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CODE 0 ALL INDIA OPEN TEST (AIOT) JEE MAIN CLASS-XI | TARGET : JEE (IITs)

CODE 0

CODE 0 ALL INDIA OPEN TEST (AIOT) JEE MAIN CLASS-XI | TARGET : JEE (IITs) 2014

ALL INDIA OPEN TEST (AIOT) JEE MAIN

CLASS-XI | TARGET : JEE (IITs) 2014 | COURSE : ALL INDIA TEST SERIES (VIKALP)

Date : 27-01-2013

Duration : 3 Hours

Max. Marks : 360

Please read the instructions carefully. You are allotted 5 minutes specifically for this purpose.

IMPORTANT INSTRUCTIONS

1. Immediately fill the particulars on this page of theTest Booklet with Blue / Black Ball Point Pen. Use of pencil is strictly prohibited.

2. TheTest Booklet consists of 90 questions.

3. There are three parts in the question paper. The distribution of marks subjectwise in each part is as under for each correct response.

PART A ó PHYSICS (120 marks) Question No. 1 to 30 consist of Four (4) marks for each correct response.

PART B ó CHEMISTRY (120 marks) Question No. 31 to 60 consist of Four (4) marks for each correct response.

PART C ó MATHEMATICS (120 marks) Question No. 61 to 90 consist of Four (4) marks for each correct response.

4. Candidates will be awarded marks as stated above in Instructions No. 3 for correct response of each question.

ñ1/4 (minus one fourth) marks will be deducted for indicating incorrect response of each question. No deduction from the total score will be made if no response is indicated for an item in theAnswer sheet.

5. No candidate is allowed to carry any textual material, printed or written, bits of papers, paper, mobile phone, any electronic device, etc., except theAdmit Card inside the examination hall/room.

6. Rough work is to be done on the space provided for this purpose in the Test Booklet only. This space is given at the bottom of each page.

7. Oncompletionof the test, the candiate musthandover theAnswer Sheet tothe Invigilator on duty in theRoom/Hall.However, the candidates are allowed to take away thisTest Booklet with them.

8. Make sure that the CODE printed of the Answer Sheet is the same c as that on this booklet. In case of discrepancy, the condidateshould immediatelyreportthematter totheInvigilator fo replacementofboththeTestBookletandtheAnswer Sheet.

9. Do not fold or make any stray marks on theAnswer Sheet.

Name of the Candidate

any stray marks on theAnswer Sheet. Name of the Candidate Ihavereadalltheinstructionsand shall abidebythem.

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PART- A

SECTION - I Straight Objective Type

This section contains 27 multiple choice

questions. Each question has choices (1), (2),

(3) and (4) out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

1.

The pressure at the bottom of a tank of water is 3P,

where P is the atmospheric pressure . If the water

is

drawn out to lower the level of water by one fifth

then, the pressure at the bottom of the tank will be:

(1) 2P

(2) (13/5) P

(3) (8/5) P

(4) (4/5)P

2.

A

slab of 40 kg is lying on a frictionless floor and a

block of 10 kg rests on the slab as shown in the

figure. The coefficients of static and kinetic friction

between the slab and the block are 0.6 and 0.4

respectively. If a force of 100 N is applied on the

block, then the acceleration of the slab will be-

(g = 10 m/s 2 )

 
 

100 N

10kg
10kg

40 kg

 

Frictionless Floor

 

(1) 15.5 m/s 2

 

(2) 155 m/s 2

(3) 0.155 m/s 2

(4) 1 m/s 2

3.

A rigid ring of mass M and radius R is rotating with

a uniform angular speed . Now if a small part of

the ring breaks and flyoff, then the radius of gyration

of the remaining part

(1) Increases

(2) Decreases

(3) Remains same

(4) Nothing can be predicted

4. The maximum value of m(in kg) so that the

arrangement shown in the figure is in equilibrium

is (friction coefficient between block and wedge is

0.1 and between wedge and ground is 0.4)

block and wedge is 0.1 and between wedge and ground is 0.4) (1) 2 (2) 2.5

(1) 2

(2) 2.5

(3) 3

(4) 3.5

5. Consider a ring performing pure rolling then on a

fixed rough surface. There is a point ëAí marked on

the circumference of it. If velocity of centre of ring

is uniform, then this point will move in a cycloidal

path as shown.

then this point will move in a cycloidal path as shown. Now, if the ring is
then this point will move in a cycloidal path as shown. Now, if the ring is

Now, if the ring is perfoming pure rolling with uniform

acceleration what will be the path followed by this

point.

(1)

what will be the path followed by this point. (1) increasing size of cycloid (2) v
what will be the path followed by this point. (1) increasing size of cycloid (2) v

increasing size of cycloid

(2)

followed by this point. (1) increasing size of cycloid (2) v decreasing size of cycloid. (3)
v
v
followed by this point. (1) increasing size of cycloid (2) v decreasing size of cycloid. (3)

decreasing size of cycloid.

(3) It will depend on direction of acceleration whether

it is in the direction of velocity of centre or opposite.

(4) No change in path will occur.

(SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK)

direction of velocity of centre or opposite. (4) No change in path will occur. (SPACE FOR
direction of velocity of centre or opposite. (4) No change in path will occur. (SPACE FOR

JABAIOTXI270113C0-1

6. A monoatomic ideal gas undergoes a process given by 2dU + 3dW = 0, then the process is:

(1) isobaric (2) adiabatic (3) isothermal (4) none of these

7. The correct shape of a water drop enclosed

between two glass plates in gravity free space will

be -

9. A thin metal rod of length L 0 is shaped into a ring

with a small gap x as shown. On heating the system

a ring with a small gap x as shown. On heating the system (1) x decreases,

(1) x decreases, r and d increase

(2) x and r increase, d decreases

r and d increase (2) x and r increase, d decreases (3) x, r and d

(3) x, r and d all increase

(4) Data insufficient to arrive at a conclusionx and r increase, d decreases (3) x, r and d all increase (1) (2) (3)

(1)

(1) (2)

(2)

(1) (2) (3) (4)
(1) (2) (3) (4)

(3)

(3) (4)

(4)

to arrive at a conclusion (1) (2) (3) (4) 10. In a given process on an
to arrive at a conclusion (1) (2) (3) (4) 10. In a given process on an

10. In a given process on an ideal gas, dW = 0 and dQ

< 0 Then for the gas

(1) The temperature will decreaseson an ideal gas, dW = 0 and dQ < 0 Then for the gas (2)

(2) The volume will increases

(3) The pressure will remain constant The temperature will decreases (2) The volume will increases (4) The temperature will increase 11. When

(4) The temperature will increase

will remain constant (4) The temperature will increase 11. When a sound wave of frequency 300

11. When a sound wave of frequency 300 Hz passes

through a medium, maximum displacement of theincrease 11. When a sound wave of frequency 300 Hz passes particle of the medium is

particle of the medium is 0.1 cm. The maximum

velocity of the particle will be :

(1) 60 m/s

(2) 30 m/s

(3) 30 cm/s

(4) 60 cm/s

8. Three consecutive resonant frequencies of string

are 90, 150 and 210Hz. If the length of the string is

80cm what is the speed of the transverse wave in

the string.

(1) 45 m/s

(2) 96 m/s

(3) 48 m/s

(4) 80 m/s

(SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK)

the transverse wave in the string. (1) 45 m/s (2) 96 m/s (3) 48 m/s (4)
the transverse wave in the string. (1) 45 m/s (2) 96 m/s (3) 48 m/s (4)

JABAIOTXI270113C0-2

12. A mass m is suspended from a massless pulley, which itself is suspended by a massless string and a spring as shown in figure. What will be the time period of osillations of the mass. The force constant of spring is K-

(1)

2

m 2K
m
2K

(2)

2

m K
m
K

(3)

m K
m
K

(4)

m 2K
m
2K
m K (3)  m K (4)  m 2K 13. The radius of a wheel

13. The radius of a wheel is R and its radius of gyration about its axis passing through its centre and perpendicular to its plane is K. If the wheel is rolling without slipping, the ratio of its rotational kinetic energy to its translational kinetic energy is

(1)

(3)

K

2

R

2

R

2

R

2

K

2

(2)

(4)

R

2

K

2

K

2

R

2

K

2

14.

A

ball of relative density 0.8 falls into water from a

height of 2m above the surface of water. The depth inside water upto which the ball will sink is (neglect viscous forces):

(1)

8 m

(2) 2 m

 

(3)

6 m

(4) 4 m

15.

A

uniform rope having uniformly distributed mass

hanges vertically from a rigid support. Atransverse wave pulse is produced at the lower end. The speed

(v)

of the wave pulse varies with height (h) from

the lower end as:

 

(1)

(1) (2)  

(2)

(1) (2)  
(1) (2)  
(1) (2)  
 
 
 
 
 
 

(3)

  (3)   (4)
 

(4)

  (3)   (4)
 
 
 

16.

A

wheel of radius r rolls without slipping with a speed

v

on a horizontal road. When it is at a point A on

the road, a small lump of mud separates from the wheel at its highest point B and drops at point C on the road. The distance AC will beñ

B v A C
B
v
A
C

(1)

v

r g
r
g

(2) 2v

r g
r
g

(3)

4v

r g
r
g

(4)

3r g
3r
g

(SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK)

C (1) v r g (2) 2v r g (3) 4v r g (4) 3r g
C (1) v r g (2) 2v r g (3) 4v r g (4) 3r g

JABAIOTXI270113C0-3

17. A solid cylinder of mass M is attached to a light

spring of spring constant k. It can roll without slipping

along a horizontal surface. The period of oscillation

19. Displacement time graph of particle moving in one

dimension is shown. The distance time graph of

given particle will be

made by the cylinder is k M 2M (1) 2 3k M (2) 2 3k
made by the cylinder is
k
M
2M
(1)
2
3k
M
(2)
2
3k
(1)
(2)
3M
(3)
2
k
3M
(4)
2
2k

(3)

2 3k (1) (2) 3M (3) 2 k 3M (4) 2 2k (3) (4) Not possible
2 3k (1) (2) 3M (3) 2 k 3M (4) 2 2k (3) (4) Not possible

(4) Not possible to draw.

