Ccna3 Lec1 9 PDF

CCNA 3 Scaling Networks Chapter 1 v5.
0 Exam
Answers 2014

1
What are two benefits of extending access layer connectivity to users through a
wireless medium? (Choose two.)
increased network management options
reduced costs*
increased flexibility*
increased bandwidth availability
decreased number of critical points of failure
2
A network engineer is reviewing a network design that uses a fixed
configuration enterprise router that supports both LAN and WAN connections.
However, the engineer realizes that the router does not have enough interfaces
to support growth and network expansion. Which type of device should be used
as a replacement?
a PoE device
another fixed configuration router
a modular router*
a Layer 3 switch
3
What are two functions of a router? (Choose two.)
It controls the flow of data via the use of Layer 2 addresses.
It increases the size of the broadcast domain.
It manages the VLAN database.
It determines the best path to send packets.*
It connects multiple IP networks.*
4
Which design feature will limit the size of a failure domain in an enterprise
network?
the purchase of enterprise equipment that is designed for large traffic volume
the installation of redundant power supplies
the use of the building switch block approach*
the use of a collapsed core design
5
How can an enterprise network be designed to optimize bandwidth?
by installing devices with failover capabilities
by deploying a collapsed core model
by organizing the network to control traffic patterns*
by limiting the size of failure domains
6
As the network administrator you have been asked to implement EtherChannel
on the corporate network. What does this configuration consist of?
grouping multiple physical ports to increase bandwidth between two switches*
providing redundant links that dynamically block or forward traffic
grouping two devices to share a virtual IP address
providing redundant devices to allow traffic to flow in the event of device failure
7
Which technology is required when switched networks are designed to include
redundant links?
Spanning Tree Protocol*
virtual LANs
link aggregation
virtual private networks
8
Which statement describes a characteristic of Cisco Catalyst 2960 switches?
New Cisco Catalyst 2960-C switches support PoE pass-through.*
They are best used as distribution layer switches.
They do not support an active switched virtual interface (SVI) with IOS versions prior to
15.x.
They are modular switches.
9

Refer to the exhibit. Which devices exist in the failure domain when switch S3
loses power?
PC_3 and PC_2
AP_2 and AP_1
S4 and PC_2
PC_3 and AP_2*
S1 and S4
10
Immediately after a router completes its boot sequence, the network
administrator wants to check the routers configuration. From privileged EXEC
mode, which of the following commands can the administrator use for this
purpose? (Choose two.)
show flash
show startup-config*
show NVRAM
show version
show running-config*
11
A network administrator is planning redundant devices and cabling in a
switched network to support high availability. Which benefit will implementing
the Spanning Tree Protocol provide to this design?
Redundant paths can be available without causing logical Layer 2 loops.*
Multiple physical interfaces can be combined into a single EtherChannel interface.
Faster convergence is available for advanced routing protocols.
Network access can be expanded to support both wired and wireless devices.
12
Which two requirements must always be met to use in-band management to
configure a network device? (Choose two.)
at least one network interface that is connected and operational*
a terminal emulation client
a direct connection to the console port
a direct connection to the auxiliary port
Telnet, SSH, or HTTP access to the device*
13

Place the options in the following order:
connectivity
- not scored -
identification
access remote networks
security
14
In which situation would a network administrator install a Cisco Nexus Series or
Cisco Catalyst 6500 Series switch to promote infrastructure scalability?
on a service provider network to promote integrated security, and simplified
management
on a data center network to provide expansion and transport flexibility*
to enable virtual stacking of switches to provide cloud-managed access
on a campus LAN network as access layer switches
15
Which statement describes a characteristic of Cisco Meraki switches?
They are service provider switches that aggregate traffic at the edge of the network.
They are cloud-managed access switches that enable virtual stacking of
switches.*
They are campus LAN switches that perform the same functions as Cisco 2960
switches.
They promote infrastructure scalability, operational continuity, and transport flexibility.
16
Why would a network administrator issue the show cdp neigbors command on a
router?
to display router ID and other information about OSPF neighbors
to display device ID and other information about directly connected Cisco
devices*
to display routing table and other information about directly connected Cisco devices
to display line status and other information about directly connected Cisco devices
17
What is a characteristic of in-band device management?
It is used to monitor and make configuration changes to a network device over a
network connection.*
It uses a direct connection to a console or AUX port.
It is used for initial configuration or when a network connection is unavailable.
It uses a terminal emulation client.
18
Which two features of enterprise class equipment assists an enterprise network
in maintaining 99.999 percent up-time? (Choose two.)
failure domains
services module
collapsed core
redundant power supplies*
failover capabilities*

CCNA 3 Scaling Networks Chapter 2 v5.0 Exam
Answers 2014

1
Which protocol provides up to 16 instances of RSTP, combines many VLANs
with the same physical and logical topology into a common RSTP instance, and
provides support for PortFast, BPDU guard, BPDU filter, root guard, and loop
guard?
STP
Rapid PVST+
PVST+
MST*
2
Which two types of spanning tree protocols can cause suboptimal traffic flows
because they assume only one spanning-tree instance for the entire bridged
network? (Choose two.)
STP*
RSTP*
MSTP
Rapid PVST+
PVST+
3

Refer to the exhibit. Which protocol information is being displayed in the
output?
HSRP
VRRP
GLBP*
FHRP
4
A network administrator is preparing the implementation of Rapid PVST+ on a
production network. How are the Rapid PVST+ link types determined on the
switch interfaces?
Link types can only be configured on access ports configured with a single VLAN.
Link types must be configured with specific port configuration commands.
Link types are determined automatically.*
Link types can only be determined if PortFast has been configured.
5
Which RSTP ports are connected to end devices?
root ports
designated ports
trunk ports
edge ports*
6
If no bridge priority is configured in PVST, which criteria is considered when
electing the root bridge?
highest IP address
lowest MAC address*
lowest IP address
highest MAC address
7
Which port state will switch ports immediately transition to when configured for
PortFast?
learning
blocking
forwarding*
listening
8
To obtain an overview of the spanning tree status of a switched network, a
network engineer issues the show spanning-tree command on a switch. Which
two items of information will this command display? (Choose two.)
The role of the ports in all VLANs.*
The IP address of the management VLAN interface.
The number of broadcasts received on each root port.
The status of native VLAN ports.
The root bridge BID.*
9

