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Student ScoreCard

Question: 1
Refer to the data below and answer the questions that follow.
Which state has the fifth largest number of firms in 2004?
Explanation:
The five states having the largest number of firms in descending order are Washington, Oregon, Arizona, Hawaii and Georgia. Hence, [2].

Question: 2
Refer to the data below and answer the questions that follow.
How many states have the number of employer firms between 85000 and 95000 in both 2005 and 2003?
Quantitative Ability & Data Interpretation Score:43 Percentile:72
Verbal Ability & Logical Reasoning Score:13 Percentile:41
Overall: Overall Score:56 Percentile:60
1) Washington
2) Georgia
3) Arizona
4) Hawaii
1) 1
2) 2
3) 3
4) 4
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Explanation:
Two states South Carolina and California have number of firms between 85000 and 95000 in 2003 and 2005. Hence, [2].

Question: 3
Refer to the data below and answer the questions that follow.
The states are first ranked in descending order of the number of employer firms in 2002. For two or more states that are tied for a
particular rank (because they had same number of employer firms in 2002), the state having higher number of employers firms in 2003 is
given the higher rank. Which state is ranked third?
Explanation:
Oregon is ranked first. Hawaii and Washington have the same number of firms in 2002 but Hawaii has a greater number in 2003. So
Washington is third. Hence, [4].

Question: 4
Refer to the data below and answer the questions that follow.
For previous question, which state ranks fifth from bottom?
Explanation:
Considering 2002 Montana and Colorado are both fourth from bottom. But Colorado has more firms in 2003. So it is ranked fifth from
bottom. Hence, [2].

Question: 5
Answer the question independently.
How many triangles can be formed by joining the vertices of a regular octagon such that at least one side of the triangle is same as the
side of the octagon?
Explanation:
At least one side of the triangle is same as the side of the octagon. Therefore we have to consider two cases: first is when only one side of
the triangle is same as the side of the octagon and the second is when two sides of the triangle are same as the sides of the octagon.
Case 1: When only one side of the triangle is same as the side of the octagon
Number of triangles that can be formed: 8 4 = 32
Case 2: When two sides of the triangle are same as the sides of the octagon
Total number of ways in which two adjacent sides of an octagon can be chosen is: 8
Therefore total number of triangles that can be formed: 32 + 8=40
Hence [1]

1) Hawaii
2) Arizona
3) Oregon
4) Washington
1) Montana
3) Idaho
4) South Dakota
1) 40
2) 32
3) 36
4) 48
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Question: 6
Answer the question independently.
Aristotle thought of a number that leaves remainder 18 when divided by 20, remainder 17 when divided by 19, remainder 16 when divided
by 18 and so on. What is the remainder when the smallest such number is divided by 50?
Explanation:

Question: 7
Answer the question independently.
ABCD is a square with point P on side AB such that AP:PB = 1:3. X is the point of intersection of segments PC and BD. If area of triangle
BXC is 24 sq. units, what is area of quadrilateral APXD? (in sq. units)
Explanation:
1) 48
2) 18
3) 8
4) 28
1) 24
2) 19
3) 38
4) Data insufficient
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Question: 8
Answer the question independently.

Explanation:
1) One
2) Two
3) Zero
4) More than two
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Question: 9
Answer the question independently.
A person travels equal distances with the speed of 3 km/hr, 4 km/hr and 5 km/hr and takes a total time of 1 hour and 34 minutes. Find his
average speed for the whole journey.
Explanation:

Question: 10
Answer the question independently.
1) 3.83 km/hr
2) 4.62 km/hr
3) 4 km/hr
4) 4.11 km/hr
1) 2 sq. units
2) 3 sq. units
3) 1 sq. units
4) None of these
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Explanation:

Question: 11
Answer the questions on the basis of the chart given below.
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Which of the given trusts showed the maximum change in expenditure over the previous year in the given period of time?
Explanation:
By observation, we can say that the change in expenditure of Trust D in the year 2002-2003 was the maximum in the given period. Hence,
[4].

Question: 12
Answer the questions on the basis of the chart given below.
1) Trust D in 2012
2) Trust C in 2012
3) Trust B in 2013
4) Trust D in 2013
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What was the ratio of amounts spent by trust B on bills and trust C on food in the year 2013 ?
Explanation:

Question: 13
Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.
____________ spent the maximum amount on clothing in the year 2013.
Explanation:
In the year 2003, all the trusts except trust D, spent 15% of their total expenditures on clothing. Trust D spent 25% on clothing.
Total expenditure of trust D was Rs.600000 and trust A was Rs.650000. Thus, 25% of 600 > 15% of 650. Hence, [4].

Question: 14
Answer the question independently.
If p + q + r + s = 60, how many even factors does maximum value of pq2r3s4have? (p, q, r and s are natural numbers)
Explanation:
1) 3 : 5
2) 5 : 8
3) 3 : 8
4) 1 : 2
1) Trust A
2) Trust B
3) Trust C
4) Trust D
1) 281
2) 294
3) 274
4) 280
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Question: 15
Answer the question independently.
Explanation:
1)

2)

3)

4)

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Question: 16
Answer the question independently.
Paresh and Ramesh went to market to buy fruits. Paresh bought 4kg of Apples, 3kg of Bananas and 2kg of Cherries while Ramesh
bought 3kg of Apples, 2kg of Bananas and 1kg of Cherries. Paresh spent 56.25% more than Ramesh. If it is known that the ratio of prices
per kg of Apples and Bananas is 2:3, what was the percent expenditure of Ramesh on Cherries?
Explanation:

Question: 17
Answer the question independently.
For how many natural numbers 'n', the value of n(n + 36) is a perfect square?
1) 33.33%
2) 25%
3) 20%
4) 37.5%
1) Zero
2) One
3) Two
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Explanation:

Question: 18
Answer the question independently.
Ajit bought four books at equal price. He sold them to Bharat at 20% profit, 10% loss, 10% profit and 20% profit respectively. Bharat in turn
sold the books to Chitra at 10% loss, 20% profit, 20% loss and 20% profit respectively. By what percent did the total cost of the four books
change when Chitra bought them as compared to the total cost when Ajit bought them?
Explanation:

Question: 19
Answer the question independently.
The three sides of a right angled triangle have integral lengths and also form arithmetic progression. A possible length of one of the sides
4) More than two
1) 10%
2) 21.67%
3) 20%
4) 12%
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is:
Explanation:

Question: 20
Answer the question independently.
A job was wrongly estimated to be completed in 10 days by x machines. By deploying 3 extra machines, the job was completed in 12
days. If only one additional machine was used, how many days more than that estimated would it have taken to complete the job?
Explanation:

Question: 21
Answer the questions on the basis of the charts given below.
1) 22
2) 91
3) 82
4) 56
1)

2)

3)

4)

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If A wants to attempt as many questions as possible, then what percentage of difficult questions will he attempt?
Explanation:
1) 32%
2) 46.1%
3) 61.2%
4) 73.4%
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Question: 22
Answer the questions on the basis of the charts given below.
What is person B's highest possible score in the test, if every correct answer carries 1 mark?
Explanation:

Question: 23
Answer the questions on the basis of the charts given below.
If weightage given to questions in section I, II and III is 3 : 2 : 1 respectively, then how many moderate questions will a person with 100%
accuracy attempt?
Explanation:
1) 97
2) 109
3) 127
4) None of these
1) 50
2) 55
3) 60
4) 65
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Question: 24
Answer the questions on the basis of the charts given below.
If total time was 90 minutes instead of 150 minutes and all questions are of equal weightageof 1 mark, then what is the difference between
expected marks of A and B?
1) 0
2) 1.5
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Explanation:

Question: 25
Answer the question independently.
Explanation:

Question: 26
Answer the question independently.
A product manufactured at 60 paise per unit is sold at an average rate of 1200000 units per month. After the product was improved, sales
increased to an average of 2000000 units per month. However, the new product cost five percent more to produce. If the manufacturer's
selling price in each instance was 75 paise per unit, then what was the manufacturer's additional profit per month with the newer product?
3) 2.5
4) None of these
1) Zero
2) One
3) Two
4) More than two
1) Rs.20000
2) Rs.60000
3) Rs.200000
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Explanation:

Question: 27
Each question is followed by two statements, I and II. Answer each question using the following instructions:
Choose [1], if the question can be answered by using one of the statements alone, but cannot be answered using the other statement
alone.
Choose [2], if the question can be answered by using either statement alone.
Choose [3], if the question can be answered using both statements together, but cannot be answered using either statement alone.
Choose [4], if the question cannot be answered using both statements together.
Explanation:
4) Rs.240000
1) 1
2) 2
3) 3
4) 4
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Question: 28
Answer the question independently.
Explanation:

Question: 29
Answer the question independently.
1)
2)
3)
4)
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Explanation:

Question: 30
Each question is followed by two statements, I and II. Answer each question using the following instructions:
Choose [1], if the question can be answered by using one of the statements alone, but cannot be answered using the other statement
alone.
1) 50
2) 25
3) 75
4) 12.5
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Choose [2], if the question can be answered by using either statement alone.
Choose [3], if the question can be answered using both statements together, but cannot be answered using either statement alone.
Choose [4], if the question cannot be answered using both statements together.
Find the ratio of the number of students playing football and hockey. Assume that hockey and football are the only games that the
students play.
I. 20% of football players do not play hockey and 80% of hockey players do not play football.
II. 40% of the students do not play any game.
Explanation:

Question: 31
Answer the question independently.
Find the value of 2 + 6 + 12 + 22 + 40 + .. + n.
Explanation:
1) 1
2) 2
3) 3
4) 4
1)

2)

3)

4)

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Question: 32
Answer the question independently.
There are three villages such that village P and Q are connected by a straight highway which is 120 km long. The straight line distance
between village P and village R is 100 km and the distance between village Q and village R is 100 km. What is the minimum distance to
village R from the straight highway connecting village P and village Q?
Explanation:
1) 60 km
2) 65 km
3) 70 km
4) 80 km
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Question: 33
Answer the question independently.
Currency of a country of Bungaland is Twitt. Only currency notes available are of 1 Twitt, 2 Twitts, and 10 Twitts. In how many different
ways can a sum of 89 Twitts be paid using the currency notes available?
Explanation:
1) 215
2) 220
3) 225
4) 230
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Question: 34
Answer the question independently.
1)

2)

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Explanation:

Question: 35
Answer the question independently.

Which of the following numbers can be expressed as the sum of squares of five odd natural numbers?
Explanation:
3)

4)

1) 11085
2) 11087
3) 11083
4) 11091
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Question: 36
Answer the question independently.
When three circular plates tangent to each other, are placed on a graph paper, the centre of one of the circles falls on (2, 3) and the centre
of another circle falls on (4, 3). The centre of the third circle is one unit vertically above the midpoint of the line joining the centres of the
other two circles. Find the area between the three circles.
Explanation:
1) 0.92 sq. units
2) 0.08 sq. units
3) 0.50 sq. units
4) 0.82 sq. units
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Question: 37
Answer the questions on the basis of the pie charts given below.
If average marks of students in any range are equal to the middle value of that range, then what percentage of students secured more
than 50% marks in English?
Explanation:
Although average marks in any range are equal to the middle value of that range, it does not mean that the distribution of students around
the average value is even.
Hence, in the range 46-55, we cannot find the number of students securing more than 50% marks in English.
Hence, [4].

Question: 38
Answer the questions on the basis of the pie charts given below.
What is the minimum possible percentage of students securing more than 105 marks in total?
Explanation:
1) 46.7%
2) 55%
3) 58.3%
4) Cannot be determined
1) 5%
2) 6.67%
3) 13.33%
4) 10%
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Question: 39
Answer the questions on the basis of the pie charts given below.
If no student has scored exactly 35 marks in English and the average of marks in Mathematics for the range 21-40 is 32, then number of
students getting less than 35 marks in Mathematics expressed as a percentage of number of students getting less than 35 marks in
English is at least
Explanation:

Question: 40
Answer the questions on the basis of the pie charts given below.
Which of the following is definitely true?
1) 217%
2) 150%
3) 167%
4) 183%
1) Number of students scoring more than 60 in English is more than those in Maths.
2) At least 40% students scored more than 40 marks in both subjects.
3) The topper in the class must have secured more than 145 marks in total.
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Explanation:

Question: 41
Answer the question independently.
Which of the following has the maximum probability in a throw of two distinct unbiased dice at the same time?
Explanation:
4) None of these.
1) 7
2) 6
3) 9
4) 5
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Question: 42
Answer the question independently.
Explanation:
1) only (a)
2) only (d)
3) (a), (b) and (c)
4) (a), (b) and (d)
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Question: 43
Answer the question independently.
Explanation:
1)

2)

3)

4)

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Question: 44
Answer the question independently.
1) 80
2) 120
3) 94
4) 90
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Explanation:

Question: 45
Answer the question independently.
Explanation:
1)

2)

3)

4)

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Question: 46
Answer the question independently.
Explanation:

Question: 47
Each question is followed by two statements, I and II. Answer each question using the following instructions:
Choose [1], if the question can be answered by using one of the statements alone, but cannot be answered using the other statement
alone.
Choose [2], if the question can be answered by using either statement alone.
Choose [3], if the question can be answered using both statements together, but cannot be answered using either statement alone.
Choose [4], if the question cannot be answered using both statements together.
1) 1
2) 2
3) 7
4) 6
1) 1
2) 2
3) 3
4) 4
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Explanation:

Question: 48
Answer the question independently.
Ajit pawned his land to Jadeja for Rs.1 lakh at annual compound interest of10% compounded annually. Ajit lends Rs.90000 to his brother
Amit at annual compound interest of12% compounded annually.At the end of two years if Ajit asks Amit to pay the amount that he (Ajit)
owes to Jadeja then:
Explanation:

Question: 49
Answer the question independently.
1) Amit has to pay an additional amount of Rs.8104 to Jadeja than what he actually owes to Ajit.
2) Amit has to pay Rs.8104 less than what he actually owes Ajit.
3) Amit is in neither at a loss nor at a profit.
4) None of these
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Explanation:
1) 216.5 cm2
2) 132.3 cm2
3) 152.5 cm2
4) 173.2 cm2
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Question: 50
Answer the question independently.
In how many ways can five men and two women be seated around a table with the two women sitting separately?
Explanation:
1)

2)

3)

4)

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Question: 51
In the following question, there are sentences that form a paragraph. Identify the sentence(s) or part(s) of sentence(s) that are correct in
terms of grammar and usage (including spelling, punctuation and logical consistency). Then, choose the most appropriate option.
A. A great deal of ink has been spoiled over the impact of the great plague the Black Death on the Renaissance.
B. For e.g., in the fourteenth century, as a result of the plague, many areas of the countryside were short of people.
C. This had the effect of forcing many landlords to give in to peasants demands and
D. the resulting improvement in living standards has been born out by archaeological discoveries
E. which have demonstrated a shift at this time from earthenware to metal cooking pots.
Explanation:
The correct phrase in A should be 'ink has been spilled' not 'spoiled', meaning that a lot has been written about something. B uses an
incorrect abbreviation: it should be simply 'e.g.', not 'for e.g.', as 'e.g.' (short for the Latin phrase exempli gratia) itself means 'for example'.
Though both 'born' and 'borne' are past participles of 'to bear', in D, 'born' is incorrect, as it should be used only in relation to birth; 'borne'
should be used instead. Therefore, only C and E are grammatically correct. Hence, [3].

Question: 52
In the following question, there are sentences that form a paragraph. Identify the sentence(s) or part(s) of sentence(s) that are correct in
terms of grammar and usage (including spelling, punctuation and logical consistency). Then, choose the most appropriate option.
A. Ludwig van Beethoven strove to develop his Fifth Symphony in perfect accordance to its internal logical structure.
B. He is renowned for the way he tried out endless variations and directions in his music,
C. turning his manuscripts into inky thickets in his search for the right path.
D. Novelists and poets, too, can be obsessive in their pursuit of the mot juste.
E. Reading the novels of Patrick White or the works of Penelope Fitzgerald, there is the same feeling of almost logical necessity, word by
perfect word.
Explanation:
There is a dangling modifier in E the whole sentence should be reframed to show who is doing the reading: Reading the novels of
Patrick White or the works of Penelope Fitzgerald, one has the same feeling of almost logical necessity, word by perfect word. The rest of
the sentences are correct. Hence, [3].

Question: 53
The sentences given in the following question, when properly sequenced, form a coherent paragraph. Each sentence is labelled with a
letter. Choose the most logical order of sentences, from among the given choices, to construct a coherent paragraph.
1) A, B & E
2) B & D
3) C & E
4) A, C & D
1) A, B & C
2) A, C & E
3) A, B C & D
4) B, C, D & E
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A. Though the phenomena of hallucinations are probably as old as the human brain, our understanding of them has greatly increased over
the last few decades.
B. There is a corresponding area on the other side of the brain normally employed in reading the visual word forming area in the fusiform
gyrus; if this is abnormally stimulated, it may give rise to hallucinations of letters or pseudowords.
C. Such techniques, coupled with implanted-electrode studies (in patients with intractable epilepsy who need surgery), have allowed us to
define which parts of the brain are responsible for different sorts of hallucinations.
D. For instance, an area in the right inferotemporal cortex normally involved in the perception of faces, if abnormally activated, may cause
people to hallucinate faces.
E. This new knowledge comes especially from our ability to image the brain and to monitor its electrical and metabolic activities while
people are hallucinating.
Explanation:
Statement A is the opening sentence, judging by the options and by the fact that it is the only standalone sentence and it introduces the
topic of hallucinations. The DB link is the most obvious one: D talks about hallucinations caused by abnormal activation of the right side of
the brain, and B mentions hallucinations caused by abnormal activation on the other side of the brain. 'This new knowledge' in E refers to
the increase in understanding mentioned in A, so we get the AE link. 'Such techniques' in C are the brain monitoring techniques
mentioned in E, so C follows E. D and B are examples of what is stated in C. Thus, the right sequence is AECDB. Hence, [2].