18. Aparticle is projected from the ground with an initial

speed v at an angle with the horizontal. The

magnitude of average velocity of the particle

between its point of projection and the highest point

is

20. A body moving with a constant speed describes a

circular path whose radius vector is given by

m, where is in rad/sec,

and t is in sec. Then its centripetal acceleration is :

(1)

(2)

(3) 15 m/s 2

(4)

r 15 cost

à

i

sin

t

j

à

v 1  2cos 2  2 v 1  3cos 2  2
v 1
 2cos
2 
2
v 1
 3cos
2 
2
(2) v 1  cos 2  2 (4) v cos
(2)
v 1
cos
2 
2
(4) v cos

(1)

(3)

45 2 m/s 2 5 2 m/s 2

15

2 m/s 2

(SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK)

cos (1) (3) 45  2 m/s 2 5  2 m/s 2 15  2
cos (1) (3) 45  2 m/s 2 5  2 m/s 2 15  2

JABAIOTXI270113C0-4

21. A source of sound and listener are approaching

each other, with a speed of 40 m/s each. The

apparent frequency of note produced by the

source is 400 cps. Then, its true frequency (in

cps) is (velocity of sound in air = 360 m/s).

(1) 420

(2) 360

(3) 400

(4) 320

22. Two particles execute SHM on same straight line

with same mean position, same time period

6 second and same amplitude 5 cm. Both the

particles start SHM from their mean position (in

same direction) with a time gap of 1 second. Find

the maximum separation between the two particles

during their motion :

(1) 2 cm

(2) 3 cm

(3) 4 cm

(4) 5 cm

23. A simple pendulum 50 cm long is suspended from

the roof of a cart accelerating in the horizontal

from the roof of a cart accelerating in the horizontal direction with constant acceleration 3 g

direction with constant acceleration 3 g m/s 2 .

The period of small oscillations of the pendulum

about its equilibrium position is (g = 2 m/s 2 ) :

its equilibrium position is (g =  2 m/s 2 ) : (1) 1.0 sec (2)
(1) 1.0 sec (2) 2 sec
(1) 1.0 sec
(2)
2 sec

(3) 1.53 sec

(4) 1.68 sec

24.

A

uniform ring and a uniform disc of same mass

and radius are rotating with same angular speed. If

a

constant force is applied tangentially on the ring

in opposite direction, it stops after n revolution. If

the same force is applied on disc in opposing sense

tangentially then the number of revolution made by

it

before it stops, are :

 

(1) n/2

 

(2) n

 

(3) 2n

 

(4) 4n

 

à

à

à

25.

A

particle moving with a velocity v =

2 i

+

3 j

ñ

4

k

strikes a smooth fixed wall placed in x-y plane.

Assuming the collision to be inelastic, the velocity

of the particle just after the collision may be

 
 

à

à

à

 

(1)

2

i

+

3

j

+

3

k

 

à

à

à

 
 

(2)

2

i

+

3

j

+

4

k

 

à

à

à

 

(3)

2

i

+

3

j

+

5

k

 

à

à

à

 

(4)

2 i

ñ

3 j

ñ

4

k

26.

In the figure shown find out the distance of centre

of mass of a system of a uniform circular plate

of radius 3 R from O in which a hole of radius R

is cut whose centre is at 2R distance from centre

of large circular plate.

(1) R/4 (2) R/5 (3) R/2 (4) none of these
(1) R/4
(2) R/5
(3) R/2
(4) none of these

(SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK)

centre of large circular plate. (1) R/4 (2) R/5 (3) R/2 (4) none of these (SPACE
centre of large circular plate. (1) R/4 (2) R/5 (3) R/2 (4) none of these (SPACE

JABAIOTXI270113C0-5

27. A block is placed on a rough horizontal plane

attached with an elastic spring as shown in figure.

29. STATEMENT-1 : Burns sustained from steam at

100 o C are usually more serious than those

sustained by boiling water (at 100 o C)

STATEMENT-2 : To convert 1gm of water at 100 o C

to 1 gm of steam at 100 o C, 540 calories of heat is

to be supplied. Hence 1gm of steam at 100 o C has

is to be supplied. Hence 1gm of steam at 100 o C has more heat content
is to be supplied. Hence 1gm of steam at 100 o C has more heat content

more heat content than 1 gm of water at 100 o C

(1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;

Statement-2 is a correct explanation for

Statement-1.

(2) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;

Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for

Statement-1

(3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False

(4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True

Initially spring is unstretched. If the plane is now

slowly lifted from = 0 to = 90 , then the graph

showing extension in the spring (x) versus angle

() is

y 1 (1) 0 0 90 x x (3) 90
y
1
(1)
0
0
90
x
x
(3)
90
x 90
x
90
x 90
x
90

(2)

30. STATEMENT-1 : Gas ejected from rocket will never

exert thrust on the rocket if the ejected gas and the 90 (2) 30. STATEMENT-1 : Gas ejected from rocket will never (4) rocket move in the

(4)

rocket move in the same direction.

STATEMENT-2 : To exert thrust on rocket in its

direction of motion, the ejected gas ( w.r.t. rocket)

must move opposite to velocity of rocket (w.r.t.

ground)

(1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;

Statement-2 is a correct explanation for

Statement-1.

(2) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;

Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for

Statement-1

(3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False

(4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True

SECTION - II

Reasoning Type

This section contains 3 reasoning type questions. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

28. STATEMENT-1 : Steady flow can be maintained

in compressible liquids.

STATEMENT-2 : Steady flow means all physical

parameters related to the flow being constant with

time though they may vary with position.

(1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;

Statement-2 is a correct explanation for

Statement-1.

