HP0 655

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HP0-655
HP
Data Protector 5.5 Basics for Windows
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HP0-655
QUESTION: 1
The file demo.txt in the directory tree D:\demouser was created on January 4, 2003. It was
modified on January 10, 2003. A full backup took place on January 5, 2003, followed by
incrementals on January 6, 7 and 8. When browsing the internal database context, how many
sessions will be available?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 1
D. 4
Answer: http://www.twpass.com/twpass.com/exam.aspx?ecode=HP0-655&qno=1
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QUESTION: 2
Your internal database is inoperable and an automated recovery is to be used. Which command
allows you to perform this task?
A. omnidbrestore -autorecover
B. omnidb -autorecover
C. omnir -autorecover
D. omnidbutil -autorecover
E. omnisv -autorecover
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QUESTION: 3
Which statement is true regarding shared Windows directories and Data Protector version 5.5
restore?
A. Shared directories are automatically re-shared after the restore.

B. Shared directories are lost during backup and cannot be restored.
C. Shared directories must be unshared prior to the backup and re-shared after the
restore.
D. Shared directories must be manually re-shared after the restore.
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QUESTION: 4
What is included in a Logical Device configuration? Select TWO.
A. automated media operations

B. physical device properties
C. device options
D. overwrite protection levels
E. media pool characteristics
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QUESTION: 5
By default, which user right is granted to the group named user?
A. Start Restore
B. Media Configuration
C. Start Backup
D. Monitor
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QUESTION: 6
Which file must you edit to enable Data Protector internal database transaction logging?
A. omnirc.TMPL
B. velocis.ini
C. global file
D. obrindex.dat
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QUESTION: 7
What is the command that can be used in all Data Protector disaster recovery scenarios in
Windows?
A. omniutil.exe
B. omniofflr.exe
C. omnidr.exe
D. omnisrd.exe
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QUESTION: 8
A tape library with two drives is connected to two hosts (host A and host B) using SCSI. Each
host is accessing one drive through a dedicated SCSI connection. Host B also has access to the
robotics interface. Which statement is true in this configuration?
A. Host A will need the media agent to control the robotics and perform all library
operations for the local drive.
B. Both hosts A and B will require a "direct library" configuration to allow shared
network control of the robotics.
C. This configuration is not possible in a SCSI environment because all hosts need
physical access to the robotics controller.
D. Host B will need the media agent to control the robotics and perform all library
operations.
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QUESTION: 9
The Data Protector Backup Session Manager (BSM) runs on which system or systems in the
cell?
A. client and cell manager

B. dedicated installation server
C. cell manager only
D. client only
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QUESTION: 10
You use the "No Overwrite" option in restoring your system and the following file and
directory structure exists: Directory_1 File_1 Directory_2 File_2 If File_1 and File_2 are
deleted and a restore is performed selecting the contents of Directory_1 for restore, what will
be restored?
A. Directory_1, File_1, Directory_2, File_2

B. File_1
C. File_1, Directory_2, File_2
D. File_1, File_2
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QUESTION: 11
Which section of the backup specification contains the information about the backup target
drives?
A. backup types
B. objects
C. media pools
D. devices
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QUESTION: 12
Media operations can be divided into two categories: pool operations and tape operations.
Which operation is valid for media pools?
A. format
B. recycle
C. copy
D. export
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QUESTION: 13
Which media agent program can be used for interactively sending SCSI commands to a tape
library?
A. mma
B. lma
C. uma
D. bma
E. cma
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QUESTION: 14
On a Windows Cell Manager, which process runs as an application process and NOT as a
service?
A. Remote Connection Server (inet)

B. Media Management Daemon (MMD)
C. Cell Request Server (CRS)
D. Raima Database Server (RDS)
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QUESTION: 15
Which CLI command scans specified Data Protector clients and gathers information on SCSI
addresses of drives and robotic controllers connected to the clients in a SAN environment?
A. uma
B. omniconfigsan
C. omnisan
D. sanconfig
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QUESTION: 16
The media in the device is formatted and usable, but it is different from the one specified in the
Prealoc list of the backup specification. What does Data Protector do if the media pool has a
STRICT policy?
A. scans the media pool for the next medium and continues
B. continues and sends a message to the log file
C. issues a mount request
D. scans the media pool for a medium with a loose policy
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QUESTION: 17
What are the main media management protection features?
A. logical organization of media, pools, and allocation policies

