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IIT - JEE 2013 (Advanced)

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(2) Vidyalankar : IIT JEE 2013 Advanced : Question Paper & Solution
2





























IIT JEE 2013 Advanced : Question Paper & Solution (Paper II) (3)

3
PART I : PHYSICS
SECTION 1 : (One or more options correct Type)
This section contains 8 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B),
(C) and (D) out of which ONE or MORE are correct.
1. The figure below shows the variation of specific heat capacity (C) of solid as a function of
temperature (T). The temperature is increased continuously from 0 to 500 K at a constant
rate. Ignoring any volume change, the following statement(s) is(are) correct to a
reasonable approximation.
(A) the rate at which heat is absorbed in the range 0 100 K varies linearly with
temperature T.
(B) heat absorbed in increasing the temperature from 0 100 K is less than the heat
required for increasing the temperature from 400 500 K.
(C) there is no change in the rate of heat absorption in the range 400 500 K.
(D) the rate of heat absorption increases in the range 200 300 K.









1. (A), (B), (C), (D)
dQ = mc dT

dQ
dT
= m (aT + b) in the range (0 100 k)
option (A) is correct. Considering (0 100 k), the graph to be linear using the
reasonable approximation given in the question.
During (400k 500k) C is the maximum.
option (B) is correct.
Option (C) is correct as C is constant in the range (400k 500k)
and option (D) is also correct.
2. The radius of the orbit of an electron in a Hydrogen-like atom is 4.5 a
0
, where a
0
is the
Bohr radius. Its orbital angular momentum is
3h
2
. It is given that h is Planck constant and
R is Rydberg constant. The possible wavelength(s), when the atom de-excites, is (are)
(A)
9
32R
(B)
9
16R
(C)
9
5R
(D)
4
3R

2. (A), (C)
r
n
=
2
0
n
a
z

4.5a
0
=
2
0
n
a
z


2
n
z
= 4.5

9
z
= 4.5 and z = 2
L =
nh
2

L =
3h
2

n = 3
100 200 300 400 500
C
T (K)
(4) Vidyalankar : IIT JEE 2013 Advanced : Question Paper & Solution
4
Wavelength is given by

1

=
2
2 2
f i
1 1
Rz
n n

=
2 2
f i
1 1
4R
n n




For transition, n = 3 1
=
1
1
4R 1
9



=
9
32R
(A)
For transition n = 3 2
=
1
1 1
4R
4 9



=
1 36
4R 5

=
9
5R
(C)
3. Using the expression 2d sin = , one calculates the values of d by measuring the
corresponding angles in the range 0 to 90. The wavelength is exactly known and the
error in is constant for all values of . As increases from 0.
(A) the absolute error in d remains constant.
(B) the absolute error in d increases.
(C) the fractional error in d remains constant.
(D) the fractional error in d decreases.
3. (D)
2d sin =
(2d sin ) =
But = 0
(2 sin ) d + 2d cos = 0

d
d

+ cot = 0

d
d

= cot (d)
= constant
absolute error in d is |d| = d cot ()
|d| =
2
cos
| d |
2 sin


at increase from 0 to 90, |d| decreases.
Hence (B) is not true.
By the same fractional error decreases.

4. Two non-conducting spheres of radii R
1
and R
2
and carrying uniform volume charge
densities + and , respectively, are placed such that they partially overlap, as shown in
the figure. At all points in the overlapping region,
(A) the electrostatic field is zero.
(B) the electrostatic potential is constant.
(C) the electrostatic field is constant in magnitude.
(D) the electrostatic field has same direction.



IIT JEE 2013 Advanced : Question Paper & Solution (Paper II) (5)

5

4. (C), (D)

1 1
0
E O P
3




2 2
0
E PO
3



Net field at P

1 2
E E E = +



1 2
0
[O P PO ]
3

= +




1 2
0
E O O
3



E is constant (C)
And option (D) is also correct.

5. A steady current I flows along an infinitely long hollow cylindrical conductor of radius R.
This cylinder is placed coaxially inside an infinite solenoid of radius 2R. The solenoid has
n turns per unit length and carries a steady current I. Consider a point P at a distance r
from the common axis. The correct statement(s) is (are)
(A) In the region 0 < r < R, the magnetic field is non-zero.
(B) In the region R < r < 2R, the magnetic field is along the common axis.
(C) In the region R < r < 2R, the magnetic field is tangential to the circle of radius r,
centered on the axis.
(D) In the region r > 2R, the magnetic field is non-zero.
5. (A), (D)
n =
N
L

Bd

=
0
I
B
1
=
0
I
2 R

along axis of cylinder


B
2
=
0
nI along axis of solenoid

(i) 0 < r < R, magnetic field
At this point, there will be field only due to solenoid.
(ii) R < r < 2R
B =
0
I
2 r

by the rod. (Along the tangent to the circular part around the cylinder)
B
solenoid
=
0
nI along axis

6. Two vehicles, each moving with speed u on the same horizontal straight road, are
approaching each other. Wind blows along the road with velocity w. One of these vehicles
blows a whistle of frequency f
1
. An observer in the other vehicle hears the frequency of
the whistle to be f
2
. The speed of sound in still air is V. The correct statements(s) is (are)
(A) If the wind blows from the observer to the source, f
2
> f
1
.
(B) If the wind blows from the source to the observer, f
2
> f
1
.
(C) If the wind blows from observer to the source, f
2
< f
1
.
(D) If the wind blows from the source to the observer, f
2
< f
1
.
O
1
E
2
O
2
E
1
P
(6) Vidyalankar : IIT JEE 2013 Advanced : Question Paper & Solution
6
6. (A), (B)


u
SW
= u w
u
OW
= u + w
f
2
=
v u w
v (u w)
+ +

f
1
f
2
=
v u w
v u w
+ +


+
f
1

Clearly f
2
> f
1
irrespective of sign of w.
7. Two bodies, each of mass M, are kept fixed with a separation 2L. A particle of mass m is
projected from the midpoint of the line joining their centres, perpendicular to the line. The
gravitational constant is G. The correct statement(s) is (are)
(A) The minimum initial velocity of the mass m to escape the gravitational field of the two
bodies is
GM
4
L
.
(B) The minimum initial velocity of the mass m to escape the gravitational field of the two
bodies is
GM
2
L
.
(C) The minimum initial velocity of the mass m to escape the gravitational field of the two
bodies is
2GM
L
.
(D) The energy of the mass m remains constant.
7. (B), (D)
(D) is clearly correct, since gravitational field is conservative.

