1 AIEEE 2002 Paper

AIEEE 2002 TEST PAPER

PHYSICS
Time : 1.15 Hours Max. Marks : 225
GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS
1. This question paper has 75 objective type questions. Each question has four choices (1), (2), (3) and (4) out
of which only one is correct.
2. For each question you will be awarded 3 Marks if you give the correct answer and zero Mark if no answer is
given. In all other cases, minus one (1) Mark will be awarded.
1. The inductance between A and D is :
A
D
3H
3H 3H
(1) 3.66 H (2) 9 H (3) 0.66 H (4) 1 H
2. A ball whose kinetic energy is E, is projected at an angle of 45 to the horizontal. The kinetic energy of the
ball at the highest point of its flight will be :
(1) E (2) E/
2
(3) E/2 (4) zero
3. From a building two balls A and B are thrown such that A is thrown upwards and B downwards with same speed
(both vertically). If V
A
and V
B
are their respective velocities on reaching the ground, then
(1) v
B
> v
A
(2) v
A
=v
B
(3) v
A
> v
B
(4) their velocities depends on their masses
4. If a body loses half of its velocity on penetrating 3 cm in a wooden block, then how much will it penetrate more
before coming to rest?
(1) 1 cm (2) 2 cm (3) 3 cm (4) 4 cm
2 AIEEE 2002 Paper
5. If suddenly the gravitational force of attraction between earth and a satellite revolving around it becomes zero,
then the satellite will :
(1) continue to move in its orbit with same velocity
(2) move tangentially to the original orbit with the same velocity
(3) become stationary in its orbit
(4) move towards the earth
6. If an ammeter is to be used in place of a voltmeter, then we must connect with the ammeter a :
(1) low resistance in parallel (2) high resistance in parallel
(3) high resistance in series (4) low resistance in series
7. If in a circular coil A of radius R, current i is flowing and in another coil B of radius 2R a current 2i is flowing, then
the ratio of the magnetic fields, B
A
and B
B
produced by them will be :
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 1 / 2 (4) 4
8. !f two mirrors are kept at 60 to each other, then the number of images formed by them is -
(1) 5 (2) 6 (3) 7 (4) 8
9. A wire when connected to 220 V mains supply has power dissipation P
1
. Now the wire is cut into two equal pieces
which are connected in parallel to the same supply. Power dissipation in this case is P
2
. Then P
2
: P
1
is
(1) 1 (2) 4 (3) 2 (4) 3
10. !f 13.6 eV energy is required to lionize the hydrogen atom, then the energy required to remove an electron from
n = 2 is :
(1) 10.2 eV (2) 0 eV (3) 3.4 eV (4) 6.8 eV
11. Tube A has both ends open while tube B has one end closed, otherwise they are identical. The ratio of
fundamental frequency of tubes A and B is :
(1) 1 : 2 (2) 1: 4 (3) 2 : I (4) 4 : I
12. A tuning fork arrangement (pair) produces 4 beats/sec with one fork of frequency 288 cps. A little Wax is placed
on the unknown fork and it then produces 2 beats/sec. The frequency of the unknown fork is :
(1) 286 cps (2) 292 cps (3) 294 cps (4) 288 cps
13. A wave y = a sin ("t - kx) on a string meets with another wave producing a node at x = O. Then the equation of
the unknown wave is :
(1) y = a sin ("t + kx) (2) y = -a sin ("t + kx) (3) y = a sin ("t - kx) (4) y = -a sin ("t - kx)
14. On moving a charge of, 20 coulombs by 2 cm, 2 J of work is done, then the potential difference between the points is :
(1) 0.1 V (2) 8 V (3) 2 V (4) 0.5 V
15. If an electron and a proton having same momentum enter perpendicularly to a magnetic field, then :
(1) curved path of electron and proton will be same (ignoring the sense of revolution)
(2) they will move undeflected
(3) curved path of electron is more curved than that of proton
(4) path of proton is more curved
16. Energy required to move a body of mass m from an orbit of radius 2R to 3R is :
(1) GMm/12R
2
(2) GMm/3R
2
(3) GMm/8R (4) GMm/6R
17. If a spring has time period T, and is cut into n equal parts, then the time period of each part will be :
(1)
n T
(2)
n
T
(3) nT (4) T
3 AIEEE 2002 Paper
18. A charged particle q is placed at the centre O of cube of length L (ABCDEFGH).
Another same charge q is placed at a distance L from O. Then the electric
flux through ABCD is -
H
A
D
E
F
C
B
G
q
O
q
L
(1) q/4#$
%
L (2) zero
(3) q/2#$
%
L (4) q/3#$
%
L
19. If in the circuit, power dissipation is 150 w, then R is
R
2&
15V
(1) 2 & (2) 6 &
(3) 5 & (4) 4 &
20. Wavelength of light used in an optical instrument are '
1
= 4000 and '
2
= 5000 , then ratio of their respective
resolving powers (corresponding to '
(
and '
2
) is -
(1) 16 : 25 (2) 9 : 1 (3) 4 : 5 (4) 5 : 4
21. Two identical particles move towards each other with velocity 2v and v respectively. This velocity of centre of mass is -
(1) v (2) v/3 (3) v/2 (4) zero
22. If a current is passed through a spring then the spring will :
(1) expand (2) compress (3) remain same (4) none of these
23. Heat given to a body which raises its temperature by 1C is :
(1) water equivalent (2) thermal capacity
(3) specific heat (4) temperature gradient
24. At absolute zero, Si acts as :
(1) non-metal (2) metal (3) insulator (4) none of these
25. Electromagnetic waves are transverse in nature is evident by -
(1) polarization (2) interference (3) reflection (4) diffraction
26. Which of the following is used in optical fibres ?
(1) Total internal reflection (2) Scattering
(3) Diffraction (4) Refraction
27. The escape velocity of a body depends upon mass as -
(1) m
0
(2) m
1
(3) m
2
(4) m
3
28. Which of the following are not electromagnetic waves ?
(1) Cosmic-rays (2) *-rays (3) +-rays (4) X-rays
29. If ,
i
is the inversion temperature, ,
n
is the neutral temperature, ,
c
is the temperature of the cold junction then-
(1) ,
i
+ ,
c
= ,
n
(2) ,
i
+ ,
c
= 2,
n
(3)
n
c i
2
, -
, . ,
(4) ,
c
+ ,
i
= 2,
n
30. Infrared radiations are detected by :
(1) spectrometer (2) pyrometer (3) nanometer (4) photometer
4 AIEEE 2002 Paper
31. If N
o
is the original mass of the substance of half-life period t
l/2
= 5 years, then the amount of substance left after
15 years is :
(1) N
0
/ 8 (2) N
o
/ 16 (3) N
0
/ 2 (4) N
0
/ 4
32. By increasing the temperature, the specific resistance of a conductor and ~ semiconductor:
(1) increases for both (2) decreases for both
(3) increases, decreases respectively (4) decreases, increases respectively
33. If there are n capacitors in parallel connected to V volt source, then the energy stored is equal to-
(1) CV (2)
2
1
nCV
2
(3) CV
2
(4)
n 2
1
CV
2
34. Which of the following is more close to a black body ?
(1) Black board paint (2) Green leaves (3) Black holes (4) Red roses
35. Which statement is incorrect ?
(1) All reversible cycles have same efficiency
(2) Reversible cycle has more efficiency than an irreversible one
(3) Carnot cycle is a reversible one
(4) Carnot cycle has the maximum efficiency in all cycles
36. Length of a string tied to two rigid supports is 40 cm. Maximum length (wavelength in cm) of a stationary wave
produced on it, is :
(1) 20 (2) 80 (3) 40 (4) 120
37. The power factor of an A.C. circuit having resistance R and inductance L (connected in series) and an angular
velocity " is-
(1) R/ "L (2) R/(R
2
+"L
2
)
1/2
(3) "L / R (4) R/ (R
2
"
/
L
2
)
1/2
38. An astronomical telescope has a large aperture to-
(1) reduce spherical aberration (2) have high resolution
(3) increase span of observation (4) have low dispersion
39. The kinetic energy needed to project a body of mass m from the earth's surface (radius R) to infinity is-
(1) mgR/2 (2) 2mgR (3) mgR (4) mgR/4
40. Cooking gas containers are kept in a lorry moving with uniform speed. The temperature of the gas molecules
inside will :
(1) increase (2) decrease
(3) remain same (4) decrease for some, while increase for others
41. When temperature increases, the frequency of a tuning fork :
(1) increases (2) decreases
(3) remain same (4) increases or decreases depending on the material
42. If mass energy equivalence is taken into account, when water is cooled to form ice, the mass of water should:
(1) increases (2) remain unchanged
(3) decrease (4) first increase then decrease
43. The energy band gap is maximum in :
(1) metals (2) superconductors (3) insulators (4) semiconductors
5 AIEEE 2002 Paper
44. The part of a transistor which is most heavily doped to produce large number of majority carriers is :
(1) emitter (2) base
(3) collector (4) can be any of the above three
45. In a simple harmonic oscillator, at the mean position:
(1) kinetic energy is minimum, potential energy is maximum
(2) both kinetic and potential energies are maximum
(3) kinetic energy is maximum, potential energy is minimum
(4) both kinetic and potential energies are minimum
46. Initial angular velocity of a circular disc of mass M is "
1