B. labeling, duplication, and condition monitoring
C. on-line catalog, media organization, and location tracking
D. media pool, media usage, and property specifications
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QUESTION: 18
Which backups are supported by Data Protector? Select THREE.
A. Split media backup

B. Virtual backup
C. NDMP backup
D. Direct SAN backup
E. Online application backup
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QUESTION: 19
What are the names of the configuration files that are created on the cell manager after it is
enabled? Select TWO.
A. mom_config
B. mom_info
C. mom_server
D. mom_cell
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QUESTION: 20
When performing media operations with Data Protector, the process of aulting?is used as a
further means of protection. What is the purpose of aulting locations?
A. to provide additional information about the off-site location of media exported from
a library
B. to provide information about the media condition
C. to provide information about all media currently mounted to tape drives
D. to provide additional information about the media location within a tape library
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QUESTION: 21
When performing a manual configuration using the command line, you can create a new
logical device by defining it in a temporary file in the devices directory. How is the Media
Management database updated with this information?
A. with the omniupdate command

B. with the omniupload command
C. automatically when the device schedule is invoked
D. with the omnidownload command
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QUESTION: 22
Which command can be used to check if the inet service is up and running on a member of the
Data Protector cell?
A. arp -a
B. onmistat
C. telnet <hostname> 5555
D. omnisv -status
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QUESTION: 23
Tapes may be initialized from the Data Protector GUI "Devices & Media" context. Which
action performs this task?
A. Export
B. Format
C. Initialize
D. Import
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QUESTION: 24
On a Windows system, which command starts the Data Protector GUI?
A. omnirc.exe
B. xomni.exe
C. manager.exe
D. omni.exe
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QUESTION: 25
What does the user right "User Configuration" allow?
A. perform installation and updates of assigned systems

B. create, configure, and delete backups and restores
C. view, backup, and restore assigned systems
D. add, delete, and modify assigned groups
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QUESTION: 26
Data Protector provides simplified access to library management consoles. What does this
mean?
A. Library management is simplified and and can be done without special knowledge.
B. The library management console interface can automatically be loaded in a web
browser.
C. Management of multiple libraries can be performed from a single shared

management console.
D. Access to the library management console interface does not require a login
password.
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QUESTION: 27
You have just installed a Windows client manually. Which option in the GUI "Clients" context
can you use to add this client to your cell?
A. Add Client
B. New Client
C. Import Client
D. Secure Client
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QUESTION: 28
What is the advantage of a Data Protector session restore?
A. It is fast since it is restoring only whole volumes.

B. It does not require any control as it is restoring everything.
C. All objects from a backup can be restored together.
D. The database will not be used.
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QUESTION: 29
When might the internal database (IDB) recovery be necessary? Select TWO.
A. omnidbcheck reports critical corruption to some parts of the database

B. omnisv reports CRS and RDS to be non-functional
C. omnidbcheck reports minor corruption to some parts of the database
D. omnidbcheck reports major corruption to some parts of the database
E. omnihealthcheck reports any kind of error
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QUESTION: 30
What is the name of the parameter that can be added to the omnirc file to control the dynamic
listening ports used by Data Protector in an individual client system?
A. DP_PORT_RANGE
B. OB2PORTRANGE
C. DPPORTRANGE
D. DP_PORT_SPEC
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QUESTION: 31
How can you prevent multiple hosts from simultaneously attempting to utilize a device in one
Data Protector cell?
A. lock names
B. device lock
C. physical lock
D. logical lock
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QUESTION: 32
DRAG DROP Click the Task button. Show the general installation sequence for Data Protector
by arranging the panels in the proper order.
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QUESTION: 33
Which CLI command creates the File Library device?
A. omnifiledev
B. omnifilelib
C. omniupload
D. omnidownload
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QUESTION: 34
Which license type is usually included with the Data Protector CD?
A. Evaluation 120 days

B. Evaluation 30 days
C. Permanent
D. Instant On 60 days
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QUESTION: 35
The object option "Display Statistics" is turned on in the GUI while configuring and running a
backup. What does it show in addition to standard messaging?
A. object detail retained for a specific date