2
e
2GMm 1
mv
L 2
+ = 0
v
e
=
GM
2
L

8. A particle of mass m is attached to one end of a mass-less spring of force constant k, lying
on a frictionless horizontal plane. The other end of the spring is fixed. The particle starts
moving horizontally from its equilibrium position at time t = 0 with an initial velocity u
0
.
When the speed of the particle is 0.5 u
0
, it collides elastically with a rigid wall. After this
collision,
(A) the speed of the particle when it returns to its equilibrium position is u
0
.
(B) the time at which the particle passes through the equilibrium position for the first time
is t =
m
k
.
(C) the time at which the maximum compression of the spring occurs is t =
4 m
3 k

.
(D) the time at which the particle passes through the equilibrium position for the second
time is t =
5 m
3 k

.
8. (A), (D)
The impulse of the wall merely reverses the direction of motion is thout changing particle
speed. Hence (A)
S O
u u
W
IIT JEE 2013 Advanced : Question Paper & Solution (Paper II) (7)

7
Displacement from mean position be x
x =
0
u
w



sin (t) x = u
0
cos (t)
when particle speed is
0
u
2




cos (t) =
1
2
t =
3

[for first time]


t =
3


Time after which it passes the mean position = 2t =
3
3u

=
2 m
3 K


Hence (B) is incorrect.
Time after which particle crosses mean position for second time =
2
3

+

=
5
3


Hence (D).
SECTION 2 : (Paragraph Type)
This section contains 4 paragraphs each describing theory, experiment, data etc. Eight
questions relate to four paragraphs with two questions on each paragraph. Each question of
a paragraph has only one correct answer among the four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D)..

Paragraph for Questions 9 and 10
A small block of mass 1 kg is released from rest at the top of a rough track. The track is a
circular arc of radius 40 m. The block slides along the track without toppling and a frictional
force acts on it in the direction opposite to the instantaneous velocity. The work done in
overcoming the friction up to the point Q, as shown in the figure below, is 150 J. (Take the
acceleration due to gravity, g = 10 ms
2
).











9. The speed of the block when it reaches the point Q is
(A) 5 ms
1
(B) 10 ms
1
(C) 10 3 ms
1
(D) 20 ms
1

9. (B)
Kinetic energy of block at Q = mgR sin 30 150 J

2
1
mv
2
= 10 40
1
2
150 = 50 J
r =
2 50
1

= 10 ms
1

(8) Vidyalankar : IIT JEE 2013 Advanced : Question Paper & Solution
8
10. The magnitude of the normal reaction that acts on the block at the point Q is
(A) 7.5 N (B) 8.6 N (C) 11.5 N (D) 22.5 N
10. (A)
N mg cos 60 =
2
mv
r

N =mg cos 60 +
2
mv
r

N =
10 1 100
2 40

+ = 7.5 N

Paragraph for Questions 11 and 12
A thermal power plant produces electric power of 600 kW at 4000 V, which is to be
transported to a place 20 km away from the power plant for consumers usage. It can be
transported either directly with a cable of large current carrying capacity or by using a
combination of step-up and step-down transformers at the two ends. The drawback of the
direct transmission is the large energy dissipation. In the method using transformers, the
dissipation is much smaller. In this method, a step-up transformer is used at the plant side so
that the current is reduced to a smaller value. At the consumers end, a step-down transformer
is used to supply power to the consumers at the specified lower voltage. It is reasonable to
assume that the power cable is purely resistive and the transformers are ideal with a power
factor unity. All the currents and voltages mentioned are rms values.

11. If the direct transmission method with a cable of resistance 0.4 km
1
is used, the power
dissipation (in%) during transmission is
(A) 20 (B) 30 (C) 40 (D) 50
11. (B)
P = 600 kW
V = 4000 V
I =
3
600 10
4000

= 150A
Power Loss = I
2
R
= (150)
2
0.4 20 = 180 kW
% Power Loss =
180
100
600
= 30%

12. In the method using the transformers, assume that the ratio of the number of turns in the
primary to that in the secondary in the step-up transformer is 1:10. If the power to the
consumers has to be supplied at 200 V, the ratio of the number of turns in the primary to
that in the secondary in the step-down transformer is
(A) 200 : 1 (B) 150 : 1 (C) 100 : 1 (D) 50 : 1
12. (A)
Step up transformer
1 : 10
4000 V 40,000 V
Step down transform
40,000 V 200
turns ratio =
40000
200
= 200 : 1
30
60
mg
IIT JEE 2013 Advanced : Question Paper & Solution (Paper II) (9)

9
Paragraph for Questions 13 and 14
A point charge Q is moving in a circular orbit of radius R in the x-y plane with an angular
velocity . This can be considered as equivalent to a loop carrying a steady current
Q
2

. A
uniform magnetic field along the positive z-axis is now switched on, which increases at a
constant rate from 0 to B in one second. Assume that the radius of the orbit remains constant.
The application of the magnetic field induces an emf in the orbit. The induced emf is defined
as the work done by an induced electric field in moving a unit positive charge around a closed
loop. It is known that, for an orbiting charge, the magnetic dipole moment is proportional to
the angular momentum with a proportionality constant .

13. The magnitude of the induced electric field in the orbit at any instant of time during the
time interval of the magnetic field change is
(A)
BR
4
(B)
BR
2
(C) BR (D) 2BR
13. (B)
Magnitude of induced emf is given by =
A dB
2 R dt
=
2
R
B
2 R

=
BR
2

14. The change in the magnetic dipole moment associated with the orbit, at the end of the
time interval of the magnetic field change, is
(A) BQR
2
(B)
2
BQR
2
(C)
2
BQR
2
(D) BQR
2

14. (B)

f

i
= t = ( )
2
q ER
1
MR
= ( )
qE
1
MR

E =
BR
2

=
q BR
MR 2



=
qB
2M

= L = I
= ( )
2
MR =
2
qB
MR
2M



=
2
qBR
2


Paragraph for Questions 15 and 16
The mass of a nucleus
A
Z
X is less than the sum of the masses of (A-Z) number of neutrons
and Z number of protons in the nucleus. The energy equivalent to the corresponding mass
difference is known as the binding energy of the nucleus. A heavy nucleus of mass M can
break into two light nuclei of masses m
1
and m
2
only if (m
1
+ m
2
) < M. Also two light nuclei
of masses m
3
and m
4
can undergo complete fusion and form a heavy nucleus of mass M only
if (m
3
+ m
4
) > M. The masses of some neutral atoms are given in the table below :

1
1
H
1.007825 u
2
1

2.014102 u
3
1
H
3.016050 u
4
2
He
4.002603 u
6
3
Li
6.015123 u
7
3
Li
7.016004 u
70
30
Zn
69.925325 u
82
34
Se
81.916709 u
152
64
Gd
151.919803 u
206
82
Pb
205.974455 u
209
83
Bi
208.980388 u
210
84
Po
209.982876 u
(1 u = 932 MeV/c
2
)
(10) Vidyalankar : IIT JEE 2013 Advanced : Question Paper & Solution
10
15. The correct statement is
(A)The nucleus
6
3
Li can emit an alpha particle.
(B) The nucleus
210
84
Po can emit a proton.
(C) Deuteron and alpha particle can undergo complete fusion.
(D)The nuclei
70
30
Zn and
82
34
Se can undergo complete fusion.
15. (C)

3 2 4
6 1 2
Li H He +
M 6.015123 =
m
1
= 2.014102
m
2
= 4.002603

m
1
+ m
2
= 6.016705
m
1
+ m
2
> M (not possible)
(B)
210 209 1
84 83 1
Po Bi P +
M = 209.982876
m
1
= 208.980388
m
2
= 001.007825

m
1
+ m
2
= 209.988213
M < m
1
+ m
2
(not possible)
(C)
2 4 6
1 2 3
H H Li +
(m
1
+ m
2
) > M
Possible
(D)
70 82 152
30 34 64
Zn Se Gd +
m
1
= 69.925325
m
2
= 81.916709
m
1
+ m
2
= 141.832034
M = 151.919803
m
1
+ m
2
< M (not possible)
16. The kinetic energy (in keV) of the alpha particle, when the nucleus
210
84
Po at rest
undergoes alpha decay, is
(A) 5319 (B) 5422 (C) 5707 (D) 5818
16. (A)

