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(3) (1/2) O
2
+ 2H
+
" H
2
O (4) displacement reaction.
12. Which of the following concentration factor is affected by change in temperature ?
(1) Molarity (2) Molality (3) Mole fraction (4) Weight fraction
13. Cyanide process is used for the extraction of :
(1) barium. (2) silver. (3) boron. (4) zinc.
14. The reaction : (CH
3
)
3
CBr ! ! " !
O H
2
(CH
3
)
3
COH is an example of -
(1) elimination reaction. (2) substitution reaction.
(3) free radical reaction. (4) rearrangement reaction.
15. A metal M readily forms water soluble sulphate MSO
4
,and oxide MO . MO in aqueous solution forms insoluble
M(OH)
2
soluble in NaOH. Metal M is :
(1) Be (2) Mg (3) Ca (4) Sr
16. Half-life of a substance A following first order kinetics is 5 days. Strarting with 100g of A, amount left after 15
days is :
(1) 25 g (2) 50 g (3) 12.5 g (4) 6.25 g
17. The most stable ion is :
(1) [Fe(OH)
5
]
3
(2) FeCl
6
]
3
(3) [Fe(CN)
6
]
3
(4) [ [Fe(H
2
O)
6
]
3+
11 AIEEE 2002 Paper
18. When primary amine reacts with chloroform in ethanolic KOH then the product is :
(1) an isocyanide. (2) an aldehyde. (3) a cyanide. (4) an alcohol.
19. If Fe
3+
and Cr
3+
both are present in group III
rd
of qualitative analysis, then distiction can be made by ?
(1) addition of NH
4
OH in presence of NH
4
Cl when only Fe (OH)
3
is precipitated
(2) addition of NH
4
OH in presence of NH
4
Cl when Cr(OH)
3
and Fe(OH)
3
both are precipitated and on adding Br
2
water and NaOH, Cr(OH)
3
dissolves.
(3) Precipitate of Cr(OH)
3
and Fe(OH)
3
as obtained in (b) are treated with conc. HCl when only Fe(OH)
3
dissolves.
(4) Both (2) and (3).
20. In an organic compound of molar mass 108 g mol
1
C,H and N atoms are present in 9 : 1 : 3.5 by weight.
Molecular formula can be :
(1) C
6
H
8
N
2
(2) C
7
H
10
N (3) C
5
H
6
N
3
(4) C
4
H
18
N
3
21. The solubility of Ca(OH)
2
is s moles/litre. The solubility product under the same condition is
(1) 4S
3
(2) 3S
4
(3) 4S
2
(4) S
3
.
22. The heat required to raise the temperature of1 mole of a substance by 1C is called :
(1) Specific heat. (2) molar heat capacity.
(3) water equivalent. (4) none of these.
23. $% particle is emitted in a radioactive reaction when:
(1) proton changes to neutron. (2) a neutron changes to proton.
(3) a neutron change to electron. (4) an electron changes to neutron.
24. In mixture A and B components show - ve deviation as :
(1) A B interaction is stronger than A A and B B interaction is.
(2) A B interaction is weaker than A A and B B interaction is.
(3) &V
mix
> 0 , &S
mix
> 0.
(4) &V
mix
= 0 , &S
mix
> 0.
25. Refining of impure copper with zinc impurity is to be done by electrolysis using electrodes as :
Cathode Anode Cathode Anode
(1) pure copper pure zinc (2) pure zinc pure copper
(3) pure copper impure copper (4) pure zinc impure zinc
26. Aluminium is extracted by the electrolysis of :
(1) alumina (2) bauxite
(3) molten cryolite. (4) alumina mixed with molten cryolite
27. Freezing point of an aqueous solution is ( 0.186)
0
C. Elevation of boiling point of the same solution is K
b
=
0.512
0
C mol
1
kg, K
'
= 1.86
0
C mol
1
kg, find the increase in boiling point.
(1) 0.186
0
C (2) 0.0512
0
C (3) 1.86
0
C (4) 5.12C
28. In which of the following species is the underlined carbon having sp
3
hybridisation?
