Page 1 of 9 | Anatomy and Physiology Lecture

ANATOMY AND PHYSIOLOGY

QUIZ 1


Name: _____________________________________ Section: __________________ Date:___________

DIRECTION: Read the questions carefully. Choose the best answer and write the letter of your choice
on the space before each number.

INTRODUCTION TO ANATOMY AND PHYSIOLOGY
1. Physiology
A. Deals with the processes or functions of living things
B. Is the scientific discipline that investigates the bodys structure
C. Is concerned with organisms and does not deal with different levels of organization such
as cells and systems
D. Recognizes the unchanging (as opposed to dynamic) nature of living things
2. The basic living unit of all organisms is the
A. Organelle
B. Cell
C. Tissue
D. Organ
3. An organ is
A. A small structure within a cell that carries out a specific function
B. At a lower level of organization than a cell
C. Two or more tissues that perform a common function
D. A group of cells with a similar structure and function
4. Given these levels of organization: 1. Cell, 2. Chemical, 3. Organelle, 4. Organ, 5. Tissue. Choose
the arrangement that lists the levels of organization in the correct order from smallest to
largest.
A. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
B. 2, 3, 1, 5, 4
C. 3, 2, 1, 4, 5
D. 4, 1, 3, 2, 5
5. Homeostasis is an example of which of the following characteristics of life?
A. Organization
B. Metabolism
C. Responsiveness
D. Differentiation
6. Homeostatic mechanisms
A. Keep variables exactly at the set point
B. Help to keep a relatively constant internal environment in the body
C. Act to keep values out of the normal range
D. Usually operate by positive feedback
7. Negative-feedback mechanisms
A. Are not homeostatic
B. Are rare in healthy individuals
C. Respond by making deviations from normal even larger
D. May have a receptor, a control center, and an effector
8. Which of these conditions indicate positive feedback has occurred?
A. Blood pressure decreases greatly; blood flow to the heart is inadequate, and blood
pressure decreases
B. Hot temperatures increase your body temperature above normal; you sweat.
C. Cold temperatures decrease your body temperature below normal; you shiver.
D. Blood pressure decreases; as a result, your heart rate increases.
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9. The systems that are most important in the regulation or control of the other systems of the
body are the
A. Circulatory and muscular systems
B. Circulatory and endocrine systems
C. Nervous and muscular systems
D. Nervous and endocrine systems
10. Body temperatures were measured during an experiment. On the graph below at point A, the
subject moved from a cool room into a hot office. As a result, body temperature increased to
point B.

Graphed below are two possible responses to the increase in body temperature.

Which of the responses graphed above represents a negative-feedback mechanism?
A. Response 1
B. Response 2
11. Which of these statements concerning body regions is correct?
A. The trunk region between the thorax and pelvis is the abdomen.
B. The leg extends from the hip to the ankle.
C. The forearm extends from the shoulder to the wrist.
D. The thorax is often subdivided superficially into four quadrants.
12. The thoracic cavity is divided into two parts by the
A. Mediastinum
B. Pleural cavity
C. Diaphragm
D. Peritoneal membranes
13. Serous membranes
A. Line body cavities that open to the outside
B. Produce a lubricating film of fluid
C. Are found only on the walls of the thoracic cavity
D. Separate the abdominal cavity from the pelvic cavity
14. The serous membrane on the surface of the lungs is called
A. Parietal pericardium
B. Visceral pericardium
C. Parietal pleura
D. Visceral pleura
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Identify whether the condition belongs to positive or negative feedback mechanism. Write A for Positive
feedback and B for Negative feedback.
15. Maintains homeostasis by resisting or reducing any deviation from the set point
16. When a deviation from a normal value occurs, the response is to make the deviation
even greater
17. Medical therapy seeks to overcome illness by aiding this type of feedback
18. Increases heart rate in response to a decrease in blood pressure
19. Decreases the ability of the heart to pump following blood loss
20. Stretch of the uterus causes uterine contractions during delivery

TERMINOLOGIES








1. 9.
2. 10.
3. 11.
4. 12.
5. 13.
6. 14.
7. 15.
8.
1
2
3
4
6
15
13
10
9
5
7
8
11
12
14
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16. The stomach is located ____________________ to the diaphragm.
17. The nails are ____________________ to the wrist.
18. The scapulae are situated ____________________ to the spinal column.
19. The heart is found ____________________ to the ribs.
20. The skull is positioned ____________________ relative to the brain.
21. The pubic area of the abdomen can also be referred to as the lower, or ____________________
region.
22. The region inferior to the right lumbar region is the right inguinal region, or the
____________________ region.
23. The area superior to the right lumbar region is the ____________________ region.
24. A ____________________ is a horizontal cut that divides the body into upper and lower parts.
25. A ____________________ divides the body into two, not necessarily equal left and right parts.