. Then two small spheres of mass m are attached gently to two
diametrically opposite points on the edge of the disc. What is the final angular velocity of the disc ?
(1) 1
M
m M
" 0
1
2
3
4
5 .
(2) 1
m
m M
" 0
1
2
3
4
5 .
(3) 1
m 4 M
M
" 0
1
2
3
4
5
.
(4) 1
m 2 M
M
" 0
1
2
3
4
5
.
47. The minimum velocity (in ms
1
) with which a car driver must traverse a flat curve of radius 150 m and coefficient of
friction 0.6 to avoid skidding is :
(1) 60 (2) 30 (3) 15 (4) 25
48. A cylinder of height 20m is completely filled with water. The velocity of efflux of water (in ms
1
) through a small
hole on the side wall of the cylinder near its bottom, is :
(1) 10 (2) 20 (3) 25.5 (4) 5
49. A spring of force constant 800 N/m has an extension of 5cm. The work done in extending it from 5cm to 15cm is :
(1) 16 J (2) 8 J (3) 32 J (4) 24 J
50. A child swinging on a swing in sitting position, stands up, then the time period of the swing will :
(1) increase (2) decrease
(3) remain same (4) increase if the child is long and decrease if the child is short
51. A lift is moving down with acceleration a. A man in the lift drops a ball inside the lift. The acceleration of the ball
as observed by the man in the lift and a man standing stationary on the ground are respectively :
(1) g, g (2) g a , g a (3) g a, g (4) a, g
52. The mass of a product liberated on anode in an electrochemical cell depends on :
(1) (It)
1/2
(2) It (3) !6t (4) !
2
t
(where t is the time period for which the current is passed)
53. At what temperature is the rms velocity of a hydrogen molecule equal to that of an oxygen molecule at 47 C?
(1) 80 K (2) 73 K (3) 3 K (4) 20 K
54. The time period of a charged particle undergoing a circular motion in a uniform magnetic field is independent of
its :
(1) speed (2) mass (3) charge (4) magnetic induction
55. A solid sphere, a hollow sphere and a ring are released from top of an inclined plane (frictionless) so that they
slide down the plane. The maximum acceleration down the plane is for (no rolling) :
(1) solid sphere (2) hollow sphere (3) ring (4) all same
56. In a transformer, number of turns in the primary are 140 and that in the secondary are 280. If current in primary
is 4 A, then that in the secondary is :
(1) 4 A (2) 2 A (3) 6 A (4) 10 A
6 AIEEE 2002 Paper
57. Even Carnot engine cannot give 100% efficiency because we cannot :
(1) prevent radiation (2) find ideal sources
(3) reach absolute zero temperature (4) eliminate friction
58. Moment of inertia of a circular wire of mass M and radius R about its diameter is :
(1)
2
MR
2
(2) MR
2
(3) 2MR
2
(4)
4
MR
2
59. When forces ' F
1
, F
2
, F
3
are acting on particle of mass m such that F
2
and F
3
are mutually perpendicular, then the
particle remains stationary. If the force F
1
is now removed then the acceleration of the particle is :
(1) F
1
/ m (2) F
2
F
3
/ mF
1
(3) (F
2
F
3
) / m (4) F
2
/ m
60. Two forces are such that the sum of their magnitudes is 18 N and their resultant is perpendicular to the smaller
force. Then the magnitudes of the forces are :
(1) 12 N , 6 N (2) 9 N , 9 N (3) 10N , 8 N (4) 16 N , 2 N
61. Speeds of two identical cars are u and 4u at a specific instant. The ratio of the respective distances at the
which the two cars are stopped from that instant is :
(1) 1 : 1 (2) 1 : 4 (3) 1 : 8 (4) 1 : 16
62. 1 mole of a gas with * = 7/5 is mixed with 1 mole of a gas with * = 5/3, then the value of * for the resulting
mixture is :
(1) 7/5 (2) 2/5 (3) 24/16 (4) 12/7
63. If a charge q is placed at the centre of the line joining two equal charges Q such that the system is in
equilibrium then the value of q is :
(1) Q / 2 (2) Q/2 (3) Q / 4 (4) Q/4
64. Capacitance (in F) of a spherical conductor having radius 1m, is :
(1) 1.1 10
10
(2) 10
6
(3) 9 10
9
(4) 10
3
65. A light string passing over a smooth light pulley connects two blocks of masses m
1
and m
2
(vertically). If the
acceleration of the system is g/8, then the ratio of the masses is :
(1) 8 : 1 (2) 9 : 7 (3) 4 : 3 (4) 5 : 3
66. Two spheres of the same material have radii 1 m and 4m and temperatures 4000 K and 2000 K respectively.
The ratio of the energy radiated per second by the first sphere to that by the second is :
(1) 1 : 1 (2) 16 : 1 (3) 4 : 1 (4) 1 : 9
67. Three identical blocks of masses m = 2 kg are drawn by a force F = 36 N with an acceleration of 6ms
2
on a
frictionless surface, then what is the tension (in N) in the string between the blocks B and C ?
C B A F
(1) 9.2 (2) 7.8 (3) 12 (4) 9.8
68. One end of massless rope, which passes over massless and frictionless
pulley P is tied to a hook C while the other end is free. Maximum tension that
the rope can bear is 960 N. With what value of maximum safe acceleration
(in ms
2
) can a man of 60kg climb on the rope
P
C
(1) 16 (2) 6
(3) 4 (4) 8
7 AIEEE 2002 Paper
69. A particle of mass m moves along line PC with velocity v as shown .What is
the angular momentum of the particle about P ?
P
I
O
r
L
C
(1) mvL (2) mvl
(3) mvr (4) zero
70. Wires 1 and 2 carrying currents i
1
and i
2
respectively are inclined at an angle ,
to each other. What is the force on a small element dl of wire 2 at distance r
from wire 1 (as shown in figure) due to the magnetic field of wire ?
r
i
1 i
2
,
dl
1
2
(1)
r 2
0
#
7
i
1
i
2
dl tan , (2)
r 2
0
#
7
i
1
i
2
dl sin ,
(3)
r 2
0
#
7
i
1
i
2
dl cos , (4)
r 4
0
#
7
i
1
i
2
dl sin ,
71. At a specific instant emission of radioactive compound is deflected in a magnetic field. The compound can
emit:
(i) electrons (ii) protons (iii) He
2+
(iv) neutrons
The emission at the instant can be
(1) i, ii, iii (2) i, ii, iii, iv (3) iv (4) ii, iii
72. Sodium and copper have work functions 2.3 eV and 4.5 eV respectively. Then the ratio of the wavelengths is
nearest to :
(1) 1 : 2 (2) 4 : 1 (3) 2 : 1 (4) 1 : 4
73. Formation of covalent bonds in compounds exhibits :
(1) wave nature of electron (2) particle nature of electron
(3) both wave and particle nature of electron (4) none of these
74. A conducting square loop of side L and resistance R moves in its plane with a uniform velocity v perpendicular
to one of its sides. A magnetic induction B constant in time and space, pointing perpendicular and into the
plane at the loop exists everywhere with half the loop outside the field, as shown in figure. The induced emf is:
(1) zero (2) RvB (3) VBL/R (4) VBL
75. Identify the pair whose dimensions are equal
(1) torque and work (2) stress and energy (3) force and stress (4) force and work.
8 AIEEE 2002 Paper
ANSWER KEY TO AIEEE 2002 TEST PAPER (PHYSICS)
1. (4) 2. (3) 3. (2) 4. (1) 5. (3) 6. (3) 7. (1)
8. (1) 9. (2) 10. (3) 11. (1) 12. (2) 13. (3) 14. (1)
15. (1) 16. (4) 17. (2) 18. (2) 19. (2) 20. (4) 21. (3)
22. (2) 23. (2) 24. (3) 25. (1) 26. (1) 27. (1) 28. (3)
29. (3) 30. (2) 31. (1) 32. (3) 33. (2) 34. (1) 35. (1)
36. (2) 37. (2) 38. (2) 39. (3) 40. (3) 41. (2) 42. (1)
43. (3) 44. (1) 45. (3) 46. (3) 47. (2) 48. (2) 49. (2)
50. (2) 51. (3) 52. (2) 53. (4) 54. (1) 55. (4) 56. (2)
57. (3) 58. (1) 59. (1) 60. (3) 61. (2) 62. (3) 63. (4)
64. (1) 65. (2) 66. (1) 67. (3) 68. (2) 69. (4) 70. (3)
71. (1) 72. (3) 73. (1) 74. (4) 75. (1)
9 AIEEE 2002 Paper
Time : 1.15 Hours Max. Marks : 225
GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS
1. This question paper has 75 objective type questions. Each question has four choices (1), (2), (3) and (4) out
of which only one is correct.
2. For each question you will be awarded 3 Marks if you give the correct answer and zero Mark if no answer is
given. In all other cases, minus one (1) Mark will be awarded.
1. Which of the following is a redox reaction ?
(1) NaCl + KNO
3
!" ! NaNO
3
+ KCl
(2) CaC
2
O
4
+ 2 HCl !" ! CaCl
2
+ H
2
C
2
O
4
(3) Ca(OH)
2
+ 2 NH
4
Cl !" ! CaCl
2
+ 2 NH
3
+2H
2
O
(4) 2K [Ag(CN)
2
] + Zn !" ! 2 Ag + K
2
[Zn(CN)
4
]
2. For an ideal gas, number of moles per litre in terms of its pressure P, temperature T, gas constant R is:
(1) pT/R (2) pRT (3) p/RT (4) RT/p
3. Number of PO bonds in P
4
O
10
is:
(1) 17 (2) 16 (3) 15 (4) 6
4. KO
2
(potassium super oxide) is used in oxygen cylinders in space and submarines because it :
(1) Absorbs CO
2
and increases O
2
concentrations.
(2) Absorbs moisture.
(3) Absorbs CO
2
.
(4) Produces ozone.
5. Which of the following ions has the maximum magnetic moment ?
(1) Mn
2+
(2) Fe
2+
(3) Ti
2+
(4) Cr
2+
.
6. Which of these will not react with acetylene?
(1) NaOH (2) ammonical AgNO
3
(3) Na (4) HCl.
AIEEE 2002 TEST PAPER
CHEMISTRY
10 AIEEE 2002 Paper
7. The compound
OCOCH
3
COOH
is used as :
(1) Antiseptic (2) Antibiotic (3) Analgesic (4) Pesticide.
8. For the following cell with hydgoren electrodes at two different pressure p
1
and p
2
Pt (H
2
) | H
+
(aq)| Pt (H
2
)
p
1
1M p
2
emf is given by
(1)
2
1
e
p
p
log
F
RT
(2)
2
1
e
p
p
log
F 2
RT
(3)
1
2
e
p
p
log
F
RT
(4)
1
2
e
p
p
log
F 2
RT
9. What is the product when acetylene reacts with hypochlorous acid ?
(1) CH
3
COCl (2) ClCH
2
CHO (3) Cl
2
CHCHO (4) ClCH
2
COOH.
10. A similarity between optical and geometrical isomerism is that :
(1) each forms equal number of isomers for a given compound.
(2) if in a compound one is present then so is the other.
(3) both are included in stereoisomerism.
(4) they have no similarity.
11. Which of the following reaction is possible at anode?
(1) 2 Cr
3+
+ 7H
2
O " Cr
2
O
7
2
+ 14H
+
(2) F
2
" 2F

