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1).

Limbic system includes all the following structures except:


A. Amygdala
B. Hippocampal gyri
C. anterior cingulate gyrus
D. Basal ganglia
Answer Key
2) Spaces between Schwann cells of neurons are called;
A. Nodes of Ranvier
B. Synapse
C. Nissl Bodies
D. ventricles
Answer Key
3). Ribosomes of the nervous cells are called:
A. Schwann Cells
B. Nissl Bodies
C. Nuclei
D.Ganglia
Answer Key
4). The term which refers to muscular hypertonicity with increased resistance to stress:
A. Akinesia
B. Ataxia
C. Myoclonus
D. Spasticity
Answer Key
5). The three primary vesicles identified in the neural tube during the early stages of the development of the human brain
are all except:
A. Prosencephalon
B. Diencephalon
C. Mesencephalon
D. Rhombencephalon
Answer Key
6). The primary somatosensory cortex is located in the:
A. Anterior parietal lobe
B. Medial temporal lobe
C. Prefrontal area
D. Occipital lobe
Answer Key
7). The structures which are components of the basal ganglia are all except:
A. Caudate nucleus
B. Amygdala
C. Putamen
D. Globus pallidus
Answer Key
8). The hippocampus and the amygdala, which are components of the limbic system, are located:
A. anterior parital lobe
B. medial temporal lobe
C. medial frontal lobe
D. posterior parital lobe
Answer Key
9). The opening which connects the third ventricle with the fourth ventricle in the pons and the medulla is called: ANSWER
KEY
A. The cerebral aqueduct
B. The foramina of Monro
C. The interventricular foramina
D. Foramen of sylvius
Answer Key
10). The largest portion of the diencephalon consists of:
A. The Hypothalamus
B. Epithalamus
C. The thalamus
D. Pons
Answer Key
11). Brodmann's area 46 refers to:
A. Primary motor cortex
B. Primary auditory cortex
C. Dorsolateral prefrontal cortex
D. Primary visual cortex
Answer Key
12). The neuronal fibre bundles connecting opposite hemispheres are called:
A. Association fibers
B. Commissural fibers
C. Afferent fibres
D. Efferent fibres
Answer Key
13. The brain area involved in receptive language functions that are localized to the left hemisphere is called:
A. Wernicke's area
B. Brocas area
C. Cuadate Nucleus
D. Hippocampus
Answer Key
14. The cerebellum is located in the:
A. Middle cranial fossa
B. Posterior cranial fossa
C. Anterior cranial fossa
D. Cella tursica
Answer Key
15. The brain regions which constitute the hippocampal formation are all except:
A. Dentate gyrus
B. Hippocampus
C. Subicular complex
D. Putamen
Answer Key
16. The monoamines neurotransmitters are all the following except:
A. Serotonin
B. Norepinephrine
C. Dopamine
D. GABA
Answer Key
17. Brain neurotransmitter serotonin is produced from:
A. Raphe nuclei
B. Substantia niagra
C. locus ceruleus
D. Amygdala
Answer Key
18. Dopamine pathways in the brain include all except:
A. Nigrostriatal pathway
B. Mesocorticolimbic pathway
C. Mesopontine complex
D. Tuberohypophyseal pathway
Answer Key
19. The catecholamines are synthesized from the amino acid:
A. Alanine
B. Tyrosine
C. Taurine
D. Glycine
Answer Key
20. Which of the following neurotransmitters is NOT an amine:
A. dopamine
B. norepinephrine
C. serotonin
D. glutamate
Answer Key

Answer Key
1. D 2.A 3.B 4.D 5.B 6.A 7. B 8. B 9.A 10.C
11. C 12. B 13. A 14. B 15.D 16. D 17.A 18.C 19. B 20 .D



1. Which of the following manifestations is associated with a raised level of cortosone and ACTH?
A. Schizophrenia
B. Affective disturbances
C. Confusion
D. Dementia
Answer Key
2. The part of brain involved in the process by whichSeptember 1, 2013
A. Corpus callosum
B. Basal ganglia
C. Hippocampus
D. Cerebral cortex

3. Recognized functions of reticular activating system includes
A. Sleep and arousal
B. Fine motor skills
C. Memory and higher order thinking
D. Vision and recognition

4. The limbic system regulates
A. Sex and mating activity
B. Fighting and fleeing
C. Feeding
D. Aggression
E. All of the above

5. Which of the following conditions have the best evidence for brain dysfunction?
A. Delirium
B. Simple phobia
C. Generalized anxiety disorder
D. Brief psychotic disorder

6. The monoamines neurotransmitters are all the following except:
A. Serotonin
B. Norepinephrine
C. Dopamine
D. GABA
Answer Key
7. Brain neurotransmitter serotonin is produced from:
A. Raphe nuclei
B. Substantia niagra
C. locus ceruleus
D. Amygdala
Answer Key
8. Dopamine pathways in the brain include all except:
A. Nigrostriatal pathway
B. Mesocorticolimbic pathway
C. Mesopontine complex
D. Tuberohypophyseal pathway
Answer Key
9. The catecholamines are synthesized from the amino acid:
A. Alanine
B. Tyrosine
C. Taurine
D. Glycine
Answer Key
10. Which of the following neurotransmitters is NOT an amine:
A. dopamine
B. norepinephrine
C. serotonin
D. glutamate
Answer Key
11.