CELL STRUCTURE AND FUNCTION
1. The function of the cytoskeleton is most similar to the function of what other cellular structure?
A. Peroxisome
B. Plasma membrane
C. Cytoplasm
D. Mitochondria
2. Molecules done being processed in the endoplasmic reticulum are often transported to which
structure?
A. Peroxisomes
B. Mitochondria
C. Golgi apparatus
D. Vacuoles
3. Which of the following organelles is primarily responsible for cellular digestion?
A. Nucleus
B. Lysosome
C. Mitochondria
D. Golgi apparatus
4. Peroxisomes are able to convert toxic substances such as hydrogen peroxide into non-toxic
substances due to the action of:
A. Lipase
B. Catalase
C. Peroxilase
D. Hydrolase
5. The endoplasmic reticulum plays a major role in the processing of which of the following
biological molecules?
A. Carbohydrates
B. Proteins
C. Adenosine triphosphate
D. DNA
6. Which of the following shows the correct sequence of the cell cycle?
A. Cytokinesis mitosis G1 S G2
B. S G1 G2 mitosis cytokinesis
C. G1 S G2 mitosis cytokinesis
D. Mitosis G1 S G2 cytokinesis


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7. Membrane proteins can perform each of the following functions except:
A. Serve as carriers during transport
B. Function as enzymes
C. Determine the fluidity of the membrane
D. Act as receptors for hormones
8. One function of agranular endoplasmic reticulum is to:
A. Store iron in bone marrow cells
B. Synthesize proteins which are to be exported from secretory cells
C. Synthesize lipids in intestinal epithelial cells
D. Store glycogen in liver cells
9. Lysosomes are cell organelles which:
A. Modify and sort proteins which are to be exported from the cell
B. Produce hydrogen peroxide
C. Can digest proteins ingested by phagocytosis
D. Contain the enzymes of the Krebs cycle
10. Ribosomal RNA is synthesized in the:
A. Centromere
B. Centrosome
C. Centriole
D. Nucleolus
11. Which of the following structures is responsible for putting proteins together with RNA to make
ribosomal subunits?
A. Endoplasmic reticulum
B. Nucleolus
C. Golgi apparatus
D. None, they assemble spontaneously in the cytoplasm
12. Which of the following structures has the largest percentage of ribonucleic acid as a structural
component?
A. Ribosome
B. Nucleus
C. Nucleolus
D. Golgi apparatus
13. Which of the following structures contains the enzymes required for oxidative production of
adenosine triphosphate?
A. Mitochondrion
B. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum
C. Cell membrane
D. Cytoplasm
14. Which of the following structures does not contain microtubules?
A. Microvilli
B. Cilia
C. Flagella
D. Mitotic spindle
15. Which of the following subcellular structures is not covered or composed of a membrane?
A. Golgi apparatus
B. Secretory vesicles
C. Endoplasmic reticulum
D. Centrioles


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16. Which structure is most likely responsible for autolysis?
A. Mitochondrion
B. Peroxisome
C. Secretory vesicle
D. Lysosome
17. Which of the following events do not occur in prophase of mitosis?
A. DNA condenses to form chromosomes
B. Nuclear membrane breaks down
C. Nucleolus breaks down
D. Chromosomes are replicated
18. A spindle fiber is a specialized form of:
A. Microtubule
B. Centrosome
C. Centriole
D. Chromosome
19. As a result of mitosis, each of the two new cells produced from the parent cell during
cytokinesis:
A. Receives a few chromosomes from the parent cell
B. Receives an exact copy of all the chromosomes present in the parent cell
C. Donates a chromosome to the parent cell
D. Receives exactly half the chromosome from the parent cell
20. Normal cells become cancer cells when
A. Regulation of cell growth and division occurs
B. Cells respond to control mechanisms
C. Cells pass through G1
D. Cells do not respond to checkpoints
21. Simple diffusion is defined as the movement of:
A. Molecules from areas of higher concentration to areas of lower concentration
B. Molecules from areas of lower concentration to areas of higher concentration
C. Water molecules across a membrane
D. Gas molecules across a membrane
22. When sugar is mixed with water, equilibrium is reached when:
A. Molecules of sugar stop moving
B. Water and sugar molecules are moving at the same speed
C. The dissolved sugar molecules are evenly distributed throughout the solution
D. There are he same number of water molecules as dissolved sugar molecules
23. The sodium potassium pump function to pump:
A. Sodium ions out of the cell and potassium ions into the cell
B. Sodium ions into the cell and potassium ions out of the cell
C. Sodium and potassium ions into the cell
D. Sodium and potassium ions in both directions across the cell membrane
24. Osmosis is best defined as the movement of:
A. Molecules from an area of high concentration to an area of lower concentration
B. Molecules from an area of low concentration to an area of higher concentration
C. Water molecules across a membrane from an area of low water to an area of higher
concentration
D. Water molecules across a membrane from an area of high water concentration to an
area of lower concentration


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25. Active transport moves a solute:
A. Up its concentration gradient, that is, from a low concentration to a high one
B. Up its concentration gradient, that it, from a high concentration to a low one
C. Down its concentration gradient, that is, from a low concentration to a high one
D. Down its concentration gradient, that is, from a high concentration to a low one

