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Explains physiology and pathogenic properties of bacteria, fungi and viruses. Laboratory experiences provide specimen collection, handling and processing of specimens for isolation and identification of microorganisms and parasites involved in the infectious processes.
Explains physiology and pathogenic properties of bacteria, fungi and viruses. Laboratory experiences provide specimen collection, handling and processing of specimens for isolation and identification of microorganisms and parasites involved in the infectious processes.
Explains physiology and pathogenic properties of bacteria, fungi and viruses. Laboratory experiences provide specimen collection, handling and processing of specimens for isolation and identification of microorganisms and parasites involved in the infectious processes.
Course Title: Microbiology and Parasitology for Nurses Course Description: This course is designed to assist students in the study of important microorganisms and parasites. It explains the physiology and pathogenic properties of bacteria, fungi and viruses as an introduction to disease causation, their biology, the infections they cause, host response to theseinfections and their mode of transmission, prevention, treatment and nursing responsibilities. The laboratory experiences provide specimen collection, handling and processing of specimens for isolation and identification of microorganisms and parasites involved in the infectious processes. Credit: 3 units lecture, 1unit laboratory Hours/semester: 54 lecture hours, 54 laboratory hours Prerequisite: General Chemistry, Anatomy and Physiology Placement: 2nd year, 1st semester Requirements: pass lab & lec exams, quizzes (60%), and other requirements attendance (3 hours lecture/week) Terminal Competencies: At the end of the course and given simulated/actual situations/conditions, the student will be able to: Apply the concepts and principles of microbiology and parasitology in the care of clients across the life span. Utilize principles and techniques in the collection,handling of specimens and identification of microorganisms and parasites involved in the infectious processes. Describe the measures to prevent spread of infectious diseases Describe the measures to control infection. Understand the management of communicable diseases. Course Outline: Scope of Microbiology 3 hours 1. Organisms that make up the microbial world 2. Development and Evolution of Microbiology 3. Significance of Microbiology 4. Practical Applications of Microbiology Microorganisms 1. General Morphology of Microorganism 6 hours a. Acellular Micro-organisms (prions, viroids, viruses) b. Cellular Micro-organisms i. Bacteria (archaebacteria, eubacteria) ii. Protozoa (amoebas, ciliates, flagellates, sporozoans) iii. Fungi (yeasts, molds) iv. Helminths (roundworms, tapeworms, hookworms, pinworms, flukes, etc) v. Arthropods (lice, mites, mosquitoes, flies, etc) 2. Basic Laboratory Equipment and Procedures in the Study of Bacteria 3 hours a. Microscopy & Staining Procedures b. Culture Media & Growth Requirements 3. Normal Human Microbial Flora 3 hours a. Symbiosis b. Opportunistic Microorganisms 4. Seven Capabilities of a Pathogen 3 hours 5. Protozoan and Helminthes Diseases of Man 3 hours Infection and Host Resistance 1. The Chain of Infection 2. Host response to infection a. Non-specific host resistance b. Specific host resistance c. Vaccines in the elimination of disease 3. Nosocomial Infections IV. Microbial Control 1. Medical Asepsis a. Physical Method b. Chemical Method 2. Surgical Asepsis 3. Standard Precautions 4. Transmission-based Precautions V. National Tuberculosis Program -Directly Observed Treatment Short-course (NTP DOTS) 1. Transmission and Pathogenesis of Tuberculosis 2. Tuberculosis Outcomes a. Role of Bacille Calmette-Guerin (BCG) b. Role of Nurses in the Prevention of TB VII. Communicable Diseases Involving Different Organ System 1. Skin and Eye 2. Nervous System 3. Cardiovascular System 4. Respiratory System 5. Digestive System 6. Urinary and Reproductive System Laboratory Outline: 1. Microscopy 2. Sterilization 3. Aseptic Techniques 4. Culture Media for Microbial Growth 5. Microorganisms in the Environment 6. Microscopic Examination of Living Micro-organisms 7. Simple Staining 8. Gram Staining 9. Antibiotic Sensitivity 10. Microscopic Examination of Parasites References: Burton.