210 206 4
84 82 2
Po Pb He +
M 209.982876 =

1
m 205.974455 =

2
m 4.002603 =

m
1
+ m
2
= 209.977058


1 2
M (m m ) 209.982876 + =
209.977058

0.005818

2
E mc (0.005818)932 = = 5422 =

1 2
K K E + =
IIT JEE 2013 Advanced : Question Paper & Solution (Paper II) (11)

11

2 2
1 2
P P
E
2m 2m
+ =

2
P
E
2
=



2
1 2
1 2
Em m P
2 m m
=
+


2
2
1
1 1 2
Em p E(206) 103
k E
2m m m 210 105
= = = =
+


1
103
k (5422) 5319
105
= =
SECTION 3 : (Matching List Type)
This section contains 4 multiple choice questions. Each question has matching lists. The
codes for the lists have choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of which ONLY ONE is correct

17. One mole of a monatomic ideal gas is taken along two cyclic processes E F G E
and E F H E as shown in the PV diagram. The processes involved are purely
isochoric, isobaric, isothermal or adiabatic.












Match the paths in List I with the magnitudes of the work done in List II and select the
correct answer using the codes given below the lists.

List I List II
P. GE 1. 160 P
0
V
0
1n2
Q. GH 2. 36 P
0
V
0
R. FH 3. 24 P
0
V
0

S. FG 4. 31 P
0
V
0
Codes :
P Q R S
(A) 4 3 2 1
(B) 4 3 1 2
(C) 3 1 2 4
(D) 1 3 2 4
17. (A)

F F G G
P V P V =

0 0
32P V =
0 G
P V
(12) Vidyalankar : IIT JEE 2013 Advanced : Question Paper & Solution
12

G 0
V 32V =

F F H H
P V P V

=

0 0 0 H
32P V P V

=
V
H
=
1
0
32 V


= ( )
3 5
0 0
32 V 8V
/
=
(P) ( ) ( )
GE 0 E G 0 0 0
W P V V P V 32V = =
=
0 0
31P V 4.
(Q) ( )
GH 0 0 0 0 0
W P 8V 32V 24P V = = (3)
(R)
( )
0 0 0 0
H H F F
FH
P 8V 32P V
P V P V
W
5
1
1
3

= =


=
0 0
0 0
24P V
36P V 2
2
3
( )


(A)
G 0
FG F F 0 0
F 0
V 32V
W P V n 32P V n
V V
= =
=
0 0
32P V n32
= ( )
5
0 0
32P V n 2 =
0 0
160P V n 2 1 ( )
(P) 4; (Q) (3); (R) (2); (S) (1)

18. Match List I of the nuclear processes with List II containing parent nucleus and one of the
end products of each process and then select the correct answer using the codes given
below the lists:
List I List II
P. Alpha decay
1.
15 15
8 7
O N ..... +

Q.
+
decay
2.
238 234
92 90
U Th ..... +
R. Fission
3.
185 184
83 82
Bi Pb ..... +

S. Proton emission
4.
239 140
94 57
Pu La ..... +

Codes :
P Q R S
(A) 4 2 1 3
(B) 1 3 2 4
(C) 2 1 4 3
(D) 4 3 2 1
18. (C)
P Q R S
2 1 4 3

IIT JEE 2013 Advanced : Question Paper & Solution (Paper II) (13)

13
19. A right angled prism of refractive index
1
is placed in a rectangular block of refractive
index
2
, which is surrounded by a medium of refractive index
3
, as shown in the figure.
A ray of light 'e' enters the rectangular block at normal incidence. Depending upon the
relationships between
1
,
2
and
3
, it takes one of the four possible paths 'ef', 'eg', 'eh' or 'ei'.










Match the paths in List I with conditions of refractive indices in List II and select the
correct answer using the codes given below the lists:

List I List II
P. e f
1.
1
> 2
2

Q. e g 2.
2
>
1
and
2
>
3

R. e h 3.
1
=
2

S. e i
4.
2
<
1
< 2
2
and
2
>
3

Codes :
P Q R S
(A) 2 3 1 4
(B) 1 2 4 3
(C) 4 1 2 3
(D) 2 3 4 1
19. (D)
(P) e f for 1 2 towards normal

2
>
1

For 2 3 always from normal

3
<
2

i.e., (2)
(Q) e g no deviation any where

1
=
2
=
3
, i.e., (3)
(R) e h 1 2 away from normal.

2
<
1

2 3 away from normal.

3
<
2

And also at 1 2 no I.R.
sin 45 <
2
1



1 2
2 <

2 1 2
2 < < i.e., (4)
(S) e i TIR at 1 2
(14) Vidyalankar : IIT JEE 2013 Advanced : Question Paper & Solution
14
sin 45 >
2
1


1 2
2 >
i.e., 1

(P) 2; (Q) 3; (R) (4); (S) (1).

20. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the
lists:
List I List II
P. Boltzmann constant 1. [ML
2
T
1
]
Q. Coefficient of viscosity 2. [ML
1
T
1
]
R. Planck constant 3. [MLT
3
T
1
]
S. Thermal conductivity 4. [ML
2
T
2
K
1
]

Codes :
P Q R S
(A) 3 1 2 4
(B) 3 2 1 4
(C) 4 2 1 3
(D) 4 1 2 3

20. (C)
(P) u =
B
3
K T
2

[u] =
B
K T [ ]

2 2
B
ML T
K
K
[ ]
[ ]
[ ]

=
[K
B
] =
2 2 1
ML T K 4 [ ]


(Q) F = 6 r V
[] =
2
1 1
1
F MLT
ML T 2
rv
L LT
[ ]
( )



= =





(R) E = h
[h] =
2 2
2 1
1
E ML T
ML T 1
T
[ ] ( )



= =




(S)
Q
t
=
2 1
KA T T ( )


[K] =
2 3
2
ML T
L
L K
[ ]
[ ]
[ ][ ]


=
3 1
MLT K 3 [ ] ( )


(P) 4; (Q) (2); (R) (1); (S) (3)
IIT JEE 2013 Advanced : Question Paper & Solution (Paper II) (15)

15
PART II : CHEMISTRY
SECTION 1 : (One or more options correct Type)
This section contains 8 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B),
(C) and (D) out of which ONE or MORE are correct.

21. The carbon-based reduction method is NOT used for the extraction of
(A) tin from SnO
2

(B) iron from Fe
2
O
3

(C) aluminium from Al
2
O
3

(D) magnesium from MgCO
3
. CaCO
3

21. (C), (D)
The oxides of the less electropositive methods are reduced by strongly heating them with
coke.