Question: 54
The sentences given in the following question, when properly sequenced, form a coherent paragraph. Each sentence is labelled with a
letter. Choose the most logical order of sentences, from among the given choices, to construct a coherent paragraph.
A. If we can combine the Proto-Indo-European vocabulary with a specific set of archaeological remains, it might be possible to move
beyond the usual limitations of archaeological knowledge and achieve a much richer knowledge of these particular people.
B. Those words can be analysed to describe the thoughts, values, concerns, family relations and religious beliefs of the people who spoke
them.
C. Indo-European linguists have reconstructed the basic forms and meanings of thousands of words from the Proto-Indo-European
vocabulary itself an astonishing feat.
D. But first we have to figure out where and when they lived.
E. It is now possible to solve the central puzzle surrounding Proto-Indo-European, namely, who spoke it, where was it spoken, and when.
Explanation:
Statements A, C or E could be the opening sentences, so it is better to identify links within the paragraph. 'Those words' in B refer to the
words mentioned in C, so we get a CB link. C makes most sense if it follows directly from E: E states that it is possible to solve the puzzle
surrounding Proto-Indo-European, and C mentions how part of that puzzle has been solved. D and A are linked as well: the
'archaeological knowledge' mentioned in A would help 'figure out where and when [the Indo-Europeans] lived'. So the correct sequence is
ECBDA. (Alternatively, once you identify the EC or the ECB links, you can mark [4] as the answer, as that is the only option these links
occur in.) Hence, [4].

Question: 55
The following question has a paragraph from which the last sentence has been deleted. From the given options, choose the sentence that
1) ACDBE
2) AECDB
3) AECBD
2) CBDAE
3) CABED
4) ECBDA
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completes the paragraph in the most appropriate way.
At the time of Elizabeth I, the husband of a reigning Queen could claim the Crown Matrimonial and rule as King during her lifetime. In the
case of a foreign husband, this meant the one thing Elizabeth's subjects most hated: foreign influence in English affairs. If, on the other
hand, she opted to marry an English noble, she would make him an 'overmighty subject' with more power than any subject ought to
possess. This situation had a particular poignancy in 16th-century England. Elizabeth's family, the Tudors, had claimed the throne almost a
century ago, after the Wars of the Roses, a decades-long struggle for control that had laid waste to many an English noble.
Explanation:
Option [3] does not fit at the end of the paragraph at all it would rather fit at the beginning, as it mentions how the role of a queens
husband would have been different in Elizabeth Is time, as opposed to that of other queens. [1] adds a new reason why Elizabeth would
not want to marry, but has no link to the last sentence of the given paragraph. [4] may seem like a suitable conclusion at first, but it too
does not follow from the last sentence. [2] fulfils all the necessary functions: the phrase repeat performance links to the last sentence
i.e. Elizabeth did not want another such war as the Wars of the Roses which also explains why Elizabeth was determined not to marry,
and thus concludes the paragraph. Hence, [2].

Question: 56
Refer to the data below and answer the questions that follow.
A duty officer is making up an assignment roster for 3 paramedic teams .
Each team has to be assigned exactly one of the 3 sectors of the city i.e Sector 1 ,2 & 3.
Each team consists of 1 driver ,1 doctor and 1 nurse.
The names of the 3 drivers are Kavita (female),Ram & Kabir (both of whom are males).
The names of the 3 doctors are Preeti(female), Vikram & Neil (both of whom are males).
The names of the nurses are Vaibhav(male) ,Priyanka & Archana (both of whom are females).
Also given below are some of the conditions to be followed.
- If there is a female member on the team ,then she has to be accompanied by at least one other female on the team.
- Vaibhav can be assigned only to either Sector 2 or Sector 3
- Ram & Priyanka cannot be part of the same team
- Preeti can be assigned only to Sector 3

Who amongst the following cannot be part of the same team ?
Explanation:
1)
The bloody and melodramatic marital history of Elizabeth's father, the six-times-married King Henry VIII, had also been a
nightmarish lesson for her.
2) Elizabeth did not wish to risk a repeat performance and so resolved to keep her nobles from access to royal power.
3)
In Elizabeth I's case, a husband would not have occupied a secondary position, like Prince Albert, Queen Victoria's
husband, or Prince Philip, who married the second Elizabeth in 1947.
4)
One of Elizabeths most famous assertions that she was wedded to her kingdom was another way of saying that
England was the only husband she could have who would not prove a danger to her.
1) Ram & Vaibhav
2) Kavita & Preeti
3) Vikram & Archana
4) Neil & Priyanka
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Question: 57
Refer to the data below and answer the questions that follow.

If we add one more condition that people whose names start with the same alphabet cannot be part of the same team ,then Vikram will be
on the team assigned to Sector :
Explanation:
1) 1
2) 2
3) 3
4) Either 1 or2
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Question: 58
Refer to the data below and answer the questions that follow.

If Kabir works on the team assigned toSector 2,then whoamongst the following definitely works for the team assigned to Sector 1 ?
Explanation:
1) Vikram
2) Neil
3) Priyanka
4) Archana
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Question: 59
The passage given below is followed by a set of questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question.
Albert Einsteins theory of general relativity is a century old next year and, as far as the test of time is concerned, it seems to have done
rather well. For many, indeed, it doesnt merely hold up: it is the archetype for what a scientific theory should look like. Einsteins
achievement was to explain gravity as a geometric phenomenon: a force that results from the distortion of space-time by matter and
energy, compelling objects and light itself to move along particular paths, very much as rivers are constrained by the topography of
their landscape. General relativity departs from classical Newtonian mechanics and from ordinary intuition alike, but its predictions have
been verified countless times. In short, it is true.
Einstein himself seemed rather indifferent to the experimental tests, however. The first came in 1919, when the British physicist Arthur
Eddington observed the Suns gravity bending starlight during a solar eclipse. What if those results hadnt agreed with the theory? Then,
said Einstein, I would have been sorry for the dear Lord, for the theory is correct.
That was Einstein all over. As the Danish physicist Niels Bohr commented at the time, he was a little too fond of telling God what to do.
But this wasnt sheer arrogance, nor parental pride in his theory. The reason Einstein felt general relativity must be right is that it was too
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beautiful a theory to be wrong.
This sort of talk both delights todays physicists and makes them a little nervous. After all, isnt experiment nature itself supposed to
determine truth in science? What does beauty have to do with it? Aesthetic judgments do not arbitrate scientific discourse, the string
theorist Brian Greene reassures his readers in his book The Elegant Universe. Ultimately, theories are judged by how they fare when
faced with cold, hard, experimental facts. Einstein, Greene insists, didnt mean to imply otherwise he was just saying that beauty in a
theory is a good guide, an indication that you are on the right track.
Einstein isnt around to argue, of course, but I think he would have done. It was Einstein, after all, who said that the only physical theories
that we are willing to accept are the beautiful ones. And if he were simply defending theory against too hasty a deference to experiment,
there would be plenty of reason to side with him for who is to say that, in case of a discrepancy, it must be the theory and not the
measurement that is in error? But thats not really his point. Einstein seems to be asserting that beauty trumps experience come what may
.
He wasnt alone. Heres the great German mathematician Hermann Weyl: My work always tries to unite the true with the beautiful; but
when I had to choose one or the other, I usually chose the beautiful. So much for John Keatss Beauty is truth, truth beauty. And so
much, you might be tempted to conclude, for scientists devotion to truth: here were some of its greatest luminaries, pledging obedience to
a different calling altogether.

What is the main point of this passage?
Explanation:
Throughout the passage, the author talks about how some scientists especially Albert Einstein claim that it is more important for their
theories to be beautiful than verified through experience. Though the author questions such a view and mentions other scientists who do
so too, he does not outright refute it. So [1] is too negative. On the other hand, [4] is too positive, as there is no suggestion in the passage
that Einstein and others have shown this view to be true. The view in question is held by only some scientists, not all, so [2] is an
exaggeration. Only [3] correctly sums up the main point of the passage in a neutral way. Hence, [3].