Answer Key
1. B 2. C 3. A 4. E 5. A
6. D 7.A 8.C 9. B 10 .D

Neuropsychiatry

1. Which of the following condition is believed to be caused by chronic infection of the brain by the spirochete Treponema
pallidum?
A. General paresis of the insane (GPI)
B. Huntington's Chorea
C. Parkinson's disease
D. CreutzfeldtJakob disease (CJD)
Answer Key
2. Disorientation and visual hallucinations are hallmark of
A. Delirium
B. Schizophrenia
C. Mania
D. Depersonalization syndrome
Answer Key
3. Clouding of consciousness is characteristic of
A. Schizophrenia
B. Dementia
C. Hysteria
D. Delirium
Answer Key
4. Delusions in delirium are
A. Unshakable
B. Frightening
C. Self-reference
D. Nihilistic
Answer Key
5. Impaired consciousness, visual hallucinations, hyperactivity and fragmentary delusions are typically seen in
A. Dementia
B. Delirium
C. Schizophrenia
D. Delusional disorder
Answer Key
6. Features of delirium are all, except
A. Altered sensorium
B. Clouding of consciousness
C. Visual hallucinations
D. Fast EEG rhythm
Answer Key
7. Delirium tremens is associated with all, except
A. Rapid pulse
B. Clouding of consciousness
C. Hypothermia
D. Coarse tremors
E. Albuminuria
Answer Key
8. Patients suffering from which of the following conditions are also called "Sundowners"?
A. Schizophrenia
B. Dementia
C. Alcoholic hallucinosis
D. Delirium
Answer Key
9. Visual hallucinations, illusions, fugue, disorientation are typical features of
A. Delirium
B. Dementia
C. Schizophrenia
D. Dissociative disorders
Answer Key
10. A delirium associated with glossitis, stomatitis, and dermatitis is suggestive of
A. Porphyria
B. Myxoedema
C. Pellagra
D. Wernicke's syndrome
Answer Key
11. The most common post-operative psychiatric condition is
A. Delusional disorder
B. Delirium
C. Depression
D. Mania
E. personality disorders
Answer Key
12. To prevent and treat delirium tremens, it must be recognized that
A. Electrolyte imbalance should be corrected
B. Patient must be well hydrated
C. Onset occurs 72-96 hours after alcohol withdrawal
D. All are true
Answer Key
13. The preferred drug of treatment in delirium is
A. Chlorpromazine
B. Thioridazine
C. Clozapine
D. Resperidone
E. Haloperidol
Answer Key
14. The most common cause of dementia is
A. Multiple sclerosis
B. General paresis of insane
C. Alzheimer's disease
D. Multi infarct lesion
Answer Key
15. Which of the following is the most accurate in regard to dementia?
A. Impairment of memory
B. Reversible
C. Auditory hallucination
D. Primary delusions
Answer Key

ANSWER KEY
1. A 2. A 3. D 4. B 5. B
6. D 7. C 8. B 9. A 10. C
11. B 12. D 13. E 14. C 15. A

1. Presence of which of the following features separates delirium from most other psychiatric disorders?
A. Depressed mood
B. Impairment of memory
C. Elevation of mood
D. Impairment of consciousness
Answer Key
2. Korsakoff's psychosis is due to intake of
A. Cannabis
B. Opium
C. Amphetamine
D. Alcohol
Answer Key
3. Korsakoff's psychosis is due to the deficiency of
A. Thiamine
B. Vitamin B12
C. Riboflavin
D. Biotin
Answer Key
4. Korsakoff's psychosis is typically associated with all except
A. Inability to learn new material
B. Bradycardia
C. Confabulation
D. Disorientation of time
Answer Key
5. In Korsakoff's psychosis, the lesion is located in
A. Uncinate body
B. Mamilary body
C. Cingulate gyrus
D. Frontal lobe
Answer Key
6. The following vitamin is used to treat Korsakoff's psychosis
A. Vit A
B. Vit B1
C. Vit B12
D. Pyridoxine
Answer Key
7. Wernicke's encephalopathy may be prevented by
A. IV saline
B. Large amount of IV glucose
D. Thiamine supplement
D. Diazepam
Answer Key
8. In Wernicke's encephalopathy, the symptom which which responds most promptly to treatment is
A. Gait
B. Occular manifestations
C. Dementia
D. Peripheral neuropathy
Answer Key
9. Psychogenic amnesia is characterized by
A. Confabulation
B. Patchy impairment of personal memories
C. Anterograde amnesia
D. Retrograde amnesia
Answer Key
10. All the following are differential diagnosis of senile dementia, except
A. Uraemia
B. Anaemia
C. Decompensated heart disease
D. Pulmonary disease
E. Schizophrenia
Answer Key
11. Treatment of senile dementia includes all the following, except
A. Education of the family
B. Adequate lighting, especially at night
C. Avoidance of social isolation
D. Stimulating associates
D. Electroconvulsive therapy
Answer Key
12. Astasia-Abasia is seen in
A. Alzeihmer's disease
B. Parkinsonism
C. Hysterical conversion disorder
D. Schizophrenia
Answer Key
13. Mesial temporal lobe epilepsy is aasociated with
A. Atonic seizures
B. Simple partial seizures
C. Complex partial seizures
D. Generalised tonic-clonic seizures
Answer Key
14. Which of the following is most epileptogenic?
A. Haemorrahagic stroke
B. Thrombotic stroke
C. Embolic stroke
D. Lacunar infarct
Answer Key
15. Alzeihmer's disease is associated with
A. Chromosome 19
B. Chromosome 21
C, Chromosome 20
D, Chromosome 22
Answer Key