(1) CH
3
OOH C (2) CH
3
CH
2
OH (3) CH
3
COCH
3
(4) CH
2
= H C CH
3
29. Bond angle of 109
0
28 found in -
(1) NH
3
, (BF
4
)
1
(2) (NH
4
)
+
, (BF
3
) (3) NH
3
, BF
4
(4) (NH
2
)
1
,
BF
3
12 AIEEE 2002 Paper
30. For the reaction A + 2B " C, rate is given by+
dt
] C [ d
= k [A] [B], hence the order of the reaction is :
(1) 3 (2) 2 (3) 1 (4) 0
31. CH
3
Mg Br is an organo metallic compound due to :
(1) Mg Br bond (2) C Mg bond (3) C Br bond (4) C H bond
32. One of the following species acts as both Bronsted acid and base -
(1) H
2
PO
2
(2) HPO
3
2
(3) HPO
4
2
(4) All of these
33. Hybridisation of the underline atom changes in :
(1) AlH
3
changes to
%
4
AlH (2) H
2
O changes to H
3
O
+
(3) NH
3
changes to
(
4
NH (4) In all cases
34. Racemic mixture is formed by mixing two :
(1) isomeric compounds. (2) chiral compounds.
(3) meso compounds. (4) optical isomers.
35. In XeF
2
, XeF
4
, XeF
6
the number of lone pairs on Xe are respectively
(1) 3, 2, 1 (2) 2, 4, 6 (3) 1, 2, 3 (4) 6, 4, 2
36. 1 M NaCl and 1 M HCl are present in an aqueous solution. The solution is
(1) not a buffer solution with pH < 7 (2) not a buffer solution with pH > 7
(3) a buffer solution with pH < 7 (4) a buffer solution with pH > 7
37. Consider following two reactions :
A !" product
dt
] A [ d
= k
1
[A]
0
; B !" product
dt
] B [ d
= k
2
[B]
k
1
and k
2
are expressed in terms of molarity (mol L
1
) and time (s
1
) as :
(1) s
1
Ms
1
L
1
(2) Ms
1
, Ms
1
(3) s
1
M
1
s
1
(4) Ms
1
, s
1
38. RNA is different from DNA because RNA contains :
(1) ribose sugar and thymine. (2) ribose sugar and uracil.
(3) deoxyribose sugar and thymine. (4) deoxyribose sugar and uracil.
39. For a cell given below :
Ag |Ag
+
|| Cu
2+
| Cu
+
Ag
+
+ e
!" Ag E = x
Cu
2+
+ 2e
!" Cu, E = y
E cell is :
(1) x + 2y (2) 2x + y (3) y x (4) y 2x
40. Kinetic theory of gases proves :
(1) Only Boyles law. (2) Only Charles law.
(3) Only Avagadro's law. (4) All of these.
13 AIEEE 2002 Paper
41. MnO
4
is a good oxidising agent in different medium changing to
MnO
4
!" ! Mn
2+
!" ! MnO
4
2-
!" ! MnO
2
!" ! Mn
2
O
3
Changes in oxidation numbner respecitively are
(1) 1, 3, 4, 5 (2) 5, 4, 3, 2 (3) 5, 1, 3, 4 (4) 2, 6, 4, 3
42. The differential rate law for the reaction H
2
+ I
2
" 2HI is :
(1)
) *
dt
] HI [ d
dt
] I [ d
dt
H d
2 2
% + % + %
(2)
) *
dt
] HI [ d
2
1
dt
] I [ d
dt
H d
2 2
+ +
(3)
) *
dt
] HI [ d
dt
] I [ d
2
1
dt
H d
2
1
2 2
% + +
(4)
) *
dt
] HI [ d
dt
] I [ d
2
dt
H d
2
2 2
( + % + %
43. Number of atoms in 560g of Fe (atomic mass 56g mol
1
) is :
(1) Twice that of 70g N. (2) Half that of 20g H.
