IX Exercise Rev 02

Section IX
Practice Questions
Rev. 2 10/06 DTM Enterprises Technical Training Division Page 1 of 11
281-330-9542 www.DTM-Enterprises.org

These questions cover both the open and closed book portion of the exam; in general any table lookup
questions would be in the open book part of the examination. Only the correct choice and the paragraph
where the answer is found are given in the answer key, so you will need to read the paragraphs to
confirm the answers.

1. The cut surfaces of guided-bend test specimens are designated as the:

(a) sides.
(b) face.
(c) root.

2. The _____ is intended to provide direction for the welder, while the ______ is what was used in
qualifying the _____ and details the test results.

(a) WPS-PQR-WPQ
(b) WPS-WPQ-WPS
(c) WPS-PQR-WPS

3. Where are notch-toughness requirements for the specimen, orientation and acceptance criteria found?

(a) ASTM E208
(b) SA-370
(c) Construction Code

4. The radiographic acceptance criteria for welders qualified in accordance with QW-142 is found in:

(a) The Construction Code
(b) QW-191.2.2
(c) QW-192.2

5. The qualification of a new WPS or the re-qualification of an existing WPS shall be in accordance with
the:______________

(a) component contract date.
(b) current Edition and Addenda of Section IX.
(c) 1962 or later Edition of Section IX.

6. How is the tensile strength of a tension test specimen computed?

(a) Dividing the maximum load by the least cross-sectional area of the specimen as measured before
the load is applied.
(b) Dividing the maximum load by the least cross-sectional area of the specimen as measured after
the load is applied.
(c) Measuring the percent of outer fiber elongation as required by the construction Code.

7. Under what conditions are tension tests considered acceptable if the specimen breaks in the base
metal outside the weld or fusion line?

(a) If there are no open defects exceeding 1/16 measured in any direction.
(b) If the strength is not more than 5% below the specified minimum tensile strength of the base
metal.
(c) If there are no open defects exceeding 1/8" in the bond line.

8. Under what conditions may a WPS, PQR or, WPQ qualified in accordance with the 1957 Edition be
used?

(a) When they meet the requirements of the 1962 or any later Edition.
(b) After they have been revised to reflect the latest Edition of Section IX.
(a) Not permitted.

9. The methodology for the qualification of welders and welding operators by radiography are given in:

(a) QW-191.2
(b) Article 2, Section V
(c) The construction Code

10. Welding procedures qualified in accordance with the 1974 Edition must always be amended or
revised to the current Edition of Section IX.

(a) True
(b) False

11. Tension tests and Guided-Bend tests are two mechanical weld tests which employ _____ type weld
joint configurations.

(a) stud
(b) groove
(c) fillet

12. What are the test orientations of pipe groove welds?

(a) 1 G-2G-5G-6G
(b) 1 G-3G-5G~6G
(c) 1 G-2G-3G-4G

13. What is the purpose of the welding operator's performance qualification?

(a) To determine the operator's ability to deposit sound weld metal.
(b) To determine the operator's mechanical ability to operate the welding equipment.
(c) To determine the WPS is capable of producing the required mechanical properties.

14. The substitution of radiography for mechanical testing is permitted for welder and welding operator
performance qualifications except as restricted by QW-304 & 305.

(a) True
(b) False

15. The purpose for the qualification of a WPS is to determine that the weldment proposed for
construction is capable of providing the required properties for its intended application.

(a) True
(b) False

16. What is the minimum tensile strength for tension tests if the base metals have different minimum
tensile strengths?

(a) The specified minimum tensile strength of the stronger of the two.
(b) The specified minimum tensile strength of the weld metal.
(c) The specified minimum tensile strength of the weaker of the two.

17. The open defects for guided-bend test specimen of the convex surface of the weld or heat affected
zone shall not exceed _____.