ANSWER KEY
1. D 2. D 3. A 4. B 5. B
6. B 7. C 8. B 9. B 10.E
11. E 12. C 13. C 14. D 15. B


Substance Abuse Quiz- 1
1. Morphine is extracted from www. currentnursing.com
A. Cajanus cajan
B. Cannabis sativa
C. Papaver somniferum
D. Rauwolfia serpentina
Answer Key
2. Which of the following hallucinogens is NOT a synthetically created drug?
A. Psylocybin www. currentnursing.com
B. LSD
C. PCP
D. MDMA
Answer Key
3. Which of the following statements about marijuana ia TRUE?
A. Marijuana is not physically addictive
B. It is safe to drive under the influence of pot.
C. Marijuana is healthier than tobacco.
D. Short-term memory is enhanced by smocking marijuana.
Answer Key
4. "Magic mushrooms" are the source of:
A. Marijuana
B. Psylocybin
C. Mescaline
D. Ecstasy
Answer Key
5. The mechanism of action of alcohol on the brain is atributed to
A. release of GABA
B. release of dopamine
C. suppression of acetylecholine
D. release of epinephrine
Answer Key
6. Which of the following is a stimulant?
A. Alcohol
B. diazepam
C. PCP
D. barbiturates
Answer Key
7. Which of the following is a synthetically produced substance?
A. Nicotine
B. Amphetamine
C. Caffeine
D. Cocaine
Answer Key
8. ICD-10 diagnostic criteria for acute intoxication include:
A. clear evidence of recent use of a psychoactive substance
B. symptoms or signs of intoxication compatible with the known actions of the particular substance
C. symptoms or signs present cannot be accounted for by a medical disorder unrelated to substance use
D. All of the above.
Answer Key
9. Whic of the following is NOT a criteria for diagnosis of dependence syndrome in ICD-10 classification.
A. Strong desire or sense of compulsion to take the substance
B. Physiological withdrawal state
C. Evidence of tolerance
D. Episodic use of the substance or dipsomania
Answer Key
10. Which of the following drug is deterrent agent in the treatment of alcohol dependence syndrome?
A. Acamprosate
B. Naltrexone
C. Disulfiram
D. Buproprion
Answer Key
11. Lacrimation, rhinorrhea, pin-point pupils, sweating,diarrhoea, and muscle cramps are charecteristic of: www.
currentnursing.com
A. Alcohol withdrawal syndrome
B. Cannabis withdrawal syndrome
C. Opium withdrawal syndrone
D. Cocaine withdrawal syndrome

12. In opium ovedose, naloxone is administered as
A. 10 mg IM
B. 2 mg IV
C. 100 mg orally
D. 5 mg s/c

13. Detoxification of opium is done with
A. Methadone
B. Chlordiazeproxide
C. Diazepam www. currentnursing.com
D. Disulfiram

14. "Flash back phenomenon" is common with
A. Opium
B. Cannabis
C. Nicotine
D. Alcohol

15. Which of the following is a synthetic derivative of opium?
A. Morphine
B. Codeine
C. Papaverine
D. Heroin


ANSWER KEY
1. C 2. A 3. A 4. B 5. A
6. C 7. B 8. D 9. D 10. B
11. C 12. B 13. A 14.B 15. D


1. Heroin is a form of: www. currentnursing.com
A. Tobacco
B. Poppy
C. Datura
D. Cannabis
Answer Key
2. LSD is taken from
A.Fungus
B. Lichen
C. Alga
D. Bacterium
Answer Key
3. An opiate narcotic is
A. Bhang
B. Charas
C. Heroin www. currentnursing.com
D. Nicotine
Answer Key
4. Which of the following drug functions as a CNS depressant?
A. Amphetamine
B. Caffeine
C. Opium
D. Cocaine
Answer Key
5. Which of the following is a hallucinogen?
A. LSD
B. Heroin
C. Cocaine
D. Morphine
Answer Key
6. Slow respiration, slow pulse, and consrtiction of pupil occures due to drug addiction of
A. Morphine and opium
B. Cocaine and heroin
C. Alcohol and thalidomide
D. Nicotine and caffeine
Answer Key
7. Stimulant cocaine is obtained from
A. Rauwolfia
B. Erythroxylon
C. Papaver
D. Eucalyptus
Answer Key
8. Hashish and Ganja are obtained from
A. Erythroxylon
B. Papaver www. currentnursing.com
C. Cannabis
D. Theobroma
Answer Key
9. Synthetic drugs structurally related to adrenaline are
A. Amphetamines
B. Barbiturates
C. Hallucinogens
D. Analgesics
Answer Key
10. Brown sugar is
A. Diacetyl morphine hydrochloride
B. Theophylline
C. Lorazepam
D. Metherdine
Answer Key
11. Diacetyl morphine is
A. Morphine
B. Heroin
C. Cocaine
D. Hashish
Answer Key
12. Which of the following is a matching pair?
A. LSD-narcotic www. currentnursing.com
B. Heroin-psychotropic
C. Amphetamine-stimulant
D. Benzodiazepenes-analgesics
Answer Key
13. Which one is correct statement about psychotropic drug?
A. Morphine leads to delusions and disturbed emotions
B. Barbiturates cause relaxation and temporary euphoria
C. Opium stimulates nervous system and causes hallucinations
D. Hashish causes after-thought perceptions and hallucinations
Answer Key
14. Which of the following drug has the highest potential for physical dependence?
A. Opiods
B. Cannabis
C. Cocaine
D. LSD www. currentnursing.com
E. MDMA
Answer Key
15. The CAGE questionnaire consists of
A. 10 questions
B. 14 questions
C. 4 questions
D. 20 questions
Answer Key

