SAE 1

Introduction to BPM and Case Management

1. Which statements best reflect the difference between BPM and Case Management? (Choose Two)
a. Case Management applications cannot adequately manage ad-hoc events while BPM
applications can.
b. BPM applications consist of structured, automatable processes, while Case Management
applications can include manual, optional, and conditional processes.
c. BPM applications are poorly suited to managing ad hoc events while Case
Management applications are well-suited to managing ad hoc events.
d. Only BPM allows transactions to be logged with an audit trail, identifying each action in the
process and who or what performed it.

2. Which statements best describe BPM? (Choose Two)
a. With BPM, an organization establishes automated management of its processes, allowing
the organization to analyze its processes to improve its overall efficiency.
b. BPM systems only manage the process and must rely on other systems to manage other
application components such as data, UI, and logic.
c. BPM is a structured approach one that employs methods, policies, metrics,
management practices, and software tools to manage and continuously optimize
processes within an organization.
d. With BPM, business processes are manual, inconsistent, error-prone, and potentially spread
out over multiple systems.


3. Which statements best describe Case Management? (Choose Two)
a. Case Management allows an application to coordinate different types of work performed
by multiple parties to resolve the transaction.
b. Case Management applications consist of unrelated processes performed by independent
parties in an uncoordinated manner.
c. Case Management and BPM are mutually exclusive.
d. Case Management adds value by filling in the gaps, when asynchronous, unanticipated,
or unpredictable events affect the processing of work.

Accessing a PRPC Application
4. Adding Operators to a PRPC production system ________________ (Choose One)
a. Is usually automated using a backend process
b. Requires a dedicated resource to manually add all of them
c. Is optional, since not all users accessing the system require an operator ID
d. Is a huge migration task which has to be planned ahead of the application migration

5. Consider this requirement: A manager of a car dealership company will typically access a bunch of
reports to look at their sales, active quotes and performance of sales persons. In some special cases, he
would like to use the system to configure the quote. Which of the following choices is best suited to
support this requirement? (Choose One)
a. Have the manager log out and log in as a separate operator ID that has access to creating
quotes.
b. Configure the manager to have two access groups (one as a manager and one as a sales
person) and switch accordingly.
c. Build a secondary portal for the manager so he can switch to that portal to create quotes.
d. Request a sales person to create a quote and ask them to transfer it to the manager.

6. Which of the following relationships is strictly one- to- one mapping? (Choose One)
a. Access group -> Portal
b. Access group -> Application
c. Operator ID -> Access group
d. Operator ID -> Portal

7. An Operator ID record stores information about the __________ (Choose One)
a. Security settings controlling how users access the system
b. Application to which the user has access.
c. Role performed by this operator in the application.
d. Workspace for the operator

8. An Access group does not store information about _____________ (Choose One)
a. How the users are authenticated
b. The Application record
c. The Primary portal for all users belonging to that group
d. The list of all users belonging to that group

Tour of the Designer Studio
9. Using the Create menu we can create _____________. (Choose One)
a. Any case that exist in the entire system
b. Cases that belong to the current application in which the user is logged into.
c. Cases that belong to the current application and all other applications to which the user has
access.
d. A new case or modify an existing case

10. In a Pega7 application built by your development team, the date format is displayed as12/12/12. To
avoid confusion, the customer wants to reformat it as 12-Dec-2012. Using Designer Studio, how would
you quickly identify the record where this format is configured? (Choose One)
a. Use the Application Explorer to see all the properties defined in the application
b. Use the UI Inspector tool to identify the property
c. Type the label of the field in the search field to find the actual rule
d. Run a report to check all the date time fields and then check them one-by-one

11. The Pega Discovery Network (PDN) is _______________? (Choose Two)
a. Accessible to all registered users from any browser in addition it can be launched from
the Designer Studio
b. A repository containing all helpful information regarding Pega 7 application
development
c. A social network used to track the application development in terms of checkouts, etc.
d. Accessible only from the Designer Studio using the same operator ID

12. Which explorer is useful in opening a record that is shipped as part of the product? (Choose One)
a. Any Explorer
b. Records Explorer
c. Application Explorer
d. Private Explorer

13. Which of the following requires users to logoff? (Choose One)
a. Switching to a different access group
b. Opening an end user portal
c. Creating a case
d. Switching to a different operator

Introduction to the HR Services Application
14. Which of the following statements is NOT an accurate description of the solution (application) to be
built in this course? (Choose One)
a. The solution incorporates several case types.
b. The solution models the management process for job applications.
c. The solution reflects the policies and procedures for an existing process.
d. The solution combines flows, user interfaces, properties, and decisions.