22. The thermal dissociation equilibrium of CaCO
3
(s) is studied under different conditions.

3 2
CaCO (s) CaO(s) CO (g) +


For this equilibrium, the correct statement(s) is (are)
(A) H is dependent on T
(B) K is independent of the initial amount of CaCO
3

(C) K is dependent on the pressure of CO
2
at a given T
(C) H is independent of the catalyst, if any
22. (A), (B), (D)
K Equilibrium constant is independent of the partial pressure of CO
2
.
It is independent of the catalyst.
23. The correct statement(s) about O
3
is(are)
(A) OO bond lengths are equal
(B) Thermal decomposition of O
3
is endothermic
(C) O
3
is diamagnetic in nature
(D) O
3
has a bent structure
23. (A), (C), (D)

3 2
2O 3O 68 k cal

+ i.e. Exothermic

24. In the nuclear transmutation

9 8
4 4
Be X Be Y + +
(X, Y) is (are)

(A) (, n) (B) (p, D) (C) (n, D) (D) (, p)
24. (A), (B)
(A)
9 8 1
4 4 0
Be Be n + +
(B)
9 1 8 2
4 1 4 1
Be H Be D + +
(C)
9 1 8 2
4 0 4 1
Be n Be D + + (False)
(D)
9 8 1
4 4 1
Be Be H + + (False)
(16) Vidyalankar : IIT JEE 2013 Advanced : Question Paper & Solution
16
2
| |
Br (1m o l )
3 3
N a O H
(1 mo l )
O
C H C C H ( T ) ( U ) +
25. The major product(s) of the following reaction is(are)














(A) P (B) Q (C) R (D) S

25. (B)








26. After completion of the reactions (I and II), the organic compound(s) in the reaction
mixtures is(are)














(A) Reaction I : P and Reaction II : P
(B) Reaction I : U, acetone and Reaction II : Q, acetone
(C) Reaction I : T, U, acetone and Reaction II : P
(D) Reaction I : R, acetone and Reaction II : S, acetone
26. (C)






NaOH
SO
3
H
OH
2
aq. Br

Br
OH
Br Br
(Q)
2
3
Br (1mol)
CH COOH
(p)
IIT JEE 2013 Advanced : Question Paper & Solution (Paper II) (17)

17
27. The K
sp
of Ag
2
CrO
4
is 1.1 10
12
at 298 J. The solubility (in mol / L) of Ag
2
CrO
4
in a
0.1 M AgNO
3
solution is
(A) 1.1 10
11
(B) 1.1 10
10
(C) 1.1 10
12
(D) 1.1 10
9

27. (B)

2
2 4(s) 4
Ag CrO 2Ag (aq) CrO (aq)
+
+


2s + 0.1 s
= 0.1

2 12
sp
K (0.1) s 1.1 10

= =

10
s 1.1 10 M

=
28. In the following reaction, the product(s) formed is (are)











(A) P (major) (B) Q (minor) (C) R (minor) (D) S (major)
28. (B), (D)
















CCl
2
..
CH
3
O O
CH
3
H
CCl
2
O
CH
3
CHCl
2
OH

CH
3
OH
CHO
major
2
H O

CH
3
O
CHO

O
O
HC
3 CHCl
2
(minor)
(18) Vidyalankar : IIT JEE 2013 Advanced : Question Paper & Solution
18
SECTION 2 : (Paragraph Type)
This section contains 4 paragraphs each describing theory, experiment, data etc. Eight
questions relate to four paragraphs with two questions on each paragraph. Each question of
a paragraph has only one correct answer among the four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D)..

Using the following Paragraph , Solve Q. No. 29 and 30

An aqueous solution of a mixture of two inorganic salts, when treated with dilute HCl, gave a
precipitate (P) and a filtrate (Q). The precipitate P was found to dissolve in hot water. The
filtrate (Q) remained unchanged, when treated with H
2
S in a dilute mineral acid medium.
However, it gave a precipitate (R) with H
2
S in an ammoniacal medium. The precipitate R
gave a coloured solution (S), when treated with H
2
O
2
in an aqueous NaOH medium.

29. The precipitate P contains
(A) Pb
2+
(B)
2
2
Hg
+
(C) Ag
+
(D) Hg
2+

29. (A)

2
2
(p)
Pb HCl PbCl
+
+ soluble in hot water
30. The coloured solution S contains
(A) Fe
2
(SO
4
)
3
(B) CuSO
4
(C) ZnSO
4
(D) Na
2
CrO
4


2
2
(p)
Pb HCl PbCl
+
+ soluble in hot water
30. (D)

3 2 4 2
(S) (R)
2Cr(OH) 4NaOH 3[O] 2Na CrO 5H O + + +

Using the following Paragraph , Solve Q. No. 31 and 32

P and Q are isomers of dicarboxylic acid C
4
H
4
O
4
. Both decolorize Br
2
/ H
2
O. On heating , P
forms the cyclic anhydride.
Upon treatment with dilute alkaline KMnO
4
, P as well as Q could produce one or more than
one from S, T and U.







31. Compounds formed from P and Q are , respectively
(A) Optically active S and optically active pair (T, U)
(B) Optically inactive S and optically inactive pair (T, U)
(C) Optically active pair (T, U) and optically active S
(D) Optically inactive pair (T, U) and optically inactive S.

IIT JEE 2013 Advanced : Question Paper & Solution (Paper II) (19)

19
31. (B)
C
C
H
H
COOH
COOH
2
H O

C
C
C
C
O
H
H
O
O
(P)
(cis)
cyclic anhydride

C
C
H
H
COOH
HOOC
(Q)

H OH
H OH
COOH
COOH
(S)
(meso)
4
dil. KMnO
P










32. In the following reaction sequences V and W are , respectively









(A) (B)






(C) (D)

4
dil. KMnO
Q


H OH
O H H
COOH
COOH
(T)
O H H
H OH
COOH
COOH
+
(U)
(20) Vidyalankar : IIT JEE 2013 Advanced : Question Paper & Solution
20
32. (A)

2
H / Ni
(Q)


3
anhy. AlCl

CH
2
CH
2
C
O
C
O
O
2 2
C CH CH COOH
O
O
3 4
H PO

2 2 2
CH CH CH COOH
+ (V)
(V)
(W)
Zn-Hg/conc.HCl

Using the following Paragraph , Solve Q. No. 33 and 34

A fixed mass m of a gas is subjected to transformation of states from K to L to M to N and
back to K as shown in the figure










33. The succeeding operations that enable this transformation of states are
(A) Heating, cooling, heating , cooling (C) Cooling , heating cooling, heating
(C) Heating, cooling, cooling, heating (D) Cooling, heating, heating, cooling
33. (C)
Factual
34. The pair of isochoric processes among the transformation of states is
(A) K to L and L to M (B) L to M and N to K
(C) L to M and M to N (D) M to N and N to K
34. (B)
Factual

Using the following Paragraph , Solve Q. No. 35 and 36

The reactions of Cl
2
gas with cold dilute and hot concentrated NaOH in water give
sodium salts of two (different) oxoacids of chlorine, P and Q respectively. The Cl
2
gas reacts
with SO
2
gas , in presence of charcoal, to give a product R. R reacts with white phosphorus to
give a compound S. On hydrolysis, S gives an oxoacid of phosphorus , T.