ANSWER KEY
1. B 2. A 3. C 4. c 5. A
6. A 7. B 8. C 9. A 10. D
11. B 12. C 13. D 14. A 15. C






1. The drug of choice in the management of alcohol withrawal is
A. Barbiturates
B. Benzodiazepines
C. Disulfiram
D. Acamprosate
Answer Key
2. Which of the following is the most dependence-producing derivative of opium?
A. Meperidine
B. Diphenoxylate
C. Methadone
D. Heroin
Answer Key
3. Common street name of cocaine is
A. Smack
B. Brown sugar
C. Crack
D. Angel dust
Answer Key
4. Which of the following is known to cause disulfiram-ethanol like reaction?
A. Propranolol www. currentnursing.com
B. Haloperidol
C. Ciprofloxacin
D. Metronidazole
Answer Key
5. Which of the following is NOT a cannabis preparation?
A. Smack
B. Charas
C. Ganja
D. Hashish
Answer Key
6. Elevated mean corpuscular volume (MCV) value is an indicator of
A. Thiamine deficiency www. currentnursing.com
B. Nicotine dependence
C. Alcohol dependence
D. Opium dependence www. currentnursing.com
Answer Key
7. Which of the following term is NOT used in ICD-10 classification on substance use disorders?
A. Acute intoxication
B. Harmful use
C. Dependence syndrome
D. Addiction syndrome
E. Withdrawal state
Answer Key
8. Which of the following investigation is related to diagnosis of alcohol dependence?
A. MCV
B. Serum CPK-MB
C. Serum Prolactin Levels
D. VDRL
Answer Key
9. Which of the following instrument is used for alcohol dependence screening?
A. SANS www. currentnursing.com
B. HDRS
C. T-BOCS
D. MAST
E. SCAN
Answer Key
10. GGT (gamma-glutyl transaminase) is eleveated in
A. Cannabis dependence
B. Nicotine dependence
C. Heroin dependence
D. Alcohol dependence
Answer Key
11. Compulsory-drinking is also called
A. Dipsomania
B. Pyromania
C. Trichotillomania
D. Dyslexia
Answer Key
12. Wernicke's encephalopathy is atributed to
A. Severe riboflavin deficiency
B. Excessive blood alcohol content
C. Sever thamine deficiency
D. Excessive GGT levels
Answer Key
13. Which of the following is NOT a contraindication for use of disulfiram?
A. Recent CAD
B. CCF
C. History of psychosis
D. Seizure disorder
E. Nicotine dependence
Answer Key
14. Which of the following is an anti-craving agent used in the management of alcohol dependence syndrome?
A. Disulfiram www. currentnursing.com
B. Lorazepam
C, Citrated Cacium Carbimide
D. Acamprosate www. currentnursing.com
E. Metronidazole
Answer Key
15. "Chasing the dragon" refers to the smocking of
A. Nicotine
B. Heroin
C. LSD
D. MDMA
Answer Key

ANSWER KEY www. currentnursing.com
1. B 2. D 3. C 4.D 5. A
6. C 7. D 8. A 9.D 10. D
11. A 12. C 13. E 14. D 15.B