15. Which of the following is NOT part of the applicant management process implemented in this course?
(Choose One)
a. Extend an offer to the candidate.
b. Interview the candidate.
c. Check the candidates references.
d. Match the candidate to an open position.

16. (True or False) System Architect Essentials II focuses on design principles, such as best practices and
reuse, while System Architect Essentials does not.
a. True
b. False

Creating a New Application
17. Which of the following types of information is NOT provided in the New Application Wizard?
(Choose One)
a. Requirement
b. Application name
c. Case name
d. Business objective

18. Once we complete the New Application wizard, where in PRPC can we locate most of the information
provided while running the wizard? (Choose One)
a. The New Application wizard, which can be re-opened in Review mode.
b. The Home page.
c. The Application Overview page.
d. The information is not available once the wizard completes.

19. Which individual is typically responsible for using the New Application wizard? (Choose One)
a. System Architect.
b. Lead System Architect.
c. Business Analyst.
d. Anyone can run the wizard for any project.

Identifying Case Stages

20. Identify the principal reasons for dividing a case into stages. (Choose Two)
a. To group related processes and steps.
b. To divide a case into implementable releases.
c. To represent subcases.
d. To provide context for the events that occur while processing a case.

21. How many stages did we identify for the Candidate case? (Choose One)
a. 5
b. 6
c. 7
d. 8

22. Which of the following is NOT a type of stage? (Choose One)
a. Primary
b. Exception
c. Alternate
d. Resolution

23. What feature of the Stage Designer allows us to change the name of a stage? (Choose One)
a. The Details tab.
b. The Stage Configuration dialog.
c. The Case Explorer.
d. The Legend.

24. Which of the following statements accurately describes the usage of a case stage? (Choose One)
a. Group related process and subcases
b. Identify related tasks that are assigned to a specific operator
c. Order how the case is processed
d. Identify all child cases created in the lifecycle

Adding Processes to Stages

25. Which of the following is NOT a valid step type? (Choose One)
a. Case.
b. Single Step Assignment.
c. Automated Decision.
d. Multi Step Process.


26. What is the maximum number of steps within a stage that can be configured to start upon stage entry?
(Choose One)
a. One.
b. Two.
c. Three.
d. All of the steps in the stage.


27. (True or False) A Multi Step Process step can be reconfigured as a Single Step Assignment
a. True
b. False


28. The default order for steps within a stage is _________________. (Choose One)
a. Sequential each step is presented in order.
b. Simultaneous each step is presented upon stage entry.
c. Random


29. Which of the following options for the start of a step is not allowed in the Configure Step dialog?
(Choose One)
a. Upon completion of the previous step.
b. Upon resolution of a subcase.
c. Upon satisfying a specific condition.
d. Upon stage entry.


Modeling the Processes

30. The purpose of Draft mode is to __________________________. (Choose Two)
a. Allow application designers to save flows that contain references to non-existent rules.
b. Allow end users to debug the flow on production systems.
c. Allow application designers to test decision rules before saving them.
d. Allow application designers to test flow logic without needing to implement secondary
rules such as flow actions, decisions, and activities.


31. The purpose of a decision shape is to __________________________. (Choose One)
a. Automatically perform an action and advance to the next shape.
b. Prompt the end user to determine how to process the case.
c. Automatically determine the path of the case by evaluating conditions defined in a
decision rule.
d. Stop the case at the shape until a specific condition is met.


32. A Smart Shape ___________________________, unlike a basic flow shape. (Choose One)
a. Allows us to configure properties to define the system behavior
b. Is configured to perform a specific task, such as sending email or creating a PDF.
c. Allows the system to automatically determine the appropriate path to advance the case.
d. Can be used to query an external system for missing information.


33. Which of the following is NOT a standard work status? (Choose One)
a. Closed.
b. New
c. Open
d. Resolved


34. A connector can represent all of the following EXCEPT ________________.? (Choose One)
a. A flow action.
b. A condition to evaluate.
c. A subprocess.
d. The result of a decision rule.


Adding Business Use Cases to a Process

35. The act of creating a flow diagram without creating the decisions and user interfaces it references is
called _____________________________. (Choose One)
a. Application modeling.
b. Process modeling.
c. UI modeling.
d. Solution modeling.