(a) 1/16.
(b) 1/8".
(c) 3/16

18. What constitutes a "set" of reduced multiple section specimens for plate or pipe tension tests?

(a) Strips of equal size that can be tested in the available equipment.
(b) All specimens representing the full thickness of the weld at one location.
(c) All specimens representing half the thickness of the weld at one location.

19. What is the purpose of the welder's performance qualification?

(a) To determine the welder's ability to operate the equipment.
(b) To determine the mechanical properties of the weldment.
(c) To determine the welder's ability to deposit sound weld metal.

20. The cut surfaces of guided-bend test specimens are designated _____ of the specimen, while the
other two surfaces are called the _____ and _____ surfaces.

(a) sides-face-root
(b) face-root-side
(c) root-side-face

21. Guided-bend tests require that the surface being examined becomes the __ surface of the bent
specimen.

(a) concave (inner)
(b) convex (outer)
(c) transverse (sides)

22. The WPS must list ________, ___________ variables, while the PQR must list _________________.

(a) essential, nonessential, / essential, supplementary essential
(b) essential, nonessential, supplementary (when required) - / essential, supplementary (when
required)
(c) essential, / nonessential, supplementary essential

23. Qualification of the WPS using test coupons made of plate also qualifies for pipe and vice versa.

(a) True
(b) False

24. How does the Manufacturer attest that the information in the PQR is a true record of the variables that
were used during the welding of the test coupons and that the resulting tensile, bend, or macro-etch
test results are in compliance with Section IX?

(a) By having the Manufacturer certify and notarize the PQR.
(b) By having the welder certify the PQR
(c) By having the Manufacturer certify the PQR.

25. A SMAW WPS was qualified with a 6 pipe in the 1G position, what positions are permitted on the
WPS in production?

(a) Overhead only.
(b) Flat and Overhead.
(c) All positions.

26. The qualification of the _____ is the welding of test coupons, the testing of specimens, and recording
the data and test results in a ___

(a) WPS-PQR
(b) PQR-WPS
(c) WPS-WPQ

27. Under what conditions may changes be made to the PQR?

(a) Editorial or Addenda.
(b) To suit production requirements.
(c) None.

28. A PQR is a record of the welding data used to weld a test coupon and the test results.

(a) True.
(b) False.

29. A Manufacturer may not subcontract the preparation of test materials for welding and subsequent
work on preparation of test specimens from the completed weldment, performance of NDE, and
mechanical tests.

(a) True
(b) False

30. What should be considered if PQR Form QW-483 is used to document the essential variables that
were used during the welding of the test coupons?

(a) The Form does not easily lend itself to cover multiple processes.
(b) Revisions are not permitted except as defined in QW-200.2 (c).
(c) None, form QW-483 is for Welding Procedure Specifications (WPS).

31. Why have P-No's. been assigned for different base metals?

(a) They are unique identifiers assigned by Section VIII.
(b) P-No's. simplify the identification of various ASTM materials.
(c) To reduce the number of welding procedure qualifications, dependent on characteristics such as
composition, weldability, and mechanical properties.

32. What limitations are invoked when a WPS is qualified by welding in a specific position?

(a) An angular deviation of 15
o
from the specified horizontal and vertical planes is permitted during
welding,
(b) An angular deviation of 5
o
from the specified inclined plane is permitted during welding.
(c) Welding processes must be compatible, and the welding rods, electrodes, and filler metals must
be suitable for their use in specific positions.

33. The identification of the _____shall be referenced on the _____.

(a) WPS-PQR
(b) WPS-WPQ
(c) PQR-WPS

34. An organization's operational control of welding procedure qualification for two or more companies of
different names shall be defined in their _____.

(a) Manufacturing Procedures
(b) Quality Control System
(c) Qualified Supplier's List

35. What is the purpose of assigning Group Numbers to base metals?

(a) To classify the different base metal Grades.
(b) To classify the metals within P-No's. for the purpose of procedure qualification where notch-
toughness requirements are specified.
(c) To simplify the identification of ASTM materials.