B. three levels of detail on files and directories
C. the number of files handled during a backup session
D. megabytes per hour for each object
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QUESTION: 36
The Data Protector scheduler allows for scheduling of which entity?
A. backup session
B. backup specification
C. backup object
D. media agent
E. logical device
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QUESTION: 37
What is the default value of the "Reconnect broken connections" option in the Data Protector
backup specification?
A. Data connections only

B. All (Control and Data connections)
C. Off (Do not reconnect)
D. Control connections only
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QUESTION: 38
When backing up a Windows system, Data Protector supports which object types? Select
TWO.
A. file system - VxFS

B. file system - HFS
C. file system - NTFS
D. NetWare
E. client
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QUESTION: 39
You are going to perform an "eject" Logical Device Operation for a tape residing in a library.
When will this operation fail?
A. if all drives are busy

B. if the mailslot is full
C. if the media is protected
D. if the media is in a free pool
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QUESTION: 40
What is the result of a successful backup session using object mirroring?
A. Mirrored objects are written to a special mirror pool and the backup is written to the
specified media set.
B. One media set contains the backup and additional media sets contain the mirrored
objects.
C. All backups and mirrored objects are appended to the same media.
D. All backups and mirrored objects are in the same media pool.
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QUESTION: 41
You are running Data Protector through a firewall. The Cell Manager is installed in the
intranet. Which configuration is supported?
A. the Manager of Managers Console located within the DMZ

B. the Disk Agent located within the DMZ and the Media Agent located within the
intranet
C. the Cell Console located within the DMZ
D. the Disk Agent located within the DMZ
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QUESTION: 42
Which command starts a backup from the command line?
A. omnimm
B. omnib
C. omnibck
D. omnicellbck
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QUESTION: 43
What is the default threshold for available disk space to trigger a Database Space Low event?
A. 150 MB
B. 50 MB
C. 100 MB
D. 25 MB
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QUESTION: 44
Which steps are performed when backup preview is executed? Select TWO.
A. writes session information to the database

B. connects the disk agent to the media agent
C. writes test data to the tape
D. starts the disk agent and media agent
E. performs a "dummy run" of the backup
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QUESTION: 45
What happens to shared logical devices in a SAN environment when you upgrade Data
Protector to version 5.5?
A. Shared logical devices are deleted during the upgrade and must be reconfigured as
multipath devices.
B. Shared logical devices must be deleted prior to the upgrade and then reconfigured as
multipath devices.
C. Shared logical devices are not reconfigured during the upgrade and can be used as
before or reconfigured as multipath devices.
D. Shared logical devices are automatically reconfigured as multipath devices during
the upgrade.
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QUESTION: 46
Which command is required to perform an authoritative restore of a Windows Active Directory
after the restore session has finished?
A. omnintdutil
B. adrutil
C. omniadr
D. ntdsutil
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QUESTION: 47
How is a disk image restore performed?
A. directory-by-directory
B. object-by-object
C. file-by-file
D. block-by-block
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QUESTION: 48
By default, which file is the Data Protector Database recovery file?
A. obrindex.dat
B. obdatafiles.dat
C. obdbrecovery.dat
D. obdb.dat
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QUESTION: 49
Where are frequently used backup specifications and characteristics saved?
A. in an Excel file
B. in an object
C. in a media set
D. in a template
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QUESTION: 50
What are the dominating factors when you predict the disk space required for the transaction
logs of the internal database?
A. total number of daily backup sessions and used devices

B. total number of filenames and file versions in the cell
C. amount of data changes and compression ratio
D. number of new filenames being backed up and total backup activities
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QUESTION: 51
If you experience problems with tape library devices, which Data Protector command can be
used to check the library operations?
A. ioscan
B. omnihealthcheck
C. chgr-debug
D. uma
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QUESTION: 52
Which section of the backup specification contains the information about the backup target
drives?
A. devices
B. media pools
C. objects
D. backup types
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QUESTION: 53
During initial installation, which tool helps predict future Data Protector internal database
(IDB) size?
A. capacity planning spreadsheet

B. media management report
C. database growth calculator

D. capacity forecast report
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QUESTION: 54
What influences how media are selected for backup?
A. media allocation policy

B. media management database
C. mount request
D. media pools
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QUESTION: 55
Which media pool property allows the media to be formatted (initialized) when it is needed?
A. strict
B. free
C. file
D. loose
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QUESTION: 56
What are the three key qualifiers Data Protector uses to identify file system objects in the
database? Select THREE.
A. filenames
B. rawdisk sections
C. device
D. mountpoint
E. description
F. hostname
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QUESTION: 57
When using the estore into?option for an object restore, the object will be restored into a
different directory. What is important to know about restoring the object? Select TWO.
A. The subdirectories will be created as needed.

