Medical-Surgical Nursing Exam Questions 6 (50

Items)
Topics
Psoriasis
Angina
Various surgical operations
Cervical cancer
1. A client with myasthenia gravis ask the nurse why the disease has occurred. The nurse
bases the reply on the knowledge that there is:
a. A genetic in the production acetylcholine
b. A reduced amount of neurotransmitter acetylcholine
c. A decreased number of functioning acetylcholine receptor sites
d. An inhibition of the enzyme ACHE leaving the end plates folded
2. A client with an inflamed sciatic nerve is to have a conventional transcutaneous electrical
nerve stimulation (TENS) device applied to the painful nerve pathway. When operating the
TENS unit the nurse should
a. Maintain the same dial setting everyday
b. Turn the machine several times a day for 10 to 20 minutes
c. Adjust the TENS dial until the client perceives pain relief and comfort
d. Apply the color-coded electrodes anywhere it is comfortable for the client
3. Although no cause has been determined for scleroderma, it is thought to be caused by:
a. Autoimmunity
b. Ocular motility
c. Increased amino acid metabolism
d. Defective sebaceous gland formation
4. The nurse must help the client with pemphigus vulgaris deal with the resulting:
a. Infertility
b. Paralysis
c. Skin lesions
d. Impaired digestion
5. The nurse should explain to the client with psoriasis that treatment usually involves:
a. Avoiding exposure to the sum
b. Topical application of steroids
c. Potassium permanganate baths
d. Debridement of necrotic plaques
6. The nurses should assess a client with psoriasis
a. Pruritic lesions
b. Multiple petechiae
c. Shiny, scaly lesions
d. Erythematous macules
7. A urine specimen for ketones should be removed from a clients retention catheter by:
a. Disconnecting the catheter and draining it into a clean container
b. Cleansing the drainage valve and removing it from the catheter bag
c. Wiping the catheter with alcohol and draining it into a sterile test tube
d. Using a sterile syringe to remove it from clamped, cleansed catheter
8. Following an abdominal cholecystectomy, the nurse should assess for signs of respiratory
complications because the:
a. Incision is in close proximity to the diaphragm
b. Length of time required for surgery is prolonged
c. Clients resistance is lowered because of bile in the blood
d. Bloodstream is invaded by microorganisms from the biliary tract
9. The nurse assess the client with cholecystitis for the development of obstructive jaundice,
which would be evidenced by:
a. Inadequate absorption of fat-soluble K
b. Light amber urine, dark brown stools, yellow skin
c. Dark-colored urine, clay colored stools, itchy skin
d. Straw-colored urine, putty-colored stools, yellow sclerae
10. A client with cholelithiasis experience discomfort after ingesting fatty foods because.
a. Fatty foods are hard to digest
b. Bile flow into the intestine is obstructed
c. The liver is manufacturing inadequate bile
d. There is inadequate closure of the Ampulla of Vater
11. The chief complaint in a client with Vincents Angina is:
a. Chest pain
b. Shortness of breath
c. Shoulder discomfort
d. Bleeding oral ulcerations
12. Clients with fractured mandibles usually have them immobilized with wires. The life-
threatening problem that can develop postoperatively is:
a. Infection
b. Vomiting
c. Osteomyelitis
d. Bronchospasm
13. As a result of fractured ribs, the client may develop:
a. Scoliosis
b. Paradoxical respiration
c. Obstructive lung-disease
d. Hernation of the diaphragm
14. A client has a bone marrow aspiration performed, immediately after the procedure, the
nurse should:
a. Position the client on the affected side
b. Begin frequent monitoring of vital signs
c. Cleanse the site with an antiseptic solution
d. Briefly apply pressure over the aspiration site
15. Following a bilateral lumbar sympathectomy a client has a sudden drop in blood
pressure but no. evidence of bleeding. The nurse recognizes that this is most likely caused
by:
a. An inadequate fluid intake
b. The after effects of anesthesia
c. A reallocation of the blo6d supply
d. An increased level of epinephrine
16. The occurrence of chronic illness is greatest in:
a. Older adult
b. Adolescents
c. Young children
d. Middle-aged adults
17. A client with full-thickness burns on the chest has a skin graft. During the 1s124 hours
after a skin graft, care of the donor site includes immediately reporting.