(2) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;

Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for

Statement-1

(3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False

(4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True

(SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK)

is True, Statement-2 is False (4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True (SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK)
is True, Statement-2 is False (4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True (SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK)

JABAIOTXI270113C0-6

PART- B

Atomic masses : [H

Al = 27, Si = 28, P = 31, S = 32, Cl = 35.5, Zn = 65, As = 75, Br = 80, Ag = 108, I = 127,

= 1,

D =

2, Li

= 7,

C =

K = 39, Ca = 40, Cr = 52,

Ba = 137, Hg = 200, Pb = 207]

12, N

=

14, O

= 16,

24,

Mn = 55, Fe = 56, Cu = 63.5,

F

=

19, Na

= 23,

Mg =

Straight Objective Type

This section contains 30 questions. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4) for its answer, out of which

ONLY ONE is correct.

31. The increasing order of acidic nature of Li 2 O, BeO, B 2 O 3 , CuO is :

(1) Li 2 O < BeO < CuO < B 2 O 3

(2) BeO < CuO < B 2 O 3 < Li 2 O

(3) Li 2 O < CuO < BeO <

B 2 O 3

(4) B 2 O 3 < CuO < BeO < Li 2 O

32. When CO 2 is bubbled through NaOH, it initiallygives

34. If the wavelength of photon emitted from an electron jump n = 4 to n = 2 in a H-like species is 1216 , then the species is :

(1) H-atom

(2) He + ion

(3) Li 2+ ion

(4) Be 3+ ion

(1) CO

35. S 1 : O 2 ñ , O 2 and O 3 ñ ñAll are paramagnetic species.

(2) Na 2 CO 3

S 2 : Among the alkali metals, Cs behaves as the best reducing agent in aqueous medium.

(3)NaHCO 3

(4) Both Na 2 CO 3 and NaHCO 3 in equimolar ratio

S 3 : Dimethylether is a weaker lewis base than Disilyl ether.

33. Greater polarisation in case of AgCl compared to KCl is due to :

(1) larger size of cation.

(2) smaller size of cation.

(3) inert gas configuration of cation.

(1) T F T

(2) F T F

(3) F F T

(4) T F F

(4) pseudo inert gas configuration of cation.

(SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK)

F T (2) F T F (3) F F T (4) T F F (4) pseudo
F T (2) F T F (3) F F T (4) T F F (4) pseudo

JABAIOTXI270113C0-7

36. Consider 2HCO

ñ

H 2 CO 3 + CO 3 2 ñ (aq.). 2 CO 3 + CO 3 2 ñ (aq.). 2 CO 3 + CO 3 2ñ (aq.).

When CuSO 4 is added to NaHCO 3 (aq.), precipitation of CuCO 3 begins. As precipitation reaction starts :

3 (aq.)

(1)

Bubbles of CO 2 are released

(2)

More HCO 3

ñ ions are formed

(3)

H 2 SO 4 is formed

(4)

[2CuSO 4 .CuCO 3 ] begins to precipitate

37. Find the atomic number of element belonging to 4th period and 17th group in Modern periodic table :

(1) 17

(2) 25

(3) 59

(4) 35

38. The smallest bond angle among PF 3 , PCl 3 , PH 3 and PI 3 is in :

39. Use the given bond enthalpies and other data to determine H for theformation of hydrazine,N 2 H 4 (g) from nitrogen and hydrogen in standard state

according to the equation : N 2 (g) + 2H 2 (g)  N 2 H 4 (g)

Bond

Bond enthalpies

NóN

159 kJ mol ñ1

418 kJ mol ñ 1

418 kJ mol ñ1

HóN

389 kJ mol ñ1

Enthalpy of dissociation of nitrogen = 941 kJ/mol

Enthalpy of atomisation of hydrogen = 218 kJ/mol

(1) H = ñ 338 kJ

(2) H = ñ 98 kJ

(3) H = + 98 kJ

(4) H = + 338 kJ

40. Nodal plane(s) for d x 2 ñy 2 orbital is/are :

(1) YZ plane

(2)ZX plane

(1)

PF 3

(3) Both (1) and (2)

(2) PCl 3

(4) None of these

(3) PH 3

(4) PI 3

(1) and (2) (2) PCl 3 (4) None of these (3) PH 3 (4) P I

(SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK)

(1) and (2) (2) PCl 3 (4) None of these (3) PH 3 (4) P I

JABAIOTXI270113C0-8

41. A cylindrical container with a movable piston initially holds 1.5 moles of an ideal gas at a pressure of 4 atm and a volume of 2.5 L. If the piston is moved to make volume 5 L, while simultaneouslywithdrawing 0.75 mole of gas, what is the final pressure in atm ? (Assume temperature to remain constant)

(1) 1

(2) 4

(3) 3

(4) 2

42. Select the INCORRECT statement :

(1) In a reversible adiabatic compression of an ideal gas, there is no change in entropy of gas.

(2) In a reversible isothermal expansion of an ideal gas, there is no change in internal energy of gas.

(3) There is always no change in entropy of gas, when an ideal gas undergoes a cyclic process.

(4) During isothermalreversible evaporation of water at 100 C, E = 0.

43. Molecule XCl 2 in gaseous state is observed to be non-polar in nature. Then X can be :

(1) O

(2) Be

(3) S

(4) Both (1) and (3)

44. Which of the following is INCORRECT about critical conditions of real gas following Vander waal's equa- tion of state :

(1) At critical point, there is no distinction between liquid and vapour state, hence density of liquid be- come equal to density of vapour.

