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Additional instructions:

You will have 10 minutes of reading time to look at the examination paper and ask any
question regarding the test. During this reading time, you should put your name, subject
(Biology of Animals), paper number (199.101) and date (27 March 2013) on the Scantron
Card. Enter your student ID number in the panels provided. On the Scantron card, you must
also mark the Test Version as A. You should do no other writing during the reading time.

For each multi-choice question, choose the letter of the one answer that best answers the
question. Mark your answer ON THE SCANTRON ANSWER CARD by marking the
corresponding letter for each numbered question. Use a soft 2B pencil to mark your answer.
Should you wish to change your answer, completely erase the old answer and mark the new
answer. Note the completion instructions printed on the Scantron card.

Your score will be based on the number of correct answers you give. There is no penalty for
incorrect answers. All questions are of equal value. Therefore, it is to your advantage to (1)
answer all the questions and (2) not spend an undue amount of time on any one question.
You have 60 multi-choice questions to answer in 60 minutes. That means you must average
one question every minute in order to answer all questions.


Name: ___________________________________ Student ID: _______________________

2
1) If organisms A, B, and C belong to the same class but to different orders and if organisms
D, E, and F belong to the same order but to different families, which of the following
pairs of organisms would be expected to show the greatest degree of structural
homology?

A) A and B
B) A and C
C) B and D
D) C and F
E) D and F


2) The term homoplasy is most applicable to which of the following features?

A) the legless condition found in various lineages of extant lizards
B) the five-digit condition of human hands and bat wings
C) the ! hemoglobin genes of mice and of humans
D) the fur that covers Australian moles and North American moles
E) the bones of bat forelimbs and the bones of bird forelimbs


3) When using a cladistic approach to systematics, which of the following is considered
most important for classification?

A) shared primitive characters
B) analogous primitive characters
C) shared derived characters
D) the number of homoplasies
E) overall phenotypic similarity


4) The reason that paralogous genes can diverge from each other within the same gene pool,
whereas orthologous genes diverge only after gene pools are isolated from each other, is
that

A) having multiple copies of genes is essential for the occurrence of sympatric speciation in
the wild.
B) paralogous genes can occur only in diploid species; thus, they are absent from most
prokaryotes.
C) polyploidy is a necessary precondition for the occurrence of sympatric speciation in the
wild.
D) having an extra copy of a gene permits modifications to the copy without loss of the
original gene product.



3
5) Which statement represents the best explanation for the observation that the nuclear DNA
of wolves and domestic dogs has a very high degree of sequence homology?

A) Dogs and wolves have very similar morphologies.
B) Dogs and wolves belong to the same order.
C) Dogs and wolves are both members of the order Carnivora.
D) Dogs and wolves shared a common ancestor very recently.


Use the figure below to answer Question 6



6) Which extinct species should be the best candidate to serve as the outgroup for the clade
whose common ancestor occurs at position 2 in the figure above?

A) A
B) B
C) C
D) D
E) E


7) Catastrophism, meaning the regular occurrence of geological or meteorological
disturbances (catastrophes), was Cuviers attempt to explain the existence of

A) evolution.
B) the fossil record.
C) uniformitarianism.
D) the origin of new species.
E) natural selection.



4
8) Natural selection is based on all of the following except

A) genetic variation exists within populations.
B) the best-adapted individuals tend to leave the most offspring.
C) individuals who survive longer tend to leave more offspring than those who die young.
D) populations tend to produce more individuals than the environment can support.
E) individuals adapt to their environments and, thereby, evolve.


9) Which of the following represents an idea that Darwin learned from the writings of
Thomas Malthus?

A) Technological innovation in agricultural practices will permit exponential growth of the
human population into the foreseeable future.
B) Populations tend to increase at a faster rate than their food supply normally allows.
C) Earth changed over the years through a series of catastrophic upheavals.
D) The environment is responsible for natural selection.
E) Earth is more than 10,000 years old.


10) Currently, two extant elephant species (X and Y) are placed in the genus Loxodonta, and
a third species (Z) is placed in the genus Elephas. Thus, which statement should be true?

A) Species X and Y are not related to species Z.
B) Species X and Y share a greater number of homologies with each other than either does
with species Z.
C) Species X and Y share a common ancestor that is still extant (in other words, not yet
extinct).
D) Species X and Y are the result of artificial selection from an ancestral species Z.
E) Species X, Y, and Z share a common ancestor, but nothing more can be claimed than this.


11) Members of two different species possess a similar-looking structure that they use in a
similar fashion to perform the same function. Which information would best help
distinguish between an explanation based on homology versus one based on convergent
evolution?

