Example Exam APMG 2

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ITIL-F-GBExam070103SAMPLE2-English_3.1 The APM Group Ltd 2006

ITIL is a Registered Trade Mark, and a Registered Community Trade Mark of the Office of Government Commerce, and is Registered in the U.S. Patent and
Trademark Office. This document is not to be re-produced or re-sold without express permission from The APM Group Ltd

The Foundation Examination

Sample Foundation Examination Paper 2 version 3.1

Multiple Choice

Instructions

1. All 40 questions should be attempted.

2. There are no trick questions.

3. All answers are to be marked on the original examination paper.

4. Please use a pen to mark your answers with either a or X.

5. You have 1 hour to complete this paper.

6. You must get 26 or more correct to pass.

Candidate Number: .................................
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1 Which one of the following is NOT an activity of Incident Management?
a) Incident Classification
b) Recording Known Error details
c) Incident investigation and diagnosis
d) Incident detection and recording

2 Which of the following is NOT an output from the Change Management process?
a) Projected Service Availability
b) Known Error records
c) Change Advisory Board minutes
d) Forward Schedule of Changes

3 Which of the following statements are correct?
1. Release Management is responsible for testing all components of a planned software
release prior to packaging.
2. Release Management is responsible for rolling out all changes to the IT infrastructure.

a) Statement 1 only
b) Statement 2 only
c) Both statements are correct
d) Neither statement is correct

4 Which process is responsible for the increment of versions of software or hardware in
the production environment?

a) Change Management
b) Release Management
c) Problem Management
d) Configuration Management

5 A new disk unit has to be installed to solve a problem with making backups on the
network. The procedures for making backups will also have to be updated. Through
which process does formal approval have to be given for carrying out the work?

a) Change Management
b) Configuration Management
d) Incident Management


6 Match up the terms to their correct definitions:

1.Budgeting x. Calculates the cost of providing the
service
2.Accounting y. Can recover the cost of service from
customers
3.Charging z. Predicts the amount of money required
to run the IT Service

a) 1-z; 2-x; 3-y
b) 1-y; 2-x; 3-z
c) 1-x; 2-z; 3-y
d) 1-z; 2-y; 3-x

7 Which of the following is NOT a key skill required by the Financial Manager?
a) Sound numerical and financial skills
b) Excellent communication and negotiation skills
c) Ability to interact successfully with all levels of Customer and IT management
d) Detailed understanding of the technical services delivered by the IT Service

8 Which two Service Management processes are likely to make most use of a risk analysis
and management methodology?

a) Availability and IT Service Continuity Management
b) Availability and Capacity Management
c) Capacity Management and IT Service Continuity Management
d) Availability Management and Service Level Management

9 Which process is most likely to be concerned with managing and monitoring service
levels?

a) Availability Management
b) Capacity Management
d) Service Level Management


10 Active listening and questioning techniques are skills that are most important to
which ITIL professional?

a) Service Level Manager
b) Service Desk Analysts
c) Problem Analysts
d) Capacity Planner

11 Which of the following is the correct definition?
a) IT Accounting is the set of processes used by the customer base to identify if they
are getting value for money from IT

b) IT Accounting is the set of processes that enable the IT organisation to predict
spend

c) IT Accounting is the set of processes that enable the IT organisation to negotiate
periodically with the business the amount of money required to deliver the service

d) IT Accounting is the set of processes that enable the IT organisation to account
fully for the way its money is spent

12 What is the most appropriate way to determine the correct level of CIs?
a) Whether the CI can be installed or de-installed independently
b) Whether the CI has a relationship only with an item at a higher level than itself
c) It is dependent on the organisations requirements that is implementing
Configuration Management

d) It is dependent on the amount of resources available at the time of
implementation to capture the information

13 A Request for Change (RFC) will cover changes to which of the following?:
1. Documentation
2. Software
3. Hardware
4. Engineering Cover

a) 1, 2 and 3
b) They could ALL be covered by an RFC
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1 and 2 only