(3) (1/2) O
2
+ 2H
+
" H
2
O (4) displacement reaction.
12. Which of the following concentration factor is affected by change in temperature ?
(1) Molarity (2) Molality (3) Mole fraction (4) Weight fraction
13. Cyanide process is used for the extraction of :
(1) barium. (2) silver. (3) boron. (4) zinc.
14. The reaction : (CH
3
)
3
CBr ! ! " !
O H
2
(CH
3
)
3
COH is an example of -
(1) elimination reaction. (2) substitution reaction.
(3) free radical reaction. (4) rearrangement reaction.
15. A metal M readily forms water soluble sulphate MSO
4
,and oxide MO . MO in aqueous solution forms insoluble
M(OH)
2
soluble in NaOH. Metal M is :
(1) Be (2) Mg (3) Ca (4) Sr
16. Half-life of a substance A following first order kinetics is 5 days. Strarting with 100g of A, amount left after 15
days is :
(1) 25 g (2) 50 g (3) 12.5 g (4) 6.25 g
17. The most stable ion is :
(1) [Fe(OH)
5
]
3
(2) FeCl
6
]
3
(3) [Fe(CN)
6
]
3
(4) [ [Fe(H
2
O)
6
]
3+
11 AIEEE 2002 Paper
18. When primary amine reacts with chloroform in ethanolic KOH then the product is :
(1) an isocyanide. (2) an aldehyde. (3) a cyanide. (4) an alcohol.
19. If Fe
3+
and Cr
3+
both are present in group III
rd
of qualitative analysis, then distiction can be made by ?
(1) addition of NH
4
OH in presence of NH
4
Cl when only Fe (OH)
3
is precipitated
(2) addition of NH
4
OH in presence of NH
4
Cl when Cr(OH)
3
and Fe(OH)
3
both are precipitated and on adding Br
2
water and NaOH, Cr(OH)
3
dissolves.
(3) Precipitate of Cr(OH)
3
and Fe(OH)
3
as obtained in (b) are treated with conc. HCl when only Fe(OH)
3
dissolves.
(4) Both (2) and (3).
20. In an organic compound of molar mass 108 g mol
1
C,H and N atoms are present in 9 : 1 : 3.5 by weight.
Molecular formula can be :
(1) C
6
H
8
N
2
(2) C
7
H
10
N (3) C
5
H
6
N
3
(4) C
4
H
18
N
3
21. The solubility of Ca(OH)
2
is s moles/litre. The solubility product under the same condition is
(1) 4S
3
(2) 3S
4
(3) 4S
2
(4) S
3
.
22. The heat required to raise the temperature of1 mole of a substance by 1C is called :
(1) Specific heat. (2) molar heat capacity.
(3) water equivalent. (4) none of these.
23. $% particle is emitted in a radioactive reaction when:
(1) proton changes to neutron. (2) a neutron changes to proton.
(3) a neutron change to electron. (4) an electron changes to neutron.
24. In mixture A and B components show - ve deviation as :
(1) A B interaction is stronger than A A and B B interaction is.
(2) A B interaction is weaker than A A and B B interaction is.
(3) &V
mix
> 0 , &S
mix
> 0.
(4) &V
mix
= 0 , &S
mix
> 0.
25. Refining of impure copper with zinc impurity is to be done by electrolysis using electrodes as :
Cathode Anode Cathode Anode
(1) pure copper pure zinc (2) pure zinc pure copper
(3) pure copper impure copper (4) pure zinc impure zinc
26. Aluminium is extracted by the electrolysis of :
(1) alumina (2) bauxite
(3) molten cryolite. (4) alumina mixed with molten cryolite
27. Freezing point of an aqueous solution is ( 0.186)
0
C. Elevation of boiling point of the same solution is K
b
=
0.512
0
C mol
1
kg, K
'
= 1.86
0
C mol
1
kg, find the increase in boiling point.
(1) 0.186
0
C (2) 0.0512
0
C (3) 1.86
0
C (4) 5.12C
28. In which of the following species is the underlined carbon having sp
3
hybridisation?
(1) CH
3
OOH C (2) CH
3
CH
2
OH (3) CH
3
COCH
3
(4) CH
2
= H C CH
3
29. Bond angle of 109
0
28 found in -
(1) NH
3
, (BF
4
)
1
(2) (NH
4
)
+
, (BF
3
) (3) NH
3
, BF
4
(4) (NH
2
)
1
,