TISSUES, GLANDS AND MEMBRANES
1. Tall, thin epithelial cells that have the appearance of two or more layers, but with all cells
touching the basement membrane is:
A. Simple squamous epithelium
B. Simple columnar epithelium
C. Pseudostratified columnar epithelium
D. Transitional epithelium
2. Epithelial cells that can stretch from a cuboidal or columnar shape to a squamous shape are
called:
A. Simple cuboidal epithelium
B. Simple columnar epithelium
C. Pseudostratified columnar epithelium
D. Transitional epithelium
3. In which of these locations would pseudostratified columnar ciliated epithelium intermixed with
goblet cells be found?
A. Lining of blood vessels
B. Lining of nasal cavity and trachea
C. Lining of serous membranes
D. Lining of small intestine
E. Surface of the skin
4. Which of these cell connections attaches epithelial cells to the basement membrane?
A. Desmosomes
B. Gap junctions
C. Hemidesmosomes
D. Tight junctions
5. Which of these is NOT a part of connective tissue?
A. Ground substance
B. Basement membrane
C. Protein fibers
D. Fluid
6. Connective tissue cells that produce the extracellular matrix are called:
A. Blast cells
B. Cyte cells
C. Clast cells
D. Mast cells
7. A tissue with collagen fibers, proteoglycans, and chrondrocytes is:
A. Adipose
B. Blood
C. Bone
D. Cartilage
8. Which of these tissues has cells located in lacunae?
A. Blood
B. Bone
C. Cartilage
D. Both B and D
9. Given these characteristics: matrix composed almost entirely of collagen fibers, fibers can all be
oriented in the same direction or in many different directions, and able to withstand great
pulling forces in the direction of fiber orientation. Which of these tissues is described?
A. Loose (areolar) connective tissue
B. Bone
C. Cartilage
D. Dense connective tissue

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10. Fibrocartilage is found in
A. The costal cartilages
B. Joints, covering the ends of bones
C. The external ear
D. Disks between the vertebrae
11. Given these characteristics: cells cylindrical in shape, striated, usually one nucleus per cell, often
branched and connected by intercalated disks, and under involuntary control. Which tissue
possesses all of these characteristics?
A. Smooth muscle
B. Nervous tissue
C. Cardiac muscle
D. Skeletal muscle
12. In nerve cells, the ___________ contains the nucleus and is the site of general cell functions.
A. Axon
B. Cell body
C. Dendrite
D. Neuroglia
13. Inflammation of the serous membranes associated with the abdominopelvic cavity is called:
A. Pericarditis
B. Peritonitis
C. Pleurisy
D. Rhinitis
14. Which of these is NOT a chemical mediator of inflammation?
A. Histamine
B. Kinin
C. Leukotriene
D. Neutrophils
15. Which of these cells are labile cells, and continue to divide throughout life?
A. Liver cells
B. Skeletal muscle cells
C. Neurons
D. Skin cells
16. Given these characteristics:
i. Capable of contraction
ii. Covers all free body surfaces
iii. Lacks blood vessels
iv. Comprises various glands
v. Anchored to connective tissue by a basement membrane
Which of these are characteristics of epithelial tissue?
A. i, ii, iii
B. ii, iii, v
C. iii, iv, v
D. i, ii, iii, iv
E. ii, iii, iv, v
17. Chemical mediators of inflammation:
A. Stimulate nerve endings to produce the symptom of pain
B. Increase the permeability of blood vessels
C. Are released into or activated in tissues following injury
D. Cause dilation (expansion) of blood vessels
E. All of the above

Match these terms with the correct statement or definition. Write your answers on the space provided
before each number.

Dilation Neutrophils Increased permeability
Mediators of inflammation Edema
Disturbance of function Pain

18. Chemical substances that are released or activated in the injured tissues and
adjacent blood vessels.
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19. Two changes that occur in blood vessels that result in symptoms of redness,
heat, and swelling.
20.
21. Swelling of tissues when proteins and water from blood enter tissues.
22. Phagocytic white blood cells that fight infection; dead cells in pus.
23. Result of direct damage, mediators, and edema stimulating nerve cell endings.
24. Limitations produced by edema, tissue destruction, and pain.

Using the terms provided, complete these statements:

Fibrin Scab
Granulation tissue Scar
Macrophage Wound contracture

When the edges of a wound are close together, the wound fills with blood and a clot forms. The clot
contains a threadlike protein, ____(25)___, which binds the edges of the wound together and stops any
bleeding. The surface of the clot dries to form a ____(26)_____, which seals the wound. Neutrophils
enter the tissue from the blood. After the epithelium is repaired, the scab is shed, and a second type of
phagocytic cell, called a ____(27)_____ removes dead neutrophils, cellular debris, and the decomposing
clot. The clot is replaced by a delicate connective tissue called ____(28)_____, which consists of
fibroblasts, collagen, and capillaries. Sometimes a large amount of granulation tissue persists as a
____(29)_____, which at first is bright red because of the vascularization of the tissue. Repair takes
longer if the wound edges are far apart. Much more granulation tissue forms, and ____(30)_____ occurs
when fibroblasts pull the edges of the wound closer together. This can lead to disfiguring and
debilitating scars.

25.
26.
27.
28.
29.
30.








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