1. "Dypsomania" is related to
A. Compulsion to drink alcohol
B. Impulsive stealing
C. Compulsion to drink water
D. Compulsive smocking
Answer Key
2. Following biochemical changes are seen in chronic alcohol dependence, EXCEPT;
A. Osteoporosis
B. Hypertriglyceridemia
C. Abnormally high pyruvate
D. Hyperglycemia
Answer Key
3. Vitamin deficiencies are usually associated with
A. Obesity www. currentnursing.com
B. Acrophobia
C. Claustrophobia
D. Alcohol dependence
Answer Key
4. Disulfiram therapy is indicated in
A. Acute alcohol intoxication
B. Acute opium intoxication
C. Alcohol dependence
D. Cannabis dependence
Answer Key
5. The drug of choice in alcohol-induced psychosis is
A. Disulfiram
B. Haloperidol
C. Diazepam
D. Imipramine
Answer Key
6. In chronic drug addicts there is hyperplasia of
A. Golgi apparatus
B. Mitochondria
C. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum
D. Lysosome
Answer Key
7. Loss of euphoric effect of morphine with regular use is due to
A. Decreased number of receptors
B. Tolerance of receptors
C. Antagonists
D. Down regulation
Answer Key
8. Physical withdrawal symptoms are most often seen with
A. Cannabis
b. LSD
C. Morphine
D. Alcohol
Answer Key
9. Which of the following symptoms may be seen in opium withdrawal?
A. Tremors www. currentnursing.com
B. Lacrimation
C. Dry nose and mouth
D. Constipation
Answer Key
10. Methadone maintenance is a mode of treatment in
A. Alcohol dependence
B. Heroin dependence
C. Barbiturate dependence
D. Cannabis dependence
Answer Key
11. Which of the following agents is commonly known as meth, speed, crank, CR, wire, and jib?
A. Lysergic acid diethylamide
B. Pemoline
C. Methylphenidate
D. Methamphetamine
Answer Key
12. Which of the following drugs is widely known as Ritalin /Concerta for treatment of AHD?
A. Methylphenidate
B. Amphetamine
C. Methamphetamine
D. Mazindol
Answer Key
13. Amphetamine type stimulants (ATS) are known to cause all, EXCEPT
A. Productivity enhancement
B. Weight gain
C. Euphoria
D. Hypervigilance
Answer Key
14. Which of the following substances is associated highest risk of cardiac abnormalities?
A. Cocaine
B. Nicotine
C. Cannabis
D. Methdone
Answer Key
15. "Angel dust" is a street name for
A. Cannabis
B. Heroin
C. Phencyclidine
D. Nicotine
Answer Key
ANSWER KEY www. currentnursing.com
1. A 2. D 3. D 4. C 5. B
6. A 7. B 8. C 9. B 10. B
11. D 12. A 13. B 14. A 15. C













1. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic symptom in opium withdrawal?
A. Piloerection
B. Insomnia
C. Constipation
D. Increased nasal secretions
Answer Key
2. Which of the following agents is NOT a hallucinogen?
A. Cocaine
B. Mescaline
C. Amphetamine
D. LSD
Answer Key
3. The active content of Hashish is
A. Tetrahydrocannabinol
B. Lysergic acid diethylamide
C. Morphine
D. Mescaline
Answer Key
4. Which of the following agents is associated with flashback phenomenon?
A. Barbiturates
B. Morphine
C. Cannabis
D. Lysergic acid diethylamide
Answer Key
5. Which of the following substances cause the least physical withdrawal symptoms?
A. Morphine
B. Cannabis
C. Pethidine
D. Alcohol
Answer Key
6. Which of the following symptoms is NOT associated with abuse of amphetamine?
A. Flushing
B. Paranoid delusions
C. Auditory hallucinations
D. Tremors
Answer Key
7. Which of the following condition is associated with chronic alcohol dependence?
A. Wernicke's encepahalopathy
B. Laennnec's cirrhosis
C. Delirium tremens
D. Pancreatits
E. All of the above
Answer Key
8. Corpus callosum degeneration found in chronic alcohol dependence is also termed as
A. Wenicke's encepahalopathy
B. Korsakoff's psychosis www. currentnursing.com
C. Marchiafava-Bignami disease
D. Mallori-Weis tears
Answer Key
9. Disulfiram blocks the breakdown of which product of alcohol?
A. Acetatic acid
B. Alcohol dehydrogenase
C. Acetaldehyde
D. Dopamine
Answer Key
10. A common drug causing Disulfiram-ethanol reaction (DER) is
A. Chloroquine
B. Metronidazole
C. Ciprofloxacin
D. Metaprolol
Answer Key
11. Therapeutic community is most useful in persons with
A. Chronic schizophrenia
C. Phobic anxiety disorders
C. Drug dependence
D. Personality disorders
Answer Key
12. Recent intake of heroin can be determined by
A. Tremors
B. Edema
C. Excessive perspiration
D. Pupilary constriction
Answer Key
13. Methylenedioxymethamphetamine (MDMA) is also known as
A. Ecstasy
B. Smack
C. Hashish
D. Angel dust
Answer Key
14. Intermittent or spree drinking is categorized as
A. Epsilon alcoholism
B. Alpha alcoholism
C. Beta alcoholism
D. Gamma alcoholism
E. Delta alcoholism
Answer Key
15. Loss of euphoric effect of morphine with regular use is due to
A. Decrease in number of receptors
B. Tolerance of receptors
C. Antagonists
D. Down regulation
Answer Key
ANSWER KEY www. currentnursing.com
1. C 2. C 3. A 4. D 5. B
6. A 7. E 8. C 9.C 10.B
11. C 12. D 13. A 14. A 15. B

Obsessive Compulsive Disorders-I
This page was last updated on March 21, 2011
1. Charecteristics of OCD include all the folowing, EXCEPT:
A. Obsessive thoughts
B. Compulsive acts
C. Cosiderable degree of anxiety
D. Ordered flight of ideas