IIT JEE 2013 Advanced : Question Paper & Solution (Paper II) (21)

21
35. P and Q respectively, are the sodium salts of
(A) hypochlorus and chloric acids (B) hypoclorus and chlorus acids
(C) chloric and perchloric acids (D) chloric and hypochlorus acids
35. (A)

Cold
2 2
2NaOH Cl NaCl NaOCl(P) H O + + +

hot
2 3 2
6NaOH 3Cl 5NaCl NaClO (Q) 3H O + + +

36. R, S and T , respectively are
(A) SO
2
Cl
2
, PCl
5
and H
3
PO
4
(B) SO
2
Cl
2
, PCl
3
and H
3
PO
3

(C) SOCl
2
, PCl
3
and H
3
PO
2
(D) SOCl
2
, PCl
5
and H
3
PO
4

36. (A)

2 2 2 2
SO Cl SO Cl (R) +

4 2 2 5 2
P 10SO Cl 4PCl 10 SO + +

5 2 3 4
PCl 4H O H PO 5HCl + +

SECTION 3 : (Matching List Type)
This section contains 4 multiple choice questions. Each question has matching lists. The
codes for the lists have choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of which ONLY ONE is correct

37. An aqueous solution of X is added slowly to an aqueous solution of Y as shown in List I.
The variation in conductivity of these reactions is given in List II. Match List I with List II
and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists :

List I List II
P.
2 5 3 3
(C H ) CH COOH
X Y
+ 1. Conductivity decreases and then increases
Q.
3
KI (0.1M) AgNO (0.01M)
X Y
+ 2. Conductivity decreases and then does not
change much
R.
3
CH C KOH
Y
X
+ 3. Conductivity increases and then does not
change much
S. NaOH HI
Y X
+ 4. Conductivity does not change much and then
increases

Codes :
P Q R S
(A) 3 4 2 1
(B) 4 3 2 1
(C) 2 3 4 1
(D) 1 4 3 2
37. (A)
Factual
38. The standard reduction potential data at 25 C is given below .
E (Fe
3+
, Fe
2+
) = + 0.77 V;
E (Fe
2+
, Fe) = 0.44 V
E (Cu
2+
, Cu) = + 0.34 V
E (Cu
+
, Cu) = + 0.52 V
E [O
2
(g) + 4H
+
+ 4e

2H
2
O] = + 1.23 V;
(22) Vidyalankar : IIT JEE 2013 Advanced : Question Paper & Solution
22
E [O
2
(g) + 2H
2
O + 4e

4OH

] = + 0.40 V
E (Cr
3+
, Cr) = 0.74 V ;
E (Cr
2+
, Cr) = 0.91 V
Match E of the redox pair in List I with the values given in List II and select the correct
answer using the code given below the lists :

List I List II
P. E (Fe
3+
, Fe) 1. 0.18 V
Q.
E
2
(4H O 4H 4OH )
+
+


2. 0.4 V
R. E (Cu
2+
+ Cu 2Cu
+
) 3. 0.04 V
S. E (Cr
3+
, Cr
2+
) 4. 0.83 V
Codes :

P Q R S
(A) 4 1 2 3
(B) 2 3 4 1
(C) 1 2 3 4
(D) 3 4 1 2
38. (D)
Use formula
0 0 0
3 3 1 1 2 2
n F E n FE n FE = +

0 0
0 1 1 2
3
3
n E n E
E
n
+
=

39. The unbalanced chemical reactions given in List I show missing reagent or condition (?)
which are provided in List II. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using
the code given below the lists :

List I List II
P.
?
2 2 4 4 2
PbO H SO PbSO O other product + + +
1. NO
Q.
?
2 2 3 2 4
Na S O H O NaHSO other product + +
2. I
2

R.
?
2 4 2
N H N other product +
3. Warm
S.
?
2
XeF Xe other product +
4. Cl
2


Codes :
P Q R S
(A) 4 2 3 1
(B) 3 2 1 4
(C) 1 4 2 3
(D) 3 4 2 1
39. (D)

warm
2 2 4 4 2 2
P PbO H SO PbSO O H O + + +

2
Cl
2 2 3 2 4
Q Na S O H O NaHSo NaCl HCl + + +

2
I
2 4 2
R N H N 4HI +

NO
2
S XeF Xe 2NOF +
IIT JEE 2013 Advanced : Question Paper & Solution (Paper II) (23)

23
40. Match the chemical conversions in List I with the appropriate reagents in List II and select
the correct answer using the code given below the lists :

List I List II
P. 1. (i) Hg(OAc)
2
,; (ii) NaBH
4

Q. 2. NaOEt
R. 3. Et Br
S. 4. (i) BH
3
; (ii) H
2
O
2
/ NaOH

Codes :
P Q R S
(A) 2 3 1 4
(B) 3 2 1 4
(C) 2 3 4 1
(D) 3 2 4 1
40. (A)
P = 2, Q = 3, R = 1, S = 4
PART III : MATHEMATICS
SECTION 1 : (One or more options correct Type)
This section contains 8 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B),
(C) and (D) out of which ONE or MORE are correct.

41. Let be a complex cube root of unity with 1 and P = [p
ij
] be a n n matrix with
p
ij
=
i + j
. Then P
2
0, when n =
(A) 57 (B) 55 (C) 58 (D) 56
41. (B), (C), (D)
P
2
= O only when n is multiple of 3.
Ex :
2 2
2 2
2 2
1 1
1 1
1 1









=
0 0 0
0 0 0
0 0 0






P
2
0, when n = 55, 56, 58.
42. The function f(x) = 2 | x | + | x + 2 | | | x + 2 | 2 | x | | has a local minimum or a local
maximum at x =
(A) 2 (B)
2
3

(C) 2 (D)
2
3

(24) Vidyalankar : IIT JEE 2013 Advanced : Question Paper & Solution
24
42. (A), (B)
Given, f(x) = 2|x| + |x + 2| ||x + 2| 2|x||

Sign scheme of |x + 2| 2|x| is


For
2
x 2
3

f (x) = 4|x|



For x <
2
3
x > 2
f(x) = 2 |x + 2|




Now, f(x) = 4 |x|,
2
3
x 2
= 2|x + 2|, x <
2
3
x > 2







The point of maxima or minima are 2,
2
3
, 0.
43. Let
3 i
w
2
+
= and P = {w
n
: n = 1, 2, 3, }. Further H
1
=
1
z : Re z
2

>


and
2
1
H z : Re z ,
2

= <


where is the set of all complex numbers. If z
1
P H
1
,
z
2
P H
2
and O represents the origin, then z
1
O z
2
=
(A)
2

(B)
6

(C)
2
3

(D)
5
6


43. (C), (D)
=
3 i
2 2
+ = cos i sin
6 6

+


n
=
n n
cos i sin
6 6

+




(by De Moivres Theorem)
If z
1
P H
1
, then
n
cos
6



>
1
2

which is true for n = 0, 1, 11.
2/3 2
8/3
8
y
x
2/3 2
ve ve
+ve
x
2 2
8/3
8
y
2/3 x
2 2
8/3
8
y
2/3 x
IIT JEE 2013 Advanced : Question Paper & Solution (Paper II) (25)

25
If z
2
P H
2
, then
n
cos
6



<
1
2

, which is true for n = 5, 6, 7.












