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1.

What is a substance that cannot be broken down into simpler substances with all the
characteristics of the substance?
Correct Answer: an element
2. What particle(s) make up the nucleus of an atom?
Correct Answer: protons and neutrons
3. The number of protons in an atom's nucleus is the __________.
Correct Answer: atomic number
4. Electrons tend to occupy the __________ energy level.
Correct Answer: lowest available
5. What determines the chemical behavior of an element?
Correct Answer: the valence electrons
6. Isotopes have the same number of __________ but different number of __________.
Correct Answer: "protons, neutrons"
7. What do the nucleus of some isotopes release during radioactive decay?
Correct Answer: radiation
8. What makes an element stable?
Correct Answer: if their outermost energy level is full
9. What makes an element stable?
Correct Answer: if their outermost energy level is full
10. A __________ is composed of two or more atoms held together by covalent bonds.
Correct Answer: molecule
11. Why does a water molecule have a bent shape?
Correct Answer: it's a polar molecule
12. What is an ion?
Correct Answer: a charged particle
13. What is an ion?
Correct Answer: a charged particle
14. What is the attractive force between two particles of opposite charge called?
Correct Answer: an ionic bond
15. What characteristic of a metal allows it to conduct electricity?
Correct Answer: it's metallic bond
16. Bases produce __________ in solution.
Correct Answer: hydroxide ions
17. : What is a solid that has particles arranged in regular geometric patterns?
Correct Answer: a crystalline structure
18. The change of state from a solid to a gas is called __________.
Correct Answer: sublimation
19. "When a gas cools, it __________ thermal energy in the process of __________."
Correct Answer: "releases, condensation"
20. "A __________ is a solid that has randomly ordered, densely packed atoms."
Correct Answer: glass
21. Which specialized area of Earth science is about objects beyond Earth's atmosphere?
Correct Answer: astronomy
22. Which of the following is not a specialized area of Earth science.
Correct Answer: biology
23. What is the study of Earth materials and processes called?
Correct Answer: geology
24. What type of scientist studies ocean currents and ocean chemistry?
Correct Answer: an oceanographer
25. A __________ studies groundwater and surface water.
Correct Answer: hydrologist
26. What is the partially molten layer of Earth called?
Correct Answer: the asthenosphere
27. What is the general composition of Earth's continental crust?
Correct Answer: granite
28. : What part of Earth is thought to be composed of iron and nickel?
Correct Answer: the core
29. The __________ includes organisms living on Earth and their environments.
Correct Answer: biosphere
30. What is technology?
Correct Answer: Technology is the application of scientific discoveries.
31. What is a hypothesis?
Correct Answer: A hypothesis is a suggested explanation of an observation.
32. The __________ is the part of an experiment that is changed by the person doing the
experiment.
Correct Answer: independent variable
33. What part of an experiment is used to show that results are due to the condition being
tested?
Correct Answer: the control
34. Graphs and charts of data can be used for __________.
Correct Answer: data analysis
35. What is the standard SI unit for measuring length?
Correct Answer: a meter
36. What is the standard SI unit of weight?
Correct Answer: a Newton
37. Which temperature scale is the standard in SI?
Correct Answer: Kelvin scale
38. A __________ is a simplified version of a system.
Correct Answer: model
39. What explains the behavior of natural phenomena?
Correct Answer: scientific laws
40. What is an example of an SI unit of area?
Correct Answer: m2
41. The equator circles Earth __________.
Correct Answer: halfway between the north and south poles
42. The north pole is __________ latitude.
Correct Answer: 90 º N
43. How are places on Earth located in an east or west direction?
Correct Answer: lines of longitude
44. : What is 0 º longitude called?
Correct Answer: the prime meridian
45. : What is the distance of 1[degree] longitude?
Correct Answer: it changes from 111 km to a point
46. How many time zones are on Earth?
Correct Answer: 24
47. How many time zones are in the United States?
Correct Answer: 6
48. If you travel west across the International Date Line you would move your calendar
__________.
Correct Answer: forward one day
49. A __________ projection has parallel lines of longitude and latitude.
Correct Answer: Mercator
50. What type of projection is best for mapping small areas or weather maps?
Correct Answer: conic projection
51. A __________ projection is made by projecting points and lines from a globe onto a
piece of paper that touches the globe at one point.
Correct Answer: gnomonic
52. What type of map shows the elevation of Earth's surface?
Correct Answer: topographic map
53. What is a contour line?
Correct Answer: a lines that connect points of equal elevation
54. A __________ explains what the symbols of a map represent.
Correct Answer: legend
55. 1:24 000 is an example of a __________.
Correct Answer: fractional scale
56. The process of collecting data far above Earth's surface is called __________.
Correct Answer: remote sensing
57. What is the electromagnetic spectrum?
Correct Answer: the arrangement of electromagnetic radiation
58. How does a Landsat satellite differentiate between objects on Earth's surface?
Correct Answer: "Features on Earth radiate warmth at different frequencies, which show
up as different colors on Landsat images."
59. What does GPS stand for?
Correct Answer: Global Positioning System
60. How many satellites are in the GPS?
Correct Answer: 24
61. What is the name of Alfred Wegener's hypothesis about moving landmasses?
Correct Answer: continental drift
62. The supercontinent from Wegener's theory of continental drift is called __________.
Correct Answer: Pangaea
63. Why did Wegener think that the Antarctic continent had been closer to the equator in the
geologic past?
Correct Answer: existence of coal beds
64. What was one reason that Wegener's hypothesis of continental drift was rejected?
Correct Answer: He could not explain what was moving the continents.