(3) Both (1) and (2). (4) None of these.
44. Which of the following does not show geometrical isomerism?
(1) 1, 2-Dichloro- 1 -pentene. (2) 1, 3-Dichloro -2-pentene.
(3) 1, 1-Dichloro- 1 -pentene. (4) 1, 4-Dichloro -2-pentene.
45. Na and Mg crystallize in BCC and FCC type crystals respectively, then the number of atoms of Na and Mg
present in the unit cell of their respective crystal is
(1) 4 and 2 (2) 9 and 14 (3) 14 and 9 (4) 2 and 4
46. Which of the following compounds has wrong IUPAC name?
(1) CH
3
CH
2
CH
2
COO CH
2
CH
3
" Ethyl butanoate
(2) " 3-Methylbutanal
(3) " 2-Methyl-3-butanol
(4) " 2-Methyl-3-pentanone
47. CH
3
CH
2
COOH A B, What is B?
(1) CH
3
CH
2
COCI (2) CH
3
CH
2
CHO (3) CH
2
= CHCOOH (4) CICH
2
CH
2
COOH
48. For the reaction CO (g) + (1/2) O
2
(g) = CO
2
(g), K
c
/K
p
is :
(1) RT (2) (RT)
1
(3) (RT)
1/2
(4) (RT)
1/2
14 AIEEE 2002 Paper
49. Energy of H-atom in the ground state is 13.6 eV, hence energy in the second excited state is
(1) 6.8 eV (2) 3.4 eV (3) 1.51 eV (4) 4.53 eV
50. A square planar complex is formed by hybridization of which atomic orbitals ?
(1) s, p
x
, p
y
, p
z
(2) s, p
x
, p
y
, p
z
,d (3) d, s, p
x
, p
y
(4) s, p
x
, p
y
, p
z
, d
51. The type of isomerism present in nitropentaamminechromium(III) chloride is :
(1) optical. (2) linkage. (3) ionization. (4) polymerization.
52. Change in volume of the system does not alter the number of moles in which of the following equilibriums :
(1) N
2
(g) + O
2
(g) 2NO(g) (2) PCl
5
(g) PCl
3
(g) + Cl
2
(g)
(3) N
2
(g) + 3H
2
(g) 2NH
3
(g) (4) SO
2
Cl
2
(g) SO
2
(g) + Cl
2
(g)
53. Uncertainity in position of a particle of 25 g in space is 10
15
m. Hence, Uncertainity in velocity (m.sec
1
) is :
(planks constant, h = 6.6 , 10
34
Js)
(1) 2.1 , 10
18
(2) 2.1 , 10
34
(3) 0.5 , 10
34
(4) 5.0 , 10
24
54. Consider the following reaction at 1100C.
(I) 2C + O
2
!" ! 2CO, &G = 460 k J mol
1
(II) 2Zn + O
2
!" ! 2ZnO, &G = 360 k J mol
1
Based on these, select correct alternate.
(1) zinc can be oxidised by CO (2) zinc oxide can be reduced by carbon
(3) Both (1) and (2) (4) None of the above
55. A reaction is non-spontaneous at the freezing point of water but is spontaneous at the boiling point of water,
then
&H &S &H &S
(1) + ve + ve (2) ve ve
(3) ve + ve (4) + ve ve
56. Polymer formation from monomers starts by :
(1) condensation reaction between monomers.
(2) coordinate bond formation between monomers.
(3) conversion of monomer to monomer ions by protons.
(4) hydrolysis of monomers.
57. Which of the following are arranged in an increasing order of their bond strengths of
(1) O
2
< O
2
< O
2
+
< O
2
2
(2) O
2
2
< O
2
< O
2
< O
2
+
(3) O
2
< O
2
2
< O
2
< O
2
+
(4) O
2
+
< O
2
< O
2
< O
2
2
58. Most common oxidation state fo Ce (Cerium) are :
(1) +3, +4 (2) +2, +3 (3) +2, +4 (4) +3, +5
59. Arrange Ce
+3
, La
+3
, Pm
+3
and Yb
+3
in increasing order of their ionic radii.
