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o f independent v a r i a b l e s t h a t i t t o o k t o e x p l a i n t h a t much
NOTE: R-squared o n l y i n d i c a t e s t h e p r o p o r t i o n o f v a r i a n c e
k -
- k -- k
, where
Fn-k-l S S ~ ~ 2~ ~ ~
1 - R
n - k - 1 n - k - 1
k = # independent v a r i a b l e s i n t h e r e g r e s s i o n e q u a t i o n .
Some p o i n t s w o r t h n o t i n g r e g a r d i n g t h i s F - t e s t :
S S ~ ~ ~
21 Regression Mean Square =
k
3
31 Mean Square E r r o r = - -3 ~ ~ ~ ~ ~
a l l independent v a r i a b l e s t o g e t h e r e x p l a i n a p r o p o r t i o n o f
t h e v a r i a n c e i n t h e dependent v a r i a b l e t h a t i s g r e a t e r t h a n
168
d. Extending the above illustration, a 95% confidence interval for the
partial correlation between math aptitude and creativity can be found
as follows:
T(rMC.GR) = T(-.5) = -.5493
T(-.5) f 1.96
1 25 - 31 - 2 OR (-.9876, -.1110)
1. You will only be given the for~iiulas for calculating partial regression
slopes in the "trivariate" case (i.e., in the case with two independent
variables). The formulas for standardized partial slopes are as
foll ows:
A
NOTE: Standardized partial regression coefficients (/Ii) are sometimes
referred to as BETA WEIGHTS or as PATH COEFFICIENTS.
o f the variance i n Y.
a. I n t h e f i r s t case, t h e d a t a a r e c o n f i g u r e d as f o l l o w s :
Males = 1 m m
Income
Females = 0
Education
t h e magnitudes) o f b i v a r i a t e c o r r e l a t i o n s by s e e i n g how t h e y a r e
v i s i t t h e f o l l o w i n g website:
http://www.public.iastate.edu/-carlos/40l/1ectures/app1ets/guess
I n any case, t h e d a t a p o i n t s ( l a b e l e d w i t h m's and f ' s ) i n t h e above
f i g u r e appear t o be s l i g h t l y h i g h e r as one l o o k s f r o m l e f t t o r i g h t .
be s t a t i s t i c a l l y independent. F i n a l l y , i t should be c l e a r t h a t t h e
194
e d u c a t i o n i s e s t i m a t e d i n a r e g r e s s i o n i n which gender i s a l s o an
independent v a r i a b l e :
A A
Which i s MUCH ( ! ! ! ) l a r g e r t h a n ryX = .1 = /3 (where /3 i s t h e
1
s t a n d a r d i z e d s l o p e from t h e r e g r e s s i o n o f income on e d u c a t i o n ) .
COMMENTS :
p r e v e n t t h i s from o c c u r r i n g . )
t h e s t a n d a r d i z e d s l o p e i n t h e t r i v a r i a t e case) t h a t suppression
A
occurs ( i . e . , lall > lryXI ) whenever ryX * * (0.
1 1 rx1x2
I t always i s a c o u n t e r i n t u i t i v e f i n d i n g when t h e c o r r e l a t i o n s
(R
2
Y . X1 ... X k − RY2. X ... X )
(k − g )
1 g
Fk − g ,n−k −1 =
(1 − R 2
) , where
(n − k − 1)
Y . X1 ... X k
RY2. X 1 ... X k (or Rc2 ) is the proportion of variance explained in the complete model,
RY2. X ... X (or Rr2 ) is the proportion of variance explained in the reduced model, and
1 g
k and g are the respective degrees of freedom for the complete and reduced models.
Note that Pedhazur uses k1 (instead of k) and k2 (instead of g) here. Also please do not
mistake this F-test for the one mentioned earlier (Lecture notes, p. 168) and below (p. 3)
statistically significant.
a. To understand this, one must first understand the distinction between higher-order
Later in the course we shall multiply variables together to create new variables
of a “higher order” than any of the variables multiplied during their construction.
1
ii. Lower-order variables that are not themselves constructed from even-lower-order
variables are sometimes referred to as having marginal effects (as distinct from
should be avoided.
b. Two regression models are said to be hierarchically ordered if three conditions are
met:
ii. The independent variables in one model (namely, the reduced model) are a subset
of the independent variables in the other model (namely, the complete model).
iii. Neither the reduced model nor the complete model is misspecified.
1. Pedhazur raises this question on page 207 under the subheading, “shrinkage.”
2. If a dependent variable were unrelated to a set of independent variables, you would NOT
3. Instead, you would expect that the average proportion of variance explained by the
independent variables would equal the average proportion of variance explained per
2
residual degree of freedom. This is why the following F-test is used to evaluate the
RY2. X1... X k
Fk ,n−k −1 = k
(1 − R 2
)
(n − k − 1)
Y . X1 ... X k
Note that F equals 1 when the average proportion of variance explained by the k
independent variables equals the ratio of the proportion of the “left over” (or residual)
RY2. X1... X k
k =1
(1 − R 2
)
(n − k − 1)
Y . X1 ... X k
or that…
RY2. X 1 ... X k (n − k − 1 + k ) = k
k
RY2. X1... X k =
n −1
3
5. Accordingly, if you were to have a sample of n=5 and if with 2 independent variables you
explain half (50%) of the variance in Y, you should NOT get excited.
2
Radj
[
= 1 − 1 − RY2. X1... X k ]
n −1
n − k −1
Substituting our expected value of RY2. X 1 ... X k into this expression, we get…
k n −1
2
Radj = 1 − 1 −
n − 1 n − k − 1
n −1 k n − k −1
= 1− − = 1 − =0
n − k −1 n − k −1 n − k −1 .
k
2
7. Although Radj = 1 whenever RY2. X 1 .. X k = 1 , note that Radj
2
< 0 whenever RY2. X 1 ... X k < .
n −1
2
8. Radj is a measure of linear association greater than would be expected by chance (i.e., by
9. If one returns to the illustration on multiple regression that begins on p. 200 of your
lecture notes, recall that in the regression of HINCOME on PINCOME and REDUC
63 − 1
2
Radj = 1 − [1 − .431] = .412
63 − 2 − 1