65. What type of technology do scientists use to map the topography of the ocean floor?
Correct Answer: sonar
66. A __________ is a device that can detect changes in the strength of the magnetic field.
Correct Answer: magnetometer
67. What two topographic features of the ocean floor were discovered only with the use of
sonar?
Correct Answer: mid-ocean ridges and deep-sea trenches
68. Rocks close to mid-ocean ridges are __________ rocks far from mid-ocean ridges.
Correct Answer: younger than
69. The thickness of ocean sediments that are close to a mid-ocean ridge is __________ the
thickness of ocean sediments that are far from mid-ocean ridges.
Correct Answer: less than
70. What is the study of Earth's magnetic record?
Correct Answer: paleomagnetism
71. What is the polarity of a magnetic field that has the same polarity as the present magnetic
field?
Correct Answer: a normal polarity
72. Harry Hess' theory of __________ explained how ocean crust is generated and destroyed.
Correct Answer: seafloor spreading
73. What causes the seafloor to spread?
Correct Answer: rising molten magma
74. The __________ states that Earth's crust and ridged upper mantle are broken into plates
that move at different rates and in different directions.
Correct Answer: theory of plate tectonics
75. Where do tectonic plates interact?
Correct Answer: at plate boundaries
76. : "When a divergent plate boundary forms on continents, a __________ forms."
Correct Answer: rift valley
77. What is the process called when one plate is forced beneath another at a convergent plate
boundary?
Correct Answer: subduction
78. What is thought to be the driving mechanism of plate movement?
Correct Answer: convection currents in the mantle
79. How are the convection currents set in motion?
Correct Answer: slab push and ridge pull
80. A place where two plates slide laterally past each other is called a __________.
Correct Answer: transform boundary
81. Which is not a characteristic of a mineral?
Correct Answer: organic solid
82. What is the correct atomic composition of quartz?
Correct Answer: two oxygen atoms and one silica atom
83. A __________ is a solid in which the atoms are arranged in repeating patterns.
Correct Answer: crystal
84. What is the molten material under Earth's crust called?
Correct Answer: magma
85. "When magma cools quickly __________ crystals form, and when it cools slowly,
__________ crystals form." Correct Answer: "small, large"
86. How do crystals of salt form?
Correct Answer: from solution
87. What are the common minerals called?
Correct Answer: rock-forming minerals
88. What is the most abundant element in Earth's crust?
Correct Answer: oxygen
89. Which of the following is an arrangement of silica tetrahedra?
Correct Answer: sheet
90. What mineral group does gold belong to?
Correct Answer: native elements
91. What is an example of an oxide?
Correct Answer: magnetite
92. : What describes the way a mineral feels?
Correct Answer: texture
93. What is caused by the presence of trace elements in a mineral?
Correct Answer: color
94. A mineral's __________ is the color when it is powdered.
Correct Answer: streak
95. __________ is the measure of how easily a mineral can be scratched.
Correct Answer: Hardness
96. What is the numerical value for the hardest mineral on Mohs' hardness scale?
Correct Answer: 10
97. "If a mineral breaks along distinct planes, it is said to have __________."
Correct Answer: cleavage
98. What happens to calcium carbonate when it is exposed to hydrochloric acid?
Correct Answer: It fizzes
99. What makes a mineral a gem?
Correct Answer: its rarity and beauty
100. Why does magnetite pick up small pieces of iron?
Correct Answer: It's magnetic.
101. What is the process by which rocks at Earth's surface break down and change?
Correct Answer: weathering
102. The removal and transport of weathered materials is known as __________.
Correct Answer: erosion
103. What type of weathering involves changes in the size or shape of the rock?
Correct Answer: physical weathering

104. The repeated thawing and freezing of water in the cracks of rocks is called
__________.
Correct Answer: frost wedging
105. When rocks undergo chemical changes as the result of chemical reactions it is
called __________.
Correct Answer: chemical weathering
106. How does temperature effect chemical weathering?
Correct Answer: It affects the rate of weathering.
107. The chemical reaction of oxygen with other substances is called __________.
Correct Answer: oxidation
108. What human activity causes acid precipitation to form?
Correct Answer: burning of fossil fuels and motor vehicle exhaust
109. What type of climate does chemical weathering readily occur in?
Correct Answer: warm and wet
110. Physical weathering rates are highest in areas with __________.
Correct Answer: repeated freezing and thawing
111. "The __________ the total surface area, the __________ chemical weathering
that can occur."
Correct Answer: "greater, more"
112. Eroded materials that are transported are finally dropped in a process called
__________.
Correct Answer: deposition
113. What is formed by the deposition of large amounts of sediment into a body of
water by a river?
Correct Answer: a delta
114. What is NOT a feature of glacial erosion?
Correct Answer: a barrier island
115. What is a farming method that can reduce the effect of erosion?
Correct Answer: planting wind barriers
116. __________ is the loose covering of broken rock particles and decaying organic
matter that covers bedrock.
Correct Answer: Soil
117. Soil that is located above its parent rock is called __________.
Correct Answer: a residual soil
118. Soil that has been moved to a location away from its parent rock is called
__________.
Correct Answer: a transported soil
119. What soil horizon has high concentrations of organic matter and humus?
Correct Answer: horizon A

120. How are soil textures classified?


Correct Answer: grain size
121. All mass movement occurs __________.
Correct Answer: on a slope
122. Which is NOT a variable that influences mass movement?
Correct Answer: humidity
123. In what type of mass movement does material move as a block?
Correct Answer: slide
124. Why does water influence mass movement?
Correct Answer: It acts as a lubricant
125. "The slow, steady, downhill flow of loose material is called __________."
Correct Answer: creep
126. What type of mass movement occurred as a result of the eruption of Mount St.
Helens?
