SOLUTIONS FOR TEP0507

Solutions for questions 1 and 2:

1. If x > 0, y > 0 and z > 0 and xy
2
z
3
= k (a
constant),
(x + y + z) is minimum when x : y : z = 1 : 2 : 3
Let x, y, z be a, 2a, 3a respectively.
xy
2
z
3
= 108a
6
= 864 a
6
= 8
a = 2 x + y + z = 2 + 2 2 + 3 2
= 6 2 . Choice (1)

2. Time taken by P to fill
ths
4
3
of the tank
= 12 x
4
3
9 minutes
Time taken by Q to empty upto 1/4
th
of the
tank from 3/4
ths
of the tank = 1/2 x 20 = 10
minutes
Time taken for P again to fill upto 3/4
ths
of the
tank from 1/4
th
of the tank = 6 minutes.
This cycle (10 + 6) is respected twice more.
The time taken is 9 + (10 + 6) +(10 + 6) +
(10 + 6) or 57 minutes.
In the remaining three minutes Q will empty
3/20 of the tank.
The level of water after 1 hour is

5
3
20
12
20
3 15
20
3
4
3
= =

=
The water in the tank is
th
5
3
of the tank.
Choice (3)

Solutions for questions 3 and 4:

3. To descend, Jack takes 36 steps. Let the
escalator move down by n steps. Till runs 3
times as fast as Jack, but takes half the time to
ascend. Therefore, she climbs up (36) (3) / 2 or
54 steps while the exalator comes down by n/2
steps.
36 + n = 54
2
n
12.
And there are 36 + 12 or 54 6 or 48 steps of
the escalator, exposed to view at any given
time. The times that Jack and Jill take are in
the ratio 2 : 1. Therefore, their effective sppeds
are in the ratio 1 : 2 and the distances (or
number of steps) that they cover by the time
they meet are also in the ratio 1 : 2, i.e. Jack
effectively covers 16, while Jill effectively
covers 32. Actually Jack covers 12, the
escalator 4, and Jill covers 36. Choice (1)

4. Jacks normal speed is 3 times the speed of the
escalator. By the time Jack descends, the
escalator covers
4
1
the total distance.
If Jack doubles his sped, i.e. moves at 6 times
the speed of the escalator the escalator covers
only
7
1
of the total distance.
We assume the distance to be 4 (7) units.
Normally, the escalator would cover 7 units.
When Jack doubles his speed, the escalator
would cover 4 units, then saving
7
3
of the
time.
Choice (2)

Solutions for question 5 and 6:

A B C 6
5 D
----------------------------
E A B F G ..... (1)
F A G G H ..... (2)
-------------------------------------
F J D C F 8 ..... (3)

A B C D E F G H I
3 8 0
4 9 7 1 2 6

We see that G = 8 (and hence D = 3) and H =
0. There conclusions have been tabulated
above.
From (2), the units digit of 5C + 3 = G = 8 (
C is odd)
From (1), the units digit of 3B + (the carry
over from 3 C i.e., 0, 1 or 2) = B and the units
digit of 3A + (the carry over from 3B etc.) = A
We consider the following 3 possibilities.
(A) Units digit of 3B = B (B = 0, which is not
possible as H = 0) B = 5
(B) Units digit of 3B + 1 = B (No solutions)
(C) Units digit of 3B + 2 = B (B = 4 or 9)
If B = 5, 3B = 15 and 3A + 1 = EA, which is
not possible (Refer to B above)
If B = 4, 3B = 12 and the carry over of 2 from
3C implies C = 7 or 9, but 3A + 1 should be
EA, which is not possible (Refer to B above)
If B = 9, 3B = 27 and the carry over of 2 from
3C implies C = 7 and A has to be 4.
The multiplication is :

4 9 7 6
5 3
------------------------------------
1 4 9 2 8
2 4 8 8 0
------------------------------------
2 6 3 7 2 8
-----------------------------------
5. A = 4 Choice (1)

6. J = 6 Choice (2)
Solutions for questions 7 to 9:

7. The first three digits can be filled in 2 ways
either 535 or 553.
Since the number is even, the last digit has to
be 0, 2, 4, 6 or 8.
When the last digit5 is 8, the 4
th
, 5
th
, and 6
th

digits can be filled in 9, 9 and 9 ways
respectively.
the number of ways of forming a number
ending with 8 = 2 3 9 9 4 = 1944
the minimum number of telephone numbers
he must try to be certain
= 1458 + 1944 = 3402 Choice (1)