B. If not specified, all files will be restored into a single directory relative to the system
root (e.g. c:\\).
C. The subdirectories must already exist.
D. The subdirectories will be appended to the destination path.
E. If not specified, all files in the subdirectories will be created as sparse files.
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QUESTION: 58
What is the format for an Autolabeled tape?
A. POOLNAME_INCREMENT#
B. POOLNAME_LABEL#
C. MEDIATYPE_LABEL#
D. MEDIATYPE_NUMBER
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QUESTION: 59
What is the minimum number of obsolete filenames that must exist on a Data Protector client
to initiate purging from the internal database?
A. 100,000
B. 200,000
C. 500,000
D. 1,000,000
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QUESTION: 60
Where is the file version information stored?
A. Session Messages Binary Files (SMBF)

B. Detail Catalog Binary Files (DCBF)
C. Catalog Database (CDB)
D. Media Management Database (MMDB)
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QUESTION: 61
The file used to identify the vaulting locations used by the GUI is stored in which directory?
A. lib
B. cell
C. data_files
D. config
E. media
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QUESTION: 62
What is required to send an e-mail with the output of a Data Protector report from a Windows
system?
A. DPReports mailbox
B. Anonymous user account
C. Access control list
D. Data Protector mail profile
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QUESTION: 63
In the Data Protector GUI "Users" context with default setting applied, a user on a remote
system may be configured into one of three roles. What are these roles? Select THREE.
A. guest
B. admin
C. java
D. user
E. root
F. operator
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QUESTION: 64
When defining a logical tape library device, the access to a library is split into two paths. What
are the paths? Select TWO.
A. network path
B. data path
C. SCSI path
D. control path
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QUESTION: 65
Which Data Protector disaster recovery option is supported for a cell manager on a Windows
2003 server?
A. One Button Disaster Recovery (OBDR)

B. Disk Delivery Disaster Recovery (DDDR)
C. Microsoft Automated System Recovery (ASR)
D. Enhanced Automated Disaster Recovery (EADR)
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QUESTION: 66
Which process or service runs on the Data Protector cell manager and starts backup and restore
sessions?
A. Cell Request Server (CRS)

B. Raima Database Server (RDS)
C. Media Management Process (MMD)
D. Data Protector Inet
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QUESTION: 67
What is the main purpose of the restore chain consolidation feature in Data Protector?
A. increased restore speed of concurrently backed up objects

B. object de-multiplexing to multiple media during the backup process
C. automatic simultaneous disaster recovery of multiple client systems
D. reduced number of media changes during backup generation restore
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QUESTION: 68
Which command checks the Data Protector services, the media management database
consistency, and that there is at least one backup of the Data Protector database?
A. omnicheck
B. omnihealthcheck
C. omnidbcheck
D. omnihealth
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QUESTION: 69
Which Data Protector feature simplifies shared access of several hosts to a physical device?
A. device locking mechanism

B. redundant paths
C. multipath devices
D. multiple device connections
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QUESTION: 70
What communication technique is used for disk agent to media agent data transfer if the agents
do NOT reside on the same host?
A. remote agents
B. stream sockets
C. RMI over LAN
D. pipe mechanisms
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QUESTION: 71
A single tape device is used in a SAN and configured for multiple Data Protector clients.
Which option causes it to be recognized as a single device, requiring one drive extension
license?
A. Multipath
B. Indirect backup
C. Direct backup
D. Autopass
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QUESTION: 72
The default installation of Data Protector includes an automatic database purge. This happens
daily at what time?
A. 22:00
B. 00:00
C. 15:00
D. 12:00
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QUESTION: 73
Between which instances is data moved during a disk staging object copy process?
A. Media Agent and Disk Agent

B. Backup Session Manager and Disk Agent
C. Backup Session Manager and Media Agent
D. Media Agent and Media Agent
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QUESTION: 74
What is accomplished by invoking the Data Protector Enhanced Automated Disaster Recovery
method?
A. The cell manager replicates the cell database to a standby system.