Launch PT Hide and Save PT
Open the PT Activity. Perform the tasks in the activity instructions and then
answer the question.
Which switch is the root bridge?
Switch_1
Switch_2
Switch_4*
Switch_3
10
Fill in the blank. Do not use abbreviations.
The spanning-tree mode rapid-pvst global configuration command is used to
enable Rapid PVST+.
11
Which STP priority configuration would ensure that a switch would always be
the root switch?
spanning-tree vlan 10 root primary
spanning-tree vlan 10 priority 4096
spanning-tree vlan 10 priority 0*
spanning-tree vlan 10 priority 61440
12
Which nonproprietary protocol provides router redundancy for a group of
routers which support IPv4 LANs?
VRRPv2*
SLB
GLBP
HSRP
13
Fill in the blank.
In FHRP operation, two or more routers are represented as a single virtual router.
14
Which three components are combined to form a bridge ID?
extended system ID*
MAC address*
port ID
IP address
cost
bridge priority*
15
What is a characteristic of a Layer 2 loop?
A switch is continually forwarding the same unicast frame.
Broadcast frames are forwarded back to the sending switch.*
Routers continually forward packets to other routers.
The Time-to-Live attribute of a frame is set to infinity.
16
Which two network design features require Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) to
ensure correct network operation? (Choose two.)
redundant links between Layer 2 switches*
removing single points of failure with multiple Layer 2 switches*
link-state dynamic routing that provides redundant routes
static default routes
implementing VLANs to contain broadcasts
17
What additional information is contained in the 12-bit extended system ID of a
BPDU?
MAC address
VLAN ID*
port ID
IP address
18
What is an advantage of PVST+?
PVST+ optimizes performance on the network through load sharing.*
PVST+ requires fewer CPU cycles for all the switches in the network.
PVST+ reduces bandwidth consumption compared to traditional implementations of
STP that use CST.
PVST+ optimizes performance on the network through autoselection of the root bridge.
19
What is the purpose of HSRP?
It prevents malicious hosts from connecting to trunk ports.
It enables an access port to immediately transition to the forwarding state.
It prevents a rogue switch from becoming the STP root.
It provides a continuous network connection when a router fails.*
20
In which two port states does a switch learn MAC addresses and process
BPDUs in a PVST network? (Choose two.)
listening
learning*
forwarding*
disabled
blocking
21

Step 4
not scored
Step 3
Step 1
Step 2
22

Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer is troubleshooting host connectivity on
a LAN that uses a first hop redundancy protocol. Which IPv4 gateway address
should be configured on the host?
192.168.2.0
192.168.2.1
192.168.2.2
192.168.2.100*
23
What is the outcome of a Layer 2 broadcast storm?
CSMA/CD will cause each host to continue transmitting frames.
ARP broadcast requests are returned to the transmitting host.
Routers will take over the forwarding of frames as switches become congested.
New traffic is discarded by the switch because it is unable to be processed.*

Answers 2014

1
When a range of ports is being configured for EtherChannel, which mode will
configure LACP so that it initiates the EtherChannel negotiation?
desirable
auto
active*
passive
2

This command shows information about the status of the port involved in the
Etherchannel.
not scored -
This command shows information about the reliability of the port-channel.
This command is used to check what port channels are configured on a switch.
This command shows the list of ports involved in the port channel and the time
since the ports were bundled.
3
What is an advantage of using LACP?
decreases the chance of a spanning-tree loop
provides a simulated environment for testing link aggregation
allows automatic formation of EtherChannel links*
decreases the amount of configuration that is needed on a switch for EtherChannel
increases redundancy to Layer 3 devices
4
Which command will initiate EtherChannel interface configuration mode?
interface port-channel interface-identifier*
interface interface-identifier
interface range interface-identifier
channel-group group-identifier
5

What are two reasons why the ping messages that are issued from Laptop0
towards Laptop1 are failing? (Choose two.)
The wrong cable types are connecting the two switches.
The channel group mode is not set correctly on the switches.
The interface VLAN 1 is shut down on both switches.
The channel group should be configured as a trunk on each switch.*
The two interfaces on each of the switches belong to different VLANs.*
6
Which three options must match in order to establish an EtherChannel between
two directly connected switches? (Choose three.)
speed of the interfaces that are used for EtherChannel*
port numbers that are used for the EtherChannel
VLAN memberships of the interfaces that are used for EtherChannel*
duplex settings of the interfaces that are used for EtherChannel*
port security settings on the interfaces that used for EtherChannel
domain names on the switches
7

Refer to the exhibit. Which switching technology would allow each access layer
switch link to be aggregated to provide more bandwidth between each Layer 2
switch and the Layer 3 switch?
trunking
EtherChannel*
HSRP
PortFast
8
Which statement is true regarding the use of PAgP to create EtherChannels?
It requires more physical links than LACP does.
It mandates that an even number of ports (2, 4, 6, etc.) be used for aggregation.
It is Cisco proprietary.*
It increases the number of ports that are participating in spanning tree.
It requires full duplex.
9
Which PAgP mode combination will establish an EtherChannel?
switch 1 set to desirable; switch 2 set to desirable.*
switch 1 set to on; switch 2 set to desirable.
switch 1 set to auto; switch 2 set to auto.
switch 1 set to auto; switch 2 set to on.
10
What is a best practice to use before beginning an EtherChannel
implementation?
Shut down each of the affected interfaces.*
Assign affected interfaces to VLAN 1.
Assign affected interfaces to the management VLAN.
Enable each of the affected interfaces.
Assign affected interfaces to an unused VLAN.
11
Which two protocols are link aggregation protocols? (Choose two.)
STP
802.3ad*
EtherChannel
RSTP
PAgP*
12