36. Which of the following pieces of information should we look for on a specification? (Choose Two)
a. Due date.
b. Description.
c. Subject matter expert.
d. Test plan.


37. (True or False) A specification can be linked to its implementation(s), but not its requirement(s).
a. True
b. False


38. (True or False) A specification can include an illustration as an example of the implementation.
a. True
b. False

Introduction to Data Elements

39. Which of the following is a valid property mode? (Choose Two)
a. Single Value
b. Text
c. Date Time
d. Java Object

40. A property of type Date stores information in which format? (Choose One)
a. DDMMYYYY.
b. YYYYMMDDHHMMSS.
c. YYYYMMDD.
d. MMDD.


41. Which property type should be used to store Boolean data? (Choose One)
a. Boolean.
b. TrueFalse.
c. YesNo.
d. OnOff.

42. (True or False) A property can be restricted to a set of allowable values.
a. True
b. False

43. The property PolicyNumber (Auto) is an example of which property mode? (Choose One)
a. Single Value
b. Value List
c. Unordered List
d. Value Group

Introduction to Data Modeling

44. The data model for an application indicates a one-to-one (1:1) relationship between the data object that
represents the customer and the data object that represents their billing address. The best
implementation for the Billing Address data object would be a ___________. (Choose One)
a. Page
b. Page List
c. Page Group
d. This type of relationship cannot be modeled.

45. If we define a property as a page-mode property, what property type must we define it to be? (Choose
One)
a. Single value.
b. Text.
c. Data.
d. Property types are not relevant for page-mode properties.

46. The data model for a financial services application indicates a one-to-many (1:n) relationship between
the data object that represents the customer and the data object that represents their accounts, and must
support an arbitrary number of accounts of each type. The best implementation for the Accounts data
object would be a ____________. (Choose One)
a. Page
b. Page List
c. Page Group
d. This type of relationship cannot be modeled.

47. (True or False) A page-mode property can contain other page-mode properties.
a. True
b. False


Setting Values of Data Elements

48. By default, which page does PRPC write case data to? (Choose One)
a. pyCaseData
b. pyWorkPage
c. pyWorkData
d. pyDefault


49. The context of a property can be described as _______________________. (Choose One)
a. The property mode.
b. The type of data the property can store.
c. The page that contains the property and its value.
d. The source of the property value.


50. Which of the following is not a valid use of a data transform? (Choose One)
a. To copy a value from one property to another.
b. To create a property after a case has been created.
c. To set a default value for a property when creating a case.
d. To copy data between pages in memory.


51. A property named .foo can only exist once within each ________________. (Choose One)
a. Page in memory.
b. Case type modeled by the solution.
c. Solution.

Inspecting Data Elements

52. Which of the following is NOT a category of pages in the Clipboard tool? (Choose One)
a. Work Pages.
b. User Pages.
c. Data Pages.
d. System Pages.

53. pyWorkPage can be found under which category in the Clipboard tool? (Choose One)
a. Data Pages.
b. Linked Property Pages.
c. System Pages.
d. User Pages.


54. In our solution, Candidate is an example of __________________. (Choose One)
a. A data page.
b. An embedded page.
c. A page list.
d. A temporary page.


55. Which of the following can NOT be done with the Clipboard tool? (Choose One)
a. Read property values.
b. Write property values.
c. Update data in a system of record.
d. Switch between active threads in memory.


Introduction to UI

56. Which of the following rules contain the data elements that display on the screen? (Choose One)
a. Harness
b. Sections
c. Flow Actions
d. Controls


57. Which of the following statements are true about harness rules? (Choose Two)
a. Its used in the creation of designer studio
b. New harness is always used in the creation of a case
c. Confirm harness is referenced in the starter flow of a case
d. Assignment shapes must use only Perform harness


58. Which of the following statements are true about flow actions? (Choose Two)
a. Flow Actions can be used to advance off an assignment
b. Flow Actions are not directly referenced in flow rules
c. Flow actions can use sections for content
d. Flow actions are used in end user portals


59. Which of the following is not a rule type? (Choose One)
a. Flow Actions
b. Layout
c. Sections
d. Harness


60. The Perform harness is usually referenced in ___________? (Choose One)
a. End user portals
b. The starting process or the flow rule
c. The assignment shape of the flow rule
d. Internally by the process engine and the name cannot be customized