Question: 60
The passage given below is followed by a set of questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question.
Which of the following, if true, would not validate Einsteins views as stated in this passage?
Explanation:
According to the passage, Einstein considered his scientific theories to be 'beautiful', which he took to mean that they were automatically
true, whether or not they were supported by experimental findings. If either [1] or [4] is true, they lend support to Einstein's faith in 'beauty'
as a good predictor of correct scientific theories. If [3] is true, then a 'beautiful' scientific theory must by definition be true, as it would 'throw
light on the basic structure of the universe'. So options [1], [3] and [4], if true, would validate Einstein's views. But [2] is incorrect: according
to the penultimate paragraph, Einstein believed 'that beauty trumps experience come what may', i.e. whether the theories were validated
experimentally or not. So the presence or absence of flaws in experimental designs would make no difference to his views on the
importance of beauty in scientific theories. Hence, [2].

1) Beauty is not truth when it comes to scientific theories.
2) Scientists tend to prefer beautiful scientific theories over verifiable ones.
3) Some scientists, like Einstein, focus on the beauty rather than verification of scientific theories.
4) Einstein and other scientists have shown how beauty is an important quality of scientific theories.
1) Throughout history, the most successful and important scientific theories have been the most beautiful ones.
2)
Flawed experimental designs can sometimes invalidate scientific theories, in which case, the theories beauty is a good
guide to the truth.
3)
The term beauty, as used by scientists, is merely another word for anything that throws light on the basic structure of the
universe.
4) Beauty in scientific terms merely means simplicity, and simple theories are more likely to be true.
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Question: 61
The passage given below is followed by a set of questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question.
Which of the following is true about Albert Einstein, as per this passage?

i] He thought himself superior to God.
ii] He and Niels Bohr were rivals.
iii] He and Brian Greene were friends.
iv] His theory of general relativity explained how gravity works.
v] His theory of general relativity suggested that light is bent by gravity.
Explanation:
Though [i] might seem true at first glance, based on paragraphs 2 and 3, it is not correct, as the author clarifies in paragraph 3 that
Einstein's apparent arrogance was only due to his confidence in his work. Though the author quotes a sarcastic remark about Einstein
made by Niels Bohr, we cannot infer what the relationship between these two men was. There is no hint in the passage that Einstein and
Brian Greene even knew each other personally, let alone that they were friends. So [i], [ii] and [iii] are all wrong. On the other hand, both
[iv] and [v] are correct, as they can be easily inferred from the first paragraph. Hence, [1].

Question: 62
The passage given below is followed by a set of questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question.

Elements of which of the following pairs do not belong together?
Explanation:
Niels Bohr is said to be a Danish physicist, as per the third paragraph, so [1] has a correct pair. Brian Greene is a string theorist, so [2] is
also correct. In the second paragraph, an experiment in which Arthur Eddington observed the Sun's gravity bending starlight during a solar
eclipse is mentioned. So Eddington and solar eclipses are connected. Only [4] has an incorrect pair: the quotation is by John Keats not
Hermann Weyl, and the latter is said to disagree with it. Hence, [4].

Question: 63
In the following question, a word has been used in sentences in four different ways. Choose the option corresponding to the sentence in
which the usage of the word is incorrect or inappropriate.
THREW
Explanation:
Threw oneself into means involved oneself energetically in some activity, so [1] is correct. Threw someone over means abandoned
someone. Threw together means made in a hurried and haphazard manner. So options [1], [2] and [3] are correct. But threw down the
1) [iv] and [v]
2) [i], [ii], [iv] and [v]
3) [ii], [iii], [iv] and [v]
4) [i] and [iv]
1) Niels Bohr Denmark
2) Brian Greene String theory
3) Arthur Eddington Solar eclipse
4) Hermann Weyl Beauty is truth, truth beauty
1) She threw herself into her work, and ignored everything else going on in her life.
2) He threw over his wife of twelve years for a woman he barely knew.
3) There was no time to cook a lavish meal, so we threw together dinner using some leftovers.
4) After failing the medical entrance exam the third time, he threw down the gauntlet and decided to switch to engineering.
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gauntlet means challenged, which does not fit the context of [4] at all in this sentence, a phrase which means gave up is needed.
Hence, [4].

Question: 64
In the following question, a word has been used in sentences in four different ways. Choose the option corresponding to the sentence in
which the usage of the word is incorrect or inappropriate.
MEANS
Explanation:
'Means' in [1] correctly means 'intends'. In [3], the word is a noun meaning 'strategy' or 'method' (note that in such a usage, the word can
be considered singular, so the verb 'is' is not incorrect). 'By all means' is a phrase that means 'certainly'. So options [1], [3] and [4] are
correct. Only [2] involves an incorrect usage: the correct phrase should be 'by means of', meaning 'with the help of', not 'with means of'.
Hence, [2].

Question: 65
The following question has a paragraph from which the last sentence has been deleted. From the given options, choose the sentence that
completes the paragraph in the most appropriate way.

While there are many different chemicals falling into the category termed 'salts' by chemists, to laypeople 'salt' means sodium chloride.
That's the salt that we crave, season our food with, consume too much of, and get sick from. Today, salt comes from a salt-shaker on
every dining table and ultimately from a supermarket, is cheap, and is available in essentially unlimited quantities. Our bodies' main
problem with salt is to get rid of it, which we do copiously in our urine and in our sweat. Traditionally, though, salt didn't come from salt-
shakers but had to be extracted from the environment somehow. Imagine what the world used to be like before salt-shakers became
ubiquitous.
Explanation:
Option [4] could fit earlier in the paragraph where the present situation regarding salt is described, but it does not flow from the last
sentence of the given paragraph, which is about the situation in the past. 'Hence', in [3], renders it incorrect as the last sentence of the
paragraph asks readers to 'imagine' a past scenario. [1] could seem like an appropriate answer but it would make more sense after a
sentence like [2], which establishes that it was very difficult to acquire salt. [2] best completes the paragraph, as it provides a suitable
contrast, in a similar format, to the earlier sentence 'Our bodies' main problem with salt is to get rid of it'. So we can see that the first part
of the paragraph describes the present abundance of salt, with its resulting problem, while the second half describes the past scarcity,
with its accompanying problem. Hence, [2].

Question: 66
Refer to the data below and answer the questions that follow.
Total five teams participated in a one-day cricket tournament. They wereIndia, South Africa, New Zealand, Sri Lanka and Australia.
Following are the highlights and scoring rules of the tournament:
i.Each team plays against every other team exactly once.
ii.Every match can result in a win for one team or a draw. If the winning team wins by a margin of minimum 100 runs or by 10 wickets,it is
1) She means for you to go to the shop instead of her.
2) The only way across the river is with means of a narrow footbridge.
3) The most effective means for dealing with this problem is to ignore it.
4) By all means, go ahead dont let us interrupt your routine.
1) Back then, illnesses resulting from overconsumption of salt were rare.
2) Our main problem with salt then was to acquire it rather than to get rid of it.
3) Hence traditional peoples craved salt and went to great lengths to obtain it.
4) Even now, anyone forced to live on a low-sodium diet can attest to pangs of longing for salt.
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said to have won the match comprehensively. Otherwise it is said to have won the match routinely.
iii.In a match that ends in a draw, both teams are awarded one point each. In a match that does not end in a draw, 3 points are awarded to
winning team and no point is awarded to a losing team.
iv.Additional two bonus points are awarded to a winning team that wins a match comprehensively.
v.Match between India and Australia resulted in a draw.
vi.Only two teams were awarded additional bonus points for winning by a margin of 100 runs or by 10 wickets and no team won more
than one match comprehensively
vii.Final point count of India, South Africa, New Zealand, Sri Lanka and Australia at the end of the tournament are 12, 7, 6, 5 and 1
respectively.
viii. Maximum number of matches drawn by a team was 2.

Out of five teams, for how many teams the number of matches won, lost and drawn can be definitely determined?
Explanation:
1) 5
2) 4
3) 3
4) 2
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Question: 67
Refer to the data below and answer the questions that follow.