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has decided that an EtherChannel
between ports 0/1 and 0/2 on switches S1 and S2 would help performance. After
making the configuration, the administrator notices no performance gain. Based
on the output that is shown, what two possible assumptions could a network
administrator make? (Choose two.)
The EtherChannel bundle is working.
One of the ports on S2 was not configured correctly.*
Switch S2 must be configured so that the maximum number of port channels is
increased.
LACP and PAgP were both used to form the EtherChannel.
Switch S2 did not use a compatible EtherChannel mode.
The EtherChannel bundle is not working.*
13
Which statement describes an EtherChannel implementation?
EtherChannel can connect up to a maximum of eight separate links.
EtherChannel operates only at Layer 2.
PAgP cannot be used in conjunction with EtherChannel.
A trunked port can be part of an EtherChannel bundle.*
14
When a range of ports is being configured for EtherChannel by the use of PAgP,
which mode will form the bundled channel only if the port receives PAgP
packets from another device?
active
desirable
auto*
passive
15
As the network administrator you have been asked to implement EtherChannel
on the corporate network. What does this configuration consist of?
grouping multiple physical ports to increase bandwidth between two switches*
grouping two devices to share a virtual IP address
providing redundant devices to allow traffic to flow in the event of device failure
providing redundant links that dynamically block or forward traffic
16

Refer to the exhibit. The administrator tried to create an EtherChannel between
S1 and the other two switches via the commands that are shown, but was
unsuccessful. What is the problem?
Traffic cannot be sent to two different switches through the same EtherChannel
link.*
Traffic can only be sent to two different switches if EtherChannel is implemented on
Gigabit Ethernet interfaces.
Traffic can only be sent to two different switches if EtherChannel is implemented on
Layer 3 switches.
Traffic cannot be sent to two different switches, but only to two different devices like an
EtherChannel-enabled server and a switch.
17
An EtherChannel link using LACP was formed between two switches, S1 and S2.
While verifying the configuration, which mode combination could be utilized on
both switches?
S1-on and S2-active
S1-passive and S2-active*
S1-passive and S2-passive
S1-on and S2-passive
18
What is the most cost-effective method of solving interface congestion that is
caused by a high level of traffic between two switches?
aggregate ports by using EtherChannel*
insert a router between the switches
increase uplink speed
add more VLANs to reduce broadcast domains
19

Refer to the exhibit. An EtherChannel was configured between switches S1 and
S2, but the interfaces do not form an EtherChannel. What is the problem?
The interface port-channel number has to be different on each switch.
The switch ports were not configured with speed and duplex mode.
The EtherChannel was not configured with the same allowed range of VLANs on
each interface.*
The switch ports have to be configured as access ports with each port having a VLAN
assigned.
20
Which two load balancing methods can be implemented with EtherChannel
technology? (Choose two.)
destination IP to source IP
destination MAC to destination IP
source IP to destination IP*
source MAC to destination MAC*
destination IP to destination MAC
destination MAC to source MAC

Answers 2014

1

What is the SSID of the connected network and which message is displayed in
the browser window?
SSID: Home-Network
Message: Well done!
SSID: Home-Network
Message: Good job!
SSID: Home-Net
Message:Congratulations! You did it!
SSID: Home-Net
Message:Congratulations! You were able to connect it! *
2
A administrator wishes to extend the range of the existing IEEE 802.11n network
without changing the AP. What can the administrator do to accomplish this?
Change to WPA2 authentication.
Deploy a Wi-Fi Range Extender.*
Split the wireless traffic between the 802.11n 2.4 GHz band and the 5 GHz band.
Upgrade the firmware on the AP.
3
Which security mode is the least secure choice when a home wireless router is
configured?
WPA
WEP*
WPA2-Personal
WPA2
4
Which two roles are typically performed by a wireless router that is used in a
home or small business? (Choose two.)
RADIUS authentication server
repeater
access point*
WLAN controller
Ethernet switch*
5
Which organization certifies vendors for adherence to the 802.11 standards to
improve interoperability of 802.11 products?
IEEE
FCC
ITU-R
Wi-Fi Alliance*
6
Which feature of 802.11n wireless access points allows them to transmit data at
faster speeds than previous versions of 802.11 Wi-Fi standards did?
MITM
SPS
MIMO*
WPS
7
Which type of wireless topology is created when two or more Basic Service Sets
are interconnected by Ethernet?
ESS*
BSS
IBISS
ad hoc WLAN
WiFi Direct
8
If three 802.11b access points need to be deployed in close proximity, which
three frequency channels should be used? (Choose three.)
1*
3
5
6*
8
11*
9
What type of wireless antenna is best suited for providing coverage in large
open spaces, such as hallways or large conference rooms?
Yagi
omnidirectional*
directional
dish
10
Which three Wi-Fi standards operate in the 2.4GHz range of frequencies?
(Choose three.)
802.11b*
802.11n*
802.11ac
802.11a
802.11g*
11
What is the purpose of the Distributed Coordination Function in an IEEE 802.11
WLAN environment?
It is used to send data over a half-duplex connection.
It is used in a full-duplex environment to detect collisions.
It allows a client to detect whether or not a channel is clear prior to
transmission.*
It allows the client to change transmission channels.
12
An employee connects wirelessly to the company network using a cell phone.
The employee then configures the cell phone to act as a wireless access point
that will allow new employees to connect to the company network. Which type of
security threat best describes this situation?
rogue access point*
spoofing
cracking
denial of service
13
During which stage of establishing connectivity between a WLAN client and an
AP does the client learn the MAC address of the AP?
encryption
authentication
discovery
association*
probing
14
Ad hoc wireless topologies sometimes can use a feature called tethering to
enable a smartphone to create a personal hotspot.
15
What is an advantage of SSID cloaking?
It is the best way to secure a wireless network.
Clients will have to manually identify the SSID to connect to the network.*
SSIDs are very difficult to discover because APs do not broadcast them.
It provides free Internet access in public locations where knowing the SSID is of no
concern.
16
A student uses a laptop to upload an assignment to a file server. Which wireless
frame type did the laptop send to locate and associate with the campus access
point?
data frame
beacon frame
management frame*
control frame
17
Which type of management frame may regularly be broadcast by an AP?
authentication
beacon*
probe response
probe request
18
A company has recently implemented an 802.11n wireless network. Some users
are complaining that the wireless network is too slow. Which solution is the best
method to enhance the performance of the wireless network?
Disable DHCP on the access point and assign static addresses to the wireless clients.
Replace the wireless NICs on the computers that are experiencing slow connections.
Split the traffic between the 2.4 GHz and 5 GHz frequency bands.*
Upgrade the firmware on the wireless access point.
19
For which discovery mode will an AP generate the most traffic on a WLAN?
open mode
passive mode*
active mode
mixed mode
20
Which statement defines the control frame operation between two stations?
After receiving a data frame, the receiving station will send an ACK frame to the
sending station if no errors are found.*
A station responds to an RTS frame with an ACK frame, thus providing permission for
the requesting station to send a data frame.
If the sending station does not receive an ACK frame within a predetermined period of
time, the sending station will drop the connection.
A station sends an RTS frame as the first step in a three-way handshake that is
required before sending data frames.
21
What is a difference between Cisco APs that operate in a home environment and
Cisco APs that operate in a corporate environment?
Some corporate AP models can operate in either autonomous mode or
controller-based mode.*
Controller-based APs are used in the corporate environment, and they are server-
dependent devices that require an initial configuration to operate.
Autonomous APs are used only in the home environment, and they incorporate the
functions of a router, switch, and AP into one device.
Cisco corporate APs do not support PoE.
22