Correct Answer: mudflow
127. What are landslides called when the material being moved downslope is snow?
Correct Answer: an avalanche
128. Wind can move smaller particles by __________ and larger particles by
__________.
Correct Answer: "suspension, saltation"
129. "Unlike water, wind commonly can __________."
Correct Answer: move sediment uphill
130. The lowering of the land surface due to wind removing particles is called
__________.
Correct Answer: deflation
131. What is a surface that has only large particles because the wind has removed the
finer particles?
Correct Answer: a desert pavement
132. What is a rock called that has been shaped by wind-blown sediments?
Correct Answer: a ventifact
133. When is wind-transported material deposited?
Correct Answer: when the wind slows
134. The __________ side of a dune is called the __________ side and is located on
the side from which the wind blows.
Correct Answer: "gentle-sloped, windward"
135. How are dunes classified?
Correct Answer: shape
136. "A __________ is a large, moving mass of ice."
Correct Answer: glacier
137. What type of glacier covers Antarctica?
Correct Answer: a continental glacier
138. What part of an alpine glacier moves the fastest?
Correct Answer: middle
139. What are scratches left in rock by a glacier called?
Correct Answer: striations
140. Ridges consisting of till deposited by glaciers are called __________.
Correct Answer: moraines
141. How is Earth's water supply recycled?
Correct Answer: the water cycle
142. Water that flows downslope along Earth's surface is called __________.
Correct Answer: runoff
143. What condition is necessary for water to soak into the ground?
Correct Answer: open pore spaces
144. Soil with vegetation allows __________ water to infiltrate than soil without
vegetation.
Correct Answer: more
145. Which combination of characteristics allows the greatest amount of water to
infiltrate into the ground?
Correct Answer: "little slopes, sandy soils, and cool temperatures"
146. Small streams that flow into larger streams are called __________.
Correct Answer: tributaries
147. What is the name for the land area that separates two watersheds?
Correct Answer: a divide
148. How can a watershed's water quality be measured?
Correct Answer: measuring the concentration of material in solution
149. The amount of material in suspension is dependent upon the __________ of the
stream water.
Correct Answer: volume and velocity
150. What are large particles that are rolled or pushed on the bed of the stream called?
Correct Answer: bed load
151. Which is NOT a factor of a stream's discharge?
Correct Answer: suspended load
152. "As the discharge of a stream increases, __________."
Correct Answer: the carrying capacity increases
153. What do USGS gauging stations directly measure?
Correct Answer: water levels of streams
154. What confines the water of a stream?
Correct Answer: stream banks
155. Water moves at the maximum velocity in the __________ of a straight stream and
the __________ of a meander.
Correct Answer: "center, outside"
156. __________ are depositional features formed at the bases of slopes.
Correct Answer: Alluvial fans
157. The renewed downcutting of a streambed is called __________.
Correct Answer: rejuvenation
158. How did the Finger Lakes of New York and the Great Lakes of the Midwest
form?
Correct Answer: glacial processes
159. What process adds oxygen to a lake?
Correct Answer: photosynthesis of plants
160. A __________ is an area that is covered by water for a large part of a year.
Correct Answer: wetland
161. When does magma form?
Correct Answer: when temperatures are hot enough to melt rock
162. "As the pressure of a rock __________, the temperature at which it melts
__________."
Correct Answer: "increases, increases"
163. How does water in a rock affect melting temperature?
Correct Answer: water lowers melting temperature
164. Which is NOT a major type of igneous rock?
Correct Answer: schist
165. __________ is the internal resistance to flow of a liquid.
Correct Answer: Viscosity
166. "Rhyolitic magma has the __________ viscosity, the __________ gas content and
the __________ silica content of any type of magma."
Correct Answer: "highest, highest, highest"
Your answer was correct.
167. Why does magma move up to and through Earth's crust?
Correct Answer: It is less dense than surrounding rock.
168. What is the name for an igneous intrusion that is smaller than a batholith but
similar in shape?
Correct Answer: stock
169. A __________ is a mushroom-shaped pluton with a round top and flat bottom.
Correct Answer: laccolith
170. A tabular pluton that cuts across preexisting rock is called a __________.
Correct Answer: dike
171. What type of igneous pluton is tabular and parallel to surrounding rock layers?
Correct Answer: a sill
172. What type of texture do most plutons have?
Correct Answer: coarse grained
173. When magma reaches Earth's surface it is called __________.
Correct Answer: lava
174. How is a volcanic crater connected to a magma chamber?
Correct Answer: by a vent
175. What is the name of a large volcanic crater over 1 km in diameter?
Correct Answer: a caldera
176. : Rock fragments thrown into the air during a volcanic eruption are called
__________.
Correct Answer: tephra
177. "What are large, angular fragments thrown from a volcano called?"
Correct Answer: volcanic blocks
178. What is a pyroclastic flow?
Correct Answer: "a mixture of volcanic gas, ash, and other tephra "
179. Where do most volcanoes form?
Correct Answer: at plate boundaries
180. Volcanoes that form far from plate boundaries form as the result of __________.
Correct Answer: hot spots
181. What is the largest freshwater supply in the world?
Correct Answer: ice caps and glaciers
182. Groundwater is __________ percent of the world's water supply.
Correct Answer: 0.31
183. How does water get into the atmosphere?
Correct Answer: evaporation
184. Soil can hold water because of its __________.
Correct Answer: porosity
185. Water can move through soil because of its __________.
Correct Answer: permeability
186. The depth of the water table below the surface of land __________.
Correct Answer: varies depending on local conditions
187. What type of rock has the lowest permeability?
Correct Answer: shale
188. "If you were going to make a pond in your backyard, which material would you
choose to line the bottom?"