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What was the result of the match between New Zealand and Australia?
Explanation:
1) New Zealand won routinely
2) New Zealand won comprehensively
3) Australia won routinely
4) The match ended in a draw
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Question: 68
Refer to the data below and answer the questions that follow.
Which of the following matches ended in a draw?
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I. South Africa Vs. Sri Lanka
II. New Zealand Vs. Sri Lanka
III. South Africa Vs. New Zealand
Explanation:
1) Both I and II
2) Both II and III
3) Both I and III
4) All I, II and III
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Question: 69
Refer to the data below and answer the questions that follow.
Which of the following statement/s is/are correct?
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I. Atleast one match played by each team ended in a draw.
II. WinLossDraw table for exactly two teams looked similar that is they won, lost and drew equal number of matches.
Explanation:
1) I only
2) II only
3) Both I and II
4) Neither I nor II
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Question: 70
The passage given below is followed by a set of questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question.
What do we mean by colour? This might seem uncontentious enough. In spite of the old solipsism that I can never know if my experience
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of red is the same as yours, we all agree when the term is appropriate and when it is not. Yet there are hordes of lower-level colour
terms in most modern languages over which the scope for dispute is limitless: when does puce become russet, burgundy, rust-red? This is
partly a matter for perceptual psychology; but the language of colour reveals much about the way we conceptualize the world. Linguistic
considerations are often central to an interpretation of the historical use of colour in art.
Pliny claimed that painters in Classical Greece used only four colours: black, white, red and yellow. This noble and restrained palette, he
said, is the proper choice for all sober-minded painters. After all, didnt Apelles, the most famous painter of that golden age, choose to limit
himself within this austere range?
We cannot check the accuracy of this claim, for all of Apelles works are lost, along with almost every other painting his culture produced.
Yet we do know that the ancient Greeks possessed a considerably wider range of pigments than these four. As for the Romans, no fewer
than twenty-nine pigments have been identified in the ruins of Pompeii. Might Pliny have exaggerated the paucity of Apelles palette? And
if so, why? In part, the reason might be metaphysical: four primary colours equate neatly with the Aristotelian quartet of elements: earth,
air, fire, water. But the breadth of colour use in classical painting may also be obscured by linguistics. In interpreting archaic writings on
the use of colour in art, there is, for example, ample scope for confusion between red and green. The medieval term sinople could refer to
either red or green until at least the fifteenth century. The Latin word caeruleum carries a similar ambiguity between yellow and blue.
There is no Latin word for brown or grey, but this does not imply that the Roman artists did not recognize or use brown earth pigments.
How could red and green ever be conflated? From a modern-day perspective this appears absurd, because we have in our minds Isaac
Newtons rainbow spectrum and its corresponding colour terminology, with its seven bands firmly delineated. The Greeks saw a different
spectrum, with white at one end and black at the other or more properly, light and dark. All the colours lay along the scale between these
two extremes, being admixtures of light and dark in different degrees. Yellow was towards the light end (it appears the brightest of colours
for physiological reasons). Red and green were both considered median colours, midway between light and dark and so in some sense
equivalent. The reliance of medieval scholars on Classical Greek texts ensured that this colour scale was perpetuated for centuries after
the temples of Athens stood in ruins. In the tenth century AD, the monk Heraclius still classified all colours as black, white and
intermediate.
Thus whether or not an artist considers two hues to be different colours or variants of the same colour is largely a linguistic issue. The
Celtic word glas refers to the colour of mountain lakes and straddles the range from a brownish-green to blue. The Japanese awo can
mean green, blue or dark, depending on the context; Vietnamese and Korean also decline to distinguish green from blue. Some
languages have only three or four colour terms.

Which of the following, if true, does not explain why Pliny claimed that painters in Classical Greece used only four colours?
Explanation:
The author himself speculates that Plinys motivation in claiming that Greek painters used only four colours might be metaphysical, i.e.
his views could be shaped by his cultures philosophical inclination towards simplicity. So [2] can be considered to explain either why
Plinys claimed this (whether or not he was truthful) or why the Greek painters actually used only four colours. If either [1] or [3] is true, it
would suggest that the ancient Greeks really used more than four colours, but called them by only four names i.e. the limited colour
names do not accurately reflect the actual number of colours used. This could still explain Plinys claim which could have been about only
the main or named colours. However, [4], if true, simply contradicts Plinys claim: if the painters mixed the four colours together to create
more colours, then they cannot be said to have used only four colours. So, [4] doesnt explain at all why Pliny claimed what he did. Hence,
[4].

Question: 71
The passage given below is followed by a set of questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question.

Choose a suitable title for this passage.
1) There were only four basic words for colours in the ancient Greek language.
2) Using a simplistic colour palette was in keeping with the austere Greek philosophy.
3) The Classical Greeks considered colours such as blue and purple to be shades of black.
4) Classical Greek painters mixed the four colours together in various ways to create a wider range of colours in their work.
1) The Language of Colour
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Explanation:
Option [2] is not a suitable title, as it refers to only one example in the passage, not its overall topic. [3] is rather vague, as it does not
indicate just how colour differed in the past and present. Also, it fails to cover a vital point in the passage, i.e. the importance of the names
of colours. [4] sets up a false dichotomy, as the passage does not contrast the naming of colours to how they are perceived. The best title
is [1], as the passage focuses on how colours are or are not differentiated, based on how they were named in the past and how they are
named in various languages. Hence, [1].

Question: 72
The passage given below is followed by a set of questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question.

Why, according to the author, did ancient people refer to red and green using the same terms?
Explanation:
Refer to the penultimate paragraph where this supposed paradox is explained. According to the author, the ancient Greeks thought of
colour differently than we modern people do: they categorized colour in terms of brightness, and in their scheme, red and green were of
similar brightness, and therefore considered similar colours. Therefore, the answer is [3]. Note that there is no evidence that they
physically saw colours differently, just that they thought about them differently, so [1] is wrong. There is no basis for [4] in the passage. [2]
merely repeats the question rather than answering it. Hence, [3].

Question: 73
The passage given below is followed by a set of questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question.

The author of this passage is least likely to be a/an:
Explanation:
The author discusses minute aspects of art history knowledgeably such as the colours used in Classical Greek painting or the pigments
available to the ancient Romans so [2] is quite likely. By the same token, he could be a historian in general as well. He may be a linguist,
considering that the focus of the passage is on the language terms used for colour (see especially the last three sentences of the third
paragraph, and the whole last paragraph). So [2], [3] and [4] are quite likely. But there is no particular reason the author would be an artist
one does not need to be an artist to write about an art-related subject and there is no intricate knowledge of art the author seems to
possess. Hence, [1].

Question: 74
The following question has a sentence with two blanks. Given below it are four pairs of words. Choose the pair that best completes the
sentence.
For a few hours the imperial couple pretended to be an oriental ______ and his consort, not the ______ rulers of a rapidly modernizing
2) Colour in Classical Greek Art
3) Colour: In the Past and Present
4) Colour: Nomenclature vs. Perception
1) They saw colours differently than we modern people do.
2) They had only one word to cover both colours, viz. sinople.
3) In their colour scheme, red and green were nearly the same.
4) They deliberately did so in order to get around the colour restrictions in art.
1) artist.
2) art historian.
3) historian.
4) linguist.
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empire.
Explanation:
All the words for the first blank denote types of rulers, so all of them could fit. So we need to look at the words for the second blank to find
the answer. 'Anomalous', which means 'abnormal', does not fit at all. There is no reason why an 'imperial couple' would be 'anarchistic',
i.e. 'promoting revolt against established rule'. Though some rulers could be described as 'androgynous', meaning 'having both masculine
and feminine characteristics',there is no hint of such a thing in the given sentence. The clue lies in the phrase 'rapidly modernizing'. So the
rulers could be 'anachronistic', i.e. 'belonging to an earlier period of time'. Hence, [3].

Question: 75
The following question has a sentence with two blanks. Given below it are four pairs of words. Choose the pair that best completes the
sentence.
Whether the art of writing was introduced into India from outside, or whether it was an ______ development, is still a ______ point.
Explanation:
'An' before the first blank immediately rules out 'vernacular'; similarly, 'a' before the second one rules out 'arguable'. 'Innate' means
'inborn', which cannot be applied to a 'development' such as the introduction of writing in India. However, 'indigenous', which means
'native', can fit into the first blank. A 'moot' point is a 'debatable' or 'doubtful' one. Hence, [4].

Question: 76
The following question has a paragraph from which the last sentence has been deleted. From the given options, choose the sentence that
completes the paragraph in the most appropriate way.
The first thing that strikes a traveller in India is its extraordinary variety of architectural styles. For example, a south Indian temple of the
twelfth century bears no resemblance to a contemporary temple at, say, Khajuraho in central India, or Mount Abu in the west, or Orissa in
the east. Likewise, it is extremely difficult to distinguish any chronological development of styles. A prominent feature like the curvilinear
tower suddenly appears from nowhere no debut as a small protuberance on the roof steadily evolving into the massive superstructure
that characterizes the Orissa temples. Instead, it is first found as a fully developed architectural feature. The bulbous dome too, an equally
distinctive feature, this time of Islamic architecture, suddenly appears from nowhere. Only in this case there is an obvious explanation: the
dome might not in fact be Indian. Islamic conquerors must have brought the idea with them from Persia or Central Asia.
Explanation:
The paragraph suggests that there is a certain amount of mystery regarding the variety of Indian architecture and the sudden appearance
of certain architectural forms. The last sentence of the given paragraph explains a part of the mystery: the bulbous dome appears
suddenly because it is not of Indian origin, but rather a foreign import. So [1] cannot be the concluding sentence, as it abruptly reverses
1) autocrat anomalous
2) sovereign androgynous
3) potentate anachronistic
4) despot anarchistic
1) innate controversial
2) vernacular debatable
3) autochthonous arguable
4) indigenous moot
1)
Apart from such exceptions, though, most of India's monuments are testimony to indigenous civilization and products of
native craftsmen.
2)
The architecture of the Mughal Period, in particular, shows a very good blend of Indian style with the Persia and Central
Asian styles.
3) Could there be a similar explanation for the innovations and variations of all Indo-Islamic architecture?
4) How much more, then, of Indian architecture could be of alien origin?
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position by stating that all other Indian monuments are of native origin. [2] ignores the mystery altogether, so it is not a suitable conclusion
either. The paragraph is about variety in Indian architecture in general, and not just in Indo-Islamic architecture, so [3] has too narrow a
focus. [4] is the best concluding sentence, as it is about Indian architecture in general and ends on a questioning note. Hence, [4].