a. Small amount of yellowish green oozing
b. A moderate area of serosanguinous oozing
c. Epithelialization under the non-adherent dressing
d. Separation of the edges of the non-adherent dressing
18. During peritoneal dialysis the nurse observes that drainage of dialysate from the
peritoneal cavity has ceased before the required amount has drained out The nurse should
assist the client to:
a. Turn from side to side
b. Drink 8 ounces of water
c. Deep breathe and cough
d. Periodically rotate the catheter
19. A client has ear surgery. An early response that may be associated with possible
damage to the motor branch of the facial nerve is:
a. A bitter metallic state
b. Dryness of the lips and mouth
c. A sensation of pain behind the ear
d. An inability to wrinkle the forehead
20. After a prostatectomy, a client complains of painful bladder spasms. To limit these
spasms the nurse should:
a. Administer a narcotic every 4 hours
b. irrigate the Foley catheter with 60 ml of normal saline
c. Encourage the client not to contract his muscles as if he were voiding
d. Advance the catheter to relieve the pressure against the prostatic fossa
21. After 1 week a client with acute renal failure moves, into the diuretic phase. During this
phase the client must be carefully assessed for signs of:
a. Hypovolemia
b. Hyperkalemia
c. Metabolic acidosis
d. Chronic renal failure
22. The nurse checks for hypocalcemia by placing a blood pressure cuff on a clients arm
and inflating it. After about 3 minutes the client develops carpopedial spasm. The nurse
records this finding as a positive:
a. Homans sign
b. Romberg sign
c. Chvosteks skin
d. Trosseaus sign
23. A client is scheduled for a below-the-knee amputation of the right leg. Legally, the client
may not sign the operative consent if:
a. Ambivalent feelings regarding operation are present
b. Any sedative type of medication has recently been administration
c. A discussion of alternative with 2 physicians have not been performed and recorded
d. A complete history and physical have not been performed
24. The nurse is assigned to check a clients continuous bladder irrigation. Which one of
the following solution is normally used for continuous or intermittent bladder and catheter
irrigations?
a. Hydrogen peroxide
b. Bacteriostatic water
c. Sterile normal saline
d. Plain water
25. When continuous bladder irrigation is used following prostate surgery, the rate of flow
is adjusted:
a. To run at 60 drops per minutes
b. According to the clients oral intake
c. To maintain an output of 500 ml every 8 hours
d. To keep the drainage to light pink
26. The nurse is assigned to teach a class in health behaviors to young man. Which of the
following can be stated as a probably cause of cancer of the penis?
a. A diet high in acidic foods
b. Poor personal hygiene
c. Exercise
d. Circumcision
27. The nurse is assigned to give perineal care to an uncircumcised male client. Which of
the following is correct?
a. The anal area is washed at a separate time
b. The foreskin is retracted and the area beneath the foreskin is cleansed
c. The foreskin should not be retracted except by a physician
d. The scrotum is carefully washed with sterile normal saline
28. A female nurse is assigned to obtain a history from & client with a urinary tract
problem an sexual dysfunction. Which of the following statements might place the client
more at ease and willing to give a. history of his problem?
a. When dud you first notice this problem?
b. Why do you think you have a problem?
c. Do you think you sexual dysfunction is psychological?
d. Does your sexual dysfunction seem to be related to your urinary tract problem?
29. A client is scheduled for an ultrasound examination of the prostate. To describe the
procedure to the client, the nurse should plan to relate that:
a. The procedure is performed using a cystoscope
b. A probe will be inserted into the rectum
c. A flat disk is placed on the abdomen
d. This procedure uses x-rays to produce a visual image
30. To effectively teach men the importance of testicular self-examination, the nurse should
know that testicular carcinoma:
a. Rarely metastasizes
b. Has a high incidence of early metastasis
c. Cannot be detected by laboratory tests
d. Must first be biopsied to confirm the diagnosis
31. A nurse is assigned to instruct a client in the method of testicular self-examination. The
instruction should include mention that the best time to perform this task is:
a. Immediately after getting out of bed in the morning
b. Immediately before going to bed
c. In the morning after breakfast
d. After a warm bath or shower
32. Mr. Dorn has vasectomy. He asks the nurse why he just use a method of birth control
because today he, had a sterilization procedure. The most correct answer is:
a. The sperm count will not be negative until his testosterone level decrease
b. Some minor surgery usually is necessary to ensure sterilization
c. Some live sperm will be present in the ejaculatory fluid for a period of time
d. Even though a vasectomy is performed, a condom is still recommended for 1 to 2 years
33. A client is scheduled for a cystectomy and asks the nurse what the physician will be able
to see during the procedure. The most correct reply is the:
a. Kidney and ureters
b. Bladder and rectum
c. Prostate and ureters
d. Urethra and bladder
34. A client is scheduled for a cystectomy and asks the nurse what the physician will be able
to see during the procedure. The most correct reply is the:
a. Kidney and ureters
b. Bladder and rectum
c. Prostate and ureters
d. Urethra and bladder
35. Nurse assistant attending a nursing conference hears that one of her clients has
hydrocele. She asks the nurse how this condition is treated. The most common response is:
a. Usually the problem requires more medical or surgical intervention
b. Surgery may be necessary to correct the problem
c. Wearing a scrotal support usually corrects She problem
d. Drug therapy usually helps control the collection of fluid
36. The nurse is participating in a health class for young women. One subject is cancer of
the ovary. Which of the following statements is correct?