8. The given numbers are A = (18)
15
, B = (29)
12
,
C = (9)
20

Considering A and C: A = 18
15
= 2
15
x 9
15
and
C = 9
20

Comparing 2
15
x 9
5
, 2
15
= (2
3
)
5
= 8
5
and
this is < 9
5
and 9
20
> 9
15
x 8
5
= 18
15
(1)
As 29 is close to 32, which is 2
5
, let us
consider 32
12
. 32
12
> 29
12
(2
5
)
12
> 29
12

2
60
> 29
12
, (2
3
)
20
> 29
12
8
20
> 29
12

8
5
x 8
15
> 29
12
8
5
x 9
15
> 29
12
18
15
>
29
12
(2)
From (1) and (2), (9)
20
> (18)
15
> (29)
12
Choice (4)

9. When P is divided by D, the remainder is 13.
be156, but it is given as 2.
D must be equal to 156 2 = 154 or it must
be a factor of 154 greater than 13.
154 has a total of 8 factors (154 = 2
1
x 7
1
x 11
1
and
number of factors = (1 + 1) (1 + 1) (1 + 1) = 8) but
the factors less than 13 should not be considered
because one of the remainders is 13. 1, 2, 7 and
11 are excluded leaving four factors.
Choice (2)

Solutions for questions 10 to 21:

10. We consider below same way of forming the
cuboids. We have the minimum surface area
when all the dimensions of the cuboid are same.
b l h s
(1) 3 3 3 54
(2) 1 3 9 78
(3) 1 1 27 116
Hence, minimum surface is 2 (3 x 3 + 3 x 3 +
3 x 3) = 54 cm. Choice (1)

11. We can have squares of all sizes from side of 1
unit to side of 16 units.
Number of squares of size 1 x 1 = 16 = 256
because on one side of the chessboard there
are 16 squares of size 1 x 1.
Similarly there are 15 squares of 2 x 2 size on
one side and hence number of 2 x 2 squares =
15 = 225. Continuing on these lines, we have
the answer, as
16 + 15 + ....... + 1 =
6
) 1 n 2 )( 1 n )( n ( + +

where n = 16
=
6
33 17 16
= 8 x 17 x 11 = 1496
Choice (4)

12. a
2
+ b
2
+ c
2
ab bc ca = 0
2a
2
+ 2b
2
+ 2c
2
2ab 2bc 2ca = 0
(a b)
2
+ (b c)
2
+ (c a)
2
= 0
a = b, b = c, c = a
a = b = c.
Hence the triangle is equilateral.
Choice (4)

13. x
2
+ x 6 = 0
case 1: if x < 0
x
2
x 6 = 0
(x 3) (x + 2) = 0
x = 3, 2, but x < 0
x = 2
Case 2: if x 0
x
2
+ x 6 = 0 (x + 3) (x 2) = 0
x = 3, 2, but x > 0
x = 2
Total number of solutions for x is 2 (i.e., 2,
2) Choice (3)

14. The perfect squares below 100 are 1, 4, 9, 16,
25, 36, 49, 64, 81.
From the answer choices;
choice (1) can be obtained as 49 + 16 or 1 + 64
choice (3) can be obtained as 36 + 49 or 4 + 81
choice (4) can be obtained as 1 + 49 or 25 + 25
Choice (2) can be obtained as 49 + 9 and
the sum of any other perfect squares will not
give 58. Choice (2)

15. The graphs when plotted look as shown








Hence they do not interest beyond x = 0.
Choice (1)

16.







Let ABCD be the kite.
y
x
y =
x
2

y =
e
x

0
B
X
0
Y
0

(90 y)
0

(90 y)
0

Y
0
X
0

(90 x)
0

(90 x)
0
C
D
A
We join AC and BD. Let ABD = ADB =
x
o
and DBC = BDC = y
o

( BAC = 90 x
o
and BAC = 90
o
y
o
)
Given that BAC = BDC 90 x = y
(x + y) = 90
To find BAC + BCA = (90 x)
o
+
(90 y)
o

= 180 (x + y) = 90 Choice (2)

17. The roots of x 10x + 16 = 0 are x = 2, 8
Hence, roots of required equation = 1/4, 1/64
required equation is x
256
1
x
256
68
+ = 0
or 256x 68x + 1 = 0. Choice (3)

18. Let the cost of 100 gm be Rs.100
Jack has to give 110 gm worth of the quantity and
make 10% profit, He should sell at the 110 gm
at Rs.121
But this is after 10% discount on marked price
M.P. = 44 . 134
9 . 0
1
121 =

He has to mark up the price by 34.44%
over his cost price. Choice (4)

19. Given that x =
4
x
4 , a positive integer x, is to
be obtained by raising 4 to a power which is
the 4
th
root of x; x has to be the 4
th
power
of some positive integer.
Further x =

=
4
x 2
4
x
2 4
x is a power of two alone
Hence we search 4
th
consider 2
4
, 2
8
, 2
4
= 16
and (2
8
) = 216, but 2
12
= 4096 which is greater
than 4000.
Consider 2
4
= 16 and
4
2
) 2 ( = 216 and (2
3
)
4

= 4096. From the values listed, both 2
4
and 2
8

satisfy the equation. Hence there are two such
values. Choice (3)

Solutions for questions 20 and 21:

20.