(1) Yb
+3
< Pm
+3
< Ce
+3
< La
+3
(2) Ce
+3
< Yb
+3
< Pm
+3
< La
+3
(3) Yb
+3
< Pm
+3
< La
+3
< Ce
+3
(4) Pm
+3
< La
+3
< Ce
+3
< Yb
+3
.
60. pH of 0.005 M calcium acetate (pK
a
of CH
3
COOH = 4.74) is
(1) 7.04 (2) 9.37 (3) 9.26 (4) 8.37
15 AIEEE 2002 Paper
61. H
2
gas is absorbed on the metal suface like tungasten. This follows.......... order reaction.
(1) third (2) second (3) zero (4) first
62. Rate constant k of the first order reaction when initial concentration C
0
and concentration C
t
at time t is given by
equation
kt = log C
0
log C
t
Graph is a straight line if we plot
(1) t vs log C
0
(2) t vs log C
t
(3) t
1
vs log C
t
(4) log C
0
vs log C
t
63. Alum is widely used to purify water since
(1) it forms complex with clay particles.
(2) it coagulates the mud particles.
(3) it exchanges Ca
2+
and Mg
2+
ions present in hard water.
(4) its sulphate ion is water purifier.
64. On vigorous oxidation by permagnate solution, (CH
3
)
2
C = CH CH
2
CHO gives :
(1)
3
3 2 3
CH
|
CH CH CH C CH
| |
OH OH
(2)
(3)
CH
3
CH
3
CH OH + CH
3
CH
2
CH
2
OH (4)
CH
3
CH
3
=== O + CH
3
CH
2
CHO.
65. Arrangement of (CH
3
)
3
C, (CH
3
)
2
CH , CH
3
CH
2
when attached to benzyl or an unsaturated group in increasing
order of electron releasing nature is.
(1) (CH
3
)
3
C < (CH
3
)
2
CH < CH
3
CH
2
(2) CH
3
CH
2
< (CH
3
)
2
CH < (CH
3
)
3
C
(3) (CH
3
)
2
CH < (CH
3
)
3
C < CH
3
CH
2
(4) (CH
3
)
3
C < CH
3
CH
2
< (CH
3
)
2
CH
66. In case of nitrogen, NCl
3
is possible but no NCl
5
while in case of phosphorus, PCl
3
as well as PCl
5
are
possible. It is due to :
(1) availability of vacant d-orbital in P but not in N.
(2) lower electronegativity of P then N.
(3) lower tendency of H bond formation in P than N.
(4) occurrence of P in solid while N in gaseous state at room temperature.
67. The functional group, which is found in amino acid is
(1) COOH group. (2) NH
2
group. (3) CH
3
group. (4) both (1) and (2).
68. Conductivity (unit Siemens S) is directly proportional to area of the vessel and the concentration of the solution
in it and is inversely proportional to the length of the vessel then the unit of the constant of proportionality is
(1) Sm mol
1
. (2) Sm
2
mol
1
. (3) S
2
m
2
mol. (4) S
2
m
2
mol
1
.
69. A heat engine absorbs heat Q
1
from a source at temperature T
1
and heat Q
2
from a source at temperature T
2
.
Work done is found to be J (Q
1
+ Q
2
). This is in accordance with :
(1) First law of thermodynamics. (2) second law of thermodynamics.
(3) Joules equivalent law. (4) None of the above.
16 AIEEE 2002 Paper
70. Select correct statement :
(1) when a covalent bond is formed, transfer of electrons takes place.
(2) pure H
2
O does not contain any ion.
(3) a bond is formed when attractive forces overcome repulsive forces.
(4) HF is less polar than HBr.
71. The metallic sodium dissolves in liquid ammonia to form a deep blue coloured solution.
The deep blue colour is due to formation of :
(1) solvated electron, electron (NH
3
)
x
). (4) NaNH
2
+ H
2
.