Answer Key
2. Obsessional personality disorder is also called:
A. Anankastic personality disorder
B. Schizoid personality disorder
C. Histrionic personality disorder
D. Paranoid personality disorder
Answer Key
3. Which of the following is most effective in OCD management?
A. Psychodynamic psychotherapy
B. Interpersonal psychotherapy
C. Cognitive behaviour therapy
D. Supportive psychotherapy
Answer Key
4. The drugs which have been shown to alleviate the symptoms of OCD include all, EXCEPT:
A. clomipramine
B. fluvoxamine
C. paroxetine
D. sertraline
E. thioridazine
Answer Key
5. Recurrent, intrusive, senseless ideas, thoughts, and images that are ego-dystonic and involuntary are termed as
A. Obsessions
B. Compulsions
C. Hypochondreasis
D. Obstrusiveness
Answer Key
6. YaleBrown ObsessiveCompulsive Scale (Y-BOCS; Goodman et al. 1989) is a
A. 10-item, 40-point semistructured instrument
B. 8-item, 20-point semistructured instrument
C. 20-item, 40-point structured instrument
D. 20-item, 80-point structured instrument
Answer Key
7. Which of the following is the most acceptable etiologic hypothesis in OCD?
A. Dopamine hypothesis
B. Serotonin hypothesis
C. Acetylcholine hypothesis
D. Glutamate hypothesis
Answer Key
8. Which of the following is NOT included in the OCD spectrum disorders?
A. Trichotillomania
B. Tourette's disorder
C. Body dysmorphic disorder
D. Kleptomania
E. Schizotypal disorders
Answer Key
9. Which of the following is a charecteristic of OCD?
A. Denial of obsessive thoughts
B. An awareness of the senselessness of obsessions
C. Presence of auditary hallucinations
D. Presence of delusion of infidelity
Answer Key
10. The most common obsession is
A. fear of contamination
B. pathological doubt
C. need for symmetry
D. aggressive obsessions
Answer Key
11. Obsessive-compulsive symptoms are intimately linked with
A. Bipolar disorders
B. Autistic disorders
C. Tourette's disorder
D. ADHD
Answer Key
12. Psychodynamic explanation of obsessive compulsive disorders include
A. fixation during oral stage of psychosexual develpment
B. fixation during anal stage of psychosexual development.
C. fixations or conflicts during phalic phase of development
D. improper develpment of latency phase of psychosexual development
Answer Key
13. Which of the following defence mechanism is more common with OCD?
A. Sublimation
B. Projection
C. Denial
D. Undoing
Answer Key
14. Which of the following area of brain is known to be associated with OCD?
A. Reticular system
B. Nigrostraital pathway
C. Basal ganglia
D. Corpus callosum
Answer Key
15. Which of the following is a tricyclic antidepressant?
A. fluvoxamine
B. fluoxetine
C. Escitalopram
D. Clomipramine
E. Sertraline
Answer Key

ANSWER KEY
1. D 2. A 3. C 4. E 5. A
6. A 7. B 8. E 9. B 10. A
11. C 12. B 13. D 14. C 15.D



1. Defense mechanism in obsessive compulsive disorders is
A. Reaction formation
B. Displacement
C. Projection
D. Sublimation
Answer Key
2. Features of obsessive compulsive disorders include all, except
A. Punctuality
B. Perfection
C. Parsimonious
D. Demonstrative


Answer Key
3. Obsessive compulsive personality is characterized by
A. Severe and rigid conscience
B. Lack of normal capacity for relaxation
C. Underlying hostility
D. Fastidiousness
E. All of the above
Answer Key
4. A defense mechanism typical of obsessive compulsive disorders is
A. Denial
B. Undoing
C. Projection
D. Displacement
Answer Key
5. All of the following are features of obsessive compulsive disorders, except
A. Anxiety relieved by doing the act
B. Sense of guilt
C. Magical thought
D. Patient is aware of helplessness
Answer Key
6. All of the following are poor prognostic factors in obsessive compulsive disorders, except
A. Childhood onset
B. Obsessional premorbid personality
C. Dominant symptoms of depression and phobia
D. Long history of illness
Answer Key
7. Drug of choice in obsessive-compulsive disorders is
A. Haloperidol
B. Imipramine
C. Clomipramine
D. Nortriptyline
Answer Key
8. Which of the following drug is most appropriate for treatment of obsessive compulsive disorders?
A. Fluoxetine
B. Doxepine
C. Reboxetine
D. Clozapine
Answer Key
9. Which of the following technique is found to be effective in obsessive ruminations?
A. Psychoanalysis
B. Interpersonal therapy
C. Logo therapy
D. Thought stopping
Answer Key
10. Obsessive-compulsive behavior is believed to grow out of
A. Conflict with parents
B. Rigid compulsive mothering
C. Forced compliance
D. Repression in childhood age
E. All of the above
Answer Key
ANSWER KEY
1. A 2. D 3. E 4. B 5. B
6. C 7. C 8. A 9. D 10. E