Correct Answer: clay
189. Groundwater flow takes place through layers called __________.
Correct Answer: aquifers
190. Why does groundwater dissolve limestone?
Correct Answer: Groundwater is slightly acidic.
191. How are caves formed?
Correct Answer: dissolution and precipitation of limestone
192. "What is water called when it has a high concentration of iron, magnesium, or
calcium?"
Correct Answer: hard
193. When does water deposit calcium carbonate?
Correct Answer: when it loses carbon dioxide or evaporates
194. When does groundwater become surface water?
Correct Answer: when the water table intersects Earth's surface
195. A __________ occurs where groundwater is discharged at Earth's surface at the
contact between an aquifer and an aquiclude.
Correct Answer: spring
196. How is the water of a hot spring heated?
Correct Answer: It flows close to an area of recent igneous activity
197. The process of water being added to the water table from precipitation is called
__________.
Correct Answer: recharge
198. Which of the following uses the most water in the United States?
Correct Answer: agriculture
199. What is one possible consequence of excessive withdrawal of groundwater?
Correct Answer: subsidence
200. Artesian aquifers __________.
Correct Answer: contain water under pressure
201. What two elements make up the majority of Earth's atmosphere?
Correct Answer: nitrogen and oxygen
202. Why is the amount of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere important?
Correct Answer: it helps regulate the amount of energy the atmosphere absorbs
203. What type of solid particles play a role in cloud formation?
Correct Answer: dust and salt particles
204. What layer of the atmosphere contains most of the water vapor?
Correct Answer: troposphere
205. What layer are light gases such as helium and hydrogen found in?
Correct Answer: exosphere
206. __________ is the transfer of energy through space by electromagnetic waves.
Correct Answer: Radiation
207. What percent of incoming radiation from the Sun is absorbed by Earth's surface?
Correct Answer: 50
208. __________ is the transfer of energy that occurs when molecules collide.
Correct Answer: Conduction
209. __________ is a measurement of how fast or slow molecules move.
Correct Answer: Temperature
210. "__________ is the transfer of energy that fuels atmospheric processes, while
__________ is used to measure and interpret that energy."
Correct Answer: "Heat, temperature"
211. The change of state of matter from a gas to a liquid is called __________.
Correct Answer: condensation
212. Why does the temperature of air decrease in the lower atmosphere with the
increase of elevation?
Correct Answer: The air is farther from heat source.
213. Atmospheric pressure __________ with __________ altitude.
Correct Answer: "decreases, increased "
214. Wind can be thought of as air moving from an area of __________ to an area of
__________.
Correct Answer: "high pressure, low pressure"
215. The ratio of water vapor in a volume of air relative to how much water vapor that
volume of air is capable of holding is called __________.
Correct Answer: relative humidity
216. Dust and sea salt are examples of __________ that aid in the formation of cloud
droplets.
Correct Answer: condensation nuclei
217. "When condensation takes place, __________ is released and __________ the
air."
Correct Answer: "latent heat, warms"
218. Clouds are classified by __________.
Correct Answer: The altitude of the cloud formation and its shape
219. What is the process by which cloud droplets collide and form larger droplets?
Correct Answer: coalescence
220. Visible or audible forms of atmospheric electricity are called __________.
Correct Answer: electrometeors
221. What is the current state of the atmosphere called?
Correct Answer: weather
222. Long-term variations in weather for a particular area is __________.
Correct Answer: climate
223. The exchange of heat or moisture between an air mass and the underlying surface
is called __________.
Correct Answer: air mass modification
224. What causes the Coriolis effect?
Correct Answer: Earth's rotation

225. What wind system occurs at 30 degrees north and south of the equator?
Correct Answer: the trade winds
226. What is the convergence of the trade winds from both hemispheres called?
Correct Answer: the intertropical convergence zone
227. "Narrow bands of fast, high-altitude westerly winds are called __________."
Correct Answer: jet streams
228. A __________ is a narrow region that separates two air masses of different
densities.
Correct Answer: front
229. "In __________, warm air displaces cold air and it develops a gradual frontal
slope."
Correct Answer: a warm front
230. "In the northern hemisphere, in a surface __________ system, air __________
and rotates in a __________ direction."
231. High-pressure systems are usually associated with __________ and low-pressure
systems are associated with __________.
232. A __________ is used to measure pressure.
Correct Answer: barometer
233. What type of instrument is used to measure wind speed?
Correct Answer: an anemometer
234. What is the network of weather stations located across the United States called?
Correct Answer: Automated Surface Observing System (ASOS)
235. A __________ is a record of weather data for a particular location and time.
Correct Answer: station model
236. What do isopleths represent?
Correct Answer: lines of equal or constant values
237. A forecast that relies on numerical data is called __________.
Correct Answer: a digital forecast
238. A forecast that involves comparing current weather patterns to past weather
patterns is called __________.
Correct Answer: an analog forecast
239. What are four to seven day forecasts are based on?
Correct Answer: circulation patterns of the troposphere
240. What type of clouds produce thunderstorms?
Correct Answer: cumulonimbus
241. What is the first step of thunderstorm formation?
Correct Answer: an abundant source of moisture in the lower atmosphere
242. How are thunderstorms classified?
Correct Answer: by the mechanism that caused the air to rise
243. What type of thunderstorm is caused by advancing cold and warm fronts?
Correct Answer: frontal thunderstorms
244. Which is NOT a stage of a thunderstorm?
Correct Answer: condensing stage
245. What happens in the developing or cumulus stage of a thunderstorm?
Correct Answer: Air rises vertically.