z
1
oz
2
can be
2
3

or
5
.
6


44. If 3
x
= 4
x1
, then x =
(A)
3
3
2log 2
2log 2 1
(B)
2
2
2 log 3
(C)
4
1
1 log 3
(D)
2
2
2log 3
2log 3 1

44. (A), (B), (C)
3
x
= 4
x1


2
x log 3 = (x1)
2
log 4
x
2
log 3= 2x 2
x (2
2
log 3) = 2
x =
2
2
2 log 3
(B)
3x = 4
x1
x
4
log 3 = x 1
x =
4
1
1 log 3
(C)
3
x
= 4
x1

x
3
log 3 = (x 1)
3
log 4
x = (x 1) log
3
4 = (x 9) 2. log
3
2
x =
3
3
2. log 2
2. log 2 1
(A)
45. Two lines
1 2
y z y z
L : x 5, and L : x ,
3 2 1 2
= = = =

are coplanar. Then
can take values (s)
(A)1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4
45. (A), (D)
L
1
:
x 5
0

=
y
3
=
Z
2
Line L
1
passes (x
1
, y
1
, z
1
) (5, 0, 0)
L
2
:
x
0

=
y
1
=
z
2
Line L
2
passes (x
2
, y
2
, z
3
) (, 0, 0)
As Line co-planar Shortest distance = 0
3 1
,
2 2





3 1
,
2 2




3 1
,
2 2




3 1
,
2 2




(1, 0)
(1, 0)
(26) Vidyalankar : IIT JEE 2013 Advanced : Question Paper & Solution
26

2 1 2 1 2 1
1 1 1
2 2 2
x x y y z z
m n
m n

= 0

5 0 0
0 3 2
0 1 2



= 0 ( 5) ( 4) ( 1) = 0
= 1, 4, 5
46. In a triangle PQR, P is the largest angle and
1
cos P
3
= . Further the incircle of the triangle
touches the sides PQ, QR and RP at N, L and M respectively, such that the lengths of
PN, QL and RM are consecutive even integers. Then possible length(s) of the side(s) of
the triangle is (are)
(A)16 (B) 18 (C) 24 (D) 22
46. (B), (D)
cos p =
2 2 2
(4x 4) (4x 2) (4x 6)
2(4x 4) (4x 2)
+ + + +
+ +

1
3
=
2
16x 16
16(x 1) (2x 1)

+ +

1
3
=
2
2
x 1
2x 3x 1

+ +

3x
2
3 = 2x
2
+ 3x + 1
3x
2
3x 4 = 0
x = 4 or 1. Hence x = 4
So, possible lengths of sides are 18, 22.
47. For a R

(the set of all real numbers), a 1,

( )
( ) ( ) ( ) ( )
a a a
a 1
x
1 2 .... n
1
lim
60
n 1 na 1 na 2 ... na n

+ + +
=
+ + + + + +


Then a =
(A) 5 (B) 7 (C)
15
2

(D)
17
2


47. (B), (D)
Let, L =
( ) ( ) ( )
a a a
a 1
n
1 2 ...... n
lim
n 1 na 1 (na 2) ... (na n)

+ + +
+ + + + + + +

=
( )
a a a
a
n a 1
2
1 2 n
n ...
n n n
lim
n(n 1)
n 1 n a
2



+ + +


+

+ +



=
( )
a
n
a
r 1
n a 1
1 r
n n
n n
lim
n 1
n 1 n na
2
=








+
+ +

=
( )
1
a
a
0
a 1
n
x dx
n
lim
n 1
n 1
na
2


+
+
+


P
Q
R
2x 2x
2x + 4
2x + 4 2x + 2
2x + 2
IIT JEE 2013 Advanced : Question Paper & Solution (Paper II) (27)

27
Using limit of a sum we get
a
n
r 1
1 r
n n
=


=
1
a
0
x dx


L =
( )
a
a 1
n
1
n
a 1
lim
n 1
n 1
na
2

+

+
+
+
=
a 1
n
1
1
a 1
lim
1 1
1
a
1
2 2n
n


+ +
+



=
( )
2
(a 1) 2a 1 + +
Given L =
1
60

(a + 1) (2a + 1) = 120
2a
2
+ 3a 119 = 0
a = 7 or a =
17
2

Answer is (B), (D)
48. Circle(s) touching xaxis at a distance 3 from the origin and having an intercept of
length 2 7 on yaxis is (are)
(A) x
2
+ y
2
6x + 8y + 9 = 0 (B) x
2
+ y
2
6x + 7y + 9 = 0
(C) x
2
+ y
2
6x 8y + 9 = 0 (D) x
2
+ y
2
6x 7y + 9 = 0
48. (A), (C)
Let centre, C = (3, )
and BC = 2
2
c = 2 7

2
c = 7 (1)
Agai
2
=
2
+ 9 c c = 9 (2)

From (1),
2
9 = 7
= 4
Eq is x
2
+ y
2
6x 8y + 9 = 0

SECTION 2 : (Paragraph Type)
This section contains 4 paragraphs each describing theory, experiment, data etc. Eight
questions relate to four paragraphs with two questions on each paragraph. Each question of
a paragraph has only one correct answer among the four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D)..

Paragraph for Question 49 and 50

Let f : [0, 1] R (the set of all real numbers) be a function. Suppose the function f is twice
differentiable, f(0) = f(1) = 0 and satisfies ( ) ( ) ( ) [ ]
x
f '' x 2f ' x f x e , x 0,1 + .

49. Which of the following is true for 0 < x < 1?
(A) ( ) 0 f x < < (B) ( )
1 1
f x
2 2
< < (C) ( )
1
f x 1
4
< < (D) ( ) f x 0 < <
49. (D)
C
B
e

A
0
(28) Vidyalankar : IIT JEE 2013 Advanced : Question Paper & Solution
28
50. If the function e
x
f(x) assumes its minimum in the interval [0, 1] at
1
x
4
= , which of the
following is true?
(A) ( ) ( )
1 3
f ' x f x , x
4 4
< < < (B) ( ) ( )
1
f ' x f x , 0 x
4
> < <
(C) ( ) ( )
1
f ' x f x , 0 x
4
< < < (D) ( ) ( )
3
f ' x f x , x 1
4
< < <
50. (C)
Let g(x) = e
x
f(x) g(x) = e
x
(f(x) f(x))
If x =
1
4
is point of minima, then
e
x
(f(x) f(x)) < 0 x
1
0,
4




f(x) < f(x) x
1
0,
4




Paragraph for Question 51 and 52

Let PQ be a focal chord of the parabola y
2
= 4ax. The tangents to the parabola at P and Q
meet at a point lying on the line y = 2x + a, a > 0.