Leaving and the circles, the figure appears as
shown above. QR (and hence AC) = 12, AB =
13
BC = 5 and BR = 8.
PQA ~ PRB and the ratio of
corresponding parts in 3 : 8.
i.e. PA : PB = 3 : 8 PA : AB : PB = 3 : 5 : 8
If AB (5 parts) in 13, each part is 2.6 and PB
(8 parts) is 20.8
PE = PB EB = 20.8 12 = 12.8
Choice (3)

21. Area of triangles PAR and PBQ are to be
compared.

= =
BR
AQ
.
PQ
PR
BR X PQ .
2
1
AQ x PR .
2
1
PBQ
PAR

= 1
8
3
x
3
8
=
The two triangles are equal.
Choice (1)

Solutions for questions 22 to 25:

22. If E 0, then E = 9 A = 18 or 81
i.e., Y can take the values 20, 31, 42, 53, 64,
75, 86, 97 or 90. Choice (4)

23. F is always zero irrespective of Y.
Choice (1)

24. Only for Y = 90 is it possible that A + Diff (A)
= 144 (i.e. A + B = 144)
C = 27 Choice (3)

25. Only if Diff (Y) = A = 0, is the condition
satisfied. In this case Y = any of 11, 22, 33,
44, 55, 66, 77, 88 or 99.
If Y = 22, Y + A + B + C + D + E + F = 22
Choice (1)

Solutions for questions 26 to 29:

26. Amount of investment of Singapore in spices
= 1/2 x 5% of T(where T is the total
investment)
Total amount of investment of Singapore
= 42% x
) 1 2 2 (
2
+ +
x T
3/7 x 2/5 T
required percentage
=
T 5 2 2 1
T 10 5 2 1


x 100 15%
Choice (2)

27. Since the product wise split up of investment
in each state is not mentioned we cannot
answer the question.
Choice (4)

28. By observation, amount invested by UK and
South Africa is minimum and the number of
approvals of UK is more than that of South
Africa.
UK has minimum amount of investment per
collaboration. Choice (2)


29. The required percentage will be
R
Q
A
P
B

12
3

12

13
C
3
5
% 21
11
3 . 2
% 11
% 23 of % 40
= Choice (2)

Solution for question 30:

30. For the question, Are you the truth teller? both
Amar and Anand will answer yes.
it is impossible to find out who is who
For the second question, Amar who is the truth
teller will answer yes. While Anand, who
lies will answer No, because he would have
answered yes to the question Are you the
truth teller. Choice (2)

Solutions for questions 31 to 34:

31. IIM-A, IIMB, IIMC, IIM-L, XLRI, MDI,
SPJain and JBIMS have batch size greater than
100 and average work experience of more than
0.6 years (8). MDI, IIM-A and XIM satisfy the
second condition.
The ratio is 8 : 3
Choice (1)

32. After calculating the total salary we find that
IIM-C has the highest and MICA is the lowest.
IIM-C Cumulative Salary = 260 x 8.8 = 2288
lakh
MICA Cumulative Salary = 50 x 4.6 = 230
lakh
difference = 2058
Choice (2)

33. The college with the highest total salary will
be the one that makes the highest contribution
i.e., IIM-C. Choice (4)

34. IIM-A, IIMB, IIM-C, IIM-L and IIM-K satisfy
the given criteria. Among other B-schools
XLRI, MDI, JBIMS, IIFT, XIM satisfy the
given criteria.
Ratio = 1 : 1 Choice (2)

Solutions for questions 35 to 38:

35. To find the average speed one needs to know
the total distance and the total time taken to
cover it. Distance is given in the question itself
whereas the total time to travel is given in the
II
nd
statement. I is not enough as it does not
tell us the time taken for the race.
Choice (1)