14 Which of the following are the activities of Operational Management within IT Service
Continuity Management?

a) Awareness, structure, planning, agreement and review
b) Awareness, review, testing, change, training and assurance
c) Risk Analysis, Management
d) Identify assets, assess threats and vulnerabilities, choose countermeasures

15 Which Configuration Management activity is missing from the following list?
1. Planning
2. Identification
3. Status accounting
4. Verification and audit

a) Database population
b) Control
c) Logging CIs
d) Labelling

16 Which of the following sources of information are relevant to Capacity Management?
1. External suppliers of new technology
2. Business strategies and financial plans
3. IT strategies, plans and budgets
4. Incidents and Problems that relate to poor performance

a) All of them
b) 1 and 2 only
c) 1, 2 and 3
d) 2 and 3 only


17 Match the terms to their correct definitions:

1. Modelling w. Influencing the need for computing
resources
2. Application Sizing x. Predicting the behaviour of IT services
3. Demand Management y. Increasing component utilisation to
improve performance
4. Tuning z. Estimating resource requirements

a) 1-x; 2-z; 3-y; 4-w
b) 1-w; 2-x; 3-z; 4-y
c) 1-x; 2-z; 3-w; 4-y
d) 1-z; 2-x; 3-w; 4-y

18 How does Problem Management support the activities of the Service Desk?
a) Investigates all Incidents that the Service Desk resolves
b) Relieves the Service Desk by immediately communicating a solution to a problem
to the users

c) Makes information available to the Service Desk about Known Errors
d) Problem Management does not support the Service Desk

1. A Service Level Agreement (SLA) is a contract in which all available services are
defined.
2. A Service Level Manager should know more about technology than about the
organisation.

a) Statement 1 only
b) Statement 2 only
c) Both statements are correct
d) Neither statement is correct


1. It is important that there should be restricted access to the Incident closure routine.
2. Incidents should be matched with the corresponding Problem/Known record, where
one exists.

a) Both statements are correct
b) Neither statement is correct
c) Statement 1 only
d) Statement 2 only

21 Which of the following are objectives of Availability Management?
1. Reduction of the frequency and duration of Incidents that affect Availability
2. Provision of reporting to ensure that agreed levels of Availability are monitored on an
on-going basis
3. Ensuring IT Services are designed to deliver the required levels of Availability
4. Understanding the business requirements, both current and future, ensuring that
these and the availability requirements are met

a) They are all objectives of Availability Management
b) 1, 2 and 3
c) 2, 3 and 4
d) 2 and 3 only

22 How many Service Support disciplines are there?
a) 2
b) 5
c) 11
d) 6


23 An Availability Manager has both Planning and Operational activities to undertake as
part of their role. Match the following AM activities to whether they are Planning or
Operational:

1. Determining the Vital Business Functions (VBFs) of the organisation
2. Developing the Availability Plan
3. Monitoring Service Level Targets
4. Designing the IT Infrastructure to meet Availability requirements

x. Planning Activity
y. Operational Activity

a) 1-x; 2-x; 3-y; 4-y
b) 1-x; 2-x; 3-x; 4-y
c) 1-x; 2-x; 3-y; 4-x
d) 1-x; 2-x; 3-x, 4-x

24 Which of the following are important factors for successful Incident Management?
1. An up-to-date CMDB
2. An up-to-date knowledge base for use in Incident resolution and workarounds
3. An effective system to record and manage Incidents

a) 1 and 2 only
b) 1 and 3 only
c) All of them
d) 2 and 3 only

25 Which of the following is NOT a key part of the IT Financial Management process?
a) Budgeting
b) IT Accounting
c) IT Costing
d) Charging

26 Developing Recovery Plans and implementing risk reduction measures all form parts of
which ITSCM stage?

a) Implementation
b) Initiation
c) Requirements and Strategy
d) Operational Management


27 Which of the following is NOT an input to Change Management?
a) Requests for Change (RFCs)
b) CMDB
c) Known Errors
d) Forward Schedule of Changes (FSC)