B. The SRD file for a failed client is updated.
C. The failed client system is automatically recovered from the latest backup.
D. The cell manager creates the file that is to be used by the CD-burner.
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QUESTION: 75
To use the same device with different media pools, what must be created?
A. media rotation policies

B. a new media agent
C. a media specification
D. backup specification
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QUESTION: 76
Where is the file version information stored?
A. Media Management Database (MMDB)

B. Detail Catalog Binary Files (DCBF)
C. Session Messages Binary Files (SMBF)
D. Catalog Database (CDB)
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QUESTION: 77
What could be reasons for an unexpected mount request? Select TWO.
A. the tape drive is busy

B. no previous full backup was run
C. the media is physically write protected
D. the media management database is full
E. the media is not appendable
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QUESTION: 78
Where are file system and host backup specifications stored?
A. c:\Program Files\Omniback\backuplists
B. c:\Program Files\Omniback\Config\barlists
C. c:\Program Files\Omniback\Config\datalists
D. c:\Program Files\Omniback\datalists
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QUESTION: 79
What must first be done on a Windows NT cell manager before upgrading Data Protector to
version 5.5?
A. Ensure the current Data Protector version is at the highest patch level.
B. Ensure that a Windows installation server is installed.
C. Upgrade Windows NT to a higher Windows version.
D. Install the latest Windows NT service pack.
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QUESTION: 80
How many Data Protector cells can be managed by a single Manager-of-Managers?
A. 50
B. 100
C. 1000
D. 25
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QUESTION: 81
It is useful in dynamic environments to perform a backup that uses which object type?
A. database object
B. client object
C. disk object
D. file system object
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QUESTION: 82
You just installed a Data Protector Installation Server on a Windows 2000 server. Which
statement is true?
A. Agents can not be remotely installed to a Unix client from this Windows Installation
Server.
B. Agents can not be manually installed after the Installation Server.
C. Installation Server can not be installed with Cell Manager.
D. Installation Server can not be installed with a client.
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QUESTION: 83
Which file do you edit to specify the location of an additional copy of the IDB recovery file?
A. velocis.ini
B. global file
C. obrindex.dat
D. omnirc.TMPL
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QUESTION: 84
Which installation tool is used to install the Data Protector Cell Manager on Windows?
A. Microsoft Installer
B. Omnisetup
C. Install script
D. swinstall
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QUESTION: 85
What does the user right "User Configuration" allow?
A. view, backup, and restore assigned systems

B. perform installation and updates of assigned systems
C. create, configure, and delete backups and restores
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QUESTION: 86
Which Data Protector processes update the catalog information (filenames and file versions) of
the internal database (IDB) during an active backup session? Select TWO.
A. the RDS (raima database server) on the Cell Manager

B. the DA (disk agent) on the Cell Client
C. the BSM (backup session manager) on the Cell Manager
D. the CRS (cell request server) on the Cell Manager
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QUESTION: 87
How can you enable execution tracing for the GUI on Windows and write the results into a file
named trace.out?
A. xomni -trace 1-99 trace.out

B. manager -trace 1-99 trace.out
C. xomni -debug 1-99 -f trace.out
D. manager -debug 1-99 trace.out
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QUESTION: 88
Which situation would require disaster recovery procedures rather than a standard restore?
Select TWO.
A. inconsistency of the Data Protector IDB

B. client database corruption
C. failure/loss of the client s tape device
D. corruption/loss of the Data Protector IDB

E. client configuration corruption
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QUESTION: 89
Assuming a default configuration, what is required to perform reporting and notification from a
client system? Select TWO.
A. user rights
B. reporting agent
C. admin rights
D. user interface
E. operator rights
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QUESTION: 90
What must be done when upgrading cluster-aware clients to Data Protector version 5.5?
A. Delete all client nodes from the cell, remotely install the client software and reimport
the virtual server into the cell.
B. Upgrade each cluster node locally and then reimport the virtual server into the cell.
C. Uninstall the client software on the clients, re-install the new client software locally,
and reimport the clients into the cell.
D. Remotely install the virtual server and reimport the client nodes into the cell.
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QUESTION: 91
What could be reasons for an unexpected mount request? Select TWO.
A. the media management database is full

B. the tape drive is busy
C. the media is not appendable
D. no previous full backup was run
E. the media is physically write protected
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QUESTION: 92
What can Data Protector use to generate the media label during media initialization?
A. serial number of the drive used for initialization

B. barcode label of the media
C. unique number issued by the internal database
D. media type
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QUESTION: 93
What is a media pool?
A. a concept that enables faster backup and restore

B. a physical collection of media that is used by the same device
C. a collection of media of the same age
D. a logical collection of media that belong together
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QUESTION: 94
What may happen if Data Protector CANNOT find a protected version of the object on which
the incremental backup is to be based?
A. The backup will fail.