36. Using statement I alone
Area =
2
1
AD x BC
BC can be found. Now, given BC, AB and
Area we can find any between BC and AB
from Area =
2
1
BC x AB sin. ( < 90)
after all three sides are found the altitude on
the longest side will be the shortest and it can
be found.
I alone is sufficient.
From statement II, the altitude drawn on the
longest side is the shortest.
Since BC >

+AC
2
AB
and BC >

+ AB
2
AC
,
BC is the longest side and hence AD is the shortest.
So II, alone is sufficient. Choice (2)

37. Wherever the units digit of a perfect square is
6, thus the tens place must be odd.
From statement II alone, we can say that the
number is not a perfect square.
Choice (1)

38. From statement I alone, the number of Fridays
in that year are exactly 52.
Hence, I alone is sufficient.
From statement II alone, we cannot determine
the number of Fridays in the year because, if
the year is a non-leap year there will be 52
Fridays, if the year is a leap year there will be
53 Fridays. Choice (1)

Solutions for questions 39 to 42:

39. On calculating the average probability in
favour of, Australia, England, India and Sri
Lanka are bet-worthy from Ravi Shastris
view while Pakistan is so only in Chappels
view and West Indies is not according to either
view. Choice (3)

40. According to Ravi Shastri, except against
Australia, India has more than 0.5 as
probabilities of winning against all countries.
Choice (1)

41. A team can be expected to win against those
matches in which its probability of winning is
more than half.
The following table shows the points
according to Ian Chappel among England,
Pakistan and Australia.

Ian Chappel
Eng Aus Aus = 2, Eng = 0
Eng Pak Eng = 1, Pak = 1
Pak Aus Pak = 2, Aus = 0

Aus = 2, Eng = 1 and Pak = 3
According to chappel Pakistan can win 3
points.
Choice (2)

42. Now the 2
nd
table by Chappel gives
probabilities in favour of where India can win
only against Australia. Choice (4)
Solutions for questions 43 to 46:

43. What has the Kashmir conflict done to relation
between India and Pakistan? It has poisoned
(harmed) the relation not contaminated
(infected) or destroyed (ruined) or depraved
(corrupted). Choice (3)

44. The communal tensions in India have been
continual (frequently occurring), not nagging
(persistent and painful), vehement (intense) or
frenzied (wild behaviour). Although
communal tensions are vehement and frenzied,
we are not talking about intensity here.
Choice (2)

45. A touchstone is a standard (it refers to the stone
on which the purity of gold is tested).
Ahmedabad, which is a communal hotbed,
reflects how effective something is in building
good relation between India and Pakistan. We
are not looking for any principle, basis or
justification. Choice (1)

46. Cross border terrorism may not end in the
foreseeable (predictable) future. We are not
talking about a future that is remote (far off)
bleak (dreary) or uncertain.
Choice (4)

Solutions for questions 47 to 50:

47. B follows the given sentence 1 it in B
refers to the Bonds Bank in 1 and B tells us
more about the bank. Our answer is choice 1
or 2. D follows C the Bond Library, the
Bond hospital in D are the worthwhile charity
mentioned in C. Choice (1)

48. A follows the given sentence 1 this in A
refers to dire poverty and extreme wealth co-
exist in 1. B follows D the Report in B refers
to the Human Development Report in D. C
precedes 6 necessity in 6 refers to water,
sanitation, health care and basic education in C.

Choice (3)

49. Centuries of foreign rule.. in 1 is followed
by under the rule of Aurangazeb . In A
(from general we come to more specific). So
our answer is choice 1 or 3. B must precede D
and C Guru Gobind Rai is mentioned in B
where as in D and C we have reference to he
and the guru. Choice (1)

50. B must follow 1 the great traveller from
China in 1 is followed by His name
was. in B. Our answer is choice 3 or 4. We
must now decide whether it is A D or D A (the
only difference between 3 and 4). Hiuen Tsang
came to India and it is only after he journeyed
all over India that he spent many years in
India, learning and teaching. Hence A D is
more logical. Choice (3)

Solutions for questions 51 to 53:

51. We have the preposition to following the
first blank. Hence it is access to (we dont
say craze to or liking to; penchant is
followed by for). Choice (1)

52. What Kind of lifestyles? A sedentary lifestyle.
We dont say an immaculate lifestyle or
impeccable lifestyle. An ostentations lifestyle is
possible but it doesnt go with regimented
food habits. Choice (4)

53. A person with a rational approach will fight
adversities. Only choice 2 is logical. The others
are not so. Choice (2)

Solutions for questions 54 and 55:

54. The main points covered are the following:
1. Gutembergs invention started mass
publishing.
2. This increased literacy and personal
correspondence.
3. The internet has moved from personal
correspondence to mass communication.
4. The web page is popular and browing the
web is an enyojobh experience.
Choice 1 is wrong because it does not mention
personal correspondence.
Choice 2 is wrong because e-mail is not
similar to printing (the latter is mass
communication).
Choice 3 is right.
Choice 4 is wrong because it says both moved
from personal to public domain. In the case of
the press it was the other way named.
Choice (3)

55. The main points covered in the para are the
following:
1. Mauritius was created by a volcano seven
million years ago.
2. It is densely populated.
3. Four centuries ago it was inhabited by
dodos.
4. The French came with African slaves and
the English with labour from India.
Choice 1 is wrong since it says As such .
Population thereby attributing high
population density to its origin.
Choice 2 is right.
Choice 3 is wrong as it says sugarcane grow
with igneous soil and stone heaps.
Choice 4 is wrong as it says its population has
replaced the dodo, not said so in the passage.
Choice (2)
Solutions for questions 56 to 58:

56. Sentence B must have either waiting for or
awaiting. Sentence C should read hooked
up (is used when somebody or something is
connected to something). Choice (3)

57. Sentence A must have the the steering
wheel. Sentence C must have plunged into
whenever movement is implied into is the
preferred preposition. Choice (4)

58. Sentence B must read holding itself up.
Sentence C must have a a black velvet
collar and sentence D must begin with It not
That. Choice (4)

Solutions for questions 59 and 60:

59. The word both does not qualify held and
hence cannot precede it. (rules out choice 1
and 3). Between 2 and 4 only 2 is right
because contact is between the two countries
not among. Choice (2)

60. Since the blank is connected by and to the
first part of the sentence it must have the same
structure. This looking back therefore
requires finding to maintain parallelism. In
choice 2 we have to the finding, in 3 to find
and in 4 it finding. Only choice 1 is
structurally right. Choice (1)

Solutions for questions 61 to 74:

61. A vice cannot be good. Hence it is an
oxymoron a phrase that combines two words
that seem to be the opposite of each other.
Choice (1)

62. The last paragraph negates choices 1 and 2. 3
is not found in the passage.
Choice (4)

63. Refer to para 2, line 4 (a particular pattern of
drinking) Choice (1)

64. Refer to para 3, lines 2 4 (they are almost
.. of science) Choice (2)

65. Refer to para 2, lines 6 7 (suffer fewer heart
attacks)
Choice (3)

66. Para 7, line 1 clearly mentions all the three.
Choice (4)

67. Para 8 indicates that only 'specialised
institution' and 'location' are linked.
Choice (2)

68. Refer to para 5, line 1. Choice (4)

69. The statement is from para 10, line 2 - 3.
Choice (2)

70. Para 2
Statement A ........ are bewildering (line 1).
Statement B ........ escape from the world of
realities (line 5).
Statement C ....... not have the skill to lead us
in the next millennium is not true as it is the
Doomsayers prediction.
Statement D ....... endless cravings and
perceived under-achievements (line 2).
Choice (3)

71. Para 6 supports statements A and B (....... they
want them fast .... (A) ...... tailored according
to their individual need ..... and again ..... cater
to their personalised demands).
Statement C - para 7 ..... hold onto for long,
something they can trust .......
Statement D - para 9 ..... need to respect the
local custom. Choice (4)

72. Statement A is not stated.
Statement B - para 8 ....... more and more
foreign business majors ...... foray into the
domestic markets.
Statement C - para 8 last line.
Statement D - para 9 last sentence.
Choice (1)

73. All the statements are implicit from para 5.
Choice (4)

74. Para 1 says the one constant is ...... the reality
of accelerating changes. Choice (2)





KEY FOR TEP0507

1. 1
2. 3
3. 1
4. 2
5. 1
6. 2
7. 1
8. 4
9. 2
10. 1
11. 4
12. 4
13. 3
14. 2
15. 1
16. 2
17. 3
18. 4
19. 3
20. 3
21. 1
22. 4
23. 1
24. 3
25. 1
26. 2
27. 4
28. 2
29. 2
30. 2
31. 1
32. 2
33. 4
34. 2
35. 1
36. 2
37. 1
38. 1
39. 3
40. 1
41. 2
42. 4
43. 3
44. 2
45. 1
46. 4
47. 1
48. 3
49. 1
50. 3
51. 1
52. 4
53. 2
54. 3
55. 2
56. 3
57. 4
58. 4
59. 2
60. 1
61. 1
62. 4
63. 1
64. 2
65. 3
66. 4
67. 2
68. 4
69. 2
70. 3
71. 4
72. 1
73. 4
74. 2