not scored
MITM
spoofed disconnct DoS
CTS flood DoS
23

not scored
Step 2
Step 5
Step 1
Step 3
not scored
Step 4

Answers 2014

1
A network administrator has just changed the router ID on a router that is
working in an OSPFv2 environment. What should the administrator do to reset
the adjacencies and use the new router ID?
Issue the clear ip ospf process privileged mode command.*
Configure the network statements.
Change the OSPFv2 process ID.
Change the interface priority.
2

Refer to the exhibit. What three conclusions can be drawn from the displayed
output? (Choose three.)
The DR can be reached through the GigabitEthernet 0/0 interface.*
There have been 9 seconds since the last hello packet sent.*
The router ID on the DR router is 3.3.3.3
The BDR has three neighbors.
The router ID values were not the criteria used to select the DR and the BDR.*
This interface is using the default priority.
3
When checking a routing table, a network technician notices the following entry:
O*E2 0.0.0.0/0 [110/1] via 192.168.16.3, 00:20:22, Serial0/0/0
What information can be gathered from this output?
This route is a propagated default route.*
The edge of the OSPF area 0 is the interface that is addressed 192.168.16.3.
The route is located two hops away.
The metric for this route is 110.
4
Which command will a network engineer issue to verify the configured hello and
dead timer intervals on a point-to-point WAN link between two routers that are
running OSPFv2?
show ipv6 ospf interface serial 0/0/0
show ip ospf neighbor
show ip ospf interface serial 0/0/0*
show ip ospf interface fastethernet 0/1
5
A network engineer has manually configured the hello interval to 15 seconds on
an interface of a router that is running OSPFv2. By default, how will the dead
interval on the interface be affected?
The dead interval will not change from the default value.
The dead interval will now be 30 seconds.
The dead interval will now be 15 seconds.
The dead interval will now be 60 seconds.*
6

Refer to the exhibit. An administrator is trying to configure R1 to run OSPFv3
but the neighbor adjacency is not forming with the router connected to Fa0/0.
What is the cause of the problem?
FastEthernet0/0 has been configured as a passive interface.
No router ID has been configured.*
A link-local address has not been configured on interface FastEthernet0/0.
The OSPF process ID and area values are backwards in the interface configuration.
7

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has configured the OSPF timers to
the values that are shown in the graphic. What is the result of having those
manually configured timers?
The R1 dead timer expires between hello packets from R2.*
The neighbor adjacency has formed.
R1 automatically adjusts its own timers to match the R2 timers.
The hello timer on R2 expires every ten seconds.
8
When OSPFv2 neighbors are establishing adjacencies, in which state do they
elect a DR and BDR router?
Two-Way state*
Loading state
Init state
Exchange state
9

Refer to the exhibit. R1 and R2 are connected to the same LAN segment and are
configured to run OSPFv3. They are not forming a neighbor adjacency. What is
the cause of the problem?
The OSPFv3 process IDs of R1 and R2 are different.
The priority value of both R1 and R2 is 1.
The timer intervals of R1 and R2 do not match.*
The IPv6 addresses of R1 and R2 are not in the same subnet.
10

Refer to the exhibit. What kind of OSPF authentication has been configured on
this interface?
null
simple
MD5*
plain text
11
Why is MD5 authentication more secure than simple authentication for OSPF
updates?
MD5 does not send the password to the neighbor router.*
MD5 requires passwords that are at least 8 characters long.
MD5 uses both a username and a password to authenticate the neighbor.
MD5 employs IPsec to keep the updates from being intercepted.
12
Which two pieces of information are used by the OSPF MD5 algorithm to
generate a signature? (Choose two.)
OSPF router ID
secret key*
router hostname
interface IP address
OSPF message*
13
A network engineer is troubleshooting convergence and adjacency issues in an
OSPFv2 network and has noted that some expected network route entries are
not displayed in the routing table. Which two commands will provide additional
information about the state of router adjacencies, timer intervals, and the area
ID? (Choose two.)
show running-configuration
show ip ospf neighbor*
show ip ospf interface*
show ip route ospf
show ip protocols
14
Why do OSPF serial interfaces usually require manual bandwidth configuration?
OSPF uses the bandwidth value to compute routes for its routing table.*
All serial interfaces default to a value of 1.544 Mb/s.
Each side of an OSPF serial link should be configured with a unique value.
Bandwidth value affects the actual speed of the link.
15
A network engineer is troubleshooting an OSPFv2 network and discovers that
two routers connected by a point-to-point WAN serial link are not establishing
an adjacency. The OSPF routing process, network commands and area ID are all
confirmed as correct, and the interfaces are not passive. Testing shows that the
cabling is correct, that the link is up, and pings between the interfaces are
successful. What is most likely the problem?
A clock rate has not been set on the DCE interface of the serial link.
The OSPFv2 process IDs on each router do not match.
A DR election has not taken place.
The subnet masks on the two connected serial interfaces do not match.*
16
A network engineer is troubleshooting OSPFv2 routing issues on two connected
routers. Which two requirements to form an adjacency need to be verified?
(Choose two.)
Verify that the interfaces that connect the two routers are in the same area.*
Verify that one of the routers is the DR or BDR and the other router a DRother.
Verify that one of the interfaces that connects the two routers is active and the other
passive.
Verify that the interfaces that connect the two routers are in the same subnet.*
Verify that both routers are using the same OSPFv2 process ID.
17
Which command is used to verify that OSPF is enabled and also provides a list
of the networks that are being advertised by the network?
show ip protocols*
show ip ospf interface
show ip interface brief
show ip route ospf
18