51. Length of chord PQ is
(A) 7a (B) 5a (C) 2a (D) 3a
51. (B)
P + T
Given point T lies on y = 2x + a
a(t
1
+ t
2
) = 2at
1
t
2
+ a
t
1
+ t
2
= 2 + 1 (as focal chord t
1
t
2
= 1)
t
1
+ t
2
= 1
( )
1 2
t t = ( )
2
1 2 1 2
t t 4t t + = 5
So, PQ =
( )
( )
2
2
2 2 2
1 2 1 2
a t t 2at 2at +
=
( )
( )
2
2
2 2
1 2 1 2
a t t 4 t t + = ( )
( )
2 2
a ( 1) 5 4 5 + = a 5 20 + = 5a
52. If chord PQ subtends an angle at the vertex of y
2
= 4ax, then tan =
(A)
2
7
3
(B)
2
7
3

(C)
2
5
3
(D)
2
5
3


52. (D)
Slope of OP =
1
2
1
2 at
at
=
1
2
t
= m
1

Slope of OQ =
2
2
t
= m
2

tan =
1 2
1 2
m m
1 m m

+
=
1 2
1 2
2 2
t t
2 2
1
t t

+
=
2 1
1 2
t t
2
t t 4

+
=
5
2
1 4 +
=
2 5
3

as is 2
nd
quadrant.
( ) ( )
1 2 1 2
T at t , a t t +
( )
2
1 1
P at , 2at
( )
2
2 2
Q at , 2at
IIT JEE 2013 Advanced : Question Paper & Solution (Paper II) (29)

29
Paragraph for Question 53 and 54

Let
1 2 3
S S S S = , where
{ }
1
S z C: z 4 = < ,
2
z 1 3i
S z C: Im 0
1 3i

+
= >


and
{ }
3
S z C: Rez 0 = >

53. Area of S =
(A)
10
3

(B)
20
3

(C)
16
3

(D)
32
3


53. (B)
S
1
= {z |z| < 4}












S
2
=
z 1 3 i
z c: Im 0
1 3 i

+
>




Let z = x + iy
z 1 3 i
1 3 i
+

=
(x iy) 1 3 i
1 3 i
+ +

=
( )
(x 1) i y 3
(1 3 i)
1 3 i (1 3 i)

+ +
+


+

=
{ } { }
(x 1) 3 (y 3) i 3(x 1) (y 3
4
+ + + +

z 1 3 i
Im
1 3 i

+




=
3 x y
4
+

z 1 3 i
Im 0
1 3 i

+
>






3 x y
0
4
+
>
3 x + y > 0






y
y

x
x
A
B
C
D (0, 4)
(4, 0)
(0, 4)
(4, 0)
x
O
(30) Vidyalankar : IIT JEE 2013 Advanced : Question Paper & Solution
30
S
3
= {z c, Re(z) > 0}
x > 0








S
1
S
2
S
3













Area of sector is = (4)
2

5 / 6
2

=
16 5
6 2


=
20
3



54.
min
1 3i z
z S
=


(A)
2 3
2

(B)
2 3
2
+
(C)
3 3
2

(D)
3 3
2
+

54. (C)
min |1 3i z|
z s
|1 3i z| = |z (3i 1)|
= |z (1 + 3i)|
PM =
3 3
2

(Perpendicular distance is minimum distance)













y
x
O
(4, 0)
(0, 4)
x
2
+ y
2
= 4
2
y + 3 x = 0

(2, 2 3 )
/3
y
x
O
(4, 0)
(0, 4)
(2, 2 3 )
y
x
M
P(1, 3)
IIT JEE 2013 Advanced : Question Paper & Solution (Paper II) (31)

31
Paragraph for Question 55 and 56

A box B
1
contains 1 white ball, 3 red balls and 2 black balls. Another box B
2
contains 2 white
balls, 3 red balls and 4 black balls. A third box B
3
contains 3 white balls, 4 red balls and 5
black balls.

55. If 1 ball is drawn from each of the boxes B
1
, B
2
and B
3
, the probability that all 3 drawn
balls are of the same colour is
(A)
82
648
(B)
90
648
(C)
558
648
(D)
566
648

55. (A)
1W
3R
2B
2W
3R
4B
3W
4R
5B
E
1
= one white from each box
E
2
= one red from each box
E
3
= one black from each box
B
1
B
2
B
3


E
1
, E
2
, E
3
are mutually exclusive events
P(E) = P(E
1
) + P(E
2
) + P(E
3
)
=
1 2 3 3 3 4 2 4 5
6 9 12 6 9 12 6 9 12

+ +


=
82
648

56. If 2 balls are drawn (without replacement) from a randomly selected box and one of the
balls is white and the other ball is red, the probability that these 2 balls are drawn from
box B
2
is
(A)
116
181
(B)
126
181
(C)
65
181
(D)
55
181

56. (D)













2
B
P
E



=
1 1
3 6
1 1 1 1 1 2
3 5 3 6 3 11


+ +



=
55
181



P(B
1
) =
1
3

P(B
2
) =
1
3

P(B
3
) =
1
3

2
E 1
P
B 6

=


1
E 1
P
B 5

=


3
E 2
P
B 11

=


(32) Vidyalankar : IIT JEE 2013 Advanced : Question Paper & Solution
32
SECTION 3 : (Matching List Type)
This section contains 4 multiple choice questions. Each question has matching lists. The
codes for the lists have choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of which ONLY ONE is correct

57. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the
lists :

List I List II
P
Volume of parallelepiped determined by vectors a, b and c

is 2.
Then the volume of the parallelepiped determined by vectors
( ) ( ) ( )
2 a b , 3 b c and c a

is
1. 100
Q
Volume of parallelepiped determined by vectors a, b and c

is 5.
Then the volume of the parallelepiped determined by vectors
( ) ( ) ( )
3 a b , b c and 2 c a + + +

is
2. 30
R
Area of a triangle with adjacent sides determined by vectors
a and b

is 20. Then the area of the triangle with adjacent sides
determined by vectors
( ) ( )
2a 3b and a b +

is
3. 24
S
Area of a parallelogram with adjacent sides determined by vectors
a and b

is 30. Then the area of the parallelogram with adjacent
sides determined by vectors
( )
a b anda +

is
4. 60

Codes :
P Q R S
(A) 4 2 3 1
(B) 2 3 1 4
(C) 3 4 1 2
(D) 1 4 3 2
57. (C)
(P) Given volume of parallelepiped formed by a, b, c is equal to 2
[ a b c ] = 2 (1)
volume of parallelepiped formed by 2
( )
a b , 3
( )
b c and c a is given by
v =
( ) ( )
2 a b , 3 b c , c a




or v = 6 [ a b c ]
2

v = 24 p 3
(Q) given [ a b c ] = 5
volume of parallelepiped formed by
3
( )
a b + , b c + , and 2
( )
c a + is given by
v =
( ) ( )
3 a b , b c, 2 c a

+ + +


v = 6 a b, b c, c a

+ + +


v = 12 [ a b c ] v = 60
Q 4
IIT JEE 2013 Advanced : Question Paper & Solution (Paper II) (33)

33
(R) given
( )
1
a b
2
= 20
a b = 40 (1)
Area of triangle with adjacent sides

( )
2a 3b + and
( )
a b is given as
=
( ) ( )
1
2a 3b a b
2
+
=
( )
1
5 a b
2
= 100
R 1
(S) given a b = 30
area of parallelogram with sides
a b + and a is given as
area =
( )
a b a +
= b a = 30
S 2
P Q R S
3 4 1 2 Answer is (C)
58. Consider the lines
1 2
x 1 y z 3 x 4 y 3 z 3
L : , L :
2 1 1 1 1 2
+ + +
= = = =

and the planes


P
1
: 7x + y + 2z = 3, P
2
: 3x + 5y 6z = 4. Let ax + by + cz = d be the equation of
the plane passing through the point of intersection of lines L
1
and L
2
, and
perpendicular to planes P
1
and P
2
.
Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given
below the lists :