36. The _____ is a record of the variables that were used during the welding of the test coupon and that
the resulting tensile, bend or macro-etch (as required) test results are in compliance with Section IX

(a) WPS
(b) PQR
(c) WPQ
(d) All of the above

37. What are the retest requirements for a welder who has failed his renewal qualification test after he
has received additional training or practice?

(a) Complete requalification in accordance with QW-301.2.
(b) A new test shaII be made for each position he failed.
(c) Weld a single test coupon of either plate or pipe.

38. What is the length of a welder's first production weld that needs to be radiographed for qualification?

(a) 3'
(b) 3
(c) 6"

39. What is the extent of radiography for a welder who is qualified by radiography?

(a) 3 and shall include the weld circumference for pipe.
(b) 3" and shall include 1/2" either side of the weld on plate.
(c) 6" and shall include the weld circumference for pipe.

40. By what method does a Manufacturer identify the work of a welder or welding operator?

(a) By assigning an identification number, letter, or symbol.
(b) By having the welder or welding operator initial the traveler or process sheet
(c) This is no longer required

41. Welder's and welding operators who pass the tests for groove welds are qualified for what groove and
fillet weld positions?

(a) The positions of groove and fillet welds shown in QW-461.9.
(b) In all thicknesses of material, sizes of fillet welds, and diameters of pipe and tube 2-7/8" and less.
(c) In all thicknesses of material sizes of fillet welds, and diameters of pipe and tube 2-7/8" and over.

42. Two methods by which welders or welding operators may be qualified are by radiography of a _____
or by _____ taken from a test coupon.

(a) test coupon -bend tests
(b test coupon -tension tests
(c) tension test -bend tests

43. What are the immediate retests required if a welder fails the tests of QW-302.1 or the examination of
QW-302.2?

(a) Mechanical tests only.
(b) Mechanical tests and radiographic examination respectively, two consecutive coupons for each
position failed.
(c) Radiographic examination only.

44. With the exception of the GTAW welding process, what P-Numbers are prohibited in the qualification
of welders by radiography for all of the other welding processes listed in QW-304?

(a) P-21 to 25 and

P-41 to 43
(b) P-21 to 25 and P-30 to 36
(c) P-21 to 25 and P-51 to 53

45. A change from Automatic to Machine welding is classified as a __________ variable for a welding
operator.

(a) Non-essential
(b) Essential
(c) Supplementary Essential

46. A welder who welded using only one process and no other processes for more than six months loses
his qualification in the other processes for which he is was previously qualified.

(a) True
(b) False

47. What option does a Manufacturer have if a welder fails the production weld alternative of QW-304.1?

(a) Radiograph an additional 6 of the same production weld.
(b) Radiograph an additional 12 of the same production weld.
(c) Radiographing twice the required length of weld.

48. If the radiograph of a production weld used for welder qualification does not meet the radiographic
standards:

(a) There must be radiograph an additional 6 of the same production weld.
(b) The welder shall be retested by mechanical tests.
(c) The welder has failed the test, requiring RT of all his production welds and repairs shall be done
by a qualified welder.

49. What is the intent of performance qualification tests?

(a) To determine the ability of welders and welding operators to make sound welds.
(b) Provide direction to the welder or welding operator.
(c) To prove the mechanical properties of the weldment.

50. Why is the Manufacturer responsible for conducting tests to qualify welders and welding operators in
accordance with a qualified WPS which his organization employs in construction?

(a) Because welder's performance is not transferable from employer to employer.
(b) To assure that they are capable of developing the minimum requirements specified
(c) Because responsibility of the qualifying welders can be delegated to another organization.
(d) None of the above.