Designing Layouts

61. Which of the following rules can have the layouts embedded in it? (Choose One)
a. Harness
b. Sections
c. Flow Actions
d. Controls


62. Which of the following statements are true about dynamic layouts? (Choose Two)
a. Can orient labels on top of the fields
b. Useful in dynamically altering the content at runtime
c. A set of standard formats are supplied; however no restrictions in creating new formats
d. Must be used only when the application is deployed in various form factors


63. Which of the following are key benefits in using dynamic layouts over other layouts? (Choose Two)
a. Supports nesting layouts
b. Localization layouts offer ability to render data elements in various languages
c. Responsiveness layout can be configured to switch to a different format in a different
form factor
d. Alignment displaying labels next to field is not possible in other layouts


64. Which of the following rule contains the configuration information about layouts? (Choose One)
a. Flow Actions
b. Skin
c. Sections
d. Harness

65. A dynamic layout can be saved as a _______ so it can be used in other rules. (Choose One)
a. Layout rule
b. Free form layout
c. Section
d. Layout template


Creating Repeating Layouts

66. Which repeating layout is used to display hierarchical relationships in a spreadsheet format? (Choose
One)
a. Dynamic
b. Grid
c. Tree
d. Tree Grid

67. When creating repeating layouts the underlying structure must either be __________. (Choose Two)
e. Page list
f. Java Arrays
g. Page group
h. Page


68. Which of the following statements are correct? (Choose One)
a. Progressive pagination impacts performance at runtime
b. Pagination in general impacts the performance
c. Filtering hides the results from the clipboard
d. Sorting is applied only on text or numeric fields


69. When adding the repeating layout in stage designer which of the following rule is not created by the
system? (Choose One)
a. The section that is embedded inside the repeating layout
b. The section containing the page list
c. The properties used as columns in the page list
d. The actual page needed in the page list


70. Which of the following statements are correct when we add a repeating layout from the layout palette?
(Choose Two)
a. We must configure the source of the grid
b. We can specify any icons (such as add ,or delete) that appear in the layout during creation
c. We can configure the layout as a grid, or any other type.
d. The grid overwrites any existing layout

Formatting Data Elements

71. In the outline view when we add fields in the add fields dialog, which of the following rule is not
created? (Choose One)
a. Control
b. Property
c. Section
d. Embedded or Data class


72. We need to display a list of currencies for the user to select, however the selection should save the
currency code and not the actual currency label. Which of the following is the most accurate choice?
(Choose One)
a. Requires a custom control which can use different properties for display and for value
b. Use a local list in the property to provide the list of currency and then lookup the code after
selection
c. Use prompt list option in the property to store both the currency code and currency
labels
d. Hardcode these values directly in the control using the properties panel


73. Which of the following is a control that is not associated with properties? (Choose One)
a. Checkbox
b. Radiobutton
c. Button
d. Rich Text Area Editor


74. Which of the following statements are correct when it comes to controls? (Choose One)
a. Control that is referenced in the property applies wherever the property is added
b. Control that is referenced in the section does not override the control defined in the property
c. Control can be referenced in the cell of a layout only when the property does not reference a
control
d. PRPC associates control with the property only when the property is defined using the outline
view


75. Control cannot be used to _______________ (Choose One)
a. Restrict the max number of characters entered in a text box
b. Dynamically change from textbox to dropdown based on a condition
c. Format values when the field is selected to display as read-only
d. Format property if the values are received from an external system

Validating Data Elements

76. Which of the following rules cannot be used for validating data elements? (Choose One)
a. Flow Action
b. Property
c. Validate
d. Control


77. When using validation rules, we can invoke ______________. (Choose Two)
a. A flow action rule
b. A message rule
c. Another validation rule
d. A section rule


78. Edit validate is referenced in the ________________. (Choose One)
a. Flow action
b. Property
c. Control
d. Properties panel for the field


79. We have the following requirement: The user name entered must not already be taken and it should not
exceed 10 characters. Which one of the following choices is the best way to address this requirement?
(Choose One)
a. An edit validate rule that verifies both these conditions
b. A single validate rule to verify both these conditions
c. A validate rule for the first condition which calls another validate rule which has the second
condition since the validate rule cannot specify different conditions for the same field
d. A validate rule for the first condition and an edit validate for the second


