypic character. The extreme individuals are eliminated from the
population is called�
(A) Neutral
(B) Disruptive
(C) Stabilizing
(D) Directional
32. Random change in frequency of 2 or more than 2 alleles in a population is due to
(A) Genetic drift
(B) Gene flow
(C) α diversity
(D) Differential reproduction
33. Despite mol wt of 750 to 1500 of lipid, they are considered as macromolecules
(A) Dissolved in water to form lipid aggregates
(B) Present in membrane to form biomembranes
(C) Fats converted to carbohydrates in glyoxysomes
(D) Fatty liver is caused by alcohol
34. Synthesis of α amylase in Aleurone layer in cereals is
(A) Gibberlins
(B) Jasmonic acid
(C) Abscissic acid
(D) Brassinosteroids
35. Bio luminescence is exhibited by
(A) Red algae
(B) Brown algae
(C) Dinoflagellates
(D) Copepods
36. Silica gel (Kieselgur) is obtained from
(A) Diatoms
(B) Dinoflagellates
(C) Foraminiferans
(D) Euglenoids
37. Number of birds species in India is
(A) 500
(B) 1200
(C) 3700
(D) 4800
38. Role of carrier between PSII & PSI
(A) Carries electron from P680 to P700
(B) Carries electron from P700 to P680
(C) Carries oxygen from P680 to P700
(D) Carries proton from P680 to P700
39. A substance is heated at 65oC for 2 minutes and is inactivated. Which of the following
can it be?
(A) Protein
(B) Lipids
(C) Carbohydrates
(D) DNA
40. Which of the following Amino acid if added to a acidic solution will have buffer action
on solution at the physiological pH
(A) Alanine
(B) Glycine
(C) Histidine
(D) Arginine
41. Which of the following is not true for glycolysis
(A) FADH2 produced
(B) NADH produced
(C) Two pyruvate molecules are produced from 1 glucose molecule
(D) Ethanol, lactic acid produced
42. Dendrogram is based on
(A) Phylogenetic relations
(B) Evolutionary relations
(C) Genetics
(D) Numerical taxonomy
43. Substrate is bind to the active site of enzyme with all of these except
(A) Peptide bond
(B) Hydrogen bond
(C) Hydrophobic bond
(D) Covalent
44. Frequency of recessive allele= .4. What is the frequency of heterozygous carriers in the
population of 200?
(A) 96
(B) 100
(C) 196
(D) 94
45. Evolutionary changes in one species prompt corresponding changes in other species with
which the former interacts ecologically is known as
(A) Coevolution
(B) Complementation
(C) Parallel evolution
(D) Microevolution
46. In Reo virus
(A) mRNA � RNA
(B) RNA is converted into RNA
(C) DNA is converted into RNA
(D) RNA is converted into DNA
47. in DNA replication occurs
(A) One parental strand passes into each replica while second strand is built a new
(B) Both parental strands remain intact and replica is a completely new structure
(C) None of the above
(D) Both are true
48. Photolysis of water requires
(A) Mn
(B) Ca
(C) Mg
(D) N
49. Linkage group in diploid human male is
(A) 23
(B) 24
(C) 43
(D) 46
50. Relation between intrinsic growth rate (r) & small body size
(A) Rectilinear (+)
(B) Rectilinear �ve
(C) Exponential +ve
(D) Exponential -ve
51. On release of clean chit act, which one of the following exterminated after 30 years
(A) Bistonbitularia carbonifera
(B) Bistonbitularia typica
(C) Drosophila psedoobscura
(D) Drosophila persimilis�
52. For succession on rock, which will grow first of all on a bare rock
(A) Lichens
(B) Mossess
(C) Diatons
(D) Blue green alga
53. Athletes go at high attitude for practicing to improve their performance at sea level
(A) O2 affinity for hemoglobin increases
(B) Oxygen carrying capacity increases
(C) RBC content increases
(D) DNA content increases
54. Which hormone is secreted by the developing placenta
(A) Estrogen
(B) Prolactin
(C) HcG
(D) Oxytocin
55. Deficiency of which mineral leads to interventional chlorosis in young leaves
(A) Fe
(B) Mn
(C) P
(D) Mg2+
56. High BOD water introduced into clean water lake will lead to
(A) Decrease in dissolved oxygen
(B) Increase in water infectious parasites
(C) Death of organisms in water
(D) Minimate disease
57. Minimum number of genes required in autonomously replicating organisms
(A) 50-100
(B) 500-800
(C) 1000-2000
(D) 4000-6000
58. Curve obtained between intensity and response action is. (diagram to be drawn)
����������
������������ ���
����������
59. On application of a pesticide the pest population increased instead of decreasing. It may
be due to
(A) Resistance
(B) Pesticide actually increased reproductive potential of pest
(C) Instead of acting on pest pesticide acted on pest predators
(D) May be the concentration of pesticide was less
60. An organism is adapted to a new environment without undergoing change. This can be
explained on the basis of
(A) Pre adaptation
(B) Linkage
(C) Mutation
(D) Recombination
61. The eqn x2 + 2xy + y2 = represents
(A) Parabola
(B) Hyperbola
(C) Straight equation
(D) Circle
62. The following structure is (Diagram to be drawn)