246. "As the instability of the air __________, the strength of the thunderstorm's
updrafts and downdrafts __________."
Correct Answer: "increases, increase"
247. "Thunderstorms that have intense, rotating updrafts are called __________."
Correct Answer: supercells
248. What causes lightning?
Correct Answer: friction between updrafts and downdrafts in a cumulonimbus cloud

249. How hot is the air heated by lightning?


Correct Answer: 30 000[superscript degrees] C
250. What causes thunder?
Correct Answer: the expansion and contraction of the air heated by lightning
251. Violent downdrafts from a thunderstorm that are concentrated in a local area are
called __________.
Correct Answer: downbursts
252. What atmospheric condition increases the likeliness of a flood?
Correct Answer: "weak, upper-atmospheric current that moves storms slowly"
253. What type of thunderstorms are tornadoes associated with?
Correct Answer: supercells
254. "Large, rotating, low-pressure storms are called __________."
Correct Answer: tropical cyclones
255. : What causes the air of a tropical storm to rotate?
Correct Answer: the Coriolis effect
256. Where do the disturbances that cause tropical storms originate?
Correct Answer: the ITCZ or from tropical waves
257. : What is the calm center of a hurricane called?
Correct Answer: eye
258. A __________ is a mound of water that is pushed landward by the winds of a
hurricane.
Correct Answer: storm surge
259. What is the wind chill factor?
Correct Answer: the phenomenon of heat loss from human skin due to wind and
temperature
260. How is climate different than weather?
Correct Answer: Climate describes the long term weather patterns.
Your answer was correct.
261. What type of study shows extreme fluctuation of weather variables?
Correct Answer: climatologic
262. What region are meteorlogical normals correctly describing?
Correct Answer: Only the specific place where the meteorologic data were collected.
263. The area of the globe that receives the most solar radiation year round is called
the __________?
Correct Answer: tropics
264. The climates of coastal zones are affected by __________.
Correct Answer: topographic effects
265. Deserts are commonly found on the leeward sides of mountains because of
__________.
Correct Answer: orogenic lifting
266. "What is the Koeppen [insert two dots over ""o""]classification system based on?"
Correct Answer: "mean monthly values of temperature and precipitation, and vegetation"
267. What characterizes tropical climates of Koeppen's [insert two dots over
""o""]classification?"
Correct Answer: constant high temperatures
268. In what climate do evaporation rates exceed precipitation rates?
Correct Answer: dry climates
269. A steppe is a subtype of __________ climates.
Correct Answer: dry
270. What type of climate is common along the western coast of the United States?
Correct Answer: "dry-summer, subtropical"
271. What type of climate is common in the southeastern United States?
Correct Answer: humid subtropical
272. What is an example of a phenomenon that occurs in a microclimate?
Correct Answer: lake-effect snow
273. What is a heat island?
Correct Answer: an area where climate is warmer due to concrete and asphalt
274. Approximately how long is a sun-spot cycle?
Correct Answer: 11 years
275. What can block solar radiation and have a short-term effect on climate?
Correct Answer: the ashes in the atmosphere from a volcanic eruption
276. The natural heating of Earth's surface by the atmosphere is called __________.
Correct Answer: the greenhouse effect
277. The increase in temperature caused by an increase of greenhouse gases in Earth's
atmosphere is called __________.
Correct Answer: global warming
278. Most scientists agree that __________.
Correct Answer: global warming is occurring
279. When did the first modern oceanographic expedition occur?
Correct Answer: late 1800s
280. What type of technology is used to map the ocean floor?
Correct Answer: sonar
281. The velocity of sound in water is __________.
Correct Answer: 1454 m/s
282. "What type of technology is used to study ocean surface temperatures, currents,
and wave conditions?"
Correct Answer: satellites
283. What geologic process released large amounts of water vapor into Earth's early
atmosphere?
Correct Answer: volcanic eruptions
284. "Today, water vapor that is added to Earth's atmosphere is destroyed by
__________."
Correct Answer: ultraviolet radiation
Your answer was correct.
285. "During relatively warm times of Earth's geologic history, the volume of glacial
ice is __________ and sea level is __________."
Correct Answer: "low, high"
286. What is the average salinity of ocean water?
Correct Answer: 35 ppt
287. Why are salinities lower than average in some areas close to the equator?
Correct Answer: abundant precipitation
288. The salinity of seawater is __________ over geologic time.
Correct Answer: constant
289. The density of seawater is dependents on __________.
Correct Answer: salinity and temperature
290. What is the thermocline?
Correct Answer: a transitional layer in the ocean where temperature decreases rapidly
with depth
291. What is the cause of ocean layering?
Correct Answer: density differences
292. What is the source of cold water of Earth's oceans?
Correct Answer: polar seas
293. What is the densest and coldest water mass of all Earth's oceans?
Correct Answer: Antarctic bottom water
294. Waves move ocean water __________.
Correct Answer: in a circular pattern
295. What determines the speed of waves in deep water?
Correct Answer: wavelength
296. What is the difference between low and high tide called?
Correct Answer: tidal range
297. "When the Moon, Earth, and the Sun are aligned, large tidal ranges called
__________ occur."
Correct Answer: spring tides
298. What are wind-driven currents called?
Correct Answer: surface currents
299. __________ are points of land sticking out into the ocean.
Correct Answer: Rocky headlands
300. Waves move at __________ velocity in deep water than in shallow water.
Correct Answer: a faster
301. Straight wave crests bend toward headlands because of a process called
__________.
Correct Answer: wave refraction
302. What flat erosion surface is formed as a headland is worn away?
Correct Answer: wave-cut platform
303. What determines the composition of sediment particles on a beach?
Correct Answer: sediment source
304. Why is water in an estuary commonly brackish?
Correct Answer: It's a mixture of freshwater and salt water.