80. Which one of the following requirements should not be handled in a edit validate rule? (Choose One)
a. Make sure the address field is not empty
b. Check if the zip code confirms to us postal code standard
c. Check if the telephone number contains the international access code
d. Check if the unit price is not negative


Introduction to Data Tables

81. Which of the following is not true when it comes to saving data tables? (Choose One)
a. Data tables must be defined as part of the application
b. Data tables are saved in the same database that PRPC is installed
c. Data tables are usually populated using database tools
d. Data tables can be populated automatically using rules


82. The data table wizard does not create ___________ .(Choose Two)
a. The class where all rules related to data tables are stored
b. The derives from class if not present
c. The data page that displays the list of all rows
d. The records (rows) part of the data table


83. Data tables are used for ________________. (Choose One)
a. Storing static list that is used by applications
b. Storing list of cases that are created by user
c. Storing list of cases that require approval by manager
d. Storing the information of all operators in PRPC


84. pr_other is a _______________ ..(Choose One)
a. Database table that usually has data table instances if a dedicated table is not created
b. Database table created in PRPC to hold information about all data tables
c. A sample Database table structure that does not exist anywhere
d. Database table that holds all data class instances


85. Which of the following statements most accurately describe the data tables? (Choose One)
a. Is a structure that helps in data modeling Pega Applications
b. List of reference data that can be used for display or selection
c. List of all data instances used by the application
d. List of reference data that cannot be modified in the application

Accessing Data in the User Interface

86. A data page configured as a page structure can be used as a source for _________. (Choose One)
a. Repeating Tree Grid
b. Repeating Grid
c. Dropdown
d. Embedded section


87. When we are defining a data page that displays a list of all products that the company can sell, what is
the scope in which it is defined? (Choose One)
a. Only on a requestor
b. Only on the thread level to list it on the case where product list is used
c. On the node irrespective of the applications used in the node
d. Only on the case where product list is getting updated


88. Radio button control can use the following as a source for listing options? (Choose Two)
a. SQL query that can get values from an external source
b. Static list that is defined on the property
c. Data page that has a structure of list
d. Data page that has a scope defined as requestor


89. Which of the following is not configured in the data page definition? (Choose One)
a. Whether the data page can be used as a page list or a page group
b. Whether the data page content is specific to a requestor or common to all requestors
c. Whether the data page becomes stale in 2 hours or 2 days
d. Whether the data page source comes from an external database or a data table


90. Which of the following statements is correct when it comes to accessing data pages? (Choose One)
a. Data pages are invoked in a flow action if it has to be used in the user interface
b. Data pages are invoked declaratively using a declare expression which refreshes the content
c. Data pages display stale data unless a specific rule is written to configure the refresh
d. Data page is loaded in memory when an embedded section accesses it using a parameter

Creating a Dynamic User Interface

91. What are the two elements that are required in defining a dynamic user interface? (Choose Two)
a. A source or the controlling element
b. Targets or the controlled elements
c. A button control that can act as a target for the event
d. An event can be applied on the section


92. A dynamic user interface can be used to ________________ . (Choose One)
a. Calculate the sub total and total based on a changed value
b. Hide or display the flow action on a condition
c. Conditionally hide or display a part of the user interface based on a property value
d. Refresh the section periodically at scheduled intervals


93. If we want to make a layout visible only when the user has the checkbox checked where do we set the
visible when condition? (Choose One)
a. On the Action Set defined in the checkbox
b. On the included section
c. On the layout
d. On the main section


94. Which of the following keyword are valid choices for a radio button control? (Choose One)
a. Click
b. Change
c. Enter
d. Hover


95. Which of the following statements is incorrect in terms of having multiple values in it? (Choose One)
a. The controlling field can use multiple control rules
b. The controlling field can have any number of events configured
c. The controlling field can have any number of actions associated to an event
d. The controlling field can affect any number of controlled fields

Accessing External Systems

96. Which of the following statements is true when it comes to connectors? (Choose One)
a. Connectors are web clients published by Pega to access only a PRPC service
b. Connectors are helpful in tracking the number of unique connections made to the PRPC
service
c. Connectors can query from a database directly using SQL
d. Connectors are usually configured to migrate the work items from one system to another


97. When PRPC acts as a service it usually _______ (Choose One)
a. References the data table to get the values required by the external system
b. Requires the external client to exist in the same network
c. Creates a case to perform the requested action
d. Requires the external client to be a java application