�����������

���������
I���������������������������������� I

�� I������������������������
�����������������������������������0��
��������������������������������������
����������� CH-CooH

��������������������������������������
�������������
I�������������������������������������
���������������������������� NH2

��������������������������������������
��������������������������������������
��������������������������������������
����������������������������
����������� (A) Vasopressin
(B) Thyroxine
����� (C) Estradiol ����
����� (D) Testosterone
63. Which of the following is not true for hormones?
(A) Act away from their site of action
(B) Their action is greatly magnified by signal transduction system
(C) Large quantity required
(D) Travel the blood vascular system.

ANSWERS
1 2 3 4 5 6 7
1 C 1 C 1 D 1 A 1 A 1 C 1 C 1 A
1 2 3 4 5 6 7
2 A 2 B 2 A 2 A 2 C 2 A 2 A 2 C
1 2 3 4 5 6 7
3 B 3 A 3 A 3 C 3 A 3 D 3 A 3 B
1 2 3 4 5 6 7
4 D 4 A 4 A 4 D 4 A 4 A 4 C 4 C
1 2 3 4 5 6
5 B 5 C 5 B 5 A 5 A 5 C 5 C
1 2 3 4 5 6
6 B 6 D 6 A 6 B 6 C 6 A 6 A
1 2 3 4 5 6
7 C 7 A 7 C 7 D 7 A 7 B 7 A
1 2 3 4 5 6
8 B 8 D 8 A 8 A 8 B 8 A 8 D
1 2 3 4 5 6
9 D 9 D 9 C 9 A 9 A 9 A 9 B
2 3 4 5 6 7
10 D 0 B 0 A 0 A 0 A 0 B 0 C

CSIR-UGC NET
Model Questions PAPER II

(Questions are provided by Shalendra Singh)


1. Objective of an experiment is to arrange species within a genus phylogenetically. How
should it be done employing nucleic acid?
2. Explain the role of genes controlling self-incompatibility.
3. Outline an experiment to demonstrate that cell differentiation is brought about by
differential gene activity rather than by �differential loss� of genetic information.
4. What is tautomeric shift in a purine or purimidine base? And schematically explain how
tautomeric shift in a base in DNA may lead to mutation.
5. How are the polytene chromosomes formed? List the major applications of these
chromosomes in cytogenetics and molecular Genetics.
6. What are viroids? How they multiply? Describe the structure of PSTV.
7. How many electrons are needed for the reduction of one molecule of nitrogen by the
Nitrogenase Enzyme complex? Explain.
8. Explain hypothesis of allelic exclusion and clonal selection. How are these interrelated?
9. Explain the word �allosteric� and give two examples of allosteric effectors. Can
cooperativity occur in a single chain protein molecule? Discuss briefly.
10. Where is the respiratory chain in bacteria located and how it is similar to the respiratory
chain present in mitochondria/
11. What are the differences between active and inactive chromatin? How would you
demonstrate them experimentally?
12. What is polyadenylation? What is the functional significance? How you can show that
this is a post transcriptional event?
13. What is complementation of mutant alleles in bacteria? How you will you use
complementation to find out the number of genes involved in a pathway?
14. Imagine you have identified a novel tumour repressor gene. Describe a strategy by
which you will prove conclusively that this gene is induced involved in tumour
suppression in vivo.
15. How would you clone a genomic DNA fragment greater than 60 kb?
16. Describe the essential feature of a YAC vector necessary for its existence in yeast.
What size DNA fragment could be cloned into these vector and to obtain these
fragments, what restriction should be used and why?
17. What is somatic cell hybridization? Explain the differences between a heterokaryon and
a hybrid cell. How hybrid cells are selected using a double selection system?
18. What is the difference between the compound light microscope and the phase contrast
microscope? What is the principle used in phase contrast microscope?
19. What is isoelectric point? Two proteins A and B have the same molecular weight. How
will you separate them?
20. How you would distinguish three DNA molecules of same length having 60%, 40% and
20% GC content using spectroscopy? Explain why a single stranded DNA has higher
adsorption in UV region compared to double stranded DNA of same composition.
21. Given half life of 32P and 14C is nearly 15 days and 5000 years what will be the counts
in both samples on day 30 and day 60 (expressed as % of zero days)?