A) The two species live at great distance from each other.
B) The two species share many proteins in common, and the nucleotide sequences that code
for these proteins are almost identical.
C) The sizes of the structures in adult members of both species are similar in size.
D) Both species are well adapted to their particular environments.




3
12) Both ancestral birds and ancestral mammals shared a common ancestor that was
terrestrial. Today, penguins (which are birds) and seals (which are mammals) have
forelimbs adapted for swimming. What term best describes the relationship of the bones
in the forelimbs of penguins and seals, and what term best describes the flippers of
penguins and seals?

A) homologous; homologous
B) analogous; homologous
C) homologous; analogous
D) analogous; analogous


13) If, on average, 46% of the loci in a species gene pool are heterozygous, then the average
homozygosity of the species should be

A) 23%.
B) 46%.
C) 54%.
D) There is not enough information to say.


14) Which statement about variation is true?

A) All phenotypic variation is the result of genotypic variation.
B) All genetic variation produces phenotypic variation.
C) All nucleotide variability results in neutral variation.
D) All new alleles are the result of nucleotide variability.
E) All geographic variation results from the existence of clines.


15) In a Hardy-Weinberg population with two alleles, A and a, that are in equilibrium, the
frequency of the allele a is 0.3. What is the percentage of the population that is
homozygous for this allele?

A) 0.09
B) 0.49
C) 0.9
D) 9.0
E) 49.0


16) Evolution

A) must happen, due to organisms innate desire to survive.
B) must happen whenever a population is not well-adapted to its environment.
C) can happen whenever any of the conditions for Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium are not met.
D) requires the operation of natural selection.
E) requires that populations become better suited to their environments.


6
17) A proficient engineer can easily design skeletal structures that are more functional than
those currently found in the forelimbs of such diverse mammals as horses, whales, and
bats. The actual forelimbs of these mammals do not seem to be optimally arranged
because

A) natural selection has not had sufficient time to create the optimal design in each case, but
will do so given enough time.
B) in many cases, phenotype is not merely determined by genotype, but by the environment
as well.
C) though we may not consider the fit between the current skeletal arrangements and their
functions excellent, we should not doubt that natural selection ultimately produces the best
design.
D) natural selection is generally limited to modifying structures that were present in previous
generations and in previous species.


18) In those parts of equatorial Africa where the malaria parasite is most common, the sickle-
cell allele constitutes 20% of the ! hemoglobin alleles in the human gene pool.
If the sickle-cell allele is recessive, what proportion of the population should be
susceptible to sickle-cell anemia under typical conditions?

A) 0.04
B) 0.16
C) 0.20
D) 0.32
E) 0.80


19) Beetle pollinators of a particular plant are attracted to its flowers bright orange color.
The beetles not only pollinate the flowers, but they mate while inside of the flowers. A
mutant version of the plant with red flowers becomes more common with the passage of
time. A particular variant of the beetle prefers the red flowers to the orange flowers. Over
time, these two beetle variants diverge from each other to such an extent that
interbreeding is no longer possible. What kind of speciation has occurred in this example,
and what has driven it?

A) allopatric speciation; ecological isolation
B) sympatric speciation; habitat differentiation
C) allopatric speciation; behavioural isolation
D) sympatric speciation; sexual selection
E) sympatric speciation; allopolyploidy



7
20) On the basis of their morphologies, how might Linnaeus have classified the Hawaiian
silverswords?

A) He would have placed them all in the same species.
B) He would have classified them the same way that modern botanists do.
C) He would have placed them in more species than modern botanists do.
D) He would have used evolutionary relatedness as the primary criterion for their
classification.


21) Bagworm moth caterpillars feed on evergreens and carry a silken case or bag around
with them in which they eventually pupate. Adult female bagworm moths are larval in
appearance; they lack the wings and other structures of the adult male and instead retain
the appearance of a caterpillar even though they are sexually mature and can lay eggs
within the bag. This is a good example of

A) allometric growth.
B) paedomorphosis.
C) sympatric speciation.
D) adaptive radiation.
E) changes in homeotic genes.


22) One explanation for the evolution of insect wings suggests that wings began as lateral
extensions of the body that were used as heat dissipaters for thermoregulation. When they
had become sufficiently large, these extensions became useful for gliding through the air,
and selection later refined them as flight-producing wings. If this hypothesis is correct,
modern insect wings could best be described as

A) adaptations.
B) mutations.
C) exaptations.
D) isolating mechanisms.
E) examples of natural selections predictive ability.