a. Early symptoms of cancer of the ovary are vague
b. This type of cancer has a high cure rate
c. Chemotherapy is not used for treating ovarian cancer
d. The most prominent early symptoms is an irregular menstrual cycle
37. The nurse is asked to discuss the signs and symptoms of vaginitis caused by the fungus
candida albicans with Ms. Barrows. Which one of the following is a usual sign and
symptoms of this infection?
a. Pain high in the abdomen
b. Intensive vaginal and perineal itching
c. Decrease in urinary output
d. High fever
38. The nurse prepares to give Ms. Edwards a vaginal suppository, which is inserted by
means of a special applicator supplied with the drug. Which one of the following is correct?
a. Ask the client to void prior to inserting the suppository
b. Lubricate the tip of the suppository with petroleum jelly
c. Insert the applicator tip gently and with an upward and forward motion
d. Insert the applicator approximately inch and depress the plunger
39. The nurse is assigned to give Ms. Milton perineal care. When cleansing the perineum,
the cotton ball or wash cloth is gently directed:
a. Side to side across the labia majora
b. Downward from the pubic area to the anus
c. Upward from the anus to the pubic area
d. Prom the urinary meatus to the vagina
40. The nurse is assigned to administer a vaginal irrigation (douche). Which of the
following is correct?
a. The irrigation is best administered with the client standing in a bathtub
b. Before inserting, the nozzle is lubricated with petroleum jelly
c. The temperature of the solution should be between 80F and 84F
d. The nozzle is inserted downward and backward within the vagina
41. The nurse is assigned to teach health-seeking behaviors to young women. One topic the
nurse plans to includes is the importance of the Pap test, which is used mainly to detect:
a. Ovarian cyst
b. Patency of the fallopian tube
c. Cervical cancer
d. Uterine infections
42. The physician asks the nurse to position a client for a vaginal examination. Which of
the following position is normally used for this type of examination?
a. Lithotomy position
b. Sims position
c. Dorsal recumbent position
d. Left lateral position
43. Ms. Hull has had an electrocauterization of her cervix for chronic cervicitis. Following
the procedure the nurse should instruct Ms. Hull to:
a. Douche the next day to remove debris and blood cloth
b. Avoid straining and heavy lifting until the physician permits this activity
c. Stay in bed for the next 5 days
d. Return in bed for the next 5 days
44. The nursing assistant is assigned to give Ms. Bailey, who has had an abdominal
hysterectomy, a sitz bath. She is instructed to use the special sitz bath tub. She asks the
nurse why the regular bath tub cannot be used. The most correct reply is based on the fact
that a regular bath tab:
a. Is more slippery and is dangerous when used for surgical clients
b. Cannot supply water that is of the desired temperature for this procedure
c. Applies heat to the legs and alters the desired effect of heat directed to the pelvic region
d. Cannot be kept as clean as a special sitz bath tub
45. Which of the following solutions would be best for the nurse to use when cleaning the
inner cannula of a tracheostomy tube?
a. IsopropyI alcohol
b. Sodium hydrochloride
c. Hydrogen peroxide
d. Providone-iodine
46. The nurse observes that the clients knee is swollen and painful. Consequently; which
one of the following nursing measures should be carried out?
a. Perform passive range of motion during each shift
b. Help to change positions to achieve comfort
c. Ambulate with him at frequent intervals
d. Encourage quadriceps setting exercises
47. If Ms. Drake tells the nurse her feet are cold. Which of the following nursing action
would be best
a. Apply a hot water bottle
b Use an electric heating pad
c. Wrap them in a warm blanket
d. Elevate her feet on a stool
48. Which of the following would indicate to the nurse that the stationary thrombus in Ms.
Fleming suddenly develops?
a. Chest pains
b. Leg cramps
c. Numbness in the foot
d. Swelling of the knee
49. Following a total abdominal hysterectomy Ms. Sara Fleming develops a slightly
elevated temperature and swelling in the right call of her leg. The physician prescribes
warm moist compresses for the clients affected leg. Which of the following nursing actions
is correct when applying the warm moist compress? The nurse:
a. Heats the water to 120F
b. Uses a sterile technique
c. Inspect the skin every 4 hours
d. Covers the wet gauze with a towel
50. Ms. Betty Lynch, age 29, holes that she has recently developed a skin problem and
makes an appointment to be seen in a clinic specializing diagnosis of psoriasis is made by
the physician. When examining Mr. Lynchs skin for areas of psoriasis, the nurse should
look for:
a. Weeping lesions on the trunk of the body
b. Patches of redness covered with silvery scales
c. Areas of redness surrounded by crusts
d. A rash characterized by raised, pus-filled lesions