B. Data Protector will continue with incremental 1.
C. Data Protector will start a full backup.
D. A mount request will be issued.
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QUESTION: 95
Regarding Disaster Recovery, what information does the Phase 1 start-up file (P1S) contain?
A. information on drivers and software to be loaded

B. information on how to format and install all disks within a system
C. information about the logical tape device
D. information about system registry
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QUESTION: 96
Which Data Protector components must be installed manually regardless of the Cell Manager
platform? Select TWO.
A. Installation Servers
B. Solaris Agents
C. Windows 2000 Agents
D. NetWare Agents
E. Application Agents
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QUESTION: 97
What is the default option for Windows Active Directory restore?
A. Primary
B. Authoritative
C. Overwrite
D. Nonauthoritative
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QUESTION: 98
To be able to perform a parallel restore, what must be greater than one during the backup?
A. media agents
B. session managers
C. number of tape devices
D. device concurrency
E. available network interfaces
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QUESTION: 99
Which information, besides Other, is listed in the System Dynamics report option of the
internal database?
A. size of the IDB extension files

B. number of filenames waiting to be purged
C. growth ratio of IDB filenames
D. number of filenames purged during the last maintenance cycle
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QUESTION: 100
Which Data Protector process controls an active backup session?
A. the BSM (backup session manager) on the Cell Manager

B. the DA (disk agent) on the Cell Client
C. the CRS (cell request server) on the Cell Manager
D. the MA (media agent) on the Cell Client
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QUESTION: 101
Which files are backed up in an incremental backup?
A. files that have a modification time newer than the previous backup time
B. files that have been accessed since the previous backup time
C. files that have only changed attributes
D. files that have been moved from one directory to another
-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
QUESTION: 102
Files may be open when performing a backup on a Windows host. In the case of registry files
you might want to exclude them from the file system and back them up using which object?
A. Snapshot
B. C:\\ drive
C. Raw
D. Configuration
-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
QUESTION: 103
Which information about SAN devices can Data Protector store internally to enable automatic
discovery of changed SCSI addresses and avoid Windows device persistency problems?
A. type
B. name
C. SCSI ID
D. serial number
-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
QUESTION: 104
What is the maximum recommended size of a file depot for Windows?
A. 50GB
B. 200GB
C. 100GB
D. 600GB
-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
QUESTION: 105
Which system startup mode must be set on a Windows system to restore the Active Directory
service?
A. Services Recovery
B. Assisted System Recovery
C. Directory Services Restore
D. Windows Safe
-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
QUESTION: 106
How do you change the media type of a pool after creating it?
A. Change the usage policy for the media type within the pool.
B. Delete the pool and recreate it.
C. Delete the media type and rename it.
D. Use the GUI to rename the pool.
-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
QUESTION: 107
To view a finished session that is no longer displayed in the Data Protector "Monitor" context,
you must view the session in which context?
A. View
B. Reporting
C. Devices and Media
D. Internal Database
-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
QUESTION: 108
To create the One Button Disaster Recovery (OBDR) backup specification, a media pool must
be created for DDS or LTO media with which policies? Select TWO.
A. non-appendable usage policy

B. loose allocation policy
C. appendable usage policy
D. strict allocation policy
-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
QUESTION: 109
What is the default threshold for available disk space to trigger a Database Space Low event?
A. 50 MB
B. 25 MB
C. 100 MB
D. 150 MB
-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
QUESTION: 110
The Data Protector Restore Session Manager (RSM) runs on which system or systems in the
cell?
A. dedicated installation server

B. cell manager only
C. client only
D. client and cell manager
-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
QUESTION: 111
Your backup strategy runs one full backup per week as well as numerous incremental backups.
Between the full backup and latest incremental backup, several files in a given directory have
been deleted. When using the GUI to restore this directory, which option allows you to skip
these files and only restore to the most recent point in time?
A. omit unrequired incrementals