(2007). Microbiology for the Health Sciences. 8th edition Ingraham. (2007). Introduction to Microbiology. 4th edition. Modules in Integration of TB-DOTS to the Nursing Curriculum. Philippine Tuberculosis Initiatives for the Private Sectors (PhiliTIPS). August 2005. Nester. (2007). Microbiology: A Human Perspective. 5th edition. Pelczar, Michael. 1987. Microbiology. McGraw Hill Book Company, New York. Volk, Wesley A. and M.F. Wheeler. 1988. Basic Microbiology. Harper & Row,Publishers, New York. Lecture Hand-outs
1. A massive lesion caused by spread of Staphylococcus aureus infection (often on the neck and upper back) is called a: a. Boil b. Abscess c. Furuncle d.Carbuncle e. Pustule
scalded skin syndrome
2. Scalded skin syndrome is caused by exotoxin (exfoliatins) produced by: a. Streptococcus pyogens b. Pseudomonas aeruginosa c. Staphylococcus aureus d. Propionibacterium acne e. Demodex folliculorum 3. Which of the following microorganisms causes scarlet fever? a. Streptococcus pyogens b. Pseudomonas aeruginosa c. Staphylococcus aureus d. Propionibacterium acne e. Demodex folliculorum 4. The pus producing skin infections (Pyoderma) can be caused by a. Staphylococci b. Streptococci c. Corynebacteria d. A combination of staphylococci, streptococci and corynebacteria e. None of the above
impetigo
5. Which of the following is not the characteristics of impetigo? a. Common in children b. Can be caused by staphylococcus aureus c. Can be caused by streptococcus pyogens d. Is highly contagious e. Can be caused by pseudomonads 6. Burn patients often develop nosocomial infection caused by: a. Streptococcus epidermis b. Corynebacterium spp. c. Staphylococcus aureus d. Candida albicans e. Pseudomonas aeruginosa 7. The bacteria that multiply in blocked skin pores, metabolize sebum, and can lead to the development of acne are: a. Pseudomonas aeruginosa b. Propionibacterium spp. c. Serratia marcescens d. Streptococcus pyogens e. Acne is not caused by bacterial infection 8. Bacterial conjunctivitis (inflammation of the eye conjunctiva) can be caused by: a. Staphylococcus aureus b. Streptococcus pneumoniae c. Neisseria gonorrhoeae d. Pseudomonas aeruginosa e. All of the above bacteria can cause conjunctivitis 9. The leading cause of preventable blindness in the world is caused by: a. Chlamydia trachomatis b. Haemophilus influenza c. Neisseria gonorrhoeae d Staphylococcus aureus e. Streptococcus pneumoniae
Gas gangrene of foot
10. Gas gangrene is most likely associated with infection with: a. Staphylococcus aureus b. Clostridium perfringenes c. Streptococcus pneumoniae d. Neisseria gonorrhoeae e. Pseudomonas aeruginosaa
You might also like: MCQ: Microbiology Herpes Simplex Virus, Structure,Pathogenesis, Clinical Feature and Lab Diagnosis MCQ: Environmental Microbiology 1st MCQ in Medical Microbiology: Immunology MCQs (1-10) Linkwithin Posted by tankeshwar acharya at 1:17 PM Email This BlogThis! Share to Twitter Share to Facebook Share to Pinterest
Labels: MCQ Bacteriology Reactions: 2 comments:
dapp93June 25, 2013 at 12:43 PM 1. A massive lesion caused by spread of Staphylococcus aureus infection (often on the neck and upper back) is called a:
b. ABSCESS
2. Scalded skin syndrome is caused by exotoxin (exfoliatins) produced by:
c. Staphylococcus aureus
3. Which of the following microorganisms causes scarlet fever?
a. Streptococcus pyogenes
4. The pus producing skin infections (Pyoderma) can be caused by
a. Staphylococci
5. Which of the following is not the characteristics of impetigo?
e. Can be caused by pseudomonads
6. Burn patients often develop nosocomial infection caused by:
e. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
7. The bacteria that multiply in blocked skin pores, metabolize sebum, and can lead to the development of acne are:
b. Propionibacterium spp.