CSIR-UGC NET
Model Questions PAPER I � SECTION A

(Questions are provided by M. Jayavardhana Reddy)

1. �������Effect of ozone layer on life on earth is:


�����������(A) Harmful because it cuts cosmic rays
�����������������������
(B) Beneficial because it cuts down UV radiation
�����������(C) Prevention of mutation
��������������������������������
(D) Negligible
2. ��������Age of the oldest rock on the earth is about
(A) 4 billion years ���������(B) 3 billion years
���������(C) 2 billion years ���������(D) 1 billion
years
3. ��������The land-sea breezes arise because
�����������(A) Land has a higher heat capacity than land
�����������(B) Ocean has higher heat capacity than land
�����������(C) Of a periodic variation in trade winds
�����������(D) Of rotation of the earth
4. ��������According to current understanding, the Himalayas have resulted
from:
�����������(A) Cometary impact on earth ��
�����������(B) Asymmetrical pull of the moon on earth
�����������(C) Uneven cooling of solidified magma
�����������(D) Collision of continents due to continental drift
5. ��������The focal length of a convergant lens made of glass (refractive index
n), have been measured for violet color and red color. If these are fv and fr respectively,
which of the following statements is correct?
�����������(A) fv = fr
����������������������������(B) fv < fr
���������������������(C) fv > fr
���������������������(D) fv = nfr
6. ��������X-rays are electromagnetic radiations. They can therefore be
deflected by
�����������(A) Electric and magnetic fields together
�����������(B) Electric fields only
�����������(C) Magnetic fields only
�����������(D) Neither electric nor magnetic fields
7. ��������A porton is moving round in a circular path with a constant speed.
From this one can infer that�������
�����������there must be an uniform
�������(A) Electric field normal to the plane of the orbit
�������(B) Electric field along the plane of the orbit
�������(C) Magnetic field normal to the plane of the orbit
�������(D) Magnetic fields along the plane of the orbits
8. ��������A bat is using sound waves to scan its surroundings. The shortest
wavelength it can emit in air is 0.3 cm. If the speed of sound is 360 m/s, the highest
frequency the bat can use is
�������(A) 1.2 x 105 hertz �������(B) 1.2 x 103 hertz
�������(C) 3.6 x 105 hertz �������(D) 3.6 x 103 hertz
9. ��������Predict which relation cannot occur?
�������(A) Cu + 2HCl → CuCl2 + H2
�������(B) H2 + CuO → H2O + Cu
�������(C) Mg + 2HCl → MgCl2 + H2
�������(D) Zn + 2HCl → ZnCl2 + h2
10. ������Which of the following aqueous solutions has pH eual to 7?
�������(A) 0.01 M HCl ����������(B) 0.01 M NaCl
��������(C) 0.01 M NaCOOCH3 ��������(D) 0.01 M
NaOH
11. ������Which of the following is not correct?
�������(A) Sucrose is a carbohydrate
�������(B) Ribonuclease is an enzyme
�������(C) C12H25 � C15H31 fraction of petroleum is kerosene oil
�������(D) Cellulose is a lipid
12. ������The synthetic polymer nylon is obtained from the polymerization of
�������(A) Phenol and formaldehyde
�������(B) Adipic acid and hexamethylene diamine���
�������(C) Tetrafluroethylene
�������(D) Vinylchloride
13. ������The number of isomers possible for the complex PtCl2 (NH3)2 is
� ������(A) 1
���������������������������(B) 2
���������������������������(C) 3