98. What is the quickest way to generate connectors? (Choose One)
a. Use a Integrator shape in the process modeler
b. By defining them in a data page
c. Use the application express
d. Use the wizard

99. Which of the following statements is false when it comes to connectors? (Choose One)
a. PRPC connectors require the services to co-exist in the same server
b. The wizard generates all the rules that are required for parsing the response from the external
object.
c. The rules created in the wizard can be cleaned up if they are not generated properly.
d. SOAP, REST And SQL are some protocols that the connector can use


100. Which of the following is the most recommended option to access connector results in the application?
(Choose One)
a. Export the connector results to all user sessions using a backend process.
b. Create a data page containing all the results
c. Populate the results in a data table
d. Invoke connector whenever required using a procedural rule

Introduction to Declarative Processing

101. (True or False), Declarative rules are evaluated by the user when needed to satisfy certain conditions.
a. True
b. False

102. Which of the following provides a declarative form of property validation? (Choose One)
a. Validate Rules
b. Declare Expressions
c. Constraints
d. Declare Trigger

103. Of the six declarative rule types, four establish a dependency on a specific property or properties.
Which two do not establish a dependency? (Choose Two)
a. Declare Expressions
b. Declare OnChange
c. Constraints
d. Declare Trigger
e. Declare Index
f. Data Page

104. If the default chaining technique is used, the expression calculation will occur ___________ . (Choose
One)
a. When a value in the expression is not present
b. When target property value changes
c. When input properties value changes
d. Each time a property in the expression is referenced

105. When creating a declare expression, you must set the computation type on the _______. (Choose One)
a. New Rule Dialog
b. Expressions tab of the rule form of the corresponding properties
c. Expressions tab of the Declare Expressions rule form
d. Action tab of the corresponding Flow Action

Conditional Processing
106. (True or False) A When rule can return a value other than true or false.
a. True
b. False

107. When rules cannot be used to __________________. (Choose One)
a. Skip a stage
b. Process or skip a step in a stage.
c. Add a Decision shape automatically.
d. Conditionally display UI elements.

108. Which of the following is not a good candidate for conditional processing? (Choose one)
a. Home inspection is not required if the loan is refinancing.
b. Flood insurance is required if the property is located in a flood zone.
c. Appraisal of the property is ordered if the appraisal has not been done within two years.
d. The interest rate is determined based on the credit score, property value and annual
income.

Automating Business Processes Using Decision Rules

109. Which of the following is NOT a type of decision rule? (Choose One)
a. Decision Map.
b. When
c. Decision Table.
d. Decision Tree.


110. In a flow, we can call a decision from _____________________. (Choose Two)
a. A connector.
b. A utility shape.
c. A decision shape.
d. A fork.


111. A ____________ consists of a set of branching logic tests that progress from less-specific to more-
specific. (Choose One)
a. Decision table.
b. Decision tree.
c. Decision map.
d. Declarative expression.


112. When using a ____________ in a flow, the connector corresponds to the ___________. (Choose One)
a. Assignment, decision result.
b. Decision shape, decision logic.
c. Fork, decision result.
d. Decision shape, decision result.


113. (True or False) Decision rules are evaluated by end users when processing a case.
a. True
b. False

Routing Cases

114. Where are routing rules referenced? (Choose One)
a. On the assignment shape which has to be routed
b. On the assignment shape prior to the one that has to be routed
c. On the decision table
d. On the start shape


115. When processing an insurance claim, the system requires multiple approvals one from underwriter,
one from the policy administrator and one from the inspector who verified the claim. How do you
implement this so each of them can work on their own? (Choose One)
a. Require a custom routing activity
b. Create a decision based routing using a tree or a table
c. Three separate assignment shapes and each of them routed appropriately
d. Route it to a workbasket an operator picks it and after submission goes back to the
workbasket, it continues until all three approves it


116. Which of the following cannot be used for routing? (Choose One)
a. Activity
b. Data Transform
c. Decision Table
d. Operator record


117. When assigned to a workbasket, what are the recommended options for assigning the case to an
operator? (Choose Two)
a. Operator picks from the workbasket
b. The workgroup manager decides who can work- they need to login every day and distribute
the work manually
c. System uses a configurable way to route to operators depending on the workload
d. By using a standard routing activity shipped as part of PRPC