8. Bacterial conjunctivitis (inflammation of the eye conjunctiva) can be caused by: a. Staphylococcus aureus b. Streptococcus pneumoniae c. Neisseria gonorrhoeae d. Pseudomonas aeruginosa e. All of the above bacteria can cause conjunctivitis
9. The leading cause of preventable blindness in the world is caused by: a. Chlamydia trachomatis
10. Gas gangrene is most likely associated with infection with:
b. Clostridium perfringenes
Which of the following is a non pathogen a. Yersinia Pestis b. Cryptococcus neoformans c. Anabaena spp d. Salmonella typhi 12. Prokaryotes are distinguished from eukaryotes by their a. Phospholipid plasma membrane b. Cytoplasm with ribosomes c. Nucleoid instead of nucleus d. Membrane bound organelles
Ribosomes are found in the eukaryotic cell a. in Mitochondria b. Free in the cytoplasm c. On the endoplasmic reticulum d. All of the above Algae are always: a. Photosynthetic b. Blue-green c. Unicellular d. Eukaryotic Which of the following does not allow observation of living cells? a. Brightfield Microscope b. Darkfield Microscope c. Phase contrast microscope d. Fluorescent microscope Singular, small circular DNA is common to: a. Chloroplasts, mitochondria, golgi complex b. Chloroplasts, nucleoli, Mitochondria c. Prokaryotes, nucleoli, Chromosomes d. Chloroplasts, Prokaryotes, Mitochondria Which of the following component is found in aracheobacterial cell walls? a. Lipoprotein b. Peptidoglycan c. Pseudopeptidoglycan d. Phospholipid The arrangement of bacterial cells is a. Determined by growth medium b. Caused by chemotaxis c. A genetically determined trait d. All of the above The plasma membrane has many function, not including: a. Regulation of reproduction b. Monitoring of the environment c. Replication of the chromosome d. Protection against osmoticysia Bacteria treated with lysozyme are: a. Pleomorphic b. Protoplasts c. Capules d. Mycoplasma Which of the following is not found in the growth curve? a. Lag phase b. Log phase c. Stationary phase d. Chemostat Minimal media must contain; a. A source of trace element b. Source of purine c. Source of pyrimidines d. Nacl Candle jars are used to culture.............. and reduce atmospheric ....... a. Anaerobes, oxygen b. Anaerobes, carbondioxide c. Microaerophiles, carbondioxide d. Microaerophiles, oxygen Organisms that thrives in elevated carbondioxide are called: a. Microaerophiles b. Anaerobes c. Aerotolerant d. Caprophiles The character of the nitrogeneous base of DNA determines: a. Sequence of folding of protein b. Base pairing and sequence c. Structure of the double helix d. Reactivity with acid. You might also like: Multiple Choice Questions (MCQ) Microbiology:Bacteriology Agriculture Microbiology MCQ tribhuvan University 3 Agriculture Microbiology MCQ tribhuvan University 2 Agriculture Microbiology MCQ tribhuvan University 7 Linkwithin Posted by tankeshwar acharya at 6:15 PM Email This BlogThis! Share to Twitter Share to Facebook Share to Pinterest
PeriplasmMarch 14, 2012 at 1:18 PM 1.c 2.c 3.d 4.a(probably, because, not all algae are eukaryotic) 5.d(i guessed) 6.d 7.c 8.c (i don't think that option d is correct) 9.b (i think it's b. Plasma membrane do have role in fission.) 10.b 11.d 12.a (probably, not sure though) 13.d 14.d (i think it should be Capnophiles, but there is Caprophilds) 15. Is it 'b'?