(2) At critical point , both

equal to zero.

(3) Z < 1 at T = T C

  P

V

T

and

2

P

V

2

T

are

(4) a

2

C

T

P

C

and b

P

C

T

C

usual meanings)

(where symbols have their

45. 300 ml of 3.0 M NaCl is added to 200 ml of 4.0 M BaCl 2 solution. The concentration of Cl ñ ions in the resulting solution is :

(1) 4.5 M

(2) 3.4 M

(3) 6 M

(4) 5 M

(SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK)

ñ ions in the resulting solution is : (1) 4.5 M (2) 3.4 M (3) 6
ñ ions in the resulting solution is : (1) 4.5 M (2) 3.4 M (3) 6

JABAIOTXI270113C0-9

46. For the redox reaction MnO 4 ñ + C 2 O 4 2ñ +H + 

Mn 2+ +

CO 2 + H 2 O,

the correct whole number stoichiometric coefficients

of MnO 4 ñ , C 2 O 4 2ñ and H + are respectively :

(1) 2, 5, 16

(2) 5, 2, 8

(3) 2, 5, 8

(4) 5, 2, 16

47. cC + dD ;

aA + bB

H

In above gaseous phase reaction, high pressure and low temperature shift the equilibrium in backward direction. So correct set is :

(1) (a + b) > (c + d), H > 0

(2) (a + b) < (c + d), H > 0

(3) (a + b) < (c + d), H < 0

(4) (a + b) > (c + d), H < 0

48. The oxide, which is not a reducing agent is :

(1) CO 2

(2) CO

(3) SO 2

(4) Both (1) & (3)

49. Which of the following will not release H 2 on reaction with H 2 O ?

(1) LiAlH 4

(2) B 2 H 6

(3) Ca 3 N 2

(4) CaH 2

50. In which species, sulphur atom has different hybridisation than others :

(1) SO 4

2ñ

(2)

(3)

SO 3

SF 2

(4) H 2 SO 3

51. IUPAC name of the following compound is :

H 2 SO 3 51. IUPAC name of the following compound is : (1) 1,2-Dibromo-3-chlorocycloprop-1-ene (2)

(1) 1,2-Dibromo-3-chlorocycloprop-1-ene

(2) 1,3-Dibromo-2-chlorocycloprop-1-ene

(3) 1,2 Dibromo-3-chlorocycloprop-2-ene

(4) 2,3-Dibromo-1-chlorocycloprop-1-ene

(SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK)

1,2 Dibromo-3-chlorocycloprop-2-ene (4) 2,3-Dibromo-1-chlorocycloprop-1-ene (SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK) JABAIOTXI270113C0-10
1,2 Dibromo-3-chlorocycloprop-2-ene (4) 2,3-Dibromo-1-chlorocycloprop-1-ene (SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK) JABAIOTXI270113C0-10

JABAIOTXI270113C0-10

52.

53.

Compound 'X' is :
Compound 'X' is :
52. 53. Compound 'X' is : (1) 1,4-Dimethylcyclohexa-1,4-diene (2) 1,6-Dimethylcyclohexa-1,3-diene (3)
52. 53. Compound 'X' is : (1) 1,4-Dimethylcyclohexa-1,4-diene (2) 1,6-Dimethylcyclohexa-1,3-diene (3)

(1) 1,4-Dimethylcyclohexa-1,4-diene

(2) 1,6-Dimethylcyclohexa-1,3-diene

(3) 1,2-Dimethylcyclohexa-1,4-diene

(4) None of these

(3) 1,2-Dimethylcyclohexa-1,4-diene (4) None of these Which alkyl groups is not attached directly to the

Which alkyl groups is not attached directly to the

cyclohexane ring in this compound ?

(1) Isobutyl

(2) sec-Butyl

(3) t-Butyl

(4) Neopentyl

54.

Inthefollowing compound ;

(3) t-Butyl (4) Neopentyl 54. Inthefollowing compound ; Which of the following R 1 and R

Which of the following R 1 and R 2 groups will change the word root ?

55.

(1) ñ COOH and ñ CH 3

(2) ñ SO 3 H and ñ OCH 3

(3) ñ OH and ñ CH 2 ñ CH 3

(4) ñ CH=CH 2 and ñ COOH

Select the incorrect statement :

(1)

Mesomeric effect is premanent and is observed only in conjugated systems.

(2) Resonance is not possible in CH 2 =C=O.

(3) Hyperconjugationinvolves-orbitaloverlapping

56.

(4)

(CH 3 ) 3 C has better hyperconjugation than (CD 3 )C

C  has better hyperconjugation than (CD 3 )C  and are : (1) Functional isomers

and

has better hyperconjugation than (CD 3 )C  and are : (1) Functional isomers (2) Metamers

are :

(1) Functional isomers

(2) Metamers

(3) Chain isomers

(4) Homologus

(SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK)

and are : (1) Functional isomers (2) Metamers (3) Chain isomers (4) Homologus (SPACE FOR ROUGH
and are : (1) Functional isomers (2) Metamers (3) Chain isomers (4) Homologus (SPACE FOR ROUGH

JABAIOTXI270113C0-11

57. Number of cyclic structural isomers represented by molecular formula C 5 H 8 O 2 whichhave highestpriority functional group in IUPAC system.