Question: 77
Refer to the data below and answer the questions that follow.
Alex, Brian, Chris, Dennis, George, Harry, Kenneth and Mike are eight friends. Two of them are alumni of MIT, Stanford, Harvard and
Cambridge Universities each while two of them have specialized in the fields of Finance, Marketing, Operations and Systems each.
Further following information is known:
1) No two alumni of same University specialize in same fields.
2) Harry and Brian are alumni of the same University while Chris and Alex have specialized in the same field.
3) George is an alumnus of Harvard while Dennis is an alumnus of MIT.
4) Kenneth has specialized in Marketing while Mike has specialized in Systems.
5) Two persons who have specialized in Finance are from MIT and Harvard.
6) Alex is not an alumnus of MIT while Chris has not specialized in Finance.
7) Any person who has specialized in Systems is not from MIT while any alumnus of Cambridge has not specialized in Systems.
8) Two alumni of Stanford have specialized in Marketing and Systems.

Which field has Harry specialized in?
Explanation:
1) Systems
2) Finance
3) Marketing
4) Cannot be determined
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Question: 78
Refer to the data below and answer the questions that follow.

Who among the following is an alumnus of Harvard?
Explanation:

Question: 79
Refer to the data below and answer the questions that follow.

Which of the following combinations is correct?
Explanation:
1) Chris
2) Harry
3) Mike
4) Kenneth
1) ChrisMITOperations
2) HarryCambridgeMarketing
3) KennethMITMarketing
4) BrianHarvardFinance
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Question: 80
Refer to the data below and answer the questions that follow.

Which college did Alex study from?
Explanation:
1) Cambridge
2) Stanford
3) MIT
4) Harvard
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Question: 81
The passage given below is followed by a set of questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question.
If you force children to explain complex notions, such as how to balance competing concerns about rights and justice, youre guaranteed
to find age trends because children get so much more articulate with each passing year. But if you are searching for the first appearance
of a moral concept, then youd better find a technique that doesnt require much verbal skill. Elliot Turiel developed such a technique. His
innovation was to tell children short stories about other kids who break rules and then give them a series of simple yes-or-no probe
questions. For example, you tell a story about a child who goes to school wearing regular clothes, even though his school requires
students to wear a uniform. You start by getting an overall judgment: Is that OK, what the boy did? Most kids say no. You ask if theres a
rule about what to wear. (Yes.) Then you probe to find out what kind of rule it is: What if the teacher said it was OK for the boy to wear
his regular clothes, then would it be OK? and What if this happened in another school, where they dont have any rules about uniforms,
then would it be OK?
Turiel discovered that children as young as five usually say that the boy was wrong to break the rule, but that it would be OK if the teacher
gave permission or if it happened in another school where there was no such rule. Children recognize that rules about clothing, food and
many other aspects of life are social conventions, which are arbitrary and changeable to some extent.
But if you ask kids about actions that hurt other people, such as a girl who pushes a boy off a swing because she wants to use it, you get
a very different set of responses. Nearly all kids say that the girl was wrong and that shed be wrong even if the teacher said it was OK,
and even if this happened in another school where there were no rules about pushing kids off swings. Children recognize that rules that
prevent harm are moral rules, which Turiel defined as rules related to justice, rights and welfare pertaining to how people ought to relate
to each other.
In other words, young children dont treat all rules the same, as Piaget and Kohlberg had supposed. Kids cant talk like moral
philosophers, but they are busy sorting social information in a sophisticated way. They seem to grasp early on that rules that prevent harm
are special, important, unalterable and universal. And this realization, Turiel said, was the foundation of all moral development. Children
construct their moral understanding on the bedrock of the absolute moral truth that harm is wrong. Specific rules may vary across cultures,
but in all of the cultures Turiel examined, children still made a distinction between moral rules and conventional rules.
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The political implications of Turiels account of moral development are: morality is about treating individuals well. Its about harm and
fairness (not loyalty, duty, respect, piety, patriotism or tradition). Hierarchy and authority are generally bad things (so its best to let kids
figure things out for themselves). Schools and families should therefore embody progressive principles of equality and autonomy (not
authoritarian principles that enable elders to train and constrain children).
Based on the definitions given in the passage, classify the following as conventional rules (C) or moral rules (M).

i] You must always respect your parents.
ii] You must not spread rumours about people.
iii] You must visit a place of worship (temple/church/mosque/etc.) at least once a week.
Explanation:
According to the passage, moral rules are those rules that prevent harm, and are related to 'justice, rights and welfare pertaining to how
people ought to relate to each other'. Conventional rules are 'arbitrary and changeable' rules regarding 'clothing, food and many other
aspects of life', which 'may vary across cultures'. So, based on these definitions, [i] and [iii] are conventional rules, as they may vary
across cultures, and breaking them does not involve harming anyone. On the other hand, [ii] is a moral rule, as spreading rumours could
hurt the people who are the subject of these rumours. (Please note that you must classify these statements only as per the definitions
given in the passage, whether you personally consider them moral or not.) Hence, [1].

Question: 82
The passage given below is followed by a set of questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question.

What is this passage about?
Explanation:
As the passage is primarily about experiments to find out about childrens moral views, [1], which does not mention children at all, cannot
be the answer. Since the focus is on the experiments and not the role that morality plays in childrens regular lives, [4] is also incorrect.
The experiments are not meant to see how childrens morality is unique in some way or different than adults rather, the implication is
that their moral reasoning is the same as adults. So [2] is not quite correct. The intention of the experiments described in the passage is
to find the first appearance of a moral concept in children and see how even children as young as five can use sophisticated moral
reasoning. Hence, [3].

Question: 83
The passage given below is followed by a set of questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question.

Which of the following would the author of this passage agree with?
1) CMC
2) MMM
3) MMC
4) CCC
1) The difference between conventional and moral rules
2) The difference between the moral views of children and adults
3) The origins and development of moral reasoning in children
4) The role of morality in children's lives
1) Most of the rules that we follow in everyday life are arbitrary conventions.
2) Children need to be taught to distinguish right from wrong from an early age.
3) Values like loyalty, duty, etc. are unimportant in comparison to fairness and preventing harm.
4) None of the above
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Explanation:
Though the author does mention that many types of rules of daily life are arbitrary social conventions, saying that 'most' of them are
arbitrary is an exaggeration which he would not necessarily agree with. The implication of the experiments in this passage is that children
innately know right from wrong, so [2] would be unnecessary. The reference to values like loyalty, duty, etc. in the last paragraph is with
regards to the implications of Turiel's experiment, not the author's personal view, so [3] cannot be inferred. Therefore the author would
agree with none of these. Hence, [4].

Question: 84
The passage given below is followed by a set of questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question.
Which of the following, if true, would undermine the authors conclusions regarding Turiels experiment, as stated in the last paragraph?
i] Though it is important to teach children to treat individuals well, not teaching them about social conventions would result in chaos in
society.
ii] There is no point in basing childrens education only on principles that they already consider important (such as harm and fairness)
instead of the ones they dont (loyalty, duty, etc.).
iii] Just because children can distinguish between moral and conventional rules does not mean that these are innate, i.e. that they havent
been taught to them by their parents and teachers.
Explanation:
In this passage, Turiel's experiment deals with the development of morality in young children, and how they differentiate between moral
and conventional rules. In the last paragraph, the author states his conclusions regarding Turiel's experiment, especially regarding
children's education and upbringing. [i] is a non sequitur: Turiel's experiment does not suggest that children should not be taught about
social conventions rather they already know about social conventions. [iii] is irrelevant: the issue isn't whether the children's moral views
are taught or innate. So both [i] and [iii] are incorrect. On the other hand, [ii] suggests that it is pointless to inculcate the principles that
children already understand, as opposed to focusing on the ones they don't. So [ii] undermines the author's conclusions involving how
children should be raised, as stated in the last paragraph. Hence, [1].