���������������������������(D) 4
14. ������Both mother and father are of AB blood type. The possible blood types of
their children will be
�������(A) AB only ����������������(B)
AA only ����������������(C) AA and BB only
����(D) AA, BB and AB
15. ������Which among the following animals has the tongue fixed in front and free
at the back?
�������(A) Monkey ����������������(B)
Rabbit �������������������(C) Cat

�����������������������������������
(D) Frog
16. ������Rauwolfia serpentine is a ��������
�������(A) Helminth parasite ���
�������(B) Causative organism of AIDS
�������(C) Medicinal plant
�������(D) Poisonous snake
17. ������Which of the following sets of substances are parts of the essential
requirements for the growth of green plants?
�������(A) Carbon dioxide, oxygen, sulfate
�������(B) Nitrate, carbon dioxide, phosphate
�������(C) Nitrate, vitamin B1, sulfate
�������(D) ADP, carbon dioxide, nitrate
18. ������The roots of the equation x2 � kx + k= 0 are a and b. The real value of k
for which a2 + b2 is minimum is
�������(A) 1
���������������������������(B) 2
���������������������������(C) 0

���������������������������(D) 3
19. ������The number of real solutions of Cos x =x is
�������(A) 0
���������������������������(B) 1
���������������������������(C) 2

���������������������������(D) infinity
20. ������The average age of class is 13 years. If the average age of the taller 1/3rd
of the class is 14 then the average age of the rate of the class
�������(A) Can not be found from the available information
�����������������
(B) 13 � years ������������(C) 12 � years
������������(D) 12 1/3 years
21. ������Which one of the following is not an electronic computer?
�����������(A) IBM-PC
���������������(B) ENIAC
�����������������(C) PC-DOS
��������������(D) IBM-1620
22. ������A statement of the type
�����������10 LET AS = �STRING� is allowed in
�����������(A) FORTRAN �����������(B) COBOL
����������������(C) C language (D) BASIC
language
23. ������Integrated Circuits were first used in
�����������(A) First generation system ������
�����������(B) Second generation system ��
�����������(C) Third generation system �����
�����������(D) Fourth generation system ���
24. ������Microcomputer application software is usually written in
�����������(A) Multiprogramming environment
�����������(B) Timesharing environment
�����������(C) User friendly environment
�����������(D) Network Environment
25. �����The UNIX operating system has been written in
(A) Machine language��(B) C language �����������(C) Assembly
language (D) PASCAL language
26. ������Indicate which one of the software requires a COMPILER for execution
�����������(A) SPSS
��������������������(B) LOTUS
�����������������(C) COBOL
���������������(D) ORACLE���
27. ������A Hexadigit can be represented by
�����������(A) Three binary consecutive bits
���������������������(B) Four binary consecutive bits
�����������(C) Eight binary consecutive bits
����������������������(D) Sixteen binary consecutive
bits
Model Questions Paper I section B