BF
3
12 AIEEE 2002 Paper
30. For the reaction A + 2B " C, rate is given by+
dt
] C [ d
= k [A] [B], hence the order of the reaction is :
(1) 3 (2) 2 (3) 1 (4) 0
31. CH
3
Mg Br is an organo metallic compound due to :
(1) Mg Br bond (2) C Mg bond (3) C Br bond (4) C H bond
32. One of the following species acts as both Bronsted acid and base -
(1) H
2
PO
2

(2) HPO
3
2
(3) HPO
4
2
(4) All of these
33. Hybridisation of the underline atom changes in :
(1) AlH
3
changes to
%
4
AlH (2) H
2
O changes to H
3
O
+
(3) NH
3
changes to
(
4
NH (4) In all cases
34. Racemic mixture is formed by mixing two :
(1) isomeric compounds. (2) chiral compounds.
(3) meso compounds. (4) optical isomers.
35. In XeF
2
, XeF
4
, XeF
6
the number of lone pairs on Xe are respectively
(1) 3, 2, 1 (2) 2, 4, 6 (3) 1, 2, 3 (4) 6, 4, 2
36. 1 M NaCl and 1 M HCl are present in an aqueous solution. The solution is
(1) not a buffer solution with pH < 7 (2) not a buffer solution with pH > 7
(3) a buffer solution with pH < 7 (4) a buffer solution with pH > 7
37. Consider following two reactions :
A !" product
dt
] A [ d
= k
1
[A]
0
; B !" product
dt
] B [ d
= k
2
[B]
k
1
and k
2
are expressed in terms of molarity (mol L
1
) and time (s
1
) as :
(1) s
1
Ms
1
L
1
(2) Ms
1
, Ms
1
(3) s
1
M
1
s
1
(4) Ms
1
, s
1
38. RNA is different from DNA because RNA contains :
(1) ribose sugar and thymine. (2) ribose sugar and uracil.
(3) deoxyribose sugar and thymine. (4) deoxyribose sugar and uracil.
39. For a cell given below :
Ag |Ag
+
|| Cu
2+
| Cu
+
Ag
+
+ e

!" Ag E = x
Cu
2+
+ 2e

!" Cu, E = y
E cell is :
(1) x + 2y (2) 2x + y (3) y x (4) y 2x
40. Kinetic theory of gases proves :
(1) Only Boyles law. (2) Only Charles law.
(3) Only Avagadro's law. (4) All of these.
13 AIEEE 2002 Paper
41. MnO
4