51. A welder shall be re-qualified whenever a change is made in one or more of his ______ variables
listed for each welding process

(a) essential
(b) nonessential
(c) essential and/or nonessential

52. A welder can be qualified by radiographic examination when using the GMAW process in the short-
circuiting mode.

(a) True
(b) False

53. What information shall as a minimum be recorded on the WPQ?

(a) Essential and nonessential variables for each welding process.
(b) Essential variables, type of tests and test results, and the ranges qualified.
(c) Essential and nonessential variables, type of tests and Fig. No.'s, and the ranges qualified.

54. When performance qualification is performed in accordance with a WPS that requires preheat or post
weld heat treatment, these may be omitted.

(a) True
(b) False

55. What are the re-qualification requirements for a welder who has had his qualifications revoked
because there was a specific reason to question his ability to make sound welds?

(a) Weld a single test coupon of either pipe or plate, of any material, thickness or diameter, in any
position.
(b) Weld a test coupon appropriate to qualify him for the production work he will perform.
(c) May be extended when welding

with another process.

56. What position limitations are placed on the welder if he prepares the WPS qualification test coupons?

(a) Qualification of the WPS in any position qualifies for all positions.
(b) Qualified only within the limits for positions specified in QW-303.
(c) Qualified only for the position(s) used during the welding of the test coupon.

57. For performance qualification, how are the deposited weld metal thickness limitations determined if a
single test coupon is used for a combination welding process?

(a) They are considered individually for each welder and each process used.
(b) In accordance with QW-451.
(c) In accordance with QW-452.

58. Failure of any portion of a combination test in a single test coupon constitutes failure of the entire
combination.

(a) True
(b) False

59. Under what conditions may a WPS that has been qualified without notch toughness be used for
applications where they are applicable?

(a) Qualification without notch toughness qualifies the procedure with notch toughness requirements.
(b) After the procedure has been requalified to include the notch toughness requirements.
(c) After preparing an additional test coupon using the same essential variables, but additionally with
all the required supplementary essential variables, in a coupon long enough to provide the
necessary specimens.

60. As a convenience, variables for procedure and performance qualifications are summarized in ______
and ______ respectively.

(a) QW-250 - QW-350
(b) QW-451 - QW-452
(c) QW-252 - QW-265

61. A SMAW WPS was written with notch-toughness test. The test coupon on the supporting PQR is 3/8
in thickness. What would be the base metal thickness qualified range for the WPS?

(a) 1/16" thru 3/4"
(b) 3/8" thru 3/4"
(c) 3/16" thru 3/4"

62. A change in a welding condition which will affect the mechanical properties of a weldment or the
ability of a welder to deposit sound weld metal is dependent upon which type of variable?

(a) Nonessential
(b) Essential

63. The test coupon for a PQR was made using P5A to P4 materials. The base metals qualified would be;

(a) P-No.5A to P-No.4 only
(b) P-No.5A to P-No.4, P-No.3, and P-No.1
(c) P-No.5A to P-No.5A and P-No.4 to P-No.4
(d) None of the above

64. The grouping of ______ and ______ by ______ are essentially based on usability characteristics,
which fundamentally determine the ability of welders to make satisfactory welds.

(a) base metals - filler metals - Group No.'s
(b) electrodes - welding rods - F-No.'s
(c) P-No.'s - F-No.'s - A-No,'s

65. What production base metals are welders qualified to weld if a P No.8 base metal was used in their
qualification tests?

(a) P-No.1 through P-No.11 P-No.34 and P-No.41 through 49.
(b) P-No.1 through P-No.8 and P-No.41 to 45.
(c) P-No.1 through P-No.8
(d) P-No.8 to P-No.8

66. What welding process addresses the welder's essential performance variables for the flux cored arc
welding process (FCAW)?