Schizophrenia Quiz- I
This page was last updated on September 15, 2011
1. Eugen Bleuler renamed dementia precox as
A. Autism
B. Schizophrenia
C. Bipolar affective disorder
D. Melancholia
Answer Key
2. Bizarre and childish thinking, speech, and very disordered motor actions are characteristics of:
A. Catatonic schizophrenia
B. Paranoid schizophrenia
C. Undifferentiated schizophrenia
D. Disorganized/hebephrenic schizophrenia
Answer Key
3. First rank symptoms of schizophrenia (FRSS), which is widely accepted in making a clinical diagnosis of schizophrenia was
described by:
A. Kurt Schneider
B. Eugen Bleuler
C. Eric Erickson
D. Emil Kraepelin
Answer Key
4. First rank symptoms of schizophrenia (FRSS) include all the following, EXCEPT:
A. Third person/running commentary auditory hallucinations
B. Thought alienation phenomena
C. Passivity phenomenon
D. Mood disturbances
E. Delusional perception
Answer Key
5. Eugen Bleuler's characteristic symptoms (fundamental symptoms) of schizophrenia include all the following, EXCEPT:
A. Ambivalence
B. Autism
C. Affective disturbances
D. Apraxia
Answer Key
6. The first effective antipsychotic drug was:
A. Chlorpromazine
B. Thioridazine
C. Haloperidol
D. Trifluperazine
Answer Key
7. Prefrontal lobotomy was proposed as a treatment for serious mental illnesses by___________ in 1935.
A. Ugo Cerletti
B. Walter Cannon
C. Egas Moniz
D. Adolph Meyer
Answer Key
8. The preferred antipsychotic in poor medication compliance or high risk of relapse is:
A. A serotonin-dopamine antagonist
B. Clozapine
C. Injectable form of a long-acting antagonist (haloperidol/fluphenazine)
D. Aripiprazole
Answer Key
9. Clozapine is associated with a higher risk of _____________ than other antipsychotics.
A. extrapyramidal symptoms
B. seizures
C. neuroleptic malignant syndrome
D. anticholinergic side effects
Answer Key
10. Which of the following drugs is most safe in pregnant patients with acute schizophrenia?
A. Haloperidol
B. Chlorpromazine
C. Trifluperazine
D. Thioridazine
Answer Key
11. Which is not an important expressed emotion (EE) affecting the course of schizophrenia?
A. Over involvement
B. Hostility
C. Criticism
D. Non-sequential communication

12. Which is a characteristic finding in schizophrenia?
A. Larger than normal lateral ventricles
B. An underactive dopamine system in the brain
C. An underactive serotonin system
D. Presence of seizure attacks

13. Primary symptoms of schizophrenia according to Bleuler are all, EXCEPT
A. Disorders of affect
B. Loosening of associations
C. Ambivalance
D. Automatic obedience

14. The most frequent period of onset of schizophrenia is
A. Adolescence
B. Childhood
C. Middle age
D. Old age

15. The probability that children of a schizophrenic patient develop the disease is
A. Twice the general population
B. Five times the general population
C. Ten times the general population
D. Fifteen times the general population
E. Twenty five times the general population


ANSWER KEY
1. B 2. D 3. A 4. D 5. D
6. A 7. C 8. C 9. B 10. A
11. A 12. A 13. D 14. A 15. E








1. Schizoid personality is characterized by
A. Shy, quiet, passive, daydreaming, introverted
B. Dramatic, emotional, and erratic behavior
C. Eccentric behaviors and incongruous affect
D. Suspicious ideas and lack of trust
Answer Key
2. Which of the following affect least common in schizophrenia?
A. Ecstatic
B. Flat
C. Blunted
D. Incongruous

3. Schizophrenia is most closely associated with
A. Psthesis
B. Asthenic
C. Athletic
D. Dysplastic

4. Which of the following is NOT true about schizophrenia?
A. Literally means "splitting of mind"
B. Peak incidence is 15 to 30 years of age
C. People with low intelligence are more predisposed
D. Predominantly a disease of females

5. Bizarre somatic hallucinations are typical features of
A. Generalized anxiety disorder
B. Multiple personality
C. Hebephrenic schizophrenia
D. Simple schizophrenia

6. Disturbances of affect is a predominant feature in
A. Paranoid schizophrenia
B. Catatonic schizophrenia
C. Hebephrenic schizophrenia
D. Residual schizophrenia

7. Hebephrenic schizophrenia is characterized by
A. Marked disorganization and incongruous silly affect
B. Marked psychomotor disturbance with mutism
C. Marked persecutory and grandiose delusions
D. Social withdrawal and eccentric behaviours

8. A characteristic, which is least associated with paranoid schizophrenia is
A. Late onset
B. Delusion of grandiosity
C. Deterioration of personality
D. secondary depression

9. Which subtype of schizophrenia is characterized by disorders of volition?
A. Catatonic
B. Paranoid
C. Simple
D. Hebephrenic

10. Which of the following is NOT a feature of catatonic schizophrenia?
A. Negativism
B. Waxy flexibility
C. Echolalia
D. Flight of thoughts

11. Depot antipsychotics (e.g. Intramuscular fluphenazine deconate) is indicated in
A. When oral drug compliance is poor.
B. Hebephrenic schizophrenia
C. Catatonic schizophrenia
D. Refractory schizophrenia

12. Which of the following symptoms will respond early in schizophrenia when treated with antipsychotics?
A. Auditory hallucinations
B. Psychomotor retardation
C. Thought content
D. Interpersonal relationship

13. Which of the following characteristics is a good prognosis factor in schizophrenia?
A. Unmarried
B. Childhood onset
C. Presence of negative symptoms
D. Presence of delusions and hallucinations

14. Good prognosis features in schizophrenia include
A. Acute onset
B. Onset after 30 years
C. Supporting family
D. Treatment adherence
E. All of the above