is a good oxidising agent in different medium changing to
MnO
4

!" ! Mn
2+
!" ! MnO
4
2-
!" ! MnO
2
!" ! Mn
2
O
3
Changes in oxidation numbner respecitively are
(1) 1, 3, 4, 5 (2) 5, 4, 3, 2 (3) 5, 1, 3, 4 (4) 2, 6, 4, 3
42. The differential rate law for the reaction H
2
+ I
2
" 2HI is :
(1)
) *
dt
] HI [ d
dt
] I [ d
dt
H d
2 2
% + % + %
(2)
) *
dt
] HI [ d
2
1
dt
] I [ d
dt
H d
2 2
+ +
(3)
) *
dt
] HI [ d
dt
] I [ d
2
1
dt
H d
2
1
2 2
% + +
(4)
) *
dt
] HI [ d
dt
] I [ d
2
dt
H d
2
2 2
( + % + %
43. Number of atoms in 560g of Fe (atomic mass 56g mol
1
) is :
(1) Twice that of 70g N. (2) Half that of 20g H.
(3) Both (1) and (2). (4) None of these.
44. Which of the following does not show geometrical isomerism?
(1) 1, 2-Dichloro- 1 -pentene. (2) 1, 3-Dichloro -2-pentene.
(3) 1, 1-Dichloro- 1 -pentene. (4) 1, 4-Dichloro -2-pentene.
45. Na and Mg crystallize in BCC and FCC type crystals respectively, then the number of atoms of Na and Mg
present in the unit cell of their respective crystal is
(1) 4 and 2 (2) 9 and 14 (3) 14 and 9 (4) 2 and 4
46. Which of the following compounds has wrong IUPAC name?
(1) CH
3
CH
2
CH
2
COO CH
2
CH
3
" Ethyl butanoate
(2) " 3-Methylbutanal
(3) " 2-Methyl-3-butanol
(4) " 2-Methyl-3-pentanone
47. CH
3
CH
2
COOH A B, What is B?
(1) CH
3
CH
2
COCI (2) CH
3
CH
2
CHO (3) CH
2
= CHCOOH (4) CICH
2
CH
2
COOH
48. For the reaction CO (g) + (1/2) O
2
(g) = CO
2
(g), K
c
/K
p
is :
(1) RT (2) (RT)
1
(3) (RT)
1/2
(4) (RT)
1/2
14 AIEEE 2002 Paper
49. Energy of H-atom in the ground state is 13.6 eV, hence energy in the second excited state is
(1) 6.8 eV (2) 3.4 eV (3) 1.51 eV (4) 4.53 eV
50. A square planar complex is formed by hybridization of which atomic orbitals ?
(1) s, p
x
, p
y
, p
z
(2) s, p
x
, p
y
, p
z
,d (3) d, s, p
x
, p
y
(4) s, p
x
, p
y
, p
z
, d
51. The type of isomerism present in nitropentaamminechromium(III) chloride is :
(1) optical. (2) linkage. (3) ionization. (4) polymerization.
52. Change in volume of the system does not alter the number of moles in which of the following equilibriums :
(1) N
2
(g) + O
2
(g) 2NO(g) (2) PCl
5
(g) PCl
3
(g) + Cl
2
(g)
(3) N
2
(g) + 3H
2
(g) 2NH
3
(g) (4) SO
2
Cl
2
(g) SO
2
(g) + Cl
2
(g)
53. Uncertainity in position of a particle of 25 g in space is 10
15
m. Hence, Uncertainity in velocity (m.sec
1
) is :
(planks constant, h = 6.6 , 10
34
Js)
(1) 2.1 , 10
18
(2) 2.1 , 10
34
(3) 0.5 , 10
34
(4) 5.0 , 10
24
54. Consider the following reaction at 1100C.
(I) 2C + O
2
!" ! 2CO, &G = 460 k J mol
1
(II) 2Zn + O
2
!" ! 2ZnO, &G = 360 k J mol
1
Based on these, select correct alternate.
(1) zinc can be oxidised by CO (2) zinc oxide can be reduced by carbon
(3) Both (1) and (2) (4) None of the above
55. A reaction is non-spontaneous at the freezing point of water but is spontaneous at the boiling point of water,
then
&H &S &H &S
(1) + ve + ve (2) ve ve
(3) ve + ve (4) + ve ve
56. Polymer formation from monomers starts by :
(1) condensation reaction between monomers.
(2) coordinate bond formation between monomers.
(3) conversion of monomer to monomer ions by protons.
(4) hydrolysis of monomers.
57. Which of the following are arranged in an increasing order of their bond strengths of
(1) O
2

< O
2
< O
2
+
< O
2
2
(2) O
2
2
< O
2

< O
2
< O
2
+
(3) O
2

< O
2
2
< O
2
< O
2
+
(4) O
2
+
< O
2
< O
2

< O
2
2
58. Most common oxidation state fo Ce (Cerium) are :
(1) +3, +4 (2) +2, +3 (3) +2, +4 (4) +3, +5
59. Arrange Ce
+3
, La
+3
, Pm
+3
and Yb
+3
in increasing order of their ionic radii.
(1) Yb
+3
< Pm
+3
< Ce
+3
< La
+3
(2) Ce
+3
< Yb
+3
< Pm
+3
< La
+3
(3) Yb
+3
< Pm
+3
< La
+3
< Ce
+3
(4) Pm
+3
< La
+3
< Ce
+3
< Yb
+3
.
60. pH of 0.005 M calcium acetate (pK
a
of CH
3
COOH = 4.74) is
(1) 7.04 (2) 9.37 (3) 9.26 (4) 8.37
15 AIEEE 2002 Paper
61. H
2
gas is absorbed on the metal suface like tungasten. This follows.......... order reaction.
(1) third (2) second (3) zero (4) first
62. Rate constant k of the first order reaction when initial concentration C
0
and concentration C
t
at time t is given by
equation
kt = log C
0
log C
t
Graph is a straight line if we plot
(1) t vs log C
0
(2) t vs log C
t
(3) t
1
vs log C
t
(4) log C
0
vs log C
t
63. Alum is widely used to purify water since
(1) it forms complex with clay particles.
(2) it coagulates the mud particles.
(3) it exchanges Ca
2+
and Mg
2+
ions present in hard water.
(4) its sulphate ion is water purifier.
64. On vigorous oxidation by permagnate solution, (CH
3
)
2
C = CH CH
2
CHO gives :
(1)
3
3 2 3
CH
|
CH CH CH C CH
| |
OH OH
(2)
(3)
CH
3
CH
3
CH OH + CH
3
CH
2
CH
2
OH (4)
CH
3
CH
3
=== O + CH
3
CH
2
CHO.
65. Arrangement of (CH
3
)
3
C, (CH
3
)
2
CH , CH
3
CH
2
when attached to benzyl or an unsaturated group in increasing
order of electron releasing nature is.
(1) (CH
3
)
3
C < (CH
3
)
2
CH < CH
3
CH
2
(2) CH
3
CH
2
< (CH
3
)
2
CH < (CH
3
)
3
C
(3) (CH
3
)
2
CH < (CH
3
)
3
C < CH
3
CH
2
(4) (CH
3
)
3
C < CH
3
CH
2
< (CH
3
)
2
CH
66. In case of nitrogen, NCl
3
is possible but no NCl
5
while in case of phosphorus, PCl
3
as well as PCl
5
are
possible. It is due to :
(1) availability of vacant d-orbital in P but not in N.
(2) lower electronegativity of P then N.
(3) lower tendency of H bond formation in P than N.
(4) occurrence of P in solid while N in gaseous state at room temperature.
67. The functional group, which is found in amino acid is
(1) COOH group. (2) NH
2
group. (3) CH
3
group. (4) both (1) and (2).
68. Conductivity (unit Siemens S) is directly proportional to area of the vessel and the concentration of the solution
in it and is inversely proportional to the length of the vessel then the unit of the constant of proportionality is
(1) Sm mol
1
. (2) Sm
2
mol
1
. (3) S
2
m
2
mol. (4) S
2
m
2
mol
1
.
69. A heat engine absorbs heat Q
1
from a source at temperature T
1
and heat Q
2
from a source at temperature T
2
.
Work done is found to be J (Q
1
+ Q
2
). This is in accordance with :
(1) First law of thermodynamics. (2) second law of thermodynamics.
(3) Joules equivalent law. (4) None of the above.
16 AIEEE 2002 Paper
70. Select correct statement :
(1) when a covalent bond is formed, transfer of electrons takes place.
(2) pure H
2
O does not contain any ion.
(3) a bond is formed when attractive forces overcome repulsive forces.
(4) HF is less polar than HBr.
71. The metallic sodium dissolves in liquid ammonia to form a deep blue coloured solution.
The deep blue colour is due to formation of :
(1) solvated electron, electron (NH
3
)
x