MCQ: Microbiology If a scientist actively researches the frequency and distribution of the diseases, he is said to be a: a. Mycologist b. Immunologist c. Etiologist d. Epidemiologist e. Ecologist The event that triggered the development and establishment of microbiology as a science is the: a. Spontaneous generation b. Use of disinfectants c. Vaccination d. germ theory of diseases e. Development of microscope Which of the following pioneers of microbiology is credited with the discovery of microorganisms using high-quality magnifying lenses (early microscopes)? a. Hooke b. Leeuwenhock c. Semmelweis d. Koch e. Pasteur Which scientist first disproved spontaneous generation by showing that maggots only appear on decaying meat that has been exposed to flies? a. lister b. Pasteur c. Hooke d. Redi e. Koch The biggest obstacle in the acceptance and development of the science of microbiology was: a. Lack of effective vaccines b. Lack of sterile containers c. Theory of spontaneous generation d. Absence of debilitating diseases before the seventeenth century e. Use of aseptic technique The purpose of swan necked flasks that Louis Pasteur designed to disprove spontaneous generation is to: a. Allow the multiplication of microbes in the broth b. Implicate the role of files in the development of maggots on rotting meat c. Pasteurize the meat broth d. Prevent air from entering the flask e. Trap the microbes and prevent them from reaching the broth The germ theory of disease states that: a. Microorganisms that invade other organisms can cause disease in those organisms b. Microorganisms can spontaneously arise in debilitated hosts c. Microorganisms dont cause infectious diseases d. Not all microorganisms are harmful e. All microorganism are beneficial to human in one way or another When determining distances and sizes, the smallest unit of measurement is the: a. Milimeter b. Micrometer c. Centimeter d. Decimeter e. Nanometer The average wavelength of light visible to our eye is: a. 800 nm b. 200 nm c. 550 nm d. 100 nm e. 420 nm In light microscope, what function does the condenser serve? a. Focuses the light rays onto our eyes b. Mangnifies the light rays after their passage through the sample c. Focuses the light rays on the sample d. Increases the light intensity e. Reduces glare The total magnification of a microscope is calculated by: a. Addition of the objective lens and ocular lens magnification powers b. Multiplication of the objective lens and ocular lens magnification powers c. Multiplication of the objective lens and condenser lens magnification powers d. The objective lens power squared e. none of the above Which of the following stains is used frequently to identify mycobacterium and other bacteria whose cell walls contain high amounts of lipids? a. Gram stain b. Schaeffer-Fulton stain c. Acid fast stain d.Giemsa Stain e. Spore stain Which of the following microscopic techniques provide three dimensional images of a bacterial cell? a. Transmission Electron Microscopy b. Scanning Electron Microscopy c. Negative staining microscopy d. Dark- field microscopy e. Fluorescent microscopy The transmission electron microscope has the greatest resolving power because it uses an electron beam to view the sample instead of a light beam. The electron beam is used because a. Electrons have longer wavelengths than light waves b. Electrons do not penetrate the sample c. Light waves are less visible d. Electrons have shorter wavelengths than light waves e. Electrons are less invasive.