15. Schizophrenia which has poor response to treatment and poor prognosis is
A. Paranoid
B. Catatonic
C. Undifferentiated
D. Hebephrenic
E. Post-schizophrenia depression


ANSWER KEY
1. A 2. A 3. B 4. D 5. C
6. C 7. A 8. C 9. A 10. D
11. A 12. A 13. D 14. E 15. D


Sexual Disorders - I
This page was last updated on March 18, 2011
1. According to Freud, the term used for "that force by which the sexual instinct is represented in the mind" is:
A. Narcissism
B. Condensation
C. Libido
D. Dispositions
Answer Key
2. Which of the following drug is least likely to cause sexual dyfunction?
A. Imipramine
B. Thioridazine
C. Captopril
D. Mirtazapine
Answer Key
3. "Studies in the Psychology of Sex (1896)" was written by
A. Havelock Ellis
B. Sigmund Freud
C. Ernst Graefenberg
D. Masters and Johnson
Answer Key
4. The phase of peaking of sexual pleasure, with release of sexual tension and rhythmic contraction of the perineal muscles and
pelvic reproductive organs, observed in male sexual cycle, is termed as
A. Desire
B. Excitement
C. Orgasm
D. Resolution
Answer Key
5. A sexual pain disorder reported in females is
A. Anorgasmia
B. Vaginismus
C. Peyronie's disease
D. Impotence
Answer Key
6. Persistant or recurrent tendency to observe unsuspecting persons, naked disrobing or engaged in sexual activity is termed as
A. Exhibitionism
B. Sadism
C. Voyeurism
D. Frotteurism
Answer Key
7. Priapism is a sexual dysfunction seen in treatment with
A. Chlorpromazine
B. Trazadone
C. Clozapine
D. Lithium
Answer Key
8. Excessive sexual desire in women is termed as
A. Satyriasis
B. Frigidity
C. Vaginismus
D. Nymphomania
Answer Key
9. As per Masters and Jhonson, Sensate Focus Technique is indicated in
A. Vaginismus
B. Premature ejaculation
C. Impotence
D. Paraphilia
Answer Key
10. Pelvic floor exercises to strengthen the pubococcygeus muscle is termed as
A. Kegel's exercises
B. Postural exercises
C. Isometric exercises
D. Sensate focus exercises
Answer Key
11. Squeeze technique (Seman's technique) is indicated in
A. Premature ejaculation
B. Vaginismus
C. Erectile dysfunction
D. Dyspareunia
Answer Key
12. Sildenafil citrate is administered in
A. Impotence
B. Erectile dysfunction
C. Paraphilias
D. Premature ejaculation
Answer Key
13. Which of the following is used as as intracavernosal injection in the differential diagnosis of organic and non-organic impotence?
A. Epinephrine
B. Xylocaine
C. Dopamine
D. Papaverine
Answer Key
14. Sexual gratification by rubbing against or touching a nonconsenting person is termed as
A. Frotteurism
B. Fetishism
C. Exhibitionism
D. Voyeurism
Answer Key
15. Which of the following is used for reducing male hypersexuality?
A. Papaverine
B. Cyproterone
C. Sildenafil
D. Alprostadil
Answer Key
ANSWER KEY
1. C 2. D 3. A 4.C 5.B
6. C 7. B 8. D 9. C 10. A
11. A 12. B 13. D 14. A 15. D


1. A systemic disease which is most frequently associated with secondary impotence is
A. Endocrine dysfunction
B. Multiple sclerosis
C. Hypertension
D. Diabetes mellitus
Answer Key
2. According to DSM-IV-TR classification, Vaginismus is classified under
A. Sexual Desire Disorders
B. Sexual Arousal Disorders
C. Orgasmic Disorders
D. Sexual Pain Disorders
Answer Key
3. The squeeze technique was devised for the treatment of
A. Frigidity
B. Primary impotence
C. Secondary impotence
D. Premature ejaculation
Answer Key
4. Getting sexual gratification by inflicting injuries to opposite partner is
A. Masichism
B. Sadism
C. Voyerism
D. Transvestism
Answer Key
5. Johnson and Masters are known for therapy of
A. Schizophrenia
B. Disscociative disorders
C. Sexual problems
D. Anxiety disorders
Answer Key
6. Essential ingredient of Masters and Johnson's treatment of impotence is
A. Reassurance
B. Adequate history taking
C. Avoidance of demand for performance
D. Therapeutic allience
Answer Key
7. Men with primary impotence
A. have no homosexual conflict
B. associated sex with dirtness and sinfullness
C. tend to be aggressive in sexual activities
D. have major systemic diseases
Answer Key
8. When considering components of human sexuality, which of the following is related to sexual function?
A. Gender identity
B. Orientation, intention
C. Desire, arousal, orgasm
D. Emotional satisfaction
Answer Key
9. The phosphodiesterase type 5 inhibitors (PDE-5i) are effective in
A. Male erectile disorder
B. Gender identity disorders
C. Paraphilias
D. Sexual pain disorders
Answer Key
10. Sildenafi is a
A. SSRI
B. Antipsychotic
C. PDE-5 inhibitor
D. Benzodiazepene
Answer Key
ANSWER KEY
1. D 2. D 3. D 4. B 5. C
6. C 7. B 8. C 9. A 10. C