23) The existence of evolutionary trends, such as increasing body sizes among horse species,
is evidence that

A) a larger volume-to-surface area ratio is beneficial to all mammals.
B) an unseen guiding force is at work.
C) evolution always tends toward increased complexity or increased size.
D) in particular environments, similar adaptations can be beneficial in more than one species.
E) evolution generally progresses toward some predetermined goal.


8
24) A female fly, full of fertilized eggs, is swept by high winds to an island far out to sea. She
is the first fly to arrive on this island, and the only fly to arrive in this way. Thousands of
years later, her numerous offspring occupy the island, but none of them resembles her.
There are, instead, several species, each of which eats only a certain type of food. None of
the species can fly, for their flight wings are absent, and their balancing organs (in other
words, halteres) are now used in courtship displays. The male members of each species
bear modified halteres that are unique in appearance to their species. Females bear
vestigial halteres. The ranges of all of the daughter species overlap.

In each fly species, the entire body segment that gave rise to the original flight wings is
missing. The mutation(s) that led to the flightless condition could have

A) duplicated all of the Hox genes in these flies genomes.
B) altered the nucleotide sequence within a Hox gene.
C) altered the expression of a Hox gene.
D) all three of the above responses
E) two of the above answers are correct


25) The proximate causes of behaviour are interactions with the environment, but behaviour
is ultimately shaped by

A) hormones.
B) evolution.
C) sexuality.
D) pheromones.
E) the nervous system.


26) Karl von Frisch demonstrated that European honeybees communicate the location of a
distant food source by

A) performing a short, straight run during a waggle dance.
B) performing a long, straight run during a waggle dance.
C) performing a round dance with fast rotations.
D) emanating minute amounts of stimulus pheromone.
E) varying wing vibration frequency.


9
27) A cage containing male mosquitoes has a small earphone placed on top, through which
the sound of a female mosquito is played. All the males immediately fly to the earphone
and go through all of the steps of copulation. What is the best explanation for this
behaviour?

A) The males learn to associate the sound with females.
B) Copulation is a fixed action pattern, and the female flight sound is a sign stimulus that
initiates it.
C) The sound from the earphone irritates the male mosquitoes, causing them to attempt to
sting it.
D) The reproductive drive is so strong that when males are deprived of females, they will
attempt to mate with anything that has even the slightest female characteristic.
E) Through classical conditioning, the male mosquitoes have associated the inappropriate
stimulus from the earphone with the normal response of copulation.


28) A type of learning that can occur only during a brief period of early life and results in a
behaviour that is difficult to modify through later experiences is called

A) insight.
B) imprinting.
C) habituation.
D) operant conditioning.
E) trial-and-error learning.


29) Every morning at the same time, John went into the den to feed his new tropical fish.
After a few weeks, he noticed that the fish swam to the top of the tank when he entered
the room. This is an example of

A) cognition.
B) imprinting.
C) classical conditioning.
D) operant conditioning.
E) maturation.


30) A stickleback fish will attack a fish model as long as the model has red coloring. What
animal behaviour idea is manifested by this observation?

A) sign stimulus
B) cognition
C) imprinting
D) classical conditioning
E) operant conditioning



10
31) Imagine that you are designing an experiment aimed at determining whether the
initiation of migratory behaviour is largely under genetic control. Of the following
options, the best way to proceed is to

A) observe genetically distinct populations in the field and see if they have different
migratory habits.
B) perform within-population matings with birds from different populations that have
different migratory habits. Do this in the laboratory and see if offspring display parental
migratory behaviour.
C) bring animals into the laboratory and determine the conditions under which they become
restless and attempt to migrate.
D) perform within-population matings with birds from different populations that have
different migratory habits. Rear the offspring in the absence of their parents and observe the
migratory behaviour of offspring.
E) All of the options are equally productive ways to approach the question.


32) What probably explains why coastal and inland garter snakes react differently to banana
slug prey?

A) Ancestors of coastal snakes that could eat the abundant banana slugs had increased fitness.
No such selection occurred inland, where banana slugs were absent.
B) Banana slugs are camouflaged, and inland snakes, which have poorer vision than coastal
snakes, are less able to see them.
C) Garter snakes learn about prey from other garter snakes. Inland garter snakes have fewer
types of prey because they are less social.
D) Inland banana slugs are distasteful, so inland snakes learn to avoid them. Coastal banana
slugs are palatable to garter snakes.
E) Garter snakes learn to eat what their mother eats. Coastal snake mothers happened to
prefer slugs.