Question: 85
Three out of four sentences in the options, when correctly sequenced, form a coherent paragraph. Which of the following sentences does
not fit into the context?
1] So not only do we know how old the Earth actually is, we also know (because we understand how long it will take the Sun to exhaust its
fuel) how old the Earth will get.
2] Since the universe began, 13.7 billion years ago (plus or minus 0.2 billion), stars like our sun have been forming, burning and blowing
up, their nuclear fusion furnaces making progressively heavier elements out of hydrogen the simplest and most abundant atom.
3] Although the Earth is about 4.7 billion years old at the moment, it is actually a galactic youngster the universe was already 9 billion
years old when the Earth started to form from cosmic dust and debris.
4] The Earths lifespan is determined by the Sun, which will engulf our world in its death throes.
Explanation:
Sentences [1], [3] and [4] are about the lifespan of the Earth, and can be arranged in a coherent sequence: [3]-[4]-[1]. Sentence [2], which
is about elements formed by the sun, clearly does not fit into this context. Hence, [2].
1) Only [ii]
2) Only [iii]
3) [i] and [ii]
4) [i] and [iii]
1) 1
2) 2
3) 3
4) 4
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Question: 86
Three out of four sentences in the options, when correctly sequenced, form a coherent paragraph. Which of the following sentences does
not fit into the context?
1] Music making has become an activity somewhat reserved for specialists, and the rest of us listen.
2] Nowadays there is great emphasis on technique and skill, and whether a musician is good enough to play for others.
3] Why do we listen to music, and why are we willing to spend so much money on music listening?
4] A few generations ago, before television, many families would sit around and play music together for entertainment.
Explanation:
Sentences [1] and [2] which make related points about the specialization of music making are clearly linked. [2], which describes the
situation nowadays, forms a contrast to [4], which is about the situation a few generations ago. So the logical sequence is [4]-[2]-[1]. But
[3] does not fit this sequence, as the question asked in it is on a tangential point, and is not answered in the rest of the sentences. Hence,
[3].

Question: 87
In the following question, there are sentences that form a paragraph. Identify the sentence(s) or part(s) of sentence(s) that are correct in
terms of grammar and usage (including spelling, punctuation and logical consistency). Then, choose the most appropriate option.
A. It took more than a hundred and twenty years to chart the first thousand asteroids, since the discovery of Ceres, the largest of these
tiny worlds, on the very first day of the nineteenth century.
B. Hundreds were found and lost and found again; they exist in such swarms that one exasperated astronomer christened them vermin of
the skies.
C. Only the five giants Ceres, Pallas, Juno, Eunomia and Vesta are more than two hundred kilometres in diameter, the vast majority
are merely oversized boulders that would fit into a small park.
D. Almost all move in orbits that lay beyond Mars; only a few come far enough sunwards to be a possible danger to Earth.
Explanation:
There is a punctuation error in C: there should be a semicolon after 'diameter', not a comma, so as to prevent a run-on sentence. There is
a tense error in D: 'lay' (which is the past tense of 'lie') should be in the simple present tense, as the sentence is about a general scientific
fact (the movement of asteroids). Note that 'exist' in B is correctly in the simple present for the same reason. Only A and B are correct.
Hence, [1].

Question: 88
Refer to the data below and answer the questions that follow.
1) 1
2) 2
3) 3
4) 4
1) A & B
2) B & C
3) C & D
4) A & D
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Given above is a square grid of 64 small squares of 1 sq unit each .1 unit of the grid is equivalent to 100 km. The grid is used to represent
a road map of 7 cities i.e A,B,C,D,E,F & G (namely Ahmedabad ,Bengaluru,Chennai,Delhi,Erode,Faridabad and Ghaziabad not
necessarily in that order).The cities can only be reached by road travelling along the grid lines shown in the diagram.The shaded area
represents a forbidden region i.e one cannot travel along the vertices and gridlines bordering /passing through these regions.The following
information is also available
1. Bengaluru is equidistant from Delhi and Ahmedabad (travelling using shortest possible route)
2. Shortest route between Faridabad and Delhi is 800 km
3. Shortest route between Chennai and Ahmedabad is 400 km
4. Shortest route between Ghaziabad and Bengaluru is 200 km
5. Shortest route between Faridabad and Erode is 600 km.
6. City E is not Bengaluru

City C is :
Explanation:
Following condition (4) either E & B are Ghaziabad and Bengaluru or E & A are Ghaziabad and Bengaluru
Case 1 : E is Ghaziabad and B is Bengaluru.Now in this case onlyA can be Delhi and D can be Ahmedabad as if G is Ahmedabadthen
there is no other place which is at an equal distance from Bengaluru.If A is Delhi,then only F can be Faridabad( at a distance of 800
km).But then Erode has to be City C ,which is at a distance of 800km from Faridabad,which violates the last condition .So this case is not
possible
Case 2 : E is Ghaziabad and A is Bengaluru.Now the only 2 cities which are equidistant from Bengaluru are F & D (both 800 km from
Bengaluru).Now only Ahmedabad can be City D as only D has a City G400 km from it .So City G is Chennai and City F is Delhi.800 km
from Delhi is City C,which is Faridabad as per the second condition,which leaves only City B as Erode,which satisfies the last condition
Now we can answer all the questions
City C is Faridabad. Hence, [2].

Question: 89
Refer to the data below and answer the questions that follow.

What is the shortest distance between Bengaluru and Chennai?
1) Delhi
3) Erode
1) 800 km
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Explanation:
Following condition (4) either E & B are Ghaziabad and Bengaluru or E & A are Ghaziabad and Bengaluru
Case 1 : E is Ghaziabad and B is Bengaluru.Now in this case onlyA can be Delhi and D can be Ahmedabad as if G is Ahmedabadthen
there is no other place which is at an equal distance from Bengaluru.If A is Delhi,then only F can be Faridabad( at a distance of 800
km).But then Erode has to be City C ,which is at a distance of 800km from Faridabad,which violates the last condition .So this case is not
possible
Case 2 : E is Ghaziabad and A is Bengaluru.Now the only 2 cities which are equidistant from Bengaluru are F & D (both 800 km from
Bengaluru).Now only Ahmedabad can be City D as only D has a City G400 km from it .So City G is Chennai and City F is Delhi.800 km
from Delhi is City C,which is Faridabad as per the second condition,which leaves only City B as Erode,which satisfies the last condition
Now we can answer all the questions
Shortest distance between Bengaluru (City A) & Chennai (City G) is 1200 km.
Hence, [3].

Question: 90
Refer to the data below and answer the questions that follow.

If one has to travel from Delhi to Ahmedabad via Erode what is the shortest distance one hasto travel ?
Explanation:
Following condition (4) either E & B are Ghaziabad and Bengaluru or E & A are Ghaziabad and Bengaluru
Case 1 : E is Ghaziabad and B is Bengaluru.Now in this case onlyA can be Delhi and D can be Ahmedabad as if G is Ahmedabadthen
there is no other place which is at an equal distance from Bengaluru.If A is Delhi,then only F can be Faridabad( at a distance of 800
km).But then Erode has to be City C ,which is at a distance of 800km from Faridabad,which violates the last condition .So this case is not
possible
Case 2 : E is Ghaziabad and A is Bengaluru.Now the only 2 cities which are equidistant from Bengaluru are F & D (both 800 km from
Bengaluru).Now only Ahmedabad can be City D as only D has a City G400 km from it .So City G is Chennai and City F is Delhi.800 km
from Delhi is City C,which is Faridabad as per the second condition,which leaves only City B as Erode,which satisfies the last condition
Now we can answer all the questions
If one has to travel from Delhi (City F) to Ahmedabad(City D) via City Erode (City B) one has to travel 1400 km. Hence, [4].

Question: 91
Refer to the data below and answer the questions that follow.

Erode is
Explanation:
2) 1000 km
3) 1200 km
4) 1400km
1) 800 km
2) 1000 km
3) 1200 km
4) 1400 km
1) City A
2) City B
3) City C
4) City D
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Erode is City B. Hence, [2].