B. restore sparse files
C. omit deleted files
D. move busy files
-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
QUESTION: 112
The file demo.txt in the directory tree D:\demouser was created on January 4, 2003. It was
modified on January 10, 2003. A full backup took place on January 5, 2003, followed by
incrementals on January 6, 7 and 8. When using the estore version?option within the GUI, how
many versions will be displayed?
A. 1
B. 4
C. 2
D. 3
-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
QUESTION: 113
When configuring a backup specification, you choose a backup type of ncremental 3? What
will Data Protector do?
A. perform a full backup if ncremental 2?does not exist

B. attempt to find the latest protected backup session with a lower level and will then
perform an incremental backup based on that lower level
C. perform a differential backup based on the last protected full backup
D. perform an incremental backup of files that are newer than 3 weeks
-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
QUESTION: 114
Access to the Data Protector Reporting functionality is granted to users in the admin group and
to those with which user right or rights?
A. User, Device, and Media

B. Reporting, Monitor, and Log
C. Monitor, Backup, and Restore
D. Reporting and Notification
-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
QUESTION: 115
What is the default threshold for medium overwrites for linear tapes?
A. 350
B. 400
C. 300
D. 250
-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
QUESTION: 116
How many Data Protector cells can be managed by a single Manager-of-Managers?
A. 25
B. 1000
C. 100
D. 50
-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
QUESTION: 117
Which Data Protector function enables faster restores of data that was backed up to a device
with a concurrency level greater than 1?
A. disk staging
B. copying to different media
C. object mirroring
D. demultiplexing of media
-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
QUESTION: 118
On Windows, from which backup object would you restore the registry?
A. from the configuration object

B. from the winfs object
C. from the vbfs object
D. from the omnidb object
-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
QUESTION: 119
On a Windows system, which command starts the Data Protector GUI?
A. xomni.exe
B. omni.exe
C. omnirc.exe
D. manager.exe
-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
QUESTION: 120
When configuring a backup, when does Static Device Allocation occur?
A. when the backup specification is targeted at a specific physical device

B. when each object defined in the backup specification is targeted at a specific physical
device
C. when several objects defined in the backup specification are targeted at several
logical devices
D. when each object defined in the backup specification is targeted at a specific logical
device
-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
QUESTION: 121
When preparing for internal database recovery, you should regularly backup the internal
database object. What does this object include? Select TWO.
A. the DP configuration
B. the Cell Manager DP program directories
C. the pre-exec and post-exec scripts
D. the Cell Manager OS system configuration
E. the entire IDB
-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
QUESTION: 122
The Data Protector tape format is comprised of which sections?
A. Segments, File Mark, and Catalog Information

B. Tape Header, Media Label, and Fast Tape Positioning
C. Tape Header, Data Segments, and Catalog Information
D. File Mark, Data Blocks, and End of Data
-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
QUESTION: 123
The Media Management Database (MMDB) and Catalog Database (CDB) are implemented
using an embedded database consisting of tablespaces. Which method is used to record
changes to the MMDB and CDB?
A. transaction logs
B. session messages
C. direct access
D. binary files
-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
QUESTION: 124
When a Data Protector Cell Manager is inoperable due to critical database corruption, you have
to recover the internal database object. The information about the tape containing the most
recent internal database object cannot be accessed. How can you retrieve this information most
efficiently?
A. access the media.dat file in the MMDB

B. access the media.log file in the log directory
C. access the transaction log files and identify the proper tape
D. import catalogs of all tapes in the cell
-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
QUESTION: 125
After the Media Management Databases are merged from other cells into the Manager of
Managers database, what is the new name for this database?
A. MoMDB (Manager of Managers Database)

B. MMMDB (Merged Media Management Database)
C. CMMDB (Centralized Media Management Database)
D. CMDB (Central Management Database)
-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
QUESTION: 126
What does the user right "Clients Configuration" allow?
A. perform installation and updates of assigned systems

B. create, configure, and delete backups and restores
C. view, backup, and restore assigned systems
-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
QUESTION: 127
To verify the logical device configuation using the GUI; load a tape into the drive, then rightclick on the created drive to display the pop-up menu. From this menu, which option do you
select to verify the device operations?
A. verify tape
B. eject medium
C. scan medium
D. confirm mount request
E. check media state
-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
QUESTION: 128
When configuring a file library, a directory structure is created that acts like cartridge slots in a
tape library. What are the files called?
A. file depots
B. file repositories
C. file slots
D. file directories
-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
QUESTION: 129
During a backup session with object mirroring to three tape drives, one of the tape media fails.
What is the result?
A. Data continues to be written to the working media.