59. Which species is Aromatic :

group in IUPAC system. 59. Which species is Aromatic : (1) 2 (1) (2) 3 (3)

(1) 2

(1)

(1) 2 (1)

(2) 3

(3) 4

(4) 5

(2)

(3)

(2) 3 (3) 4 (4) 5 (2) (3)
(2) 3 (3) 4 (4) 5 (2) (3)
(2) 3 (3) 4 (4) 5 (2) (3)
(2) 3 (3) 4 (4) 5 (2) (3)

58. The increasing order of ñm effect of the following is :

(I)ñCONH 2

(4)

(I) ñ CONH 2 (4)  
 

(II)ñCOOH

60. An alkene give two moles of HCHO, one mole of

(III)ñCHO

CO 2 and one mole of

(III) ñ CHO CO 2 and one mole of on

on

(IV) ñSO 2 R

ozonolysis. What is its structure?

(1) II < I < III < IV

(1)

(1) II < I < III < IV (1)

(2) I < III < II < IV

(3) III < II < I < IV

(2)

(3) III < II < I < IV (2)  
 

(4) I < II < III < IV

(3)

(4) I < II < III < IV (3)

(4)

(4)
I < IV (2)   (4) I < II < III < IV (3) (4) (SPACE

(SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK)

I < IV (2)   (4) I < II < III < IV (3) (4) (SPACE

JABAIOTXI270113C0-12

PART- C

SECTION - I

Straight Objective Type

This section contains 25 questions. Each question

has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4) for its answer, out

of which ONLY ONE is correct.

61. If tan1 , tan2 , tan3 are real roots of

x

3

a 1 x

2

b a

x b 0, a + 1 b, where

1 + 2 + 3 (0, ), then 1 + 2 + 3 is equal to

(1)

(3)

2

3

4

62. A normal to the hyperbola

(2)

(4)

x 2

4

4

2

ñ

3

y

2

1

= 1 has equal

interceptson positivexandy-axis.If normaltouches

the ellipse

(1) 5

(3) 16

x

2

a

2

y

2

b

2

1

, then a 2 + b 2 =

(2) 25

(4)

25

3

 

x

3

7

63. The three roots of the equation

2

x

2

= 0 are

7

6

x

(1) ñ9, 2, 7

(2) 9, ñ2, 7

(3)

9, 2, ñ7

(4) 9, 2, 7

64.

65.

66.

Set of real values of k for which the lines

x + 3y + 1 = 0, kx + 2y ñ 2 = 0 and 2x ñ y + 3 = 0

form a triangle is

(1) R ñ

(3) R ñ

2

3

, ñ 4

4,

2

3

(2) R ñ

(4) R

2

3

, ñ 4,

6

5

The equation of the hyperbola passing through the

point (1, ñ1) and having asymptotes x + 2y + 3 = 0

and 3x + 4y + 5 = 0 is

(1)

3x 2 + 8y 2 + 10xy + 14x + 22y = 0

(2)

3x 2 + 8y 2 + 10xy + 4x + 22y + 7 = 0

(3)

(4)

3x 2 + 8y 2 + xy + 14x + 22y + 7 = 0

3x 2 + 8y 2 + 10xy + 14x + 22y + 7 = 0

If the letters of the word SACHIN are arranged in all

possible ways and these words are written out as

indictionary, then thewordSACHINappears atserial

number

(1) 602

(2) 603

(3) 600

(4) 601

(SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK)

then thewordSACHINappears atserial number (1) 602 (2) 603 (3) 600 (4) 601 (SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK)
then thewordSACHINappears atserial number (1) 602 (2) 603 (3) 600 (4) 601 (SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK)

JABAIOTXI270113C0-13

67. If a, b, c denote the lengths of the sides of a triangle

opposite to angles A,B,C respectively of a ABC,

then the correct relation among a, b, c, A, B and C

is given by

 
 

B

C

A

(1) (b + c) sin

2

= a

cos

2

(2)

(b ñ c)

cos

A

2

= 2a sin

2

 

B

C

(3)

(b ñ c) sin

2

=

a

cos

A

2

B

C

 

(4) a cos

2

=

A

(b + c) sin 2

B ñ C


70. Let (y ñ) 2 = 4(x ñ) be a parabola with x = 1 as

directrix. If 2y = ñ 4x + 11 is tangent then =

(1)

1

(2) ñ2

(3)

(4)

2

ñ 1

71. Let A, B, C be events of a random experiment. If

P(A) = 0.7, P((A B) ñ C) = 0.3, P((AC) ñ B) = 0.2,

P(A B  C) = 0.1, then the value of

P(A C) + P(A ñ (A B)) is equal to

(1) 0.6

68. The probabilitythat a leap year selected at random

will contain 53 Sundays, is

69.

(1) 3/7

(2) 1/7

(3) 0

(4) 2/7

lim

contain 53 Sundays, is 69. (1) 3/7 (2) 1/7 (3) 0 (4) 2/7 lim 2 1

2 1  2x
2
1
2x

x

0

x

2

(1) 0

(2) 1

(3) 2

(4) 4

is equal to

(2) 0.7

(3) 0.8

(4) 0.9

72. A straight line is draw through the point P(3, 4)

meeting the positive direction of co-ordinate axes

at the points A and B. If 'O' is the origin, then

minimum area of triangle OAB is equal to

(1) 12

(2) 6

(3) 24

(4) 48

(SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK)

then minimum area of triangle OAB is equal to (1) 12 (2) 6 (3) 24 (4)
then minimum area of triangle OAB is equal to (1) 12 (2) 6 (3) 24 (4)

JABAIOTXI270113C0-14

73.