. (2) solvated atomic sodium, Na(NH

3
)
y
.
(3) (Na
+
+ Na

). (4) NaNH
2
+ H
2
.
72. Maximum dehydration takes place that of :
(1) (2) (3) (4)
73. S
N
1 reaction is feasible in :
(1) (CH
3
)
3
CCl + KOH !" ! (2) + KOH !" !
(3) (4)
74. Oxidation number of Cl in CaOCl
2
(bleaching powder) is
(1) zero, since it contains Cl
2
(2) 1, since it contains Cl

(3) + 1, since it contains CIO

(4) +1 and 1 since it contains ClO

and Cl

75. Pricric acid is :

(1) (2)
(3) (4)
17 AIEEE 2002 Paper
ANSWER KEY TO AIEEE 2002 TEST PAPER (CHEMISTRY)
1. (4) 2. (3) 3. (2) 4. (1) 5. (1)
6. (1) 7. (3) 8. (2) 9. (3) 10. (3)
11. (1) 12. (1) 13. (2) 14. (2) 15. (1)
16. (3) 17. (3) 18. (1) 19. (2) 20. (1)
21. (1) 22. (2) 23. (2) 24. (1) 25. (3)
26. (4) 27. (2) 28. (2) 29. (4) 30. (2)
31. (2) 32. (3) 33. (1) 34. (4) 35. (1)
36. (1) 37. (4) 38. (2) 39. (3) 40. (4)
41. (3) 42. (4) 43. (3) 44. (3) 45. (4)
46. (3) 47. (3) 48. (4) 49. (3) 50. (3)
51. (2) 52. (1) 53. (1) 54. (2) 55. (1)
56. (1) 57. (2) 58. (1) 59. (1) 60. (4)
61. (3) 62. (2) 63. (2) 64. (2) 65. (1)
66. (1) 67. (4) 68. (2) 69. (3) 70. (3)
71. (1) 72. (2) 73. (1) 74. (4) 75. (3)
18 AIEEE 2002 Paper
AIEEE 2002 TEST PAPER
MATHEMATICS
Time : 1.15 Hours Max. Marks : 225
GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS
1. This question paper has 75 objective type questions. Each question has four choices (1), (2), (3) and (4) out
of which only one is correct.
2. For each question you will be awarded 3 Marks if you give the correct answer and zero Mark if no answer is
given. In all other cases, minus one (1) Mark will be awarded.
1. If ! # $ but !
2
= 5! 3, $
2
= 5$ 3, then the equation having the roots
$
!
and
!
$
is.
(1) 3x
2
+ 19x + 3 = 0 (2) 3x
2
19x + 3 = 0 (3) 3x
2
19x 3 = 0 (4) x
2
16x + 1 = 0
2. If y = (x +
2
x 1%
)
n
, then (1 + x
2
)
2
2
dx
y d
+ x
dx
dy
is -
(1) n
2
y (2) n
2
y (3) y (4) 2x
2
y
3. If 1, log
3
& ' 2 3
x 1
%
, log
3
(4.3
x
1) are in AP, then x equals
(1) log
3
4 (2) 1 log
3
4 (3) 1 log
4
3 (4) log
4
3
4. A problem in mathematics is given to three students A, B, C and their respectively probability of solving the
problem is
3
1
,
2
1
and
4
1
. Probability that the problem is solved, is
(1) 3/4 (2) 1/2 (3) 2/3 (4) 1/3
5. The fundamental period of sin
2
x is -
(1) (/2 (2) ( (3) 3(/2 (4) 2(
19 AIEEE 2002 Paper
6. !, m, n are the pth, qth and rth term of a GP and all positive, then
1 r n log
1 q m log
1 p log !
equals -
(1) 3 (2) 2 (3) 1 (4) 0
7.
0 x
im
)
!

x 2
x 2 cos 1*
is equal to
(1) 1 (2) 1 (3) 0 (4) does not exist
8. A triangle with vertices (4, 0), (1, 1), (3, 5) is
(1) isosceles and right angled (2) isosceles but not right angled
(3) right angled but not isosceles (4) neither right angled nor isosceles
9. In a class of 100 students there are 70 boys whose average marks in a subject is 75. If the average marks of the
complete class is 72, then what is the average marks of the girls?
(1) 73 (2) 65 (3) 68 (4) 74
10. tan
1
+
,
-
.
/
0
4
1
+ tan
1

+
,
-
.
/
0
9
2
is equal to -
(1)
+
,
-
.
/
0
*
5
3
cos
2
1
1
(2)
+
,
-
.
/
0
*
5
3
sin
2
1
1
(3)
+
,
-
.
/
0
*
5
3
tan
2
1
1
(4) tan
1

2
1
11. The order and degree of the differential equation
3 / 2
dx
dy
3 1 +
,
-
.
/
0
%
= 4
3
3
dx
y d
are
(1)
+
,
-
.
/
0
3
2
, 1
(2) (3, 1) (3) (3, 3) (4) (1, 2)
12. The equation of the plane containing the line
!
1
x x
=
m
y y
1
=
n
z z
1
is
a (x x
1
) + b (y y
1
) + c (z z
1
) = 0, where-
(1) ax
1
+ by
1
+ cz
1
= 0 (2) a! + bm + cn = 0 (3)
!
a
=
m
b
=
n
c
(4) !x
1
+ my
1
+ nz
1
= 0
13. The solution of the equation
2
2
dx
y d
= e
2x
is
(1)
4
e
x 2
(2)
4
e
x 2
+ cx + d (3)
4
1
e
2x
+ cx
2
+ d (4)
4
1
e
2x
+ c + d
14.
1 ) x
im !