72. Maximum dehydration takes place that of :
(1) (2) (3) (4)
73. S
N
1 reaction is feasible in :
(1) (CH
3
)
3
CCl + KOH !" ! (2) + KOH !" !
(3) (4)
74. Oxidation number of Cl in CaOCl
2
(bleaching powder) is
(1) zero, since it contains Cl
2
(2) 1, since it contains Cl
and i
+ 2 j
the unit vector coplanar with the two vectors and perpendicular to first
is -
(1)
2
1
( i
+ j
) (2)
5
1
(2 i
+ j
) (3)
2
1
( i
+ k
3 j
x i
2 j
) 2 x 4 ( i
(2)
5
6
7
8
9
:
2 ,
3
1
(3)
5
6
7
8
9
:
0 ,
3
2
(4) {2, 7}
35. A parallelopiped is formed by planes drawn through the points (2, 3, 5) and (5, 9, 7) parallel to the coordinate
planes. The length of a diagonal of the parallelopiped is
(1) 7 unit (2)
38
unit (3)
155
unit (4) None of these
36. The equation of the plane containing the line
n
z z
m
y y
l
x x
1 1 1
; ; is (where a(x x
1
) + b(y y
1
) + c(z z
1
) = 0)
(1) ax
1
+ by
1
+ cz
1
= 0 (2) al + bm + cn = 0 (3)
n
c
m
b
l
a
; ; (4) lx
1
+ my
1
+ nz
1
= 0
22 AIEEE 2002 Paper
37. If A and B are two mutually exclusive events, then
(1) P(A) < P(
B
) (2) P(A) > P(
B
) (3) P(A) < P(B) (4) None of these
38. The probability of India winning a test match against West-Indies is 1/2 assuming independence from match to
match. The probability that in a match series India's second win occurs at the third test is
(1)
8
1
(2)
4
1
(3)
2
1
(4)
3
2
39. The equation of the directirx of the parabola y
2
+ 4y + 4x + 2 = 0 is
(1) x = 1 (2) x = 1 (3) x =
2
3
(4) x =
2
3
40. Let T
n
denotes the number of triangles with can be formed using the vertices of a regular polygon of n sides. If
T
n+1
T
n
= 21, then n equals
(1) 5 (2) 7 (3) 6 (4) 4
41. In a triangle ABC, 2ca sin
+
,
-
.
/
0 % *
2
C B A
is equal to
(1) a
2
+ b
2
c
2
(2) c
2
+ a
2
b
2
(3) b
2
c
2
a
2
(4) c
2
a
2
b
2
42.
1 ) x
im !
x
2
2
3 x x
3 x 5 x
+
+
,
-
.
.
/
0
% %
% %
is equal to
(1) e
4
(2) e
2
(3) e
3
(4) e
43. The incentre of the triangle with vertices (1,
3
), (0, 0) and (2, 0) is
(1)
+
+
,
-
.
.
/
0
2
3
, 1
(2)
+
+
,
-
.
.
/
0
3
1
,
3
2
(3)
+
+
,
-
.
.
/
0
2
3
,
3
2
(4)
+
+
,
-
.
.
/
0
3
1
, 1
44. If the vectors
)
a ,
)
b and
)
c form the sides BC, CA and AB respectively of a triangle ABC, then-
(1)
)
a
.
)
b
=
)
b
.
)
c
=
)
c
.
)
a
# 0 (2)
)
a
)
b
=
)
b
)
c
=
)
c
)
a
(3)
)
a
.
)
b
=
)
b
.
)
c
=
)
c
.