If

in a given frequency distribution, the mean and

median are 21 and 22 respectively, then its mode

is

approximately.

 

(1) 21

 

(2) 21.5

 

(3) 22

(4) 24

74.

Consider quadratic polynomial

f(x) = x 2 ñ 4ax + 5a 2 ñ 6a. Let p : denotes smallest positive integral value of 'a' for which f(x) is positive for every real x and

q

: denotes largest distance between the roots of

the equation f(x) = 0, then the value of p + q is

 

(1) 9

(2) 11

(3) 13

(4) 15

75.

Sum of all possible integral values of x satisfying

the equation

is

(1) 45

(2) 47

(3) 50

(4) 53

x  3 ñ 4
x  3 ñ 4

x ñ1

x  8 ñ 6
x  8 ñ 6

x ñ1 1

76. The side of a regular hexagon is 2 cm. The ratio of the radius of circumscribed circle to the radius of inscribed circle is

(1)

3
3

2

1

(2) 2 (3) 2 2 (4) 3 77. A 1 , A 2 , If
(2)
2
(3)
2
2
(4)
3
77. A 1 , A 2 ,
If
A
 A
1
2

n(A) =

(1) 3

(2) 4

(3)

5

(4) 6

, A 100 are sets such that

A

3

A

100

100

and

3

i

n(A i ) = i + 2,

A

i

A

, then

78. The first term of an infinite geometric series is 2 and its sum be denoted by S. If | S ñ 2 | < 1/10 then the set of range of common ratio of the series is

(1)

(3)

1

1

5

10

,

 

1

19

,

1

20

ñ {0}

(2)

(4)

 

 

1

2

1

,

19

1

2

ñ {0}

,

1

21

ñ {0}

(SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK)

   1 2 1 , 19 1    2 ñ {0} ,
   1 2 1 , 19 1    2 ñ {0} ,

JABAIOTXI270113C0-15

79. General solution of 8 sin x cos 5 x ñ 8 sin 5 x cos x = 1,

is

(1) n

+ (ñ1) n

(2)

(3)

n 4 + (ñ1) n

n 4 + (ñ1) n

24 , n 

24

, n 

6 , n 

(4) n+ (ñ1) n

6 , n 

80. If an ellipseslidesbetweentwo perpendicularstraight

lines, then the locus of its centre is

(assuming length of axes of ellipse are constant)

(1) a parabola

(2) an ellipse

(3) a hyperbola

(4) a circle

81. Asymptotes of a hyperbola are represented by

2x 2 + 3xy ñ 2y 2 + 2x ñ y = 0. The eccentricity of

82. For two data sets, each of size 5, the variance are

given to be 4 and 5 and the corresponding means

are given to be 2 and 4, respectively. The double of

the variance of the combined data set is

(1) 10

(2) 11

(3) 12

(4) 13

83. Consider the following statements

P : Suman is brilliant

Q : Suman is rich

R : Suman is honest

The negation of the statement ìSuman is brilliant

and dishonest if and only if Suman is richî can be

expressed as

(1)

(3) Q ~ (P ~ R) (4) ~ ((Q R) P))

((Q R) ~ P))

(2)

(Q (P ~ R))

84. The circle x 2 + y 2 ñ 4x ñ 4y + 4 = 0 is inscribed in

a triangle which has two of its sides along the

co-ordinate axes. The locus of the circumcentre of

the triangle is

(1) (x 2 + y 2 ) = xy ñ x ñ y

hyperbola can be

 

(2)

2

2 2 x  y
2
2
x
 y

= xy ñ x ñ y

(1)

3 2
3
2

(2)

5 3
5
3

(3)

2 2 x  y
2
2
x
 y

= 2(xy ñ x ñ y)

(3)

2
2

(4) indeterminate

(4)

2 2 x  y
2
2
x
 y

= xy ñ x ñ y

2 (4) indeterminate (4) 2 2 x  y = xy ñ x ñ y (SPACE

(SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK)

2 (4) indeterminate (4) 2 2 x  y = xy ñ x ñ y (SPACE

JABAIOTXI270113C0-16

85. Tangents are drawn to the curve y 2 = 4x from the

point (2, 3). If the product of slopes of the tangents

is a, then the value of |6a| is

87. STATEMENT-1: The perpendicular bisector of the

line segment joining the point (ña, 2at) and (a, 0)

is tangent to the parabola y 2 = 4ax, where t R

(1) 3

(2) 6

STATEMENT-2: Number of parabolas with a given

(3) 9

(4) 12

point as vertex and length of latus rectum equal

SECTION - II

Reasoning Type

This section contains 5 reasoning type questions.

Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4),

out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

86. STATEMENT-1 :

If

n

is

an odd prime then


 5
5

2

n

  ñ 2 n+1 is not divisible by 20 n,

where [.] denotes greatest integer function.