305. Water movement parallel to shore is called __________.
Correct Answer: longshore current
306. What is a narrow bank of sand that projects into the ocean called?
Correct Answer: a spit
307. What is a barrier island?
Correct Answer: a long ridge of sand that is separate from the mainland
308. What is at each end of a tombolo?
Correct Answer: the mainland and an island

309. Which is NOT a method of building coastal landforms above sea level?
Correct Answer: upwelling of sediments

310. What is the purpose of a breakwater?


Correct Answer: protect the beach from storm waves

311. What is the purpose of a breakwater?


Correct Answer: protect the beach from storm waves
312. "How much lower was sea level 10,000 years ago?"
Correct Answer: 130 m
313. Why is sea level still rising?
Correct Answer: global warming
314. What is causing relative sea level to drop along the West Coast of the United
States?
Correct Answer: tectonic forces
315. Submerged parts of continents are called __________.
Correct Answer: continental margins
316. What is the shallowest part of the continental margin called?
Correct Answer: the continental shelf
317. How are submarine canyons formed?
Correct Answer: turbidity currents
318. What breaks mid-ocean ridges into smaller sections?
Correct Answer: fracture zones
319. __________ are submerged basaltic volcanoes more than 1 km high.
Correct Answer: Seamounts
320. Which in NOT a type of stress?
Correct Answer: strain
321. Which type of stress pulls a material apart?
Correct Answer: tension
322. What does the straight part of a stress-strain graph portray?
Correct Answer: elastic deformation
323. __________ causes permanent strain.
Correct Answer: Ductile deformation
324. A __________ is a fracture in rock, along which movement has occurred."
Correct Answer: fault
325. __________ push and pull rocks in the same direction along which the waves are
traveling.
Correct Answer: Primary waves
326. Which waves are called body waves?
Correct Answer: P-waves and S-waves
327. Which waves are called body waves?
Correct Answer: P-waves and S-waves
328. What is the study of earthquakes called?
Correct Answer: seismology
329. What type of instrument can measure the vibrations of an earthquake?
Correct Answer: seismometer
330. Which wave arrives at a seismic facility first?
Correct Answer: P-wave
331. How can a scientist determine the distance from a seismic facility to the
epicenter?
Correct Answer: using the time between P-waves and S-waves
332. Why does knowledge of Earth's interior come from seismic waves?
Correct Answer: They change speed and direction when they encounter different
materials.
333. What is the crustal part of the lithosphere primarily composed of?
Correct Answer: igneous rocks
334. What is a rating for an earthquake from the modified Mercalli scale based on?
Correct Answer: amount of damage
335. What is a rating from the Richter scale based on?
Correct Answer: size of the largest wave
336. How many times larger is a magnitude 3 than a magnitude 1 earthquake on the
Richter scale?
Correct Answer: 100 times
337. "What are shallow, intermediate, and deep earthquake classifications based on?"
Correct Answer: the depth of the focus
338. What are most earthquakes associated with?
Correct Answer: plate boundaries
339. What is the probability of earthquake occurrence based on?
Correct Answer: reoccurrence rates of earthquakes in an area and the rate of strain
buildup
340. What are two main elevation modes on Earth?
Correct Answer: 0 km to 1 km above sea level and 4 km to 5 km below sea level
341. Continental crust is made mostly of __________ and oceanic crust is made mostly
of __________.
Correct Answer: "granite, basalt"
342. What is isostacy?
Correct Answer: "Continental and oceanic crust displace the mantle, so they are in
equilibrium."
343. Why do mountains have roots?
Correct Answer: The roots provide buoyancy to support the large mass of the mountains.
344. What is orogeny?
Correct Answer: the process of formation of all mountain ranges
345. What types of igneous rocks are associated with island arc complexes?
Correct Answer: basalt and andesite
346. What features do oceanic-continent and oceanic-oceanic convergences have in
common?
Correct Answer: subduction zones and trenches
347. What type of igneous rocks are associated with oceanic-continental
convergences?
Correct Answer: granite and andesite
348. Mount Pinatubo is an example of a mountain formed from __________.
Correct Answer: an oceanic-oceanic convergence
349. Mount St. Helens is a volcano that is located in the state of Washington. It is an
example of a mountain formed from __________.
Correct Answer: an oceanic-continental convergence
350. The tallest mountains on Earth are formed by __________.
Correct Answer: continental-continental convergence
351. What happens when two continental crusts converge?
Correct Answer: Both plates are deformed and pushed upward.
352. Which is not a region of the Appalachian Mountain belt?
Correct Answer: the Adirondack Mountains
353. The Appalachian Mountains are an example of mountains that formed at
__________.
Correct Answer: convergent boundaries
354. The Mid-Atlantic Ridge mountains are an example of mountains forming at
__________.
Correct Answer: divergent boundaries
355. Magma that pushes through the seafloor to form igneous rocks are called
__________.
Correct Answer: pillow basalts
356. The Mid-Atlantic Ridge is __________.
Correct Answer: "a long, continuous chain"
357. Why does the lithosphere bulge at divergent boundaries?
Correct Answer: It is warmer and less dense than surrounding oceanic crust.
358. Which is not a boundary mountain?
Correct Answer: some volcanoes
359. The Hawaiian Islands are made of volcanoes that formed due to __________.
Correct Answer: hot spot activity
360. __________ is a common term for electromagnetic radiation.