)
a
= 0 (4)
)
a
)
b
+
)
b
)
c
+
)
c
)
a
=
)
0
45. If < is an imaginary cube root of unity, then (1 + < <
2
)
7
equals-
(1) 128 < (2) 128 < (3) 128 <
2
(4) 128 <
2
46. If
i 3 20
1 i 3 4
1 i 3 i 6
= x + iy, then -
(1) x = 3, y = 1 (2) x = 1, y = 3 (3) x = 0, y = 3 (4) x = 0, y = 0
47. If tan4 =
3
4
then sin 4 is
(1)
5
4
not but
5
4
*
(2)
5
4
or
5
4
*
(3)
5
4
not but
5
4
*
(4) None of these
23 AIEEE 2002 Paper
48. The radius of the circle passing through the foci of the ellipse
9
y
16
x
2 2
%
= 1 and having its centre at (0, 3) is
(1) 4 unit (2) 3 unit (3)
12
unit (4)
2
7
unit
49. A and B play a game where each is asked to select a number from 1 to 25. If the two numbers match, both of
them win a prize. The probability that they will not win a prize in a single trial, is
(1)
25
1
(2)
25
24
(3)
25
2
(4) None of these
50. If < (# 1) is cubic root of unity, then
1 i 1 i
1 1 i 1
i 1 1
2
2 2
< %
<
< < % %
equals
(1) 0 (2) 1 (3) i (4) <
51. A biased coin with probability p, 0 < p < 1, of heads is tossed until a head appears for the first time. If the
probability that the number of tosses required is even, is 2/5, then p equals
(1)
3
1
(2)
3
2
(3)
5
2
(4)
5
3
52. A fair die is tossed eight times. The probabillity that a third six is observed on the eight throw, is
(1)
7
5
2
7
6
5 C =
(2)
8
5
2
7
6
5 C =
(3)
6
5
2
7
6
5 C =
(4) None of these
53. Let f(2) = 4 and f>(2) = 4, then
2 x
im
)
!
2 x
) x ( f 2 ) 2 ( f x
*
*
is equal to
(1) 2 (2) 2 (3) 4 (4) 3
54. Three straight lines 2x + 11y 5 = 0, 4x 3y 2 = 0 and 24x + 7y 20 = 0
(1) form a triangle
(2) are only concurrent
(3) are concurrent with one line bisecting the angle between the other two
(4) none of these
55. A straight line through the point (2,2) intersects the lines
3
x + y = 0 and
3
x - y = 0 at the points A and
B.The equation to the line AB so that the triangle OAB is equilateral is
(1) x 2 = 0 (2) y 2 = 0 (3) x + y 4 = 0 (4) none of these
56. The greatest distance of the point P (10, 7) from the circle x
2
+ y
2
4x 2y 20 = 0 is-
(1) 10 unit (2) 15 unit (3) 5 unit (4) None of these
57. The equation of the tangent to the circle x
2
+ y
2
+ 4x 4y + 4 = 0 which make equal intercepts on the
positive coordinate axes, is-
(1) x + y = 2 (2) x + y = 2 2 (3) x + y = 4 (4) x + y = 8
58. The equation of the ellipse whose foci are (2, 0) and eccentricity is 1/2, is
(1) 1
16
y
12
x
2 2
; % (2) 1
12
y
16
x
2 2
; % (3) 1
8
y
16
x
2 2
; % (4) none of these
24 AIEEE 2002 Paper
59. The equation of the chord joining two points (x
1
, y
1
) and (x
2
, y
2
) on rectangular hyperbola xy = c
2
is
(1)
) y y (
y
) x x (
x
2 1 2 1
%
%
%
= 1 (2)
2 1
x x
x
*
+
2 1
y y
y
*
= 1
(3)
2 1
y y
x
%
+
2 1
x x
y
%
= 1 (4)
2 1
y y
x