The identification of bacteria by serologic tests is based on the presence of specific antigens. Which of the following bacterial components is least likely to contain useful antigens? a. Ribosomes b. Cell wall c. Capsule d. Flagella
Each of the following statements concerning the Gram stain is correct except: a. Escherichia coli stains pink because it has a thin peptidoglycan layer b. Streptococcus pyogens stains blue because it has a thick peptidoglycan layer c Mycoplasma pneumoniae is not visible in the Gram's stain because it does not have a cell wall d. Mycobaterium tuberculosis stains blue because it has a thick lipid layer An outbreak of sepsis caused by Staphylococcus aureus has occurred in the newborn nursery. You are called upon to investigate. According to your knowledge of the normal flora, what is the most likely source of the organism? a. Nose b. Colon c. Vagina d. Throat Each of the following organisms is an important cause of urinary tract infections except: a. Klebsiella pneumoniae b. Escherichia coli c. Bacteriodes fragilis d. Proteus mirabilis A 30 year old woman has non bloody diarrhea for the past 14 hours. Which one of the to following organisms is least likely to cause this illness? a. Streptococcus pyogens b. Clostridium difficile c. Shigella dysenteriae d. Salmonella enteritidis Each of the following agents is a recognized cause of diarrhea except a. Clostridium perfringens b. Vibrio cholerae c. Enterococcus faecalis d. Escherichia coli Each of the following statements about the classification of streptococci is correct except a. Pneumococci (Streptococcus pneumoniae) are alpha-hemolytic and can be serotyped on the basis of their polysaccharide capsule b. Enterococci are group D streptococci and can be classified by their ability to grow 6.5% sodium chloride c. Viridans streptococci are identified by Lancefield grouping, which is based on the C carbohydrate in the cell wall d. Although pneumococci and the viridans streptococci are alpha-hemolytic, they can be differentiated by the bile solubility test and their susceptibility to optochin Which of the following bacteria has the lowest 50% infective dose (ID50)? a. Campylobacter jejuni b. Salmonella typhi c. Vibrio cholerae d. Shigella sonnei Which of the following disease is best diagnosed by serologic means? a. Pulmonary tuberculosis b. Gonorrhea c. Actinomycosis d. Q Fever The cogulase test is used to differentiate a. Staphylococcus epidermidis from Neisseria meningitidis b. Staphylococcus aureus from Staphylococcus epidermidis c. Streptococcus pyogens from Staphylococcus aureus d. Streptococcus pyogens from Enterococcus faecalis
Multiple Choice Questions Parasitology 1. Which of the following agent is used to prevent Malaria a. Mebendazole b. Chloroquine c. Inactivated vaccine d. Zinc tablet
2. Each of the following statements concerning Ascaris lumbricoides is correct except: a. Ascaris lumbricoides is one of the largest nematode b. Ascaris lumbricoides can cause pneumonia c. Both dogs and cats are intermediate host of Ascaris lumbricoides d. A lumbricoides is transmitted by ingestion of eggs 3. Each of the following statements concerning kala-azar is correct except: a. Kala-azar is caused by leishmania donovani b. kala-azar is transmitted by the bite of sandflies c. Kala-azar occurs primarily in rural latin America d. Kala-azar can be diagnosed by finding amastigotes in bone marrow 4. Each of the following statements concerning hookworm infection is correct except: a. Hookworm infection can cause pneumonia b. Hookworm infection is acquired by humans when filariform larvae penetrate the skin c. Hookworm infection is caused by Necatar americanus d. Hookworm infection can be diagnosed by finding the trophozoite in the stool 5. Each of the following statements concerning Trichomonas vaginalis is correct except: a. T. vaginalis is transmitted sexually b. T. vaginalis can be diagnosed by visualizing the trophozoite c. T. vaginalis can be treated effectively with metronidazole d. T. vaginalis causes bloody diarrhea 6. Each of the following statements concerning Giardia lamblia is correct except: a. G. lamblia has both a trophozoite and cyst stage in its life cycle b. G. lamblia is transmitted by the fecal oral route from both human and animal sources c. G. lamblia causes hemolytic anemia d. G. lamblia can be diagnosed by the string test 7. Each of the following statements concerning Malaria is correct except a. The female anopheles mosquito is the vector b. Early infection, sporozoites enter hepatocytes c. Release of merozoites from red blood cells cause fever and chills d. The principal site of gametocyte formation is the human gastrointestinal tract. 8. Each of the following parasite is transmitted by mosquitoes except: a. Leishmania donovani b. Wuchereria bancrofti c. Plasmodium vivax d. Plasmodium falciparum 9. Pigs or dogs are the source of human infection by each of the following parasites except: a. Echinococcus granulosus b. Taenia solium c. Ascaris lumbricoides d. Trichinella spiralis 10. In malaria, the form of plasmodia that is transmitted from mosquito to human is the a. Sporozoite b. Gametocyte c. Merozoite d. Hypnozoite Answer Keys 1. b 2. c 3. c 4. d 5. d 6. c 7.d 8.a 9.c 10. a