33) The mating system in which females are more ornamented than males is

A) monogamy.
B) promiscuity.
C) polygamy.
D) polygyny.
E) polyandry.



11
34) How do altruistic behaviours arise through natural selection?

A) By his/her actions, the altruist increases the likelihood that some of its genes will be
passed on to the next generation.
B) The altruist is appreciated by other members of the population because their survivability
has been enhanced by virtue of his/her risky behaviour.
C) Animals that perform altruistic acts are allowed by their population to breed more, thereby
passing on their behaviour genes to future generations.
D) Altruistic behaviours lower stress in populations, which increases the survivability of all
the members of the population.
E) All of the options are correct.


35) Animals that help other animals of the same species

A) have excess energy reserves.
B) are bigger and stronger than the other animals.
C) are usually related to the other animals.
D) are always male.
E) have defective genes controlling their behaviour.


36) According to Hamiltons rule,

A) natural selection does not favour altruistic behaviour that causes the death of the altruist.
B) natural selection favours altruistic acts when the resulting benefit to the beneficiary,
corrected for relatedness, exceeds the cost to the altruist.
C) natural selection is more likely to favour altruistic behaviour that benefits an offspring
than altruistic behaviour that benefits a sibling.
D) the effects of kin selection are larger than the effects of direct natural selection on
individuals.
E) altruism is always reciprocal.


37) An ecologist recorded 12 kiwi per square kilometer in one forest and 20 per square
kilometer in another forest. What was the ecologist comparing?

A) density
B) dispersion
C) carrying capacity
D) cohorts
E) range




12
38) As N approaches K for a certain population, which of the following is predicted by the
logistic equation?

A) The growth rate will not change.
B) The growth rate will approach zero.
C) The population will show an Allee effect.
D) The population will increase exponentially.
E) The carrying capacity of the environment will increase.

39) Which of the following statements about the evolution of life histories is correct?

A) Stable environments with limited resources favour r-selected populations.
B) K-selected populations are most often found in environments where density-independent
factors are important regulators of population size.
C) Most populations have both r- and K-selected characteristics that vary under different
environmental conditions.
D) The reproductive efforts of r-selected populations are directed at producing just a few
offspring with good competitive abilities.
E) K-selected populations rarely approach carrying capacity.


40) Which of the following is most likely to contribute to density-dependent regulation of
populations?

A) the removal of toxic waste by decomposers
B) intraspecific competition for nutrients
C) earthquakes
D) floods
E) fires


41) To measure the population of lake trout in a 250-hectare lake, 400 individual trout were
netted and marked with a fin clip, then returned to the lake. The next week, the lake was
netted again, and out of the 200 lake trout that were caught, 50 had fin clips. Using the
capture-recapture estimate, the lake trout population size could be closest to which of the
following?

A) 160
B) 200
C) 400
D) 1,600
E) 80,000



13
Read the paragraph below and review the figure to answer Question 42.

Researchers in the Netherlands studied the effects of parental care given in European kestrels
over five years. The researchers transferred chicks among nests to produce reduced broods
(three or four chicks), normal broods (five or six chicks), and enlarged broods (seven or eight
chicks). They then measured the percentage of male and female parent birds that survived the
following winter. (Both males and females provide care for chicks.)



Figure: Brood size manipulations in the kestrel: Effects
on offspring and parent survival.

42) Which of the following is a conclusion that can be drawn from this graph?

A) Female survivability is more negatively affected by larger brood size than is male
survivability.
B) Male survivability decreased by 50% between reduced and enlarged brood treatments.
C) Both males and females had increases in daily hunting with the enlarged brood size.
D) There appears to be a negative correlation between brood enlargements and parental
survival.
E) Chicks in reduced brood treatment received more food, weight gain, and reduced
mortality.


43) Which of the following best describes resource partitioning?

A) competitive exclusion that results in the success of the superior species
B) slight variations in niche that allow similar species to coexist
C) two species that can coevolve to share identical niches
D) differential resource utilization that results in a decrease in community species diversity
E) a climax community that is reached when no new niches are available



14
44) How might an ecologist test whether a species is occupying its realized or its
fundamental niche?

A) Study the temperature range and humidity requirements of the species.
B) Observe if the niche size changes after the addition of nutritional resources to the habitat.
C) Observe if the niche size changes after the introduction of a similar non-native species.
D) Measure the change in reproductive success when the species is subjected to
environmental stress.
E) Remove a competitor species to see if the species expands its range.


45) In a tide pool, 15 species of invertebrates were reduced to eight after one species was
removed. The species removed was likely a(n)

A) pathogen.
B) keystone species.
C) herbivore.
D) resource partitioner.
E) mutualistic organism.