x
2 x
3 x
+
,
-
.
/
0
%
*
, x 2 R, is equal to
(1) e (2) e
1
(3) e
5
(4) e
5
15. The range of the function f(x) =
x 2
x 2
*
%
, x # 2 is -
(1) R (2) R {1} (3) R {1} (4) R {2}
20 AIEEE 2002 Paper
16. The sum of the series 1
3
2
3
+ 3
3
........+ 9
3
is
(1) 300 (2) 125 (3) 425 (4) 0
17. If the third term of an A.P. is 7 and its 7th term is 2 more than three times of its 3rd term, then sum of its first
20 terms is
(1) 228 (2) 74 (3) 740 (4) 1090
18.
3
( 10
0
dx | x sin | is equal to
(1) 20 (2) 8 (3) 10 (4) 18
19. I
n
=
3
( 4 /
0

tan
n
x dx, then
1 ) n
lim n [I
n
+ I
n + 2
] equals-
(1)
2
1
(2) 1 (3) 1 (4) zero
20.
3
2
0
[x
2
] dx is equal to -
(1) 2 2 (2) 2 + 2 (3) 2 1 (4) 2 3 + 5
21.
3
(
( x cos 1
) x sin 1 ( x 2
2
%
%
dx is equal to
(1)
4
2
(
(2) (
2
(3) zero (4)
2
(
22. Which of the following is not a periodic function -
(1) sin 2x + cos x (2) cos
x
(3) tan 4x (4) log cos 2x
23. The domain of definition of the function f (x) =
+
+
,
-
.
.
/
0
4
x x 5
log
2
10 is
(1) [1, 4] (2) [1, 0 ] (3) [0, 5] (4) [5, 0]
24. If sin y = x sin (a + y), then
dx
dy
is -
(1)
) y a ( sin
a sin
2
%
(2)
a sin
) y a ( sin
2
%
(3) sin a sin
2
(a + y) (4)
a sin
) y a ( sin
2
25. If x
y
= e
x y
, then
dx
dy
is-
(1)
x log 1
x 1
%
%
(2)
x log 1
x log 1
%
(3) not defined (4) 2
) x log 1 (
x log
%
26. The two curves x
3
3xy
2
+ 2 = 0 and 3x
2
y y
3
2 = 0
(1) cut at right angle (2) touch each other (3) cut an angle
3
(
(4) cut at an angle
4
(
21 AIEEE 2002 Paper
27. The function f(x) = cot
1
x + x increases in the interval
(1) (1, 1) (2) (1, 1) (3) (1, 1) (4) (0, 1)
28. The greatest value of f(x) = (x + 1)
1/3
(x 1)
1/ 3
on [0, 1] is
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 1/3
29. Evaluate
3
( 2 /
0 x cos x sin
x sin
%
dx -
(1)
4
(
(2)
2
(
(3) zero (4) 1
30.
3
% ) 1 x ( x
dx
n
is equal to-
(1)
n
1
log
1 x
x
n
n
%
+ c (2)
n
1
log
n
n
x
1 x %
+ c (3) log
1 x
x
n
n
%
+ c (4) None of these
31. The area bounded by the curve y = 2x x
2
and the straight line y = x is given by
(1)
2
9
sq unit (2)
6
43
sq unit (3)
6
35
sq unit (4) None of these
32. The differential equation of all non-vertical lines in a plane is
(1)
2
2
dx
y d
= 0 (2)
2
2
dy
x d
= 0 (3)
dx
dy
= 0 (4)
dy
dx
= 0
33. Given two vectors are i

and i

+ 2 j

the unit vector coplanar with the two vectors and perpendicular to first
is -
(1)
2
1
( i

+ j

) (2)
5
1
(2 i

+ j

) (3)
2
1
( i

+ k

) (4) None of these

34. The vector k

3 j

x i

% % is rotated through an angle 4 and doubled in magnitude, then it becomes

k

2 j

) 2 x 4 ( i

4 % % . The value of x are

(1)
5
6
7
8
9
:
2 ,
3
2

(2)
5
6
7
8
9
:
2 ,
3
1
(3)
5
6
7
8
9
:
0 ,
3
2
(4) {2, 7}
35. A parallelopiped is formed by planes drawn through the points (2, 3, 5) and (5, 9, 7) parallel to the coordinate
planes. The length of a diagonal of the parallelopiped is
(1) 7 unit (2)
38
unit (3)
155
unit (4) None of these
36. The equation of the plane containing the line
n
z z
m
y y
l
x x
1 1 1
; ; is (where a(x x
1
) + b(y y
1
) + c(z z
1
) = 0)
(1) ax
1
+ by
1
+ cz
1
= 0 (2) al + bm + cn = 0 (3)
n
c
m
b
l
a
; ; (4) lx
1
+ my
1
+ nz
1
= 0
22 AIEEE 2002 Paper
37. If A and B are two mutually exclusive events, then
(1) P(A) < P(
B
) (2) P(A) > P(
B
) (3) P(A) < P(B) (4) None of these
38. The probability of India winning a test match against West-Indies is 1/2 assuming independence from match to
match. The probability that in a match series India's second win occurs at the third test is
(1)
8
1
(2)
4
1
(3)
2
1
(4)
3
2
39. The equation of the directirx of the parabola y
2
+ 4y + 4x + 2 = 0 is
(1) x = 1 (2) x = 1 (3) x =
2
3
(4) x =
2
3
40. Let T
n
denotes the number of triangles with can be formed using the vertices of a regular polygon of n sides. If
T
n+1
T
n
= 21, then n equals
(1) 5 (2) 7 (3) 6 (4) 4
41. In a triangle ABC, 2ca sin
+
,
-
.
/
0 % *
2
C B A
is equal to
(1) a
2
+ b
2
c
2
(2) c
2
+ a
2
b
2
(3) b
2
c
2
a
2
(4) c
2
a
2
b
2
42.
1 ) x
im !

x
2
2
3 x x
3 x 5 x
+
+
,
-
.
.
/
0
% %
% %
is equal to
(1) e
4
(2) e
2
(3) e
3
(4) e
43. The incentre of the triangle with vertices (1,
3
), (0, 0) and (2, 0) is
(1)
+
+
,
-
.
.
/
0
2
3
, 1
(2)
+
+
,
-
.
.
/
0
3
1
,
3
2
(3)
+
+
,
-
.
.
/
0
2
3
,
3
2
(4)
+
+
,
-
.
.
/
0
3
1
, 1
44. If the vectors
)
a ,
)
b and
)
c form the sides BC, CA and AB respectively of a triangle ABC, then-
(1)
)
a
.
)
b
=
)
b
.
)
c
=
)
c
.
)
a
# 0 (2)
)
a

)
b
=
)
b

)
c
=
)
c

)
a
(3)
)
a
.
)
b
=
)
b
.
)
c
=
)
c
.
)
a
= 0 (4)
)
a

)
b
+
)
b

)
c
+
)
c

)
a
=
)
0
45. If < is an imaginary cube root of unity, then (1 + < <
2
)
7
equals-
(1) 128 < (2) 128 < (3) 128 <
2
(4) 128 <
2
46. If
i 3 20
1 i 3 4
1 i 3 i 6
= x + iy, then -
(1) x = 3, y = 1 (2) x = 1, y = 3 (3) x = 0, y = 3 (4) x = 0, y = 0
47. If tan4 =
3
4
then sin 4 is
(1)
5
4
not but
5
4
*
(2)
5
4
or
5
4
*
(3)
5
4
not but
5
4
*
(4) None of these
23 AIEEE 2002 Paper
48. The radius of the circle passing through the foci of the ellipse
9
y
16
x
2 2
%
= 1 and having its centre at (0, 3) is
(1) 4 unit (2) 3 unit (3)
12
unit (4)
2
7
unit
49. A and B play a game where each is asked to select a number from 1 to 25. If the two numbers match, both of
them win a prize. The probability that they will not win a prize in a single trial, is
(1)
25
1
(2)
25
24
(3)
25
2
(4) None of these
50. If < (# 1) is cubic root of unity, then
1 i 1 i
1 1 i 1
i 1 1
2
2 2
< %
<
< < % %
equals
(1) 0 (2) 1 (3) i (4) <
51. A biased coin with probability p, 0 < p < 1, of heads is tossed until a head appears for the first time. If the
probability that the number of tosses required is even, is 2/5, then p equals
(1)
3
1
(2)
3
2
(3)
5
2
(4)
5
3
52. A fair die is tossed eight times. The probabillity that a third six is observed on the eight throw, is
(1)
7
5
2
7
6
5 C =
(2)
8
5
2
7
6
5 C =
(3)
6
5
2
7
6
5 C =
(4) None of these
53. Let f(2) = 4 and f>(2) = 4, then
2 x
im
)
!