28 Which of the following is NOT a responsibility of Capacity Management?
a) Monitoring performance and throughput
b) Tuning to make most efficient use of resources
c) Introducing charges for using scarce resources
d) Controlling Customers demand by restricting available supply

29 The description of a variant CI is?
a) It is a CI that is completely different to others and actually should not be logged in
the CMDB at all

b) It is where CIs are similar with only a slight difference allowing them to be
distinguished

c) It is a CI that has a significant fault which needs work to resolve so that it is fit
for purpose again

d) It is a CI with no relationship to any other CIs

30 In which process would you expect to see the following outputs?
1. Known errors
2. A Request for Change (RFC)
3. Management information

a) Incident Management
b) Service Desk
c) Change Management
d) Problem Management

31 Which of the following is NOT a Problem solving technique?
a) Brainstorming
b) Incident matching
c) Ishikawa diagrams
d) Kepner Tregoe analysis


32 Which of the following correctly identifies the FOUR stages of the IT Service
Continuity Lifecycle?

a) Identification; Requirements and Strategy; Operational Management
b) Initiation; Requirements and Planning; Identification; Implementation
c) Initiation; Requirements and Strategy; Implementation; Operational Management
d) Strategy; Planning; Implementation; Operational Model

33 Which of the following statements best describes the difference between Asset
Management and Configuration Management?

a) Configuration Management makes no record of costs of assets
b) Configuration Management maintains information about hardware and software
c) Configuration maintains information about assets and their relationships with
other assets

d) Configuration controls the logical information about IT assets

34 Operational Level Agreements are associated with which process?
a) Customer Relationship Management
b) Incident Management
c) Service Level Management
d) Availability Management

35 Which Incidents should be logged by the Service Desk?
a) Only Incidents not resolved at by the desk when the user calls
b) Only incidents from important customers
c) Every phone call
d) All Incidents


36 Which of the following statements about the Release Management process are true?
1. The Configuration Management Database (CMDB) should be referred to and
updated throughout any release process.
2. Release Management is responsible for assessing the impact of each change on the
infrastructure prior to packaging the Release.
3. Release Management is not used for rolling out hardware changes.
4. Release Management policy establishes an organisations release numbering
conventions.

a) 1, 2 and 4
b) 1, 2 and 3
c) 1 and 4
d) 2, 3 and 4

37 Which of the following best describes ITILs Service Management goals?
a) To give maximum performance of the IT equipment at minimum cost
b) To provide cost effective IT services that satisfy business need
c) To make life easy for the IT department
d) To be easy to audit to save money

38 Which of the following statements describing Intermediate Recovery is INCORRECT?
a) Intermediate Recovery is often referred to as warm standby
b) It is applicable to organisations that need immediate restoration of services
c) Recovery is targeted within a 24hr-72hr period
d) This option often includes commercial facilities offered by specialist third party
recovery organisations


39 Match up the goals to the correct Service Management processes:

1. "To maintain and improve the IT
Service quality though a constant cycle
of agreeing, monitoring and reporting
upon IT Service achievements and
taking actions to eradicate poor
service
w. IT Service Continuity Management
2. "To provide cost effective stewardship
of the IT assets and resources used in
providing IT Services
x. Service Level Management
3. "To ensure that all current and future
business and performance
requirements are provided cost
effectively
y. Financial Management
4. "To ensure that all the required IT
technical and services facilities can be
recovered within agreed business
timescales
z. Capacity Management

a) 1-x; 2-y; 3-z; 4-w
b) 1-y; 2-x; 3-z; 4-w
c) 1-x; 2-y; 3-w; 4-z
d) 1-w; 2-y; 3-z; 4-x

40 What is the most important advantage an organisation should gain from establishing a
Definitive Software Library (DSL)?

a) Only tested and authorised software versions will be used in the organisation
b) The owner of the DSL has the option to decide which software is used in an
organisation

c) The end users can choose from a wide range of controlled and certified software
d) A greater number of software versions can be offered to the end users

Example Exam APMG 2

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