*
+
2 1
x x
y
*
= 1
60. If the vectors j
b and k
z j
y i
x a , c ; % % ;
"
" "
are such that c , a
" "
and
b
"
form a right handed system, then
c
"
is
(1) k
x i
z (2)
0
"
(3) j
y (4) k
x i
z %
61. The centre of the circle given by ) k
2 j
2 i
( . r % %
"
= 15 and
) k
2 j
( r %
"
= 4 is
(1) (0, 1, 2) (2) (1, 3, 4) (3) (1, 3, 4) (4) None of these
62. If y = sin
2
4 + cosec
2
4, 4 # 0, then
(1) y = 0 (2) y ? 2 (3) y @ 2 (4) y @ 2
63. The value of
15 tan 1
15 tan 1
2
2
%
is
(1) 1 (2)
3
(3)
2
3
(4) 2
64. If sin (! + $) = 1, sin (! $) =
2
1
then tan(! + 2$) tan(2! + $) is equal to
(1) 1 (2) 1 (3) 0 (4) None of these
65. 2
2
) y x (
xy 4
sin
%
; 4
is true if
(1) x y # 0 (2) x = y, x # 0 (3) x = y (4) x # 0, y # 0
66. The sides of a triangle are 3x + 4y, 4x + 3y and 5x + 5y, where x, y > 0, then the triangle is
(1) right angled (2) obtuse angled (3) equilateral (4) none of these
67. In a AABC, tan
2
A
=
6
5
, tan
2
C
=
5
2
, then
(1) a, c, b are in AP (2) a, b, c are in AP (3) b, a, c are in AP (4) a, b, c are in GP
68. The equation a sin x + b cos x = c, where
| c| >
2 2
b a %
has
(1) a unique solution (2) infinite number of solutions
(3) no solution (4) None of the above
69. If ! is a root of 25 cos
2
4 + 5 cos 4 12 = 0,
2
(
< ! < (, then sin 2! is equal to
(1)
25
24
(2)
25
24
(3)
18
13
(4)
18
13
25 AIEEE 2002 Paper
70. tan
1
+
,
-
.
/
0
4
1
+ tan
1
+
,
-
.
/
0
9
2
is equal to
(1)
2
1
cos
1
+
,
-
.
/
0
5
3
(2)
2
1
sin
1
+
,
-
.
/
0
5
3
(3)
2
1
tan
1
+
,
-
.
/
0
5
3
(4) tan
1
+
,
-
.
/
0
2
1
71.
& '
B
1
;0 n
n
e
! n
x log
is equal to
(1) log
e
x (2) x (3) log
x
e (4) None of these
72.
4
4
) 1 x (
3
3
) 1 x (
2
) 1 x (
2
1
) 1 x (
e
%
......... is equal to
(1) log (x 1) (2) log x (3) x (4) None of these
73. If |x| < 1, then the coefficient of x
n
in expansion of (1 + x + x
2
+ x
3
+....)
2
is
(1) n (2) n 1 (3) n + 2 (4) n + 1
74. The coefficient of x
5
in (1 + 2x + 3x
2
+.....)
3/2
is :
(1) 21 (2) 25 (3) 26 (4) none of these
75. The number of real roots of
7 x 7
2
x 2
3
%
= 9 is
(1) 0 (2) 2 (3) 1 (4) 4
26 AIEEE 2002 Paper
ANSWER KEY TO AIEEE 2002 TEST PAPER (MATHEMATICS)
1. (2) 2. (1) 3. (2) 4. (1) 5. (2) 6. (4) 7. (4)
8. (1) 9. (1) 10. (4) 11. (3) 12. (2) 13. (2) 14. (3)
15. (2) 16. (3) 17. (3) 18. (1) 19. (2) 20. (4) 21. (2)
22. (2) 23. (1) 24. (2) 25. (4) 26. (1) 27. (3) 28. (2)
29. (1) 30. (1) 31. (1) 32. (1) 33. (1) 34. (1) 35. (1)
36. (2) 37. (1) 38. (2) 39. (4) 40. (2) 41. (2) 42. (1)
43. (4) 44. (2) 45. (4) 46. (4) 47. (2) 48. (1) 49. (2)
50. (1) 51. (1) 52. (2) 53. (3) 54. (3) 55. (2) 56. (2)
57. (2) 58. (2) 59. (1) 60. (1) 61. (2) 62. (4) 63. (3)
64. (1) 65. (2) 66. (2) 67. (2) 68. (3) 69. (2) 70. (4)
71. (2) 72. (3) 73. (4) 74. (4) 75. (2)