1. Outer membrane proteins (OMP) are present in


(A) Gram-positive bacteria
������������������������������(B)
Gram negative bacteria ������
(C) Mycoplasmal membranes
��������������������������(D)
Tonoplast membranes�
2. 9 + 2 fibrillar arrangement is present in
(A) Bacterial flagella ����(B) Bacterial fimbriae ���(C) Eukaryotic
flagella �(D) T4 bacteriaophag ��
3. Coated vesicles in the cell gives rise to
(A) Endosome �������������(B) Microsome (C) Ribosome
��������������(D) Episome
4. Mitochondria and chloroplasts are suggested to have evolved from symbiotic prokaryotes
present in primitive eukaryotic cells. One evidence for this is that
(A) These organelles contain cristae or thylakoids
(B) These organelles contain electron transport chain
(C) The ribosome in these organelles share properties with those of prokaryotes
(D) The genetic code in these organelles is same as in all organisms
5. A genetic region found in all humans whose products are primarily responsible for the
rejection of grafts between individuals, is called
(A) Junctional ��������������(B) Diversity
����������������(C) Major histocompatibility
complex�� (D) Fc
6. Chiasmata are formed during meiosis
(A) Before metaphase I� (B) After metaphase�� (C) During prophase II �(D)
During metaphase II
7. In animals differentiation of cells is mostly due to
(A) Cell type specific mutations
(B) Deletion of specific DNA sequence in specific cell types
(C) Specific gene repression and expression
(D) Regulated expression of mitochondria DNA
8. Button like points of intercellular contact that serve as anchoring sites of intermediate
filaments and help to hold adjacent cells together are called
(A) Gap junctions ��������(B) Connexons
������������(C) Cadherins
��������������(D) Desmosomes
9. DNA duplication occurs in
(A) Mitosis only �����������(B) Meiosis only��� (C) meiosis-I
and mitosis ������ (D) meiosis II and mitosis
10. The (OH-) concentration of a 0.01 N HCl solution is
(A) 1 x 10-8 g mol per liter
�������������������������������(B) 1 x
10-10 g mol per liter
�����������(C) 1 x 10-12 g mol per liter
������������������������������(D) 1 x 10-14
g mol per liter
11. In a first order enzyme reaction 30% of the substrate is converted into product in one
minute. The value of the velocity constant (at one minute) of the reaction is�
(A) 0.124 ��������������������(B) 0.356
��������������������(C) 0.431
��������������������(D) 0.893
12. Infant suffering from galactosemia are unable to utilize normal milk because they
(A) Lack the enzyme glucokinase in the liver
(B) Are unable to hydrolyse lactose
(C) Lack the enzyme glactose-1-phosphate uridylyl transferase
(D) Accumulate the sugar alcohol
13. The number of high energy phosphate bonds in ATP is
(A) 1
���������������������������(B) 2
���������������������������(C) 3

���������������������������(D) 0
14. Which bond has the minimum length?
(A) C = C �������������������(B) C = C
�������������������(C) C � C
�������������������(D) C = O
15. The Tm of DNA can be calculated using the formula:
Tm = 69.1 + 0.41 (GC), where GC is the per cent of guanine + cytosine. A double
stranded DNA has 27% adenine. Its Tm is
�����������(A) 79oC
���������������������(B) 80.37oC
����������������(C) 95.40oC
����������������(D) 88oC
16. Intron is a region of the chromosomal DNA
(A) Which is a part of a gene that is transcribed but is removed during maturation of the
transcript
(B) Which is a part of a gene that is transcribed and persists in the mature mRNA
(C) That is located between two adjacent genes
(D) That is located at the centromere
17. The characteristics of a weak acid is
(A) high Ka �����������������(B) low pKa
����������������(C) high pKa
���������������(D) none of these
18. A 22% aqueous solution� of sodium chloride (molecular weight 56) corresponds to a
concentration�
(A) 1 M ����������������������(B) 2.2 M
��������������������(C) 5.6 M
�������������������(D) 4 M
19. One of the following enzymes is involved in translation step in protein biosynthesis
(A) Aminoacyl-tRNA synthetase
����������������������(B) RNA polymerase
(C) Ribozyme

�����������������������������������
���������������(D) Reverse transcriptase�
20. The sites of O2 evolution and photophosphorylation in chloroplast are
(A) Grana stacks ���������(B) Matrix �������(C) inner
wall of chloroplast �����(D) surface of chloroplast
21. Photophosphorylation in chloroplasts requires movement of
(A) Electrons across the membrane
������������������(B) Ions across the membrane
(C) Protons across the membrane
��������������������(D) Electrons and protons
across the membrane
22. Bacterial sporulation is induced in response to
(A) Starvation of nutrients