Refer to the exhibit. Four routers are connected to an Ethernet LAN segment and
are configured to run OSPFv3. However, none of the routers are receiving
routing updates. What is the cause of the problem?
The routers are using IPv6 link local addresses to communicate.
The network type has been set to BROADCAST instead of NBMA.
The routers are using IPv4 addresses for router IDs.
All of the routers have an OSPFv3 interface priority of 0.*
19

Refer to the exhibit. These two routers are configured to run OSPFv3 but they
are not forming a neighbor adjacency. What is the cause of the problem?
The routers do not have global IPv6 addresses that are configured on the Fa0/0
interfaces.
The routers have both been elected as the DR.
The routers are configured with the same router ID.*
The routers have the same priority.
20
A network engineer suspects that OSPFv3 routers are not forming neighbor
adjacencies because there are interface timer mismatches. Which two
commands can be issued on the interface of each OSFPv3 router to resolve all
timer mismatches? (Choose two.)
no ipv6 ospf dead-interval*
no ipv6 router ospf 10
ip ospf dead-interval 40
no ipv6 ospf hello-interval*
no ipv6 ospf cost 10
ip ospf hello-interval 10
21

Refer to the exhibit. Fill in the blank. Do not use abbreviations.
The command show ipv6 route can be issued on router R2 to verify the
propagation of a static default route from R1 to R2.
22
When IPv4 and OSPFv2 are being used, the command show ip ospf neighbor is
used to verify that a router has formed an adjacency with its neighboring routers.
23

- not scored -
full state
loading state
ExStart state
24

[+] third
[+] second
not scored
[+] first
[+] fourth

Answers 2014

1
The network administrator has been asked to summarize the routes for a new
OSPF area. The networks to be summarized are 172.16.8.0, 172.16.10.0, and
172.16.12.0 with subnet masks of 255.255.255.0 for each network. Which
command should the administrator use to forward the summary route for area
15 into area 0?
area 15 range 172.16.8.0 255.255.255.248
area 0 range 172.16.8.0 255.255.248.0
area 0 range 172.16.8.0 255.255.255.248
area 15 range 172.16.8.0 255.255.248.0*
2
Fill in the blank.
The backbone area interconnects with all other OSPF area types.
3

backbone router
not scored
internal router
Autonomous System Boundary Router
Area Border Router
4
Fill in the blank. Do not use acronyms.
OSPF type 2 LSA messages are only generated by the DR router to advertise
routes in multiaccess networks.
5
What is one advantage of using multiarea OSPF?
It improves the routing efficiency by reducing the routing table and link-state
update overhead.*
It enables multiple routing protocols to be running in a large network.
It increases the routing performance by dividing the neighbor table into separate
smaller ones.
It allows OSPFv2 and OSPFv3 to be running together.
6
A network administrator is verifying a multi-area OSPF configuration by
checking the routing table on a router in area 1. The administrator notices a
route to a network that is connected to a router in area 2. Which code appears in
front of this route in the routing table within area 1?
O IA*
O
C
O E2
7

Refer to the exhibit. What can be concluded about network 192.168.4.0 in the R2
routing table?
This network should be used to forward traffic toward external networks.
The network was learned from a router within the same area as R2.*
The network was learned through summary LSAs from an ABR.
The network can be reached through the GigabitEthernet0/0 interface.
8
An ABR in a multiarea OSPF network receives LSAs from its neighbor that
identify the neighbor as an ASBR with learned external networks from the
Internet. Which LSA type would the ABR send to other areas to identify the
ASBR, so that internal traffic that is destined for the Internet will be sent through
the ASBR?
LSA type 1
LSA type 2
LSA type 3
LSA type 4*
LSA type 5
9
Which three steps in the design and implementation of a multiarea OSPF
network are considered planning steps? (Choose three.)
Configure OSPF.
Define the OSPF parameters.*
Troubleshoot the configurations.
Gather the required parameters.*
Define the network requirements.*
Verify OSPF.
10
Fill in the blank. Use a number.
An ASBR generates type 5 LSAs for each of its external routes and floods them into
the area that it is connected to.
11

Refer to the exhibit. What is indicated by the O IA in the router output?
The route was learned from within the area.
The route was learned from outside the internetwork.
The route was manually configured.
The route was learned from another area.*
12
Which command can be used to verify the contents of the LSDB in an OSPF
area?
show ip route ospf
show ip ospf database*
show ip ospf interface
show ip ospf neighbor
13
Which statement describes a multiarea OSPF network?
It has a core backbone area with other areas connected to the backbone area.*
It has multiple routers that run multiple routing protocols simultaneously, and each
protocol consists of an area.
It consists of multiple network areas that are daisy-chained together.
It requires a three-layer hierarchical network design approach.
14
Which characteristic describes both ABRs and ASBRs that are implemented in a
multiarea OSPF network?
They usually have many local networks attached.
They both run multiple routing protocols simultaneously.
They are required to perform any summarization or redistribution tasks.*
They are required to reload frequently and quickly in order to update the LSDB.
15
Where can interarea route summarization be performed in an OSPF network?
ABR*
any router
DR
ASBR
16

Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are correct? (Choose two.)
The entry for 172.16.200.1 represents a loopback interface.
To reach network 172.16.2.0, traffic will travel through the GigabitEthernet0/0
interface.
To reach network 192.168.1.0, traffic will exit via the Serial0/0/0 interface.*
The routing table contains routes from multiple areas.*
The routing table contains two intra-area routes.
17

What is preventing users who are connected to router R2 from accessing
resources located either within the network 192.168.1.0 or the internet?
The router R2 is not receiving any updates from either router R1 or R3.*
The default route is not redistributed correctly from the router R1 by OSPF.
The OSPF timers that are configured on routers R1, R2, and R3 are not compatible.
The interface that is connected to the ISP is down.
The OSPF network statements are misconfigured on one of the routers.
18
Which two statements correctly describe OSPF type 3 LSAs? (Choose two.)
Type 3 LSAs are used to update routes between OSPF areas.*
Type 3 LSAs are known as router link entries.
Type 3 LSAs are used for routes to networks outside the OSPF autonomous system.
Type 3 LSAs are known as autonomous system external LSA entries.
Type 3 LSAs are generated without requiring a full SPF calculation.*
19
A network administrator is implementing OSPF in a portion of the network and
must ensure that only specific routes are advertised via OSPF. Which network
statement would configure the OSPF process for networks 192.168.4.0,
192.168.5.0, 192.168.6.0, and 192.168.7.0, now located in the backbone area, and
inject them into the OSPF domain?
r1(config-router)# network 192.168.0.0 0.0.0.255 area 1
r1(config-router)# network 192.168.4.0 0.0.3.255 area 0*
20
Which two networks are part of the summary route 192.168.32.0/22? (Choose
two.)
192.168.35.0/24*
192.168.36.0/24
192.168.33.0/24*
192.168.31.0/24
192.168.37.0/24
192.168.38.0/24
21

Refer to the exhibit. Fill in the blank. Do not use abbreviations.
The network 192.168.10.128 0.0.0.127 area 1 command must be issued to
configure R1 for multiarea OSPF.

Answers 2014

1

first
not scored
third
second
2

Refer to the exhibit. Which command should be used to configure EIGRP to only
advertise the network that is attached to the gigabit Ethernet 0/1 interface?
network 172.16.23.64 0.0.0.63*
network 172.16.23.0 255.255.255.192
network 172.16.23.64 0.0.0.127
network 172.16.23.0 255.255.255.128
3
What is the purpose of using protocol-dependent modules in EIGRP?
to accommodate routing of different network layer protocols*
to identify different application layer protocols
to describe different routing processes
to use different transport protocols for different packets
4
Which statement describes a characteristic of the delivery of EIGRP update
packets?
EIGRP sends all update packets via unicast.
EIGRP uses a reliable delivery protocol to send all update packets.*
EIGRP uses UDP to send all update packets.
EIGRP sends all update packets via multicast.
5
A new network administrator has been asked to verify the metrics that are used
by EIGRP on a Cisco device. Which two EIGRP metrics are measured by using
static values on a Cisco device? (Choose two.)
bandwidth*
MTU
delay*
load
reliability
6
Which protocol is used by EIGRP to send hello packets?
RTP*
TCP
UDP
IP
7
Which destination MAC address is used when a multicast EIGRP packet is
encapsulated into an Ethernet frame?
01-00-5E-00-00-09
01-00-5E-00-00-10
01-00-5E-00-00-0A*
01-00-5E-00-00-0B
8

not scored
EIGRP for IPv4 only
both EIGRP for IPv4 and EIGRP for IPv6
EIGRP for IPv6 only
9

Refer to the exhibit. R2 has two possible paths to the 192.168.10.4 network. What
would make the alternate route meet the feasibility condition?
a reported distance greater than 41024000
a feasible distance greater than 41024000
an administrative distance less than 170
a reported distance less than 3523840*
10

Refer to the exhibit. Which two networks contain feasible successors? (Choose
two.)
192.168.51.0
10.44.101.252
10.44.104.253
10.44.100.252*
192.168.71.0*
11
If all router Ethernet interfaces in an EIGRP network are configured with the
default EIGRP timers, how long will a router wait by default to receive an EIGRP
packet from its neighbor before declaring the neighbor unreachable?
10 seconds
15 seconds*
20 seconds
30 seconds
12
Which command or commands must be entered on a serial interface of a Cisco
router to restore the bandwidth to the default value of that specific router
interface?
shutdown
no shutdown
bandwidth 1500
copy running-config startup-config
reload
no bandwidth*
13
Which EIGRP route would have the preferred administrative distance?
a summary route*
an internal route
an external route that is redistributed from RIP
an external route that is redistributed from OSPF
14
How do EIGRP routers establish and maintain neighbor relationships?
by comparing known routes to information received in updates
by exchanging routing tables with directly attached routers
by dynamically learning new routes from neighbors
by exchanging hello packets with neighboring routers*
by exchanging neighbor tables with directly attached routers
15
When an EIGRP-enabled router uses a password to accept routes from other
EIGRP-enabled routers, which mechanism is used?
EIGRP authentication*
Diffusing Update Algorithm
Reliable Transport Protocol
bounded updates
partial updates
16
What is indicated when an EIGRP route is in the passive state?
The route has the highest path cost of all routes to that destination network.
The route is a feasible successor and will be used if the active route fails.
The route is viable and can be used to forward traffic.*
There is no activity on the route to that network.
The route must be confirmed by neighboring routers before it is put in the active state.
17
Which three metric weights are set to zero by default when costs in EIGRP are
being calculated? (Choose three.)
k6
k3
k5*
k4*
k2*
k1
18
Why would a network administrator use a wildcard mask in the network
command when configuring a router to use EIGRP?
to send a manual summarization
to exclude some interfaces from the EIGRP process*
to subnet at the time of the configuration
to lower the router overhead
19
Which table is used by EIGRP to store all routes that are learned from EIGRP
neighbors?
the adjacency table
the routing table
the topology table*
the neighbor table
20
Where are EIGRP successor routes stored?
only in the routing table
in the routing table and the topology table*
only in the neighbor table
in the routing table and the neighbor table
21