Correct Answer: Light
361. How is electromagnetic radiation arranged on the electromagnetic spectrum?
Correct Answer: by wavelength and frequency
362. What determines the light-collecting power of a microscope?
Correct Answer: the area of the opening
363. What type of telescope uses mirrors to bring visible light to a focus?
Correct Answer: reflecting
364. A __________ telescope uses lenses to bring visible light to a focus.
Correct Answer: refracting
365. The Very Large Array is an example of __________.
Correct Answer: interferometry
366. The Earth Moon is __________ in size and has a orbit_________ to its planet
relative to other moons in the solar system.
Correct Answer: "larger, farther"
367. What is albedo?
Correct Answer: the amount of sunlight a surface reflects
368. Why is there no erosion on the Moon?
Correct Answer: There is no atmosphere.
369. "The __________ of the Moon are light in color, mountainous, and heavily
covered by craters."
Correct Answer: highlands
370. What are the long trails of ejecta that radiate outward from craters called?
Correct Answer: rays
371. What are the highlands on the Moon made of?
Correct Answer: lunar breccias
372. "The loose, ground-up rock on the surface of the Moon is called __________."
Correct Answer: regolith
373. Why do no maria exist on the far side of the Moon?
Correct Answer: The crust is twice as thick on the far side.
374. What theory of formation is most widely accepted for Earth's moon?
Correct Answer: the impact theory
375. What instrument can be used to demonstrate that Earth is rotating?
Correct Answer: a Foucault pendulum
376. The plane of Earth's orbit around the Sun is called __________.
Correct Answer: the ecliptic
377. "On the summer solstice, the Sun is directly above the __________, and the
number of daylight hours for the northern hemisphere is __________."
Correct Answer: "tropic of Cancer, at a maximum"
378. "When the Moon is aligned with and between the Sun and Earth, the Moon is at
the __________ stage."
Correct Answer: new moon
379. "When the Sun and Moon are aligned the tides are __________, which is called a
__________."
Correct Answer: "greater than normal, spring tide"
380. The __________ of a planet is its apparent backwards movement of as seen from
Earth's sky.
Correct Answer: retrograde motion
381. What shape describes the orbits of the planets?
Correct Answer: an ellipse
382. When a planet is closest to the Sun it is at __________.
Correct Answer: perihelion
383. The eccentricity of a perfect circle is __________ and a very elongated ellipse is
__________.
Correct Answer: "zero, nearly one"
384. The inner four planets of our solar system are called the __________ planets and
the next four are called the __________ planets.
Correct Answer: "terrestrial, gas giant"
385. Why can't astronomers directly observe the surface of Venus without landing
probes on the surface?
Correct Answer: The surface is covered by thick clouds.
386. "Why is Venus the hottest planet, even though it isn't the closest to the Sun?"
Correct Answer: it's greenhouse effect
387. The wobble in Earth's axis is called __________.
Correct Answer: precession
388. What is Olympus Mons?
Correct Answer: a large shield volcano on Mars
389. What characteristics do the gas giants have in common?
Correct Answer: all of the answers are correct
390. Why does Jupiter have a banded appearance?
Correct Answer: flow patterns in its atmosphere
391. What are Jupiter's moons composed of?
Correct Answer: rock and ice
392. Where did Saturn's rings most likely come from?
Correct Answer: leftover debris from a moon that was destroyed
393. What causes Uranus' blue appearance?
Correct Answer: the methane in its atmosphere
394. Neptune's atmosphere had a persistent storm called __________.
Correct Answer: the Great Dark Spot
395. Why is Pluto NOT classified as a terrestrial planet?
Correct Answer: it's low density and small size
396. Pluto and Charon are __________.
Correct Answer: in synchronous rotation
397. The objects that eventually formed planets by colliding and merging are called
__________.
Correct Answer: planetesimals
398. Where are most asteroids located?
Correct Answer: between Mars and Jupiter
399. Comets are bodies that are __________ that orbit __________.
Correct Answer: "ice and rock, the Sun"
400. Why do astronomers rely on computer models for an explanation of the Sun's
interior?
Correct Answer: The interior can't be directly observed
401. The Sun contains __________ percent of all the mass in our solar system.
Correct Answer: 99
402. What is the Sun's average density similar to?
Correct Answer: the density of the gas giant planets
403. What layer of the Sun's atmosphere is above the chromosphere?
Correct Answer: corona
404. Gas flows outward from the corona and forms the __________.
Correct Answer: solar wind
405. What are dark spots on the Sun's photosphere called?
Correct Answer: sunspots
406. "__________ is the combining of light weight nuclei into heavier nuclei, which
gives off energy that fuels the Sun."
Correct Answer: Fusion
407. What is a spectrum that comes from noncompressed gas called?
Correct Answer: an emission spectrum
408. What two elements make up 98.4 percent of the Sun's composition?
Correct Answer: hydrogen and helium
409. "Groups of stars named after mythological characters, animals, or everyday
objects are called __________."
Correct Answer: constellations
410. Constellations that can be seen all year long from a certain location are
__________.
Correct Answer: circumpolar
411. What are two stars that orbit a common center of mass called?
Correct Answer: a binary
412. : "From Earth, stars appear to shift in position, which is called __________."
Correct Answer: parallax
413. Why doesn't apparent magnitude actually measure the brightness of the star?
Correct Answer: It doesn't account for distance.
414. What is the disadvantage of absolute magnitude?
Correct Answer: It can only be calculated if a stars distance is known.
415. Energy output from the surface of a star is called __________.
Correct Answer: luminosity
416. What causes the wavelength of a star's spectral lines to shift?
Correct Answer: motion between the star and the observer
417. "Mass, luminosity, temperature, and diameter of stars can be demonstrated on a
__________."
Correct Answer: Hertzsprung-Russell diagram
418. From what does a star form?
Correct Answer: a nebula
419. How is the composition of a white dwarf determined?
Correct Answer: by how many reaction phases it went through
420. : What is the overall shape of the Milky Way?