�������������������������������(B)
Change in temperature
(C) Change in pH

�����������������������������������
��������(D) change in light intensity
23. Fixation of one molecules of 14CO2 by photosynthesis will yield
(A) One molecule of 14C-phosphoglyceric acid
(B) Two molecule of 14C-phosphoglyceric acid
(C) Three molecule of 14C-acetate
(D) One molecule of 14C-glucose
24. Pick out from the following the mammalian stress hormone
(A) Glucocorticosteriods ����������(B) Estrogen ����(C)
Growth hormone ���(D) Relaxin
25. Solar tracking is exhibited by
(A) Helianthus annuus (B) Arabidopsis thaliana (C) Mimosa pudica (D) Xanthium
strumarium ����
26. Which of the following compounds have been reported to accumulate in a plant in large
amounts as a result of water stress?
(A) Aspartic acid ���������������������(B)
Proline �������(C) Citric acid �������������(D)
Indoleacetic acid ���������������
27. Inhibition of photosynthesis by oxygen is called as
(A) Emerson effect ������(B) Warburg effect ������(C) Pasteur
effect ��������(D) Red drop phenomenon
28. Tetrodoxin is used as a�����
(A) K channel blocker�(B) Na channel broker (C) Ca channel broker
29. 1-amino-cyclopropane-1-carboxylic acid is the precursor of
(A) Auxin ��������������������(B) Gibberellin
�(C) Ethylene ����������������(D)
Abscisic acid
30. Cytoplasmic male sterility in maize is due to
(A) Absence of mitochondrial genome
(B) Absence of plastid genome
(C) Deletions in plastid genome
(D) Alteration(s) in the mitochondrial genome
31. In a typical Mendelian population, individuals carrying gene �a� in homozygous
condition suffer from phenylketonurea. Those with A in homozygous condition are
normal. Others, who are heterozygotic with Aa, are carriers. If the frequency of �a� in
a population is 0.005 what is the percentage of carriers in the population?
(A) 10.0 ����������������������(B) 1.0
������������������������(C)
0.1 ������������������������(D)
90.0
32. The rate of occurrence, per generation, of spontaneous mutations in all living organisms
is
(A) 10-2 to 10-4 (B) 10-5 to 10-7 ������������(C) 10-10 to 10-15
���������(D) 10-20 to 10-30
33. Chromatid-type breaks occur during the cell cycle in the
(A) S-phase ����������������(B) G1-phase
���������������(C) G2-phase
���������������(D) Mitosis
34. After digestion of chromatin for a short time with micrococcal nuclease, DNA fragments
of this size are obtained
(A) 100 base pairs �������(B) Variable length�������(C) 200
base pairs �������(D) 146 base pairs
35. Which one of the following is not true for a disease inherited as a sex-linked dominant in
humans?
(A) All daughters of an affected male will inherit the disease
(B) Sons will inherit the disease, only if their mother has the diseases
(C) Daughters will inherit the disease, only if their father has the diseases
(D) Both affected males and affected heterozygous females will pass the trait to half their
children
36. Frame shift mutations occur following
(A) Tautomeric shifts

�����������������������������������
���(B) base substitutions ���
(C) Dimer formation

�����������������������������������
����(D) Insertion/deletion of single base ������
37. Genetic element in bacteria that can replicate in the cytoplasm or can integrate into the
bacterial chromosome and replicate with the host chromosome
(A) Retrovirus �������������(B) Plasmid
�����������������(C) Episome
����������������(D) Plastome
38. Hypophosphatemia is caused by an X-linked dominant gene in humans, if a
hypophosphatemic man marries a normal woman, which of their children will have
Hypophosphatemia?
(A) All daughters ���������(B) half of their daughters
���������(C) All of the sons �������(D) half of their
sons
39. The most common cause of the pleiotropic effect of gene is due to
(A) The same product of the given gene being involved in different metabolic pathways
(B) The gene making very different products in different cell types
(C) The DNA sequence of the gene getting changed in cell specific manner
(D) The gene not functioning in some cells
40. Life is believed to have originated on earth
(A) 3.6 billion years ago

�����������������������������������
(B) 3.6 million years ago
(C) 4.5 billion years ago