Question: 92
The passage given below is followed by a set of questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question.
Fire is a bonus for many species, destroying parasites and competitors, providing warmth and light, clearing land and improving visibility,
and attracting and scattering nutritious prey. The ancestors of human beings may have come to appreciate the value of fire probably long
before subsequent generations discovered how to create and maintain it. Archaeological records provide ample evidence of fires
occurring spontaneously as a result of volcanic action, sunlight, lightning, build-ups of gases from millions of years ago onwards. So
our ancestors would have had plenty of opportunities to observe fires, develop strategies for coping with them and even benefit from them.
It is not clear when humans began to use fire. Some debated findings suggest that the australopithecines, distant ancestors of Homo
sapiens, could have been using fire at Makapansgat, in South Africa, 1.5 million years ago, while others put the figure at only 500,000
years ago, which would make fire a new tool in the repertoire of Homo erectus. A novel find in 2004 suggests that Homo erectus may well
have used fire some 790,000 years ago. Experts think that the control of fire encouraged social interaction, enabled dramatic changes in
the diet of proto-humans and gave them the ability to defend themselves against wild animals.
Fire would certainly have offered early humans huge advantages with respect to survival and reproduction; so there would have been a
strong incentive to learn how to create as well as control it. Sterkfontein, a South African cave, provides a classic illustration of how fire
helped the balance of power to shift towards intelligent humans, and away from brawny beasts. Early layers of the cave reveal humans to
be the prey of big cats; in later ones, contemporaneous with evidence of human-made fire, the predators are being consumed by us.
By burning scrubland, fires enabled human hunters to see their prey more clearly. Cooked food was easier to chew and digest, and could
also be preserved for longer, leaving more time for activities not related to hunting or gathering. Fire may also have become a useful
element in the hunt itself. Evidence in Spain suggests humans might have used fires to drive herds of large mammals including
elephants off a precipice; a lazy way of butchering in volume.
Fire lent us a massive advantage. The burning of scrubland also encouraged the growth of edible grasses and legumes exactly the
plants that humans would later come to domesticate. In addition to being edible by us, these first crops would have attracted hosts of
small game to the site, which could then be picked off at will.
It is impossible to imagine farming without fire. For a start, the cereal crops first domesticated were only truly edible as a result of fire
either boiled into a pottage or baked into a crude bread. Fire would have attracted small pack animals to the fringes of human settlements,
where humans would have captured them and domesticated them. Most importantly of all, it cleared the land and replenished its
resources. In numerous tribal groups, land is still claimed by means of setting light to it: man establishes his perceived dominion over
nature with fire, as he almost certainly did 10,00012,000 years ago, when global warming coincided with a population bulge. At this point
the need for new territory might well have necessitated mass torching of the land. As areas became settled, the occupants re-enacted the
original claiming fire every two years or so, aware that the ashes would revivify and enrich the soil. This classic slash and burn
technique continues in some parts of the world to this day.

The main topic of this passage is:
Explanation:
The passage does not talk about fire in cultural terms at all, so [2] is incorrect. [3] is only the topic of the second paragraph, not the whole
passage. While the passage does mention a number of uses of fire in daily life, that is not the main focus of the passage. The passage is
about how ancestral humans tamed fire, and used it to their advantages over the millennia in a number of ways, which still continue to this
day. So [4] best sums up the main topic of the passage. Hence, [4].

Question: 93
The passage given below is followed by a set of questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question.

1) The uses of fire in daily life
2) The significance of fire in human cultures
3) The discovery of fire by ancestral humans
4) The importance of the domestication of fire
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Which of these is not one of the advantages of fire mentioned in this passage?
Explanation:
In the last paragraph, it is stated that fire would have attracted small pack animals that humans could tame, so [2] is correct. [3] is also
stated in the last paragraph: the ashes would revivify and enrich the soil. [4] is stated in the second paragraph. Only [1] is not
mentioned anywhere in the passage. Hence, [1].

Question: 94
The passage given below is followed by a set of questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question.

Which of the following is not true regarding the relationship of ancestral humans with fire?
Explanation:
Option [1] is a paraphrase of the second sentence of paragraph 1. [2] is inferable from the different dates given in paragraph 2. [4] is
stated in the first sentence of paragraph 3. Only [3] is incorrect: according to paragraph 2, the findings that indicate that ancestral humans
could have been using fire 1.5 million years ago were from Makapansgat in South Africa, not Sterkfontein. Hence, [3].

Question: 95
The passage given below is followed by a set of questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question.

Mark the statement that is neither definitely true nor definitely false, as per this passage.
Explanation:
Option [2] is clearly stated regarding cereal crops in the second sentence of the last paragraph, so it is definitely true. [3] is also true, as it
can be inferred from the last two sentences of paragraph 3. [4], on the other hand, is definitely false, as, according to the last paragraph
global warming coincided with a population bulge 10,00012,000 years ago. So none of these are the right answer. Only [1] is neither
true nor false as per the passage, as the potential harm caused by fire is not mentioned at all in this passage, so nothing can be inferred
about it. Hence, [1].

Question: 96
The following question has a sentence with a blank. Given below it are four words. Choose the word that best completes the sentence.

Simplicity is not the ultimate ______ of aesthetic merit indeed, in music and visual art, there appears to be an optimal level of complexity
below which preference declines.
1) Fire helps in the forging of tools.
2) Fire helps attract useful animals.
3) Fire helps enrich the soil for farming.
4) Fire encourages social interaction among people.
1) Ancestral humans were reaping the benefits of fire before they learnt to tame it.
2) Experts have been unable to agree as to when ancestral humans began to use fire.
3) Evidence from Sterkfontein in South Africa shows that ancestral humans could have been using fire 1.5 million years ago.
4) Ancestral humans would have been strongly motivated to learn to use fire to their advantage.
1) The benefits of fire outweigh any potential harm it may cause.
2) Certain plants can be made edible only with the help of fire.
3) The use of fire allowed proto-humans to go from being prey to predators.
4) A period of global warming 10,00012,000 years ago resulted in population decrease.
1) appurtenance
2) desideratum
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Explanation:
'Reliquary' (meaning a 'receptacle for relics') and 'parsimony' (meaning 'stinginess') make no sense in this context. 'Appurtenance',
meaning 'accessory', might fit. However, the rest of the sentence ('below which preference declines') suggests that the missing word
should mean something like 'goal' or 'desire'. So 'desideratum', which means 'something wanted or needed', is the best fit in this sentence.
Hence, [2].

Question: 97
The sentences given in the following question, when properly sequenced, form a coherent paragraph. Each sentence is labelled with a
letter. Choose the most logical order of sentences, from among the given choices, to construct a coherent paragraph.
A. When Bruscos boat reached the broad straight waterway that was the Long Canal, he turned it south for the fish market.

B. The sound would boom across the lagoon, faint with distance but still loud enough to wake the sleeping city.

C. The Long Canal ran beneath the green copper domes of the Palace of Truth and the tall square towers of the Prestayns and Antaryons
before passing under the immense grey arches of the sweetwater river to the district known as Silty Town, where the buildings were
smaller and less grand.

D. Brusco liked to reach the fish market just as the Titan roared to herald the coming of the sun.

E. Later in the day the canal would be choked with serpent boats and barges, but in the predawn darkness Bruscos boat had the
waterway almost to itself.
Explanation:
A makes a better opening sentence than C, as A introduces the Long Canal (the broad straight waterway that was the Long Canal) while
C describes it further. Chronology links E and D: in E, Bruscos boat is still on the canal, in the predawn darkness; D talks about the
moment Brusco would reach his destination (the fish market) at sunrise. B follows from D, as the sound in B can only refer to the roar
of the Titan mentioned in D. Therefore, the correct sequence is ACEDB. Hence, [2].

Question: 98
For the given word at the top of the table, match the dictionary definitions on the left (A, B, C, D) with their corresponding usages on the
right (E, F, G, H). Out of the four possibilities given in the boxes below the table, select the one that has all the definitions and their usages
correctly matched.

3) reliquary
4) parsimony
2) ACEDB
4) CAEBD
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Explanation:
Only option [4] matches all the meanings correctly with their respective usages. Hence, [4].

Question: 99
For the given word at the top of the table, match the dictionary definitions on the left (A, B, C, D) with their corresponding usages on the
right (E, F, G, H). Out of the four possibilities given in the boxes below the table, select the one that has all the definitions and their usages
correctly matched.

1) 1
2) 2
3) 3
4) 4
1) 1
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Explanation:
Only option [1] matches all the meanings correctly with their respective usages. Hence, [1].

Question: 100
Three out of four sentences in the options, when correctly sequenced, form a coherent paragraph. Which of the following sentences does
not fit into the context?
1] But people do not know the names of the characters in Beowulf, and, if they did, they still wouldnt know how to pronounce them:
Heoroweard, Ecgtheow, Daeghrefn.

2] The names of the heroes of the Iliad Achilles, Hector are well known, and in some parts of the world, babies are given these names.

3] Few people indeed, few literary scholars can read Beowulf in the original Old English.

4] The characters in the Iliad and the Odyssey, poems that were written down more than a millennium before Beowulf, are known even to
people who havent read their source.
Explanation:
Sentence [4] introduces the topic of the names of the characters of the Iliad, the Odyssey and Beowulf. [2] elaborates on this by
mentioning the names of characters of the Iliad, and [1] provides a contrast regarding the names of the characters of Beowulf. But [3] does
not fit into this sequence, as the issue of reading Beowulf in its original form is not directly connected to the topic of the names of the
characters. Hence, [3].
2) 2
3) 3
4) 4
1) 1
2) 2
3) 3
4) 4
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No part of this materials either in part oras a whole shall be copied,printed,electronically reproduced,sold or distributed without the written
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