Correct Answer: disk
421. Why do variable stars pulsate in brightness?
Correct Answer: expansion and contraction of their outer layers
422. What do astronomers use to map the shape of the Milky Way?
Correct Answer: radio waves
423. How many stars are in the disk of the Milky Way?
Correct Answer: 100 billion
424. What is located at the center of the Milky Way?
Correct Answer: a supermassive black hole
425. What are the oldest-known objects in the Milky Way?
Correct Answer: globular clusters
426. The Sun is __________.
Correct Answer: a Population 1 star
427. Where are the oldest stars in the galaxy located?
Correct Answer: halo and bulge
428. How did Hubble categorize galaxies?
Correct Answer: shapes
429. Which galaxy shape is not a part of Hubble's classification system?
Correct Answer: spherical
430. The smallest galaxies are called __________ and the largest are called
__________.
Correct Answer: "dwarf ellipticals, giant ellipticals"
431. What is the name of the cluster that the Milky Way belongs to?
Correct Answer: the Local Group
432. Most of the mass in cluster galaxies is __________.
Correct Answer: invisible
433. Galaxies are organized into large groups called __________.
Correct Answer: superclusters
434. Which of the following did Hubble discover?
Correct Answer: Earth's universe is expanding.
435. Galaxies that are extremely bright are called __________.
Correct Answer: radio galaxies
436. The redshift of quasars measures __________.
Correct Answer: their distance from Earth
437. What theory suggests that the universe does not change with time?
Correct Answer: the steady-state theory
438. "In the Big Bang theory, what balances the momentum of the expansion of the
universe?"
Correct Answer: the inward force of gravity
439. Is the rate of the universe expansion speeding up or slowing down?
Correct Answer: "It was slowing down, but now it is speeding up."
Your answer was correct.
440. What are natural resources?
Correct Answer: the resources that Earth provides
441. Which is a renewable resource?
Correct Answer: carbon
442. How long does it take to renew a forest used for paper?
Correct Answer: 10 to 20 years
443. Which is a nonrenewable resource?
Correct Answer: copper
444. When a nonrenewable resource is used by humans __________.
Correct Answer: it is being used faster than it was formed
445. What percent of the world usage of crude oil is used by the United States?
Correct Answer: 27 percent
446. "What is the solid, unweathered rock under the soil called?"
Correct Answer: bedrock
447. What is a source of aggregate?
Correct Answer: glacial deposits
448. Concrete and mortar used in construction are made using __________.
Correct Answer: aggregates
449. : Iron ores are commonly formed by __________.
Correct Answer: chemical precipitation in layers of sedimentary rocks
450. What is an ore?
Correct Answer: a natural resource that can be mined at a profit
451. Oxygen makes up __________ percent of Earth's air.
Correct Answer: 21
452. Oxygen __________.
Correct Answer: has not always been a part of Earth's atmosphere
453. How is oxygen released into Earth's atmosphere?
Correct Answer: photosynthetic plants
454. What compounds cause acid precipitation?
Correct Answer: nitrogen oxides and sulfur dioxides
455. What is an example of natural air pollution?
Correct Answer: smoke from forest fires
456. The formaldehyde from fabrics is an example of __________.
Correct Answer: an indoor air pollutant
457. The formaldehyde from fabrics is an example of __________.
Correct Answer: an indoor air pollutant
458. What number of the world's countries experience chronic water shortages?
Correct Answer: 25
459. How can freshwater runoff be controlled?
Correct Answer: dams
460. What are fuels?
Correct Answer: materials burned to produce heat or power
461. What slows the decomposition of organic matter in a bog?
Correct Answer: acidic waters and low oxygen levels
462. "Many different types of fossil fuels exist, but they all originated from
__________."
Correct Answer: organic matter trapped in sedimentary rocks
463. How can coal be classified?
Correct Answer: amount of pressure and time for formation
464. What type of coal burns the most efficiently?
Correct Answer: anthracite
465. What type of compounds make up crude oil?
Correct Answer: hydrogen and carbon
466. What type of compounds make up crude oil?
Correct Answer: hydrogen and carbon
467. What type of bacteria can partially break down organic matter in low-oxygen
environments?
Correct Answer: anaerobic bacteria
468. Why do scientists interpret crude oil to have originated from once-living
organisms?
Correct Answer: all of the above
469. Which is an example of a renewable resource?
Correct Answer: wood
470. Which is an example of an alternative source of energy?
Correct Answer: solar
471. A parabolic cooker is an example of a devise that uses __________ source of energy.
Correct Answer: an alternative
472. Energy produced by water pushing against turbines is called __________.
Correct Answer: hydroelectric
473. What is one source of energy that could be better developed in the United States?
Correct Answer: geothermal
474. What is one negative effect of using energy generated by ocean waves?
Correct Answer: It can disrupt marine ecosystems.
475. "__________ is the process in which a heavy nucleus divides to form smaller
nuclei, one or two neutrons, and a large amount of energy."
Correct Answer: Nuclear fission
476. How is biogas produced?
Correct Answer: conversion of plant and animal waste in a digester
477. What compound can be added to gasoline to make it burn more cleanly?
Correct Answer: ethanol
478. __________ is the use of energy resources in the most productive way.
Correct Answer: Energy efficiency
479. __________ is the production of two usable forms of energy at the same time
from the same process.
Correct Answer: Cogeneration
480. What is an example of a way to conserve energy in a home?
Correct Answer: replacing old windows with new ones
a.

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