�����������������������������������
(D) 4.5 million years ago
���������������������
41. The evolutionary divergence of higher taxonomic groups is due to
(A) Adaptive radiations (B) Anagenesis (C) Cladogenesis
���������(D) Stasigenesis �����������
42. Molecular drive, which is associated with the origin of biological discontinuities, is the
consequence of
(A) Unequal crossing over, gene conversion and DNA transposition
(B) Environmental control of gene expression
(C) Selection
(D) DNA methylation
43. The process that led to the evolution of the common bread wheat from its progenitors is
(A) Triploidy ���������������(B) Aneuploidy (C)
Introgression ���������
(D) Hybridization followed by doubling of the chromosomes ����
44. The hypothesis of Oparin and Haldane regarding origin of life is called as
(A) Autotroph hypothesis

���������������������������������(B)
Heterotroph hypothesis ������
(C) Chemotroph hypothesis
�����������������������������(D)
biogenesis hypothesis
45. Ribosomal RNAs are better molecules for phylogenetic studies because
(A) Antiquity of protein synthesizing process, and moderately well conserved
(B) They can be easily sequenced
(C) They are present in 70 S and 80 S ribosomes
(D) None of the above
46. The chemical evolution preceding biological evolution during origin of life was initiated
through formation of
(A) Condensing agents, e.g. cyanogens (B) ATP and other triphosphates
(C) Both A and B

�����������������������������������
���������(D) Pre-biotic catalyst-like compounds
47. The evolutionary process involving long periods of stasis interrupted by short periods of
rapid speciation is called
(A) Quantum evolution�� (B) Punctual equilibria (C) Macroevolution
�����(D) Irregular modes
48. The nature of the pre-biotic environment on the earth was
(A) Reducing ��������������(B) Oxidizing
���������������(C) Nitrifying
���������������(D) Rich in ozone ��������
49. The condition which leads to a reduction� in population to only a few individuals is
called
(A) Population oscillation ���������(B) Migration ���(C) Population
crash ����(D) Bottleneck phenomenon
50. Acid rain is caused by
(A) CO and CO2 ���������(B) CO2 and O2
��������������(C) O2 and CO
�����������������������(D) SO2 and NO2
��������
51. CO2 present in the atmosphere
(A) Helps in stopping the sun radiation reaching the earth surface
(B) Works only as insulator protecting the earth from cooling
(C) Merely gives life to plants
(D) Absorbs and reradiates some of the longer-wave length infra-red radiation that
otherwise would be transmitted back into the space from the surface of the earth
52. The most productive ecosystem in the biosphere is
(A) Desert �������������������(B) Open ocean
�����������(C) Estuary
������������������(D) Tundra
53. Biodegradable plastics are made using the following bacterial compounds
(A) Proteins �����������������(B) Lipids
��������(C) Poly β-hydroxy alconates ��(D) Alkaloids
54. Population of plants within a species adapted genetically to a particular habitat but able to
cross freely with other plants of the same species is called
(A) Ecophene ��������������(B) Ecad
���������������������(C) Ecotype
����������������(D) Ecotone
55. Biotic potential of a species is
(A) Intrinsic rate of natural increase
(B) Theoretical maximum production of new individuals
(C) Difference between the intrinsic rate and the rate that occurs in an actual field
condition
(D) Instantaneous coefficient of population growth
56. Maximum stratospheric ozone concentration occurs above
(A) Equator �����������������(B) temperate latitudes
�(C) Poles ���������(D) Subtropical latitudes
57. Biological Oxygen Demand (BOD) is measure of
(A) Amount of dissolved oxygen present in a water body
(B) The rate anaerobic decomposition of organic matter
(C) The amount of dissolved oxygen required to oxidize the organic matter present in the
water by aerobic decomposers
(D) The rate of consumption of dissolved oxygen by aerobic decomposers for
decomposing the organic matter present in the water body
58. The intrinsic rate of population increase is high
(A) For a population consisting of more juveniles
(B) For a population consisting of more reproductive females
(C) For a population consisting of more reproductive males
(D) For a population consisting of more senescent individuals
59. Chronologic ordering of species is based on
(A) Electrophoretic mobility of protein
(B) Molecular weights of proteins
(C) Number of amino acids substituted in a protein molecule
(D) 2-D analysis of proteins
60. The correct sequence of taxonomic hierarchy in eukaryotes is
(A) Phylum � class � order � family � genus - species
(B) Class � order � phylum � family � genus � species
(C) Phylum � order � class � family � genus � species
(D) Phylum � family � class � order � genus - species
61. A classic example of utilization of biodiversity in green revolution is
(A) Cryopreservation of germplasm ����������������(B)
in vitro regeneration of somatic hybrids
(C) Photoperiod insensitivity
���������������������������(D) Use of
frozen gametes
62. The species replacement that occurs over very large geographic region is described as
(A) Alpha diversity ������(B) Beta diversity ���������(C)
Gamma diversity ����(D) Point diversity
63. The total number of species of living organisms on the earth is of the order of
(A) 0.01 million �����������(B) 1 million
�����������������(C) 10 million
��������������(D) 1 billion
64. Populations that are morphologically similar but do not interbreed for physiological or
behavioral reasons are grouped as
(A) Races ��������������������(B) Varieties
����������������(C) Sub-species
����������(D) Sibling species
65. Which is the hot-spot for biodiversity in India?
(A) Western ghats �������(B) Eastern ghats ���������(C)
Central ghats ���������(D) Upper Gangetic ghats
66. When all the original material collected by the author who described a new species, is
lost, the specimen designated to serve as nomenclatural type is
(A) Neotype ����������������(B) Lecotype
���������������(C) Isotype
������������������(D) Holotype
67. In a stable ecosystem the food chain mostly contains
(A) Three to five links ��(B) Two links
��������������(C) Six links
����������������(D) Seven links
68. A predation series linking animals to ultimate plant food is called
(A) Food web �������������(B) Tropic level
����������(C) Food cycle
������������(D) Food chain