Which code is displayed on the web server?
Done
Complete*
EIGRP
IPv6EIGRP
22
Which command is used to display the bandwidth of an interface on an EIGRP-
enabled router?
show ip protocols
show interfaces*
show ip route
23
Fill in the blank.
In an EIGRP topology table, a route that is in a/an active state will cause the
Diffusing Update Algorithm to send EIGRP queries that ask other routers for a path to
this network

Answers 2014

1
Which command can be issued on a router to verify that automatic
summarization is enabled?
show ip eigrp neighbors
show ip protocols*
show ip eigrp interfaces
2
Which address best summarizes the IPv6 addresses 2001:DB8:ACAD::/48,
2001:DB8:9001::/48, and 2001:DB8:8752::/49?
2001:DB8:8000::/48
2001:DB8:8000::/36
2001:DB8:8000::/47
2001:DB8:8000::/34*
3

Refer to the exhibit. Router R3 is receiving multiple routes through the EIGRP
routing protocol. Which statement is true about the implementation of
summarization in this network?
Automatic summarization has been enabled only for the 172.21.100.0/24 network.
Automatic summarization is enabled on neighboring routers.
Automatic summarization is disabled on a per-interface basis.
Automatic summarization is disabled on R3.*
4

Refer to the exhibit. Considering that R2, R3, and R4 are correctly configured,
why did R1 not establish an adjacency with R2, R3, and R4?
because the automatic summarization is enabled on R1
because the IPv4 address on Fa0/0 interface of R1 is incorrect
because the Fa0/0 interface of R1 is declared as passive for EIGRP*
because there is no network command for the network 192.168.1.0/24 on R1
5
In which IOS CLI mode must a network administrator issue the maximum-paths
command to configure load balancing in EIGRP?
router configuration mode*
interface configuration mode
global configuration mode
privileged mode
6
Two routers, R1 and R2, have established an EIGRP neighbor relationship, but
there is still a connectivity problem. Which issue could be causing this
problem?
a process ID mismatch
an authentication mismatch
an access list that is blocking advertisements from other networks*
automatic summarization that is disabled on both routers
7

Refer to the exhibit. Remote users are experiencing connectivity problems when
attempting to reach hosts in the 172.21.100.0 /24 network. Using the output in
the exhibit, what is the most likely cause of the connectivity problem?
The GigabitEthernet 0/1 interface is not participating in the EIGRP process.*
The hello timer has been modified on interface GigabitEthernet 0/1 of R3 and not on
the neighbor, causing a neighbor adjacency not to form.
The passive-interface command is preventing neighbor relationships on interface
GigabitEthernet 0/0.
The GigabitEthernet interfaces are not limiting the flow of EIGRP message information
and are being flooded with EIGRP traffic.
8
In which scenario will the use of EIGRP automatic summarization cause
inconsistent routing in a network?
when there is no common subnet that exists between neighboring routers
when the routers in an IPv4 network have mismatching EIGRP AS numbers
when there is no adjacency that is established between neighboring routers
when the routers in an IPv4 network are connected to discontiguous networks
with automatic summarization enabled*
9

Refer to the exhibit. Routers R1 and R2 are directly connected via their serial
interfaces and are both running the EIGRP routing protocol. R1 and R2 can ping
the directly connected serial interface of their neighbor, but they cannot form an
EIGRP neighbor adjacency.
What action should be taken to solve this problem?
Configure the same hello interval between the routers.
Configure EIGRP to send periodic updates.
Enable the serial interfaces of both routers.
Configure both routers with the same EIGRP process ID.*
10

Refer to the exhibit. Which statement accurately reflects the configuration of
routing on the HQ router?
The IP address assigned to the GigabitEthernet0/0 interface is 172.16.2.0
255.255.255.0.
A static default route was configured on this router.*
A static default route was learned via EIGRP routing updates.
The static default route should be redistributed using the default-information originate
command.
11

Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is supported by the output?
The route to 192.168.1.1 represents the configuration of a loopback interface.
A static default route has been manually configured on this router.
A default route is being learned through an external process.*
Summarization of routes has been manually configured.
12

Refer to the exhibit. Which two routes will be advertised to the router ISP if
autosummarization is disabled? (Choose two.)
10.1.2.0/24*
10.1.4.0/28
10.1.4.0/30*
10.1.4.0/24
10.1.0.0/16
13

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has configured EIGRP
authentication between routers R1 and R2. After the routing tables are reviewed,
it is noted that neither router is receiving EIGRP updates. What is a possible
cause for this failure?
The same autonomous system numbers must be used in the interface
configurations of each router.*
The key string should be used in interface mode instead of the key chain.
The same number of key strings must be used on each router.
The same key chain name must be used on each router.
The authentication configuration is correct, issue the show ip eigrp neighbors
command to troubleshoot the issue.
14
Two routers, R1 and R2, share a 64 kb/s link. An administrator wants to limit the
bandwidth used by EIGRP between these two routers to 48 kb/s. Which
command is used on both routers to configure the new bandwidth setting?
ip bandwidth-percent eigrp 100 48
ip bandwidth-percent eigrp 100 75*
15
Which three statements are advantages of using automatic summarization?
(Choose three.)
It decreases the number of entries in the routing table.*
It reduces the frequency of routing updates.*
It ensures that traffic for multiple subnets uses one path through the
internetwork.*
It maximizes the number of routes in the routing table.
It improves reachability in discontiguous networks.
It increases the size of routing updates.
16

Refer to the exhibit. After the configuration shown is applied on router R1, the
exhibited status message is displayed. Router R1 is unable to form a neighbor
relationship with R2 on the serial 0/1/0 interface. What is the most likely cause of
this problem?
The passive-interface command should have been issued on serial 0/1/0.
The IPv4 address configured on the neighbor that is connected to R1 serial 0/1/0
is incorrect.*
The hello interval has been altered on serial 0/1/0 and is preventing a neighbor
relationship from forming.
The network statement used for EIGRP 55 does not enable EIGRP on interface serial
0/1/0.
The networks that are configured on serial 0/0/0 and serial 0/1/0 of router R1 are
overlapping.
17
What is a characteristic of manual route summarization?
requires high bandwidth utilization for the routing updates
has to be configured globally on the router
reduces total number of routes in routing tables*
cannot include supernet routes
18
The passive-interface command causes an EIGRP router to stop sending hello
packets through an interface.
19