B. The backup session aborts.
C. A mount request is issued for a new media.
D. All subsequent backups fail.
-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
QUESTION: 130
When Data Protector is integrated into the Microsoft Automated System Recovery (ASR)
process, a set of floppy disks must be created. What is the name of the file that resides on
floppy disk 1 that must be updated to automatically recover a client?
A. recovery.iso
B. recovery.dat
C. recovery.asr
D. recovery.srd
-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
QUESTION: 131
When using One Button Disaster Recovery (OBDR), what is the minimum free space that
should be on a boot partition during backup?
A. 250 MB
B. 100 MB
C. 200 MB
D. 150 MB
-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
QUESTION: 132
On a Data Protector Cell Manager, which command automatically and periodically checks the
status of the Data Protector services?
A. omnimm
B. dbcheck
C. omnisv
D. omnihealthcheck
-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
QUESTION: 133
Data Protector provides an event driven notification system. Which notification methods are
available? Select TWO.
A. broadcast
B. store to database
C. paging
D. email
E. filter
-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
QUESTION: 134
Which backup model allows for efficient tape library sharing between multiple hosts and
allows each host to use the tape library as it would be locally attached?
A. direct backup
B. LAN backup
C. split mirror backup
D. SAN backup
-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
QUESTION: 135
Which Data Protector services must be up and running on a Windows Cell Manager? Select
THREE.
A. Solid Database Server (SDS)

B. Remote Connection Server (inet)
C. Host Agent service (HA)
D. Cell Request Server service (CRS)
E. Raima Database Server (RDS)
F. Media Management Server (MMS)
-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
QUESTION: 136
In a Windows environment, which Data Protector service must be running on both the cell
manager and the client?
A. MMDB
B. CRS
C. inet
D. MA
-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
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A. Shared directories are automatically re-shared after the restore.

A. automated media operations

robotics interface. Which statement is true in this configuration?

A. client and cell manager

A. Directory_1, File_1, Directory_2, File_2

A. Remote Connection Server (inet)

A. logical organization of media, pools, and allocation policies

A. Split media backup

A. with the omniupdate command

A. perform installation and updates of assigned systems

C. Management of multiple libraries can be performed from a single shared

A. It is fast since it is restoring only whole volumes.

A. omnidbcheck reports critical corruption to some parts of the database

A. Evaluation 120 days

A. object detail retained for a specific date

A. Data connections only

A. file system - VxFS

A. if all drives are busy

A. the Manager of Managers Console located within the DMZ

A. writes session information to the database

A. total number of daily backup sessions and used devices

A. capacity planning spreadsheet

C. database growth calculator

A. media allocation policy

A. The subdirectories will be created as needed.

A. Session Messages Binary Files (SMBF)

A. One Button Disaster Recovery (OBDR)

A. Cell Request Server (CRS)

A. increased restore speed of concurrently backed up objects

A. device locking mechanism

A. Media Agent and Disk Agent

A. The cell manager replicates the cell database to a standby system.

A. media rotation policies

A. Media Management Database (MMDB)

A. the tape drive is busy

A. view, backup, and restore assigned systems

A. the RDS (raima database server) on the Cell Manager

A. xomni -trace 1-99 trace.out

A. inconsistency of the Data Protector IDB

D. corruption/loss of the Data Protector IDB

A. the media management database is full

A. serial number of the drive used for initialization

A. a concept that enables faster backup and restore

A. The backup will fail.

A. information on drivers and software to be loaded

A. size of the IDB extension files

A. the BSM (backup session manager) on the Cell Manager

A. non-appendable usage policy

A. dedicated installation server

A. omit unrequired incrementals

A. perform a full backup if ncremental 2?does not exist

A. User, Device, and Media

A. from the configuration object

A. when the backup specification is targeted at a specific physical device

A. Segments, File Mark, and Catalog Information

changes to the MMDB and CDB?

A. access the media.dat file in the MMDB

A. MoMDB (Manager of Managers Database)

A. perform installation and updates of assigned systems

A. Data continues to be written to the working media.

A. Solid Database Server (SDS)

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