Simplified Diagram of Cellular Metabolism


Copyright 2004 by Alberts, Bray, Johnson, Lewis, Raff, Roberts, Walter.
Garland Publishing: Taylor Francis Group.
The three stages of cellular metabolism lead from food to waste products in animal cells. This series of reactions
produces ATP, which is then used to drive biosynthetic reactions and other energy-requiring processes in the cell.
Stage 1 mostly occurs outside cells––although special organelles called lysosomes can digest large molecules in the
cell interior. Stage 2 occurs mainly in the cytosol, except for the final step of conversion of pyruvate to acetyl groups on
acetyl CoA, which occurs in mitochondria. Stage 3 occurs in mitochondria.
Hammerling's Acetabularia

Legend:

Hammerling's experiment with the single celled green algae, Acetabularia, showed that the
nucleus of a cell contains the genetic information that directs cellular development.
A. mediterranea has a smooth, disc shaped cap, while A. crenulata has a branched, flower-like
cap. Each Acetabularia cell is composed of three segments: the "foot" or base which contains the
nucleus, the "stalk," and the "cap."

In his experiments, Hammerling grafted the stalk of one species of Acetabularia onto the foot of
another species. In all cases, the cap that eventually developed on the grafted cell matched the
species of the foot rather than that of the stalk. In this example, the cap that is allowed to grow on
the grafted stalk looks like the base species one... A. mediterranea.
This experiment shows that the base is responsible for the type of cap that grows. The nucleus
that contains genetic information is in the base, so the nucleus directs cellular development.
Hammerling's Acetabularia From: Peters, Pamela. "Biotechnology: A Guide to Genetic
Engineering." Dubuque, IA: William C. Brown Publishers, 1993.

The Central Dogma of Molecular Biology

Legend:
Transcription of DNA to RNA to protein: This dogma forms the backbone of molecular biology
and is represented by four major stages.
1. The DNA replicates its information in a process that involves many enzymes: replication.
2. The DNA codes for the production of messenger RNA (mRNA) during transcription.
3. In eucaryotic cells, the mRNA is processed (essentially by splicing) and migrates from the
nucleus to the cytoplasm.
4. Messenger RNA carries coded information to ribosomes. The ribosomes "read" this
information and use it for protein synthesis. This process is called translation.
Proteins do not code for the production of protein, RNA or DNA.
They are involved in almost all biological activities, structural or enzymatic.

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