118. Which of the following statements are false? (Choose One)
a. An assignment can exist in either work list or work basket and not in both at the same time.
b. When routed to a different operator, the case can be processed by either the new
assigned operator or the operator who created the case
c. Routing means the assignment is transferred to an operator
d. Routing to a workbasket is usually done on cases where we have a group of skilled operators
who are trained to perform the same task


Case Stage Configuration

119. Which of the following configurations can be performed on case stages? (Choose Two)
a. Make the stage as optional
b. Adding an optional action
c. Transferring the stage to another operator
d. Copy the stage into another

120. Which of the following choices cannot be performed in the stage configuration dialog? (Choose One)
a. Changing the stage name
b. Adding a new optional action to the stage
c. Defining the owner of the stage
d. Identifying all the stages where the case gets resolved

121. When an optional action is added to the case stage which of the following statements is correct?
(Choose One)
a. Submitting an optional action progresses the flow
b. Optional actions can be invoked on all processes of the stage
c. The optional action can be accessed only once in the stage
d. Optional Actions can use only a standard rule that is shipped by the product

122. Which of the following settings require configuration using the case stage configuration (Choose One)
a. To validate the data elements when each process is completed
b. To validate the data elements when the stage is completed
c. To validate only the data elements that are used in that stage
d. To validate the data elements before a stage is started

123. When working on a case which of the following choices lets us skip a stage? (Choose One)
a. A when rule to decide if the stage can be skipped
b. A Validate rule to make sure all values are valid to start, else skip the stage
c. Using the configuration dialog, we need to enable the stage is optional
d. Using the configuration dialog, we need to enable the stage is optional

Creating an Optional Process

124. Which of the following is a best use case that requires us to define an optional process? ( Choose One)
a. Optionally require a need for creating a separate approval process when the order is
greater than 10,000 USD
b. Require an option to display a screen that allows transferring the case to another employee at
any stage of the case
c. To display a screen that allows sending email to the customer at all stages of the stage
d. To create a new subcase


125. Which of the following statements are accurate when we define an optional Process? (Choose One)
a. Optional process can be defined specific to an assignment
b. Optional process is always triggered declaratively
c. Optional process can be triggered only in the stage where it is defined
d. Optional process can be triggered only by operators who have manager access


126. Which of the following choices are true when it comes to defining optional processes? (Choose one)
a. A starter flow cannot be referenced in the optional process
b. The flow has to be a starter flow to be referenced in the optional process
c. The flow when defined has an attribute that can be disabled to not be displayed as an optional
process
d. The flow used in optional process can also be used by other processes


Introduction to Task Based Smart Shapes

127. Smart Shapes are pre-configured ____________ . (Choose Two)
a. Utilities
b. Sub-processes
c. Flow actions
d. Case types


128. When configuring the Send Email Smart Shape, which property is not required? (Choose One)
a. Email From Address
b. Subject
c. Message
d. Email To Address


129. (True or False) When configuring the Change Stage Smart Shape and selecting a stage, you can only
type the name of the stage you want to change to.
a. True
b. False

130. Which of the following is not a Smart Shape option? (Choose One)
a. Create Case(s)
b. Create PDF
c. Auto Approve
d. Send Email

Creating a Case Level SLA

131. (True or False) A deadline interval can be shorter than a goal interval.
a. True
b. False

132. Which statement best describes the goal interval for an SLA? (Choose One)
c. The amount of time in which the case or task must be completed.
d. The amount of time allowed for a user to advance a case to the next stage.
e. The amount of time in which the case or task should be completed.
f. The amount of time allowed before the case automatically advances to the next assignment.


133. Using the Case Designer, we can set a deadline for _______________________. (Choose Two)
g. An assignment.
h. A stage.
i. A case.
j. A parent case.

Documenting an Application

134. Which of the following is NOT a type of documentation produced by the Document wizard? (Choose
One)
a. Application Document.
b. Application Profile.
c. Entity Relationship Document.
d. Specification Document.


135. (True or False) An Entity Relationship Diagram represents the relationship between UI rules and the
underlying process.
a. True
b. False

136. (True or False) External content can be uploaded to PRPC to be included in application documentation.
a. True
b. False

137. A system architect is responsible for producing which type of documentation? (Choose One)
a. Application Document.
b. Application Profile.
c. Process Review Document.
d. Specification Document.


138. When should we document an application? (Choose One)
a. Only after we complete the application.
b. Once we need to train end users.
c. After all specifications have been implemented.
d. At every significant development milestone.