STATEMENT-2 :

n C 1 , n C 2 ,

If

n

is

prime

n C n ñ 1 must be divisible by n.

then

(1)

STATEMENT-1 isTrue, STATEMENT-2isTrue;

STATEMENT-2 is a correct explanation for

STATEMENT-1

(2)

STATEMENT-1 isTrue, STATEMENT-2isTrue;

STATEMENT-2 is NOT a correct explanation

for STATEMENT-1

(3)

STATEMENT-1 is True, STATEMENT-2 is

False

(4)

STATEMENT-1 is False, STATEMENT-2 is

True

to 4, is 2.

(1)

STATEMENT-1 isTrue, STATEMENT-2isTrue;

STATEMENT-2 is a correct explanation for

STATEMENT-1

(2)

STATEMENT-1 isTrue, STATEMENT-2isTrue;

STATEMENT-2 is NOT a correct explanation

for STATEMENT-1

(3)

STATEMENT-1 is True, STATEMENT-2 is

False

(4)

STATEMENT-1 is False, STATEMENT-2 is

True

88. STATEMENT -1 : The number of non negative

integral solutions of equation x 1 + x 2 + x 3 = 10 is

12 C 2 .

STATEMENT-2: The number of ways of selecting

10 integers out of 12 different non negative integers

is 12 C 2 .

(1)

STATEMENT-1 isTrue, STATEMENT-2isTrue;

STATEMENT-2 is a correct explanation for

STATEMENT-1

(2)

STATEMENT-1 isTrue, STATEMENT-2isTrue;

STATEMENT-2 is NOT a correct explanation

for STATEMENT-1

(3)

STATEMENT-1 is True, STATEMENT-2 is

False

(4)

STATEMENT-1 is False, STATEMENT-2 is

True

(SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK)

STATEMENT-2 is False (4) STATEMENT-1 is False, STATEMENT-2 is True (SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK) JABAIOTXI270113C0-17
STATEMENT-2 is False (4) STATEMENT-1 is False, STATEMENT-2 is True (SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK) JABAIOTXI270113C0-17

JABAIOTXI270113C0-17

89. STATEMENT - 1 :Locus of mid point of chords of

circle x 2 + y 2 = 4 which subtends angle of 2 at

origin is

STATEMENT - 2 : If any chord of circle x 2 + y 2 = r 2

subtends an angle ëí at centre, then its mid point

x 2 + y 2 = 1.

always lies on x 2 + y 2 = r 2 cos 2

 

2

(1)

STATEMENT-1 isTrue, STATEMENT-2isTrue; STATEMENT-2 is a correct explanation for

STATEMENT-1

(2)

STATEMENT-1 isTrue, STATEMENT-2isTrue;

(3)

STATEMENT-2 is NOT a correct explanation for STATEMENT-1 STATEMENT-1 is True, STATEMENT-2 is

(4)

False STATEMENT-1 is False, STATEMENT-2 is True

90. STATEMENT-1 : If ab 2 c 3 , a 2 b 3 c 4 , a 3 b 4 c 5 are in A.P. (a, b, c > 0), then the minimum value of a + b + c is 3. STATEMENT-2 : Arithmetic mean of any two numbers is greater than geometric mean of the numbers.

(1)

STATEMENT-1 isTrue, STATEMENT-2isTrue; STATEMENT-2 is a correct explanation for

STATEMENT-1

(2)

STATEMENT-1 isTrue, STATEMENT-2isTrue;

(3)

STATEMENT-2 is NOT a correct explanation for STATEMENT-1 STATEMENT-1 is True, STATEMENT-2 is

(4)

False STATEMENT-1 is False, STATEMENT-2 is True

STATEMENT-2 is (4) False STATEMENT-1 is False, STATEMENT-2 is True (SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK) JABAIOTXI270113C0-18

(SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK)

STATEMENT-2 is (4) False STATEMENT-1 is False, STATEMENT-2 is True (SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK) JABAIOTXI270113C0-18

JABAIOTXI270113C0-18

Name of the Candidate Roll Number Ihavereadalltheinstructionsand shall abidebythem. Ihave verifiedall theinformation
Name of the Candidate
Roll Number
Ihavereadalltheinstructionsand
shall abidebythem.
Ihave verifiedall theinformation
filled inbytheCandidate.
--------------------------------
--------------------------------
Signature of the Candidate
Signature of the Invigilator

DLPDTESTCENTERS:

TESTCODE

TESTCENTRE

TESTCODE

TESTCENTRE

TESTCODE

TESTCENTRE

01

AGARTALA

02

AGRA

03

AHMEDABAD

04

AJMER

05

BHAGALPUR

06

BHAGALPUR

07

BHATINDA

08

BHILAI

09

BHOPAL

10

BHUBNESHWAR

11

BIKANER

12

BOKARO

13

CHANDIGARH

14

DEOGARH(RANCHI IC)

15

DHANBAD

16

GWALIOR

17

HARIDWAR

18

INDORE

19

JAMSHEDPUR

20

JAIPUR

21

JAMMU & KASHMIR (J&K)

22

JODHPUR

23

KANPUR

24

KOLKATA

25

KOTA

26

LUCKNOW

27

MATHURA

28

MENGALURU

29

MUMBAI

30

NAGPUR

31

NEWDELHI

32

PATNA

33

RAIPUR

34

RANCHI

35

SRI GANGANAGAR

36

UDAIPUR

37

VARANASI

38

SAMASTIPUR