46) Which of the following is the most accepted hypothesis as to why invasive species take
over communities into which they have been introduced?

A) Invasive species are more aggressive than native species in competing for the limited
resources of the environment.
B) Invasive species are not held in check by the predators and agents of disease that have
always been in place for the native species.
C) Humans carefully select which species will outcompete nuisance native species.
D) Invasive species have a higher reproductive potential than native species.
E) Invasive species come from geographically isolated regions, so when they are introduced
to regions where there is more competition, they thrive.


47) Why do moderate levels of disturbance result in an increase in community diversity?

A) Habitats are opened up for less competitive species.
B) Competitively dominant species infrequently exclude less competitive species after a
moderate disturbance.
C) The environmental conditions become optimal.
D) The resulting uniform habitat supports stability, which in turn supports diversity.
E) Less-competitive species evolve strategies to compete with dominant species.



13
48) Which of the following is a correct statement about the McArthur/Wilson Island
Equilibrium Model?

A) The more species that inhabit an island, the lower the extinction rate.
B) As the number of species on an island increases, the emigration rate decreases.
C) Competitive exclusion is less likely on an island that has large numbers of species.
D) Small islands receive few new immigrant species.
E) Islands closer to the mainland have higher extinction rates.


49) Mutations in which of the following genes lead to transformations in the identity of
entire body parts?

A) morphogens
B) segmentation genes
C) egg-polarity genes
D) homeotic genes
E) inducers


50) Which of the following genes map out the basic subdivisions along the anterior-posterior
axis of the Drosophila embryo?

A) homeotic genes
B) segmentation genes
C) egg-polarity genes
D) morphogens
E) inducers


51) In 1997, Dolly the sheep was cloned. Which of the following processes was used?

A) use of mitochondrial DNA from adult female cells of another ewe
B) replication and dedifferentiation of adult stem cells from sheep bone marrow
C) separation of an early stage sheep blastula into separate cells, one of which was incubated
in a surrogate ewe
D) fusion of an adult cells nucleus with an enucleated sheep egg, followed by incubation in a
surrogate
E) isolation of stem cells from a lamb embryo and production of a zygote equivalent


52) Homeotic genes

A) encode transcription factors that control the expression of genes responsible for specific
anatomical structures.
B) are found only in Drosophila and other arthropods.
C) are the only genes that contain the homeobox domain.
D) encode proteins that form anatomical structures in the fly.
E) are responsible for patterning during plant development.



16
53) As an embryo develops, new cells are produced as the result of

A) differentiation.
B) preformation.
C) cell division.
D) morphogenesis.
E) epigenesis.


54) Cells move to new positions as an embryo establishes its three germ tissue layers during

A) determination.
B) cleavage.
C) fertilization.
D) induction.
E) gastrulation.

55) Which of the following is (are) unique to animals?

A) cells that have mitochondria
B) the structural carbohydrate, chitin
C) nervous conduction and muscular movement
D) heterotrophy
E) Two of these responses are correct.


56) In individual insects of some species, whole chromosomes that carry larval genes are
eliminated from the genomes of somatic cells at the time of metamorphosis. A
consequence of this occurrence is that

A) we could not clone a larva from the somatic cells of such an adult insect.
B) such species must reproduce only asexually.
C) the descendants of these adults do not include a larval stage.
D) metamorphosis can no longer occur among the descendants of such adults.
E) Two of these responses are correct.


57) Whatever its ultimate cause(s), the Cambrian explosion is a prime example of

A) mass extinction.
B) evolutionary stasis.
C) adaptive radiation.
D) All three of the responses are correct.
E) Only two of the responses are correct.




17
58) At which developmental stage should one be able to first distinguish a protostome
embryo from a deuterostome embryo?

A) fertilization
B) cleavage
C) gastrulation
D) coelom formation
E) metamorphosis


59) The blastopore denotes the presence of an endoderm-lined cavity in the developing
embryo, a cavity that is known as the
A) archenteron.
B) blastula.
C) coelom.
D) germ layer.
E) blastocoel.


60) If the current molecular evidence regarding animal origins is well-supported in the future,
then what will be true of any contrary evidence regarding the origin of animals derived
from the fossil record?

A) The contrary fossil evidence will be seen as a hoax.
B) The fossil evidence will be understood to have been incorrect because it is incomplete.
C) The fossil record will henceforth be ignored.
D) Phylogenies involving even the smallest bit of fossil evidence will need to be discarded.
E) Only phylogenies based solely on fossil evidence will need to be discarded.


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