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has issued the shown commands.
The EIGRP routing domain has completely converged and a network
administrator is planning on configuring EIGRP authentication throughout the
complete network. On which two interfaces should EIGRP authentication be
configured between R2 and R3? (Choose two.)
gig 0/0 of R3
serial 0/1/0 of R4
serial 0/1/0 of R2*
serial 0/0/1 of R2
serial 0/0/1 of R3*
20
What is the command that should be issued on a router to verify that EIGRP
adjacencies were formed?
show ip eigrp neighbor
21

R1 and R2 could not establish an EIGRP adjacency. What is the problem?
EIGRP is down on R2.
EIGRP is down on R1.*
R1 Fa0/0 link local address is wrong.
R1 Fa0/0 and R2 Fa0/0 are on different networks.
R1 Fa0/0 is not configured to send hello packets.
22

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has attempted to implement a
default route from R1 to the ISP and propagate the default route to EIGRP
neighbors. Remote connectivity from the EIGRP neighbor routers to the ISP
connected to R1 is failing. Based on the output from the exhibit, what is the
most likely cause of the problem?
There are no EIGRP neighbor relationships on R1.
The command default-information originate has not been issued on R1.
The network statement for the ISP connection has not been issued.
The command redistribute static has not been issued on R1.*
The ip route command must specify a next-hop IP address instead of an exit interface
when creating a default route.
23

Refer to the exhibit. All networks are active in the same EIGRP routing domain.
When the auto-summary command is issued on R3, which two summary
networks will be advertised to the neighbors? (Choose two.)
172.16.3.0/24
172.16.0.0/16*
192.168.10.0/24*
192.168.10.0/30
192.168.1.0/30

Answers 2014

1
Beginning with the Cisco IOS Software Release 15.0, which license is a
prerequisite for installing additional technology pack licenses?
UC
IPBase*
SEC
DATA
2
When a router is powered on, where will the router first search for a valid IOS
image to load by default?
flash memory*
RAM
ROM
NVRAM
3
What statement describes a Cisco IOS image with the universalk9_npe
designation for Cisco ISR G2 routers?
It is an IOS version that, at the request of some countries, removes any strong
cryptographic functionality.*
It is an IOS version that provides only the IPBase feature set.
It is an IOS version that offers all of the Cisco IOS Software feature sets.
It is an IOS version that can only be used in the United States of America.
4
Which statement describes a difference between the IOS 15.0 extended
maintenance release and a standard maintenance release?
A new standard maintenance release will synchronize with the latest extended
maintenance release before the extended is made available.
The extended maintenance release will deliver new IOS features as soon as they are
available.
They consist of two separate parallel trains.
The standard maintenance release enables faster IOS feature delivery than the
extended maintenance release does.*
5
A network administrator configures a router with the command sequence:
R1(config)# boot system tftp://c1900-universalk9-mz.SPA.152-4.M3.bin
R1(config)# boot system rom
What is the effect of the command sequence?
The router will copy the IOS image from the TFTP server and then reboot the system.
The router will search and load a valid IOS image in the sequence of flash, TFTP, and
ROM.
On next reboot, the router will load the IOS image from ROM.
The router will load IOS from the TFTP server. If the image fails to load, it will
load the IOS image from ROM.*
6
Which command would a network engineer use to find the unique device
identifier of a Cisco router?
show running-configuration
show license udi*
license install stored-location-url
show version
7
Which command is used to configure a one-time acceptance of the EULA for all
Cisco IOS software packages and features?
license save
license accept end user agreement*
show license
license boot module module-name
8
How long is the evaluation license period for Cisco IOS Release 15.0 software
packages?
30 days
15 days
60 days*
180 days
9
Which IOS 12.4 software package integrates full features, including voice,
security, and VPN capabilities, for all routing protocols?
Service Provider Services
Advanced Enterprise Services*
Advanced Security
Advanced IP Services
10
A network engineer is upgrading the Cisco IOS image on a 2900 series ISR.
What command could the engineer use to verify the total amount of flash
memory as well as how much flash memory is currently available?
show version
show interfaces
show startup-config
show flash0:*
11
Which three software packages are available for Cisco IOS Release 15.0?
Security*
Advanced IP Services
IPVoice
DATA*
Enterprise Services
Unified Communications*
12
The license install flash0:seck9-C1900-SPE150_K9-FAB12340099.xml command
will restore the specified saved Cisco IOS Release 15 license to a router.
13
A newly hired network engineer wants to use a 2911 router from storage. What
command would the technician use to verify which IOS technology licenses
have been activated on the router?
show interfaces
show flash0:
show version
show license*
show startup-config
14
When a customer purchases a Cisco IOS 15.0 software package, what serves as
the receipt for that customer and is used to obtain the license as well?
Product Activation Key*
Unique Device Identifier
Software Claim Certificate
End User License Agreement
15
The customer of a networking company requires VPN connectivity for workers
who must travel frequently. To support the VPN server, the customer router
must be upgraded to a new Cisco IOS software version with the Advanced IP
Services feature set. What should the field engineer do before copying the new
IOS to the router?
Issue the show version and the show flash commands to ensure that the router
has enough memory and file space to support the new IOS image.*
Set the router to load the new IOS image file directly from the TFTP server on the next
reboot.
Delete the currently installed IOS by using the erase flash: command, and reload the
router
Issue the show running-configuration command to determine the features of the
currently installed IOS image file.
16
What is the major release number in the IOS image name c1900-universalk9-
mz.SPA.152-3.T.bin?
2
3
52
1900
15*
17

universalk9
1
mz
c1900
not scored
M4
4
bin
15
18

[+] branches from another train
[+] has the latest features
[#] possibly is 12.4
[#] contains mostly bug fixes

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