List I List II
P a = 1. 13
Q b = 2. 3
R c = 3. 1
S d = 4. 2
Codes :
P Q R S
(A) 3 2 4 1
(B) 1 3 4 2
(C) 3 2 1 4
(D) 2 4 1 3
58. (A)
Let L
1
:
x 1
2

=
y
1
=
z 3
1
+
= t
and L
2
:
x 4
1

=
y 3
1
+
=
z 3
2
+
= s
any point on L
1
is M
1
(2t + 1, t, t3)
and any point on L
2
is M
2
(s + 4, s 3, 2s 3)
(34) Vidyalankar : IIT JEE 2013 Advanced : Question Paper & Solution
34
at the point on integration
2t + 1 = s + 4 (1)
t = s 3 (2)
t 3 = 2s 3 (3)
Solving (1), (2) and (3) we get
t = 2 and s = 1
M
1
M
2
(5, 2, 1)

Also if the plane is perpendicular to P
1
and P
2
then
7a + b + 2c = 0 (4)
and 3a + 5b 6c = 0 (5)
b = 3a; c = 2a
hence the plane becomes,
ax 3ay 2az = d (6)
using M
1
or M
2
in (6) we get
5a + 6a + 2a = d d = 13a
the plane becomes
ax 3ay 2az = 13a
or x 3y 2z = 13 (a 0)
(P) a = 1 P 3
(Q) b = 3 Q 2
(R) c = 2 R 4
(S) d = 13 S 1

P Q R S
3 2 4 1

59. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below
the lists :

List I List II
P
( ) ( )
( ) ( )
1 2
2
1 1
4
2
1 1
cos tan y ysin tan y
1
y
y
cot sin y tan sin y




+


+


+



takes value 1.
1 5
2 3
Q
If cos x + cos y + cos z = 0 = sin x + sin y + sin z then possible
value of
x y
cos
2

is
2.
2
R

If cos x cos 2x sin xsin 2xsec x cos xsin 2xsec x
4
cos x cos 2x
4

+ =



+ +



then possible value of sec x is
3.
1
2

S
If
( )
( ) ( )
1 2 1
cot sin 1 x sin tan x 6 , x 0

= ,
then possible value of x is
4. 1

IIT JEE 2013 Advanced : Question Paper & Solution (Paper II) (35)

35
Codes :
P Q R S
(A) 4 3 1 2
(B) 4 3 2 1
(C) 3 4 2 1
(D) 3 4 1 2
59. (B)
(P) Now,
( ) ( )
( ) ( )
1/2
1 1
4
2
1 1
cos tan y y sin tan y
1
y
y
cot sin y tan sin y



+

+

+


=
1/2
2
1 1
2 2
4
2
2
1
1
2
1 y
cos cos y sin sin
1 y 1 y
1
y
y
y
1 y
tan
cot cot tan
y 1 y





+


+ +


+




+








=
1/2
2
2
2 2
4
2
2
2
1 y
1 y 1 y 1
y
y
1 y y
y
1 y



+


+ +
+


= 1
P 4
(Q) From the given equations we have
cos z = (cos x + cos y) (1)
sin z = (sin x + sin y) (2)
Squaring and adding (1) and (2) we get
1 = cos
2
x + cos
2
y + 2 cos x cos y + sin
2
x + sin
2
y + 2 sin x sin y
2 + 2 cos (x y) = 1
cos (x y) =
1
2


2
x y
2 cos 1
2



=
1
2


x y
cos
2



=
1
2

Q 3
(R) The given equation can be simplified as
2sin sin x cos 2x
4

= sin 2x sec x (cos x sin x)


2 sin x cos 2x = sin 2x sec x (cos x sin x)

1
sin 2x cos 2x
2
= ( ) sin 2x cos x sin x
(36) Vidyalankar : IIT JEE 2013 Advanced : Question Paper & Solution
36
( )
cos 2x
sin 2x cos x sin x
2




= 0
( )
2 2
cos x sin x
sin x cos x sin x
2


2


= 0

cos x sin x
sin 2x (cos x sin x) 1
2
+



= 0
( ) sin 2x cos x sin x sin x 1
4

+


= 0
x =
4

sec x = 2
R 2

(S) Now,
( )
1 2
cot sin 1 x

=
1
2
x
cot cot
1 x






( )
1 2
cot sin 1 x

=
2
x
1 x
(1)
and
( ) ( )
1
sin tan x 6

=
1
2
x 6
sin sin
1 6x




+



( ) ( )
1
sin tan x 6

=
2
x 6
1 6x +
(2)
From (1) and (2) we get
2
x
1 x
=
2
x 6
1 6x +
(
x 0
)
Solving this we x
2
=
5
12

or x =
1 5
2 3

S 1

P Q R S
4 3 2 1

60. A line L : y = mx + 3 meets y axis at E (0, 3) and the arc of the parabola
y
2
= 16x, 0 y 6 at the point F(x
0
, y
0
). The tangent to the parabola at F(x
0
, y
0
)
intersects the yaxis at G(0, y
1
). The slope m of the line L is chosen such that the
area of the triangle EFG has a local maximum.
Match List I and List II and select the correct answer using the code given below
the lists :

IIT JEE 2013 Advanced : Question Paper & Solution (Paper II) (37)

37
List I List II
P m = 1.
1
2

Q Maximum area of EFG is 2. 4
R y
0
= 3. 2
S y
1
= 4. 1
Codes :
P Q R S
(A) 4 1 2 3
(B) 3 4 1 2
(C) 1 3 2 4
(D) 1 3 4 2

60. (A)













Tangent at P(x
0
, y
0
) to y
2
= 16x is yy
0
= 2 4(x + x
0
)
S0, G =
0
0
8x
0,
y




As F (x
0
, y
0
) lies on y
2
= 16x

2
0
y = 16x
0
(1)
=
1
2
EG x
0

=
2
0 0
0
8x y 1
3
2 y 16





=
0
0 0
y 1
[3y 8x ]
2 16

=
2 3
0 0
1
[6y y ]
64
(2)
F(x
0
, y
0
) = (1, 4) (0, y
1
) =
0
0
8x
0,
y




E
G
y
2
= 16x
(38) Vidyalankar : IIT JEE 2013 Advanced : Question Paper & Solution
38
=
2
0 0
1
[12y 3y ]
64

= 0 3y
0
(4 y
0
) = 0
y
0
= 0 or y
0
= 4

0
y 4 =
=
0
1
[12 6y ]
64
< 0
local maximum when y
0
= 4
So, put in (2) y
0
= 4,

max
=
2 3
1
[6 4 4 ]
64
=
1
[6 4]
4
=
1
2

From (1),
2
0
y = 16x
0

16 = 16x
0

x
0
= 1
y
1
=
0
0
8x
y
=
8.1
4
= 2
Line GF,
y 3
x

=
4 3
1 0


y = x + 3
So, slope m = 1
Hence, (A) option correct.







IIT JEE 2013 Advanced : Question Paper & Solution (Paper II) (39)

39

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