(a) SAW
(b) PAW
(c) GMAW
(d) None of the above

67. When qualifying a welder in the 6G position using a 6" schedule, 40 (0.280) pipe test coupon, the
required type and number of tests are:

(a) One face bend test and one root bend test
(b) Two side bends
(c) Either two face and two root bend or four side bend tests
(d) Two face and two root bend tests

68. A welder has been qualified using a NPS 2" (2.375) Schedule 40 (0.154) pipe in the 5G position. Is
he qualified to perform a groove weld of a NPS 3/4" (1.050) Schedule160 (0.219) pipe for the
overhead portion of a weld in the field?

(a) yes, because 5G qualifies Overhead and NPS 2 qualifies down to 1 diameter.
(b) no because, the thickness range qualified by a 0.154 coupon will not allow the welding of a
0.219 production weld.

69. In reviewing the form QW-483 (PQR form) in a Code shop, the Authorized Inspector noticed the
thickness of test coupon was documented as 3/4" SA-285C plate. However on the back of the form
thickness of the specimen was recorded as 0.725". The difference in thickness is most likely because
of___________________

(a) A mistake in the testing laboratory, they documented a different set of coupons on this PQR.
(b) The thickness of the specimen is approximate.
(c) The test coupon has been machined down to 0.725" to offset the heat distortion due to welding.

70. A welder was qualified by a plate groove weld in the 4G (overhead) position. He will be qualified to
weld plate and pipe over 24 O.D. in the flat and overhead positions, but pipe less than or equal to
24" O.D. only in the flat position.

(a) True
(b) False

71. A welder is qualified in 6G position on a 2 schedule 160 pipe (2-3/8" O.D.) which has a wall thickness
of 0.218. What are the diameters, thickness ranges and, what position (s) is/are the welder qualified
to weld?

(a) 2.375" O.D. and over, all positions with 0.218 maximum weld metal thickness
(b) 2" NPS and over, all positions with 0.436 maximum weld metal thickness
(c) 1.00, O.D. and over, all positions with 0.436 maximum weld metal thickness

1. A - QW-161 45. B - QW-361.1
2. C - QW- 100.1 46. A - QW-322.1(b)
3. A - QW-171.2, 171.3 47. C - QW-321.3(b)
4. B - QW- 191.2.2 48. C - QW-304.2
5. B - QW-100.3 49. A - QW-301.1
6. A - QW-152 50. B - QW-300.2
7. B - QW-153.1(d) 51. A - QW-351
8. A - QW-100.3 52. B - QW-304
9. A - QW-191.1 53. B - QW-301.4
10. B - QW-100.3 54. A - QW-301.2
11. B - QW-141.1, 141.2 55. B - QW-322.2(b)
12. A - QW-122 56. B - QW-301.2
13. B - QW-100.2 57. C - QW-306
14. A - QW-142, 143 58. A - QW-306
15. A - QW-100.1 59. C - QW-401.3
16. C - QW-153.1(b) 60. A - QW-401
17. B - QW-163 61. A - QW-451.1
18. B - QW-151.1(c) 62. B - QW-401.1, 401.2
19. C - QW-100.2 63. B - QW-424.1
20. A - QW-161 64. B - QW-431
21. B - QW-161 65. A - QW-423.1
22. B - QW-200.1,200.2 66. C - QW-355
23. A - QW-211 67. D - QW-452.1(a) note 1 t<3/8 no SB
24. C - QW-201 68. A - QW-452.3, 461.9
25. C - QW-203 not true for welders 69. C - QW-462.1(a)
26. A - QW-201 70. A - QW-461.9
27. A - QW-200.2(c) 71. C - QW-452.3, 452.1(b)
28. A - QW-200.2(a)
29. B - QW-201
30. A - QW-200.1(d)
31. C - QW-200.3
32. C - QW-203
33. C - QW-200.1(b)
34. B - QW-201
35. B - QW-200.3
36. B - QW-200.2(a)
37. B - QW-321.4
38. C - QW-304.1
39. C - QW-302.2
40. A - QW-301.3
41. A - QW-303.1
42. A - QW-302.1, 302.2
43. B - QW-321
44. C - QW-304

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