2 x
) x ( f 2 ) 2 ( f x
*
*
is equal to
(1) 2 (2) 2 (3) 4 (4) 3
54. Three straight lines 2x + 11y 5 = 0, 4x 3y 2 = 0 and 24x + 7y 20 = 0
(1) form a triangle
(2) are only concurrent
(3) are concurrent with one line bisecting the angle between the other two
(4) none of these
55. A straight line through the point (2,2) intersects the lines
3
x + y = 0 and
3
x - y = 0 at the points A and
B.The equation to the line AB so that the triangle OAB is equilateral is
(1) x 2 = 0 (2) y 2 = 0 (3) x + y 4 = 0 (4) none of these
56. The greatest distance of the point P (10, 7) from the circle x
2
+ y
2
4x 2y 20 = 0 is-
(1) 10 unit (2) 15 unit (3) 5 unit (4) None of these
57. The equation of the tangent to the circle x
2
+ y
2
+ 4x 4y + 4 = 0 which make equal intercepts on the
positive coordinate axes, is-
(1) x + y = 2 (2) x + y = 2 2 (3) x + y = 4 (4) x + y = 8
58. The equation of the ellipse whose foci are (2, 0) and eccentricity is 1/2, is
(1) 1
16
y
12
x
2 2
; % (2) 1
12
y
16
x
2 2
; % (3) 1
8
y
16
x
2 2
; % (4) none of these
24 AIEEE 2002 Paper
59. The equation of the chord joining two points (x
1
, y
1
) and (x
2
, y
2
) on rectangular hyperbola xy = c
2
is
(1)
) y y (
y
) x x (
x
2 1 2 1
%
%
%
= 1 (2)
2 1
x x
x
*
+
2 1
y y
y
*
= 1
(3)
2 1
y y
x
%
+
2 1
x x
y
%
= 1 (4)
2 1
y y
x
*
+
2 1
x x
y
*
= 1
60. If the vectors j

b and k

z j

y i

x a , c ; % % ;
"
" "
are such that c , a
" "
and
b
"
form a right handed system, then
c
"
is
(1) k

x i

z (2)
0
"
(3) j

y (4) k

x i

z %
61. The centre of the circle given by ) k

2 j

2 i

( . r % %
"
= 15 and
) k

2 j

( r %
"
= 4 is
(1) (0, 1, 2) (2) (1, 3, 4) (3) (1, 3, 4) (4) None of these
62. If y = sin
2
4 + cosec
2
4, 4 # 0, then
(1) y = 0 (2) y ? 2 (3) y @ 2 (4) y @ 2
63. The value of
15 tan 1
15 tan 1
2
2
%
is
(1) 1 (2)
3
(3)
2
3
(4) 2
64. If sin (! + $) = 1, sin (! $) =
2
1
then tan(! + 2$) tan(2! + $) is equal to
(1) 1 (2) 1 (3) 0 (4) None of these
65. 2
2
) y x (
xy 4
sin
%
; 4
is true if
(1) x y # 0 (2) x = y, x # 0 (3) x = y (4) x # 0, y # 0
66. The sides of a triangle are 3x + 4y, 4x + 3y and 5x + 5y, where x, y > 0, then the triangle is
(1) right angled (2) obtuse angled (3) equilateral (4) none of these
67. In a AABC, tan
2
A
=
6
5
, tan
2
C
=
5
2
, then
(1) a, c, b are in AP (2) a, b, c are in AP (3) b, a, c are in AP (4) a, b, c are in GP
68. The equation a sin x + b cos x = c, where

| c| >
2 2
b a %
has
(1) a unique solution (2) infinite number of solutions
(3) no solution (4) None of the above
69. If ! is a root of 25 cos
2
4 + 5 cos 4 12 = 0,
2
(
< ! < (, then sin 2! is equal to
(1)
25
24
(2)
25
24
(3)
18
13
(4)
18
13
25 AIEEE 2002 Paper
70. tan
1
+
,
-
.
/
0
4
1
+ tan
1
+
,
-
.
/
0
9
2
is equal to
(1)
2
1
cos
1
+
,
-
.
/
0
5
3
(2)
2
1
sin
1
+
,
-
.
/
0
5
3
(3)
2
1
tan
1
+
,
-
.
/
0
5
3
(4) tan
1
+
,
-
.
/
0
2
1
71.
& '
B
1
;0 n
n
e
! n
x log
is equal to
(1) log
e
x (2) x (3) log
x
e (4) None of these
72.
4
4
) 1 x (

3
3
) 1 x (
2
) 1 x (
2
1
) 1 x (
e
%
......... is equal to
(1) log (x 1) (2) log x (3) x (4) None of these
73. If |x| < 1, then the coefficient of x
n
in expansion of (1 + x + x
2
+ x
3
+....)
2
is
(1) n (2) n 1 (3) n + 2 (4) n + 1
74. The coefficient of x
5
in (1 + 2x + 3x
2
+.....)
3/2
is :
(1) 21 (2) 25 (3) 26 (4) none of these
75. The number of real roots of
7 x 7
2
x 2
3
%
= 9 is
(1) 0 (2) 2 (3) 1 (4) 4
26 AIEEE 2002 Paper
ANSWER KEY TO AIEEE 2002 TEST PAPER (MATHEMATICS)
1. (2) 2. (1) 3. (2) 4. (1) 5. (2) 6. (4) 7. (4)
8. (1) 9. (1) 10. (4) 11. (3) 12. (2) 13. (2) 14. (3)
15. (2) 16. (3) 17. (3) 18. (1) 19. (2) 20. (4) 21. (2)
22. (2) 23. (1) 24. (2) 25. (4) 26. (1) 27. (3) 28. (2)
29. (1) 30. (1) 31. (1) 32. (1) 33. (1) 34. (1) 35. (1)
36. (2) 37. (1) 38. (2) 39. (4) 40. (2) 41. (2) 42. (1)
43. (4) 44. (2) 45. (4) 46. (4) 47. (2) 48. (1) 49. (2)
50. (1) 51. (1) 52. (2) 53. (3) 54. (3) 55. (2) 56. (2)
57. (2) 58. (2) 59. (1) 60. (1) 61. (2) 62. (4) 63. (3)
64. (1) 65. (2) 66. (2) 67. (2) 68. (3) 69. (2) 70. (4)
71. (2) 72. (3